1
Q
What are the key components of performance conversations for underperforming employees?
A
- Clarifying the issue or concern
- Identifying barriers to performance
- Supporting the employee to improve
These discussions should be two-way, involving managers and employees, focusing on areas for performance improvement.
2
Q
True or false: Performance conversations should only be one-sided, with managers providing feedback without allowing employee input.
A
FALSE
Performance conversations should be two-way, allowing employees to respond and share their perspectives.
3
Q
What should managers provide during performance conversations to aid understanding?
A
- Specific practical examples
- Constructive feedback
- Sufficient time for employee response
Listening carefully to employees is also crucial for effective communication.
4
Q
According to the Employment Relations Act 2000, what constitutes a personal grievance?
A
- Unjustifiable dismissal
- Disadvantage in employment
- Discrimination in employment
- Sexual or racial harassment
- Duress relating to union membership
These grievances can be raised against Police actions that are deemed unjustifiable.
5
Q
Fill in the blank: A personal grievance may arise from being ________ dismissed.
A
unjustifiably
This is one of the key components outlined in the Employment Relations Act 2000.
6
Q
What is the role of the District Lead in the Early Intervention process?
A
To contact the employee’s supervisor and support them in conducting Early Intervention meetings
The District Lead helps facilitate discussions about the employee’s situation.
7
Q
What is the purpose of the Early Intervention meeting?
A
To meet informally with an employee to discuss their Early Intervention information
The conversation is private and may involve open discussions about personal matters.
8
Q
True or false: Early Intervention always requires further action beyond the initial conversation.
A
FALSE
In most cases, the conversation with the employee may be sufficient.
9
Q
Define flexible working.
A
Any non-usual working arrangement, including changes to hours or days worked, and working from alternative locations
Flexible working differs from the flexible hours provided in the current Police Employee Collective Employment Agreement.
10
Q
What are the common options for Flexible Employment Arrangements (FEO)?
A
- Flexible hours
- Reduced hours
- Condensed hours
- Flexible days
- Varied roster
- Flexible job share
- Working remotely
These options allow for various working patterns to fit employee needs.
11
Q
What does flexi-time allow employees to do?
A
Work a set number of hours a week with varied timing from week to week
This arrangement provides flexibility in when hours are worked.
12
Q
What does reduced hours entail?
A
Working fewer hours each day or fewer hours on some days
Managers may apply the balance of hours elsewhere.
13
Q
What are condensed hours?
A
Working full-time hours across fewer days
This allows for longer periods off while maintaining full-time hours.
14
Q
What does job sharing involve?
A
Two people sharing the tasks and responsibilities of one full-time position
Each person works part-time and is entitled to leave according to their agreed hours.
15
Q
What is the condition for working remotely?
A
Technology and job type must permit it
Managers may allow employees to work from home or another location for an agreed pattern of hours/days.
16
Q
What is the role of a Police representative in a governance role for a third-party organisation?
A
Acting as a liaison and overseeing compliance with regulations
This role may involve managing relationships and ensuring proper conduct.
17
Q
List the activities involved in exercising discretionary powers.
A
- Licensing or vetting
- Using information from NIA or other Police systems
- Maintaining relationships with the media
- Managing staff or contractors
- Reviewing decisions involving Police
These activities require careful consideration to avoid conflicts of interest.
18
Q
True or false: A written management plan is always required for managing conflicts of interest.
A
FALSE
There is no set format for such plans; the key is clarity in preventing conflicts.
19
Q
What should a conflict of interest management plan clarify?
A
- Steps to prevent perceived or potential conflicts
- Confirmation that management actions will not unfairly discriminate
The plan should detail how to manage personal ties in a professional context.
20
Q
In a conflict of interest situation involving spouses, what alternative may be agreed upon?
A
Using an alternative reporting line
This may involve escalating decisions to a more senior individual without personal ties.
21
Q
What is essential for a conflict-of-interest management plan?
