1
Q
What is the general definition of manual therapies in an equine context?
A
The application of the hands to the body with therapeutic intent, using variable force, amplitude, and tissue displacement.
2
Q
What is the diagnostic focus of ‘Touch’ as an equine manual therapy?
A
It assesses cutaneous sensitivity, superficial tissue pain, and areas of fibrosis or altered tissue response.
3
Q
What is the diagnostic focus of ‘Massage’ in equine manual therapy?
A
It assesses muscle tone, presence of hypertonicity, palpable trigger points, and soft tissue pain patterns.
4
Q
What is the therapeutic focus of equine massage?
A
It reduces muscle hypertonicity, improves venous and lymphatic return, and promotes relaxation.
5
Q
Massage findings in a horse help localize _____ restrictions, as opposed to joint-based dysfunction.
A
soft tissue–based
6
Q
What is the diagnostic focus of ‘Stretching’ in equine manual therapy?
A
It assesses joint range of motion, muscle length and flexibility, and the presence of myofascial contractures.
7
Q
Stretching is used clinically to identify if a restriction is muscular, fascial, or _____.
A
articular
8
Q
What is the diagnostic focus of ‘Soft Tissue Mobilization’ in horses?
A
It assesses skin and fascial mobility, ligament and tendon pliability, and adhesions in periarticular tissues.
9
Q
What is the diagnostic focus of ‘Joint Mobilization’ in equine manual therapy?
A
It assesses the quantity and quality of joint motion, end-range “end-feel”, and pain or muscle guarding at the end range.
10
Q
What is the diagnostic focus of ‘Manipulation (Chiropractic)’ in equine therapy?
A
It assesses joint and neuromuscular integrity and segmental motion dysfunction (subluxation).
11
Q
Chiropractic manipulation uses high-velocity, low-amplitude (HVLA) thrusts that target the _____ joint space.
A
paraphysiologic
12
Q
What is Active Range of Motion (AROM) in a horse?
A
Joint motion produced by the horse’s own muscular effort.
13
Q
What factors can limit a horse’s Active Range of Motion (AROM)?
A
Pain, muscle strength, and neuromuscular control.
14
Q
What is Passive Range of Motion (PROM) in a horse?
A
Joint motion applied by an external force, such as a therapist.
15
Q
What anatomical structures limit a horse’s Passive Range of Motion (PROM)?
A
The joint capsule, ligaments, and articular surfaces.
16
Q
What type of clinical information does assessing Passive ROM provide?
A
It reveals joint capsule stiffness, ligamentous restriction, articular pathology, and end-range pain.
17
Q
What type of clinical information does assessing Active ROM provide?
A
It reveals muscle inhibition or weakness, pain avoidance strategies, and neuromuscular control deficits.
18
Q
Comparing PROM and AROM allows a clinician to determine if a restriction is mechanical or _____.
A
neuromuscular
19
Q
Which manual therapies are best for addressing restricted Passive ROM?
A
Joint mobilization, soft tissue mobilization, stretching, and HVLA manipulation.
20
Q
Which manual therapies are best for addressing restricted Active ROM?
A
Massage, stretching, mobilization combined with active exercise, and neuromuscular retraining.
21
Q
What are the proposed mechanical mechanisms of chiropractic (HVLA) treatment?
A
Stretching of periarticular tissue, reduction of collagen cross-links, breakdown of adhesions, and improved joint motion.
22
Q
What are the proposed neurologic mechanisms of chiropractic (HVLA) thrusts?
A
They stimulate mechanoreceptors, inhibit nociceptors, reduce pain, and normalize muscle tone.
23
Q
Which sensory receptors, responsible for detecting changes in muscle length, are influenced by manual therapies to induce muscle relaxation?
A
Muscle spindles.
24
Q
Name three anatomical features that contribute to a horse’s joint mobility.
A
Shape of articular surfaces, joint capsule elasticity, and paraspinal musculature (any three from the source list).
25
What are three soft tissue causes that can lead to restricted joint motion?
Muscle spasms, muscle shortening, and fascial restrictions.
26
What are three articular causes that can lead to restricted joint motion?
Intervertebral disc degeneration, entrapped synovial folds, and osteoarthritis.
27
In equine spinal evaluation, how is a thoracolumbar problem diagnosed?
By exclusion of other causes (like limb lameness) and confirmation with specific spinal tests.
28
Name two diagnostic tests used to rule out limb lameness before focusing on a spinal problem.
Gait analysis and diagnostic nerve/joint blocks.
29
Name two diagnostic tests used to rule in a primary back problem in a horse.