A
- Clear paper trail
- Shared and signed-off by senior management
Documentation ensures accountability and transparency in managing conflicts.
22
Q
Fill in the blank: Different people may use different approaches to develop a ________ management plan.
A
conflict-of-interest
Examples include preparing a POL258, writing a memo, or sending an email.
23
Q
What is the purpose of Section 90 regarding requisitioning powers?
A
To preserve human life during a state of emergency
This section allows a Controller or constable to direct the requisitioning of property necessary for safety.
24
Q
What types of property can be requisitioned under Section 90?
A
- Land
- Buildings
- Vehicles
- Animals
- Apparatus
- Equipment
- Food
- Medicines
- Medical supplies
The requisitioning can include various types of property deemed necessary for preservation of life.
25
What are some examples of **interests** that could create a **conflict of interest**?
* Relationships with family
* Membership in clubs or societies
* Financial interests in companies
* Holding another public office
* Political affiliations
* Secondary employment
* Acceptance of gifts
## Footnote
These interests may conflict with an individual's duties and responsibilities.
26
True or false: **Secondary employment** can create a conflict of interest.
TRUE
## Footnote
This includes roles such as being a social media influencer, which may conflict with primary job responsibilities.
27
What are some **roles at higher risk** of conflict of interest?
* Internal investigations
* Working in isolated communities
* Procurement
## Footnote
These roles may face greater scrutiny regarding potential conflicts due to their nature.
28
What is the purpose of **Section 90** regarding **requisitioning powers**?
To preserve human life during a state of emergency
## Footnote
This section allows a Controller or constable to direct the requisitioning of property necessary for safety.
29
What types of property can be requisitioned under **Section 90**?
* Land
* Buildings
* Vehicles
* Animals
* Apparatus
* Equipment
* Food
* Medicines
* Medical supplies
## Footnote
The requisitioning can include various types of property deemed necessary for preservation of life.
30
What are some examples of **interests** that could create a **conflict of interest**?
* Relationships with family
* Membership in clubs or societies
* Financial interests in companies
* Holding another public office
* Political affiliations
* Secondary employment
* Acceptance of gifts
## Footnote
These interests may conflict with an individual's duties and responsibilities.
31
True or false: **Secondary employment** can create a conflict of interest.
TRUE
## Footnote
This includes roles such as being a social media influencer, which may conflict with primary job responsibilities.
32
What are some **roles at higher risk** of conflict of interest?
* Internal investigations
* Working in isolated communities
* Procurement
## Footnote
These roles may face greater scrutiny regarding potential conflicts due to their nature.
33
What does **Unity of effort** ensure in response and recovery activities?
Common objectives are met by coordinating activities among functions and organisations involved
## Footnote
Unity of effort allows organisations with specific mandates to support each other while maintaining their own authorities.
34
True or false: **Responsive to community needs** means that response personnel must recognize an individual's rights and treat them with fairness and dignity.
TRUE
## Footnote
Response personnel must ensure the needs of affected people and animals are identified and met throughout the response and into recovery.
35
What is the role of communities during a response according to the principle of **Responsive to community needs**?
Communities must actively participate in a response rather than wait passively for assistance
## Footnote
Response personnel need to effectively communicate with communities to understand and align the community response.
36
According to Section 41(1) of the National Civil Defence Emergency Management Plan 2015, who is responsible for coordinating inquiries to assist family and trace missing persons?
New Zealand Police
## Footnote
This includes assisting families, whānau, and next of kin to make contact with each other.
37
Fill in the blank: An **emergency** means a situation that results from any happening, including natural disasters like earthquakes, floods, and _______.
technological failure
## Footnote
An emergency may cause loss of life, injury, or distress and cannot be dealt with by emergency services.
38
What are some examples of situations that can be classified as an **emergency**?
* Explosion
* Earthquake
* Tsunami
* Flood
* Serious fire
* Technological failure
* Epidemic
## Footnote
These situations may endanger public safety or property in New Zealand.
39
What is the theme of **emergency powers** related to?
Preservation of life
## Footnote
Emergency powers are enacted to ensure the safety and well-being of the public during crises.
40
What does **Unity of effort** ensure in response and recovery activities?
Common objectives are met by coordinating activities among functions and organisations involved
## Footnote
Unity of effort allows organisations with specific mandates to support each other while maintaining their own authorities.
41
True or false: **Responsive to community needs** means that response personnel must recognize an individual's rights and treat them with fairness and dignity.
TRUE
## Footnote
Response personnel must ensure the needs of affected people and animals are identified and met throughout the response and into recovery.
42
What is the role of communities during a response according to the principle of **Responsive to community needs**?
Communities must actively participate in a response rather than wait passively for assistance
## Footnote
Response personnel need to effectively communicate with communities to understand and align the community response.
43
According to Section 41(1) of the National Civil Defence Emergency Management Plan 2015, who is responsible for coordinating inquiries to assist family and trace missing persons?
New Zealand Police
## Footnote
This includes assisting families, whānau, and next of kin to make contact with each other.
44
Fill in the blank: An **emergency** means a situation that results from any happening, including natural disasters like earthquakes, floods, and _______.
technological failure
## Footnote
An emergency may cause loss of life, injury, or distress and cannot be dealt with by emergency services.
45
What are some examples of situations that can be classified as an **emergency**?
* Explosion
* Earthquake
* Tsunami
* Flood
* Serious fire
* Technological failure
* Epidemic
## Footnote
These situations may endanger public safety or property in New Zealand.
46
What is the theme of **emergency powers** related to?
Preservation of life
## Footnote
Emergency powers are enacted to ensure the safety and well-being of the public during crises.
47
What does **list - s24A(2)(c)** clarify regarding Police considerations?
Police may take into account any other relevant matters considered appropriate, no matter the source of that information
## Footnote
This provision allows for a broad interpretation of relevant information in police decision-making.
48
What are the **purposes of the Act** regarding firearms?
* Promote safe possession and use of firearms
* Impose controls on the possession and use of firearms
## Footnote
The Act aims to ensure responsible management of firearms and weapons.
49
Who can **revoke a firearms licence** according to section 27(2) of the Arms Act 1983?
A commissioned officer
## Footnote
This provision empowers specific officials to manage firearms licensing.
50
Under **s37 Family Violence Act 2018**, what must the bound person do?
Immediately surrender to a constable their firearms licence and any weapons in their possession or under their control
## Footnote
This is a protective measure in cases of family violence.
51
What is the primary focus of **Tactical-level Intelligence**?
Supports decision-makers and responders dealing with immediate tasks and incidents, normally driven by events in the demand environment
## Footnote
Tactical intelligence is crucial for real-time decision-making.
52
Define **Evaluation** in the context provided.
The assessment of data and information for reliability and credibility
## Footnote
Evaluation is essential for informed decision-making.
53
What is the final step of **AFCO** once the preferred course of action has been identified?
Develop an operational plan
## Footnote
The operational plan outlines roles, responsibilities, and phases of the operation.
54
What does **CIMS** define as an **incident**?
An event that needs a response from one or more agencies or organisations
## Footnote
This definition is crucial for emergency management and response coordination.
55
What are the components of **emergency management** referred to as the '**4Rs**'?
* Risk reduction
* Readiness (to respond)
* Response
* Recovery
## Footnote
These components guide effective emergency management strategies.
56
What does **list - s24A(2)(c)** clarify regarding Police considerations?
Police may take into account any other relevant matters considered appropriate, no matter the source of that information
## Footnote
This provision allows for a broad interpretation of relevant information in police decision-making.
57
What are the **purposes of the Act** regarding firearms?
* Promote safe possession and use of firearms
* Impose controls on the possession and use of firearms
## Footnote
The Act aims to ensure responsible management of firearms and weapons.