Detailed spinal evaluation (palpation, mobilization) and diagnostic imaging (radiography, ultrasonography).
30
What are the three general categories of thoracolumbar disorders or "back problems" in horses?
Osseous disorders, soft tissue disorders, and neurologic disorders.
31
Which category of back problem is typically associated with localized pain and bony palpation abnormalities?
Osseous disorders.
32
Which category of back problem is often associated with muscle hypertonicity, swelling, and pain on soft-tissue palpation?
Soft tissue disorders.
33
Neurologic disorders of the spine are differentiated from other back problems by the presence of what clinical signs?
Neurologic deficits, altered proprioception, and abnormal reflexes.
34
List the five cardinal signs of inflammation as they apply to the equine spine.
Heat, swelling, pain, altered function, and muscle hypertonicity.
35
What is a potential abnormal finding during static palpation of the dorsal spinous processes?
A localized pain response, asymmetry, or reduced interspinous space.
36
What are the four general procedural categories for an equine spinal evaluation?
Observation, soft tissue palpation, bony palpation, and joint mobilization.
37
The cutaneous innervation of the point of the shoulder is primarily from which spinal nerves?
Cervical spinal nerves.
38
Pain at the point of the shoulder may reflect dysfunction in the _____ or shoulder region.
cervical spine
39
The cutaneous innervation of the lateral triceps region is primarily from which spinal nerves?
Thoracic spinal nerves (T3–T4).
40
What are the primary motions of the cranial thoracic spine (T1-T12) in a horse?
Lateral bending and axial rotation.
41
Name two synovial articulations present in the cranial thoracic region (T1-T12).
Facet (zygapophyseal) joints and costovertebral joints.
42
Why is spinal mobilization in the cranial thoracic region (T1-T12) different from the caudal thoracolumbar region?
The cranial thoracic facets are more horizontal and motion is limited by the rib cage, emphasizing lateral bending and rotation.
43
Which two muscles, innervated by the trigeminal nerve (CN V), are responsible for closing a horse's mouth?
Temporalis and masseter.
44
The caudal digastricus and occipitomandibularis muscles, which help open the mouth, are innervated by which cranial nerve?
The facial nerve (CN VII).
45
Which two muscles are essential for lateral mandibular movement during mastication?
Medial pterygoid and lateral pterygoid.
46
How can dental malocclusions affect temporomandibular joint (TMJ) motion?
They can restrict lateral mandibular excursion and alter joint loading, leading to asymmetric TMJ motion and pain.
47
What is the primary motion of the hyoid apparatus in a horse?
Dorsoventral mobility, coupled with tongue and laryngeal motion.
48
Restriction of hyoid motion can lead to what clinical signs?
Dysphagia, head tilt, resistance to poll flexion, or abnormal tongue position.
49
What is a key clinical observation that might suggest upper cervical (Occ-C1, C1-C2) dysfunction?
Reduced willingness to flex at the poll, head tilt, or head shaking.
50
Which muscle group is primarily responsible for cervical flexion (lowering the head/neck)?
The hypaxial muscles, such as the longus colli.
51
Which muscle group is primarily responsible for cervical extension (raising the head/neck)?
The epaxial muscles, such as the splenius and semispinalis capitis.
52
What is the general orientation of articular facets in the equine cervical spine?
They are angled ventromedially in the transverse plane, with the angle changing progressively down the neck.
53
The coupled motion in the lower cervical spine means that left lateral bending is associated with _____ axial rotation of the vertebral bodies.
right
54
What is a key clinical observation suggesting pelvic dysfunction or injury in a horse?
Muscle asymmetry (especially gluteal), bony pelvic asymmetry, or performance deficits like difficulty with canter.
55
Which muscle group is primarily responsible for pelvic limb retraction (propulsion)?
The hamstring group (biceps femoris, semitendinosus, semimembranosus) and gluteal muscles.
56
Which muscle group is primarily responsible for pelvic limb protraction (advancing the limb)?
The iliopsoas, rectus femoris, and tensor fasciae latae.
57
When manually palpating for tuber sacrale height asymmetries, what structure is used as a midline reference point?
The S2 spinous process.
58
What is the primary functional design of the sacroiliac (SI) joints?
They are designed for force transfer and stability, not significant mobility.
59
The dorsal aspect of the sacroiliac (SI) joint is innervated by the dorsolateral branches of which spinal nerves?
L5, L6, S1, and S2 spinal nerves.
60
The ventral aspect of the sacroiliac (SI) joint is innervated by the ventral branches of which spinal nerves?
L4, L5, L6, S1, and S2 spinal nerves.