58
Who can **revoke a firearms licence** according to section 27(2) of the Arms Act 1983?
A commissioned officer
## Footnote
This provision empowers specific officials to manage firearms licensing.
59
Under **s37 Family Violence Act 2018**, what must the bound person do?
Immediately surrender to a constable their firearms licence and any weapons in their possession or under their control
## Footnote
This is a protective measure in cases of family violence.
60
What is the primary focus of **Tactical-level Intelligence**?
Supports decision-makers and responders dealing with immediate tasks and incidents, normally driven by events in the demand environment
## Footnote
Tactical intelligence is crucial for real-time decision-making.
61
Define **Evaluation** in the context provided.
The assessment of data and information for reliability and credibility
## Footnote
Evaluation is essential for informed decision-making.
62
What is the final step of **AFCO** once the preferred course of action has been identified?
Develop an operational plan
## Footnote
The operational plan outlines roles, responsibilities, and phases of the operation.
63
What does **CIMS** define as an **incident**?
An event that needs a response from one or more agencies or organisations
## Footnote
This definition is crucial for emergency management and response coordination.
64
What are the components of **emergency management** referred to as the '**4Rs**'?
* Risk reduction
* Readiness (to respond)
* Response
* Recovery
## Footnote
These components guide effective emergency management strategies.
65
What is the **scenario** involving a stolen vehicle observed by an I-Car?
A vehicle with a smashed quarter-light window, containing three occupants, was observed. The vehicle was stolen overnight.
## Footnote
The risk of ongoing offending/harm/victimisation is minimal, making a road pursuit not possible.
66
In the stolen vehicle scenario, what alternative tactics could be used instead of a **road pursuit**?
Other alternative tactics could be used
## Footnote
Specific tactics are not detailed, but they would be considered due to the low risk involved.
67
What is the **COR 30 process** for authorising the release of bodies earlier than 24 hours?
The NIIO sends a COR 30 form to a senior sergeant or officer above that rank at the DCC for the area of the death.
## Footnote
This process is initiated on the direction of the duty coroner.
68
What should be done if **visual ID** is not possible in a death investigation?
Consult with on call SAR for DVI advice and or attendance
## Footnote
This ensures proper identification procedures are followed.
69
What was the focus of **Te Raranga** regarding hate crimes?
* Support victims, witnesses, and communities to recognize and report hate-motivated offences
* Align partner agencies to reduce harm caused by hate
* Train staff to recognize, record, and respond to hate-motivated offences
## Footnote
These initiatives aim to enhance community safety and awareness.
70
Can police only use **s24A** to assess firearms eligibility?
No, s24A provides guidance on matters relevant to being fit and proper to possess firearms or airguns.
## Footnote
These factors are not exhaustive and are part of a broader assessment.
71
What is the **scenario** involving a stolen vehicle observed by an I-Car?
A vehicle with a smashed quarter-light window, containing three occupants, was observed. The vehicle was stolen overnight.
## Footnote
The risk of ongoing offending/harm/victimisation is minimal, making a road pursuit not possible.
72
In the stolen vehicle scenario, what alternative tactics could be used instead of a **road pursuit**?
Other alternative tactics could be used
## Footnote
Specific tactics are not detailed, but they would be considered due to the low risk involved.
73
What is the **COR 30 process** for authorising the release of bodies earlier than 24 hours?
The NIIO sends a COR 30 form to a senior sergeant or officer above that rank at the DCC for the area of the death.
## Footnote
This process is initiated on the direction of the duty coroner.
74
What should be done if **visual ID** is not possible in a death investigation?
Consult with on call SAR for DVI advice and or attendance
## Footnote
This ensures proper identification procedures are followed.
75
What was the focus of **Te Raranga** regarding hate crimes?
* Support victims, witnesses, and communities to recognize and report hate-motivated offences
* Align partner agencies to reduce harm caused by hate
* Train staff to recognize, record, and respond to hate-motivated offences
## Footnote
These initiatives aim to enhance community safety and awareness.
76
Can police only use **s24A** to assess firearms eligibility?
No, s24A provides guidance on matters relevant to being fit and proper to possess firearms or airguns.
## Footnote
These factors are not exhaustive and are part of a broader assessment.
77
What must be done if a **child cannot be brought before District Court** within 24 hours?
Release the person and summon them to appear in the prescribed form
## Footnote
If the child fails to answer a summons to appear, an application for a warrant to arrest can be made.
78
What is the **paramount consideration** when the court hears applications to vary protection order conditions?
Victim safety
## Footnote
The court must have regard to the victim's views in making any variation.
79
Define **pursuit** in the context of driving.
A pursuit occurs when:
* A driver indicates they have no intention of stopping
* An enforcement officer decides to continue following the vehicle
## Footnote
This definition includes pursuits at all speeds and over any distance or terrain.
80
What are the two potential **justifications** to initiate or continue a pursuit according to the Fleeing Driver Framework?
* Threat posed by the driver/occupants as assessed by an officer
* Seriousness of an offence suspected to have been committed
## Footnote
The second justification also considers the risk of ongoing offending, harm, or victimization.
81
What must all units involved do once the decision to **abandon the pursuit** has been made?
Deactivate warning devices once below the posted speed limit
## Footnote
This is a safety protocol to ensure compliance with traffic regulations.
82
What must be done if a **child cannot be brought before District Court** within 24 hours?
Release the person and summon them to appear in the prescribed form
## Footnote
If the child fails to answer a summons to appear, an application for a warrant to arrest can be made.
83
What is the **paramount consideration** when the court hears applications to vary protection order conditions?
Victim safety
## Footnote
The court must have regard to the victim's views in making any variation.
84
Define **pursuit** in the context of driving.
A pursuit occurs when:
* A driver indicates they have no intention of stopping
* An enforcement officer decides to continue following the vehicle
## Footnote
This definition includes pursuits at all speeds and over any distance or terrain.
85
What are the two potential **justifications** to initiate or continue a pursuit according to the Fleeing Driver Framework?
* Threat posed by the driver/occupants as assessed by an officer
* Seriousness of an offence suspected to have been committed
## Footnote
The second justification also considers the risk of ongoing offending, harm, or victimization.
86
What must all units involved do once the decision to **abandon the pursuit** has been made?
Deactivate warning devices once below the posted speed limit
## Footnote
This is a safety protocol to ensure compliance with traffic regulations.
87
What is the target for **reducing violent crime**?
20,000 victims
## Footnote
This target aims to significantly lower the number of individuals affected by violent crime.
88
What is the target for **reducing serious youth offenders**?
200
## Footnote
This target focuses on decreasing the number of serious offenses committed by youth.
89
What does **safety** mean in the context of community engagement?
Improving public feelings of safety by enhancing visibility and accessibility
## Footnote
This involves creating safer communities through engagement and partnerships.
90
What is the principle of **valuing diversity**?
Many views, one purpose
## Footnote
This principle emphasizes the importance of diverse perspectives working towards a common goal.
91
What is the goal of **proactively preventing harm** to Māori?
To keep Māori from entering the justice system
## Footnote
It also aims to stop those who have contact with the system from reoffending.
92
What is the stance on **family harm** by Police employees?
Unacceptable conduct and will not be tolerated
## Footnote
Employees inflicting family harm will face disciplinary processes.
93
What is a condition of every **protection order** regarding weapons?
The respondent must not possess or have any weapon under their control
## Footnote
This includes firearms, airguns, pistols, restricted weapons, ammunition, or explosives.
94
What must the respondent do with any weapon in their possession after a protection order is served?
Surrender to Police as soon as practicable after the protection order is served
## Footnote
This must occur within 24 hours of service.
Inspectors CPK - Leo
flashcards
Decks in class (4)
# Cards