61
Name one provocation test used to assess for sacroiliac joint pain or dysfunction.
Applying dorsoventral pressure over the tuber coxae or compression of the tubera sacrale.
62
A positive diagnosis of equine SI disease is suggested when how many of the diagnostic criteria are present?
Three or more (≥3).
63
Applying a laterally directed force at the sacral apex (S5) is a technique used to assess what specific motion?
Sacroiliac joint lateral bending.
64
During an axial tail pull test, what is considered a 'Good' response?
Strong forward movement with obvious bilateral contraction of the middle gluteal muscles.
65
Why is the perceived prevalence of "back problems" much higher in equine chiropractic clinics (~94%) than in general practice (~1%)?
It is primarily due to case selection and the specific population of horses referred to or seeking specialized care.
66
List three spinal tissues most likely responsible for producing clinical signs of back pain in horses.
Intervertebral disks, facet joints, and ligaments.
67
What occurs during the 'Dysfunctional phase,' the first stage in the pathogenesis of spinal dysfunction?
Restricted joint motion, abnormal biomechanical stresses, inflammation, and ischemia.
68
What occurs during the 'Instability phase,' the second stage in the pathogenesis of spinal dysfunction?
Degeneration of cartilage, ligaments, and discs, potentially leading to subluxation and early osteophyte formation.
69
What occurs during the 'Degenerative (stability) phase,' the final stage of spinal dysfunction?
Severe osteoarthritis, spondylosis, and ossification of spinal ligaments.
70
What is the clinical significance of finding patches of white hairs over a horse's wither region?
It is often associated with poor saddle fit, or friction from blankets or fly sheets.
71
Which diagnostic imaging modality is highlighted for diagnosing dorsal sacroiliac ligament desmitis?
Ultrasonography.
72
Name two possible etiologies for ataxia that can be localized to the cervical spine.
Cervical vertebral stenosis/malformation (Wobbler Syndrome) and Equine Protozoal Myelitis (EPM).
73
Cervical vertebral instability that causes spinal cord compression during movement is known as _____ myelopathy.
dynamic
74
What was the prevalence of impinged spinous processes ('kissing spine') in a study population of 443 horses with thoracolumbar complaints?
33%, representing a major proportion of vertebral lesions in that group.
75
How might spondylosis contribute to spinal stiffness or back pain?
It is a component of late-stage degenerative pathology, associated with severe osteoarthritis and abnormal biomechanical stresses.
76
According to the research lecture, which two non-surgical modalities have the highest level of evidence for treating chronic back pain in horses?
Spinal mobilization/manipulation and acupuncture.
77
Name two modalities for treating equine back pain that are described as having 'anecdotal evidence only'.
Nutraceuticals and extracorporeal shock wave therapy (or any two from the source list).
78
When performing an interspinous ligament desmotomy, what key ligament might be preserved to avoid long-term detriment to spinal function?
The supraspinous ligament.
79
According to kinematic studies, what is induced during an equine chiropractic manipulation?
Substantial segmental spinal motion (flexion-extension, lateral bending, axial rotation).
80
Which spinal level is responsible for producing the majority of thoracolumbar flexion-extension motion?
The mid-thoracic spine, specifically T11–T12.
81
When comparing spinal mobilization and manipulation, which one produces a stronger immediate increase in flexibility *within* a treatment session?
Spinal manipulation (SMT).
82
When comparing spinal mobilization and manipulation, which one is associated with flexibility increases *between* sessions, suggesting a different mechanism?
Spinal mobilization.
83
What are the approximate baseline Mechanical Nociceptive Thresholds (MNTs) for the thoracic region in a normal horse?
13 kg/cm².
84
What are the approximate baseline Mechanical Nociceptive Thresholds (MNTs) for the lumbopelvic region in a normal horse?
16 kg/cm².
85
In a study of horses with muscle spasms, spinal manipulation was shown to decrease muscle tone by _____ and muscle activity (EMG) by _____.
13%; 21%
86
Name two types of cutaneous or superficial injuries associated with poor saddle fit.
Alopecia (hair loss), abrasions, ulcers, or white hairs.
87
Muscle _____, especially in the wither region, is a muscular injury often associated with poor saddle fit and scapular asymmetry.
atrophy
88
What are two key horse-centered goals of proper saddle fitting?
Allowing free spinal movements and ensuring even distribution of pressure.
89
What is a key rider-centered goal of proper saddle fitting?
Achieving a centered balance point and a stable seat.
90
What are three specific issues to assess for proper saddle fitting?
Stability of the saddle, shoulder clearance, and panel symmetry/contact.
91
What is a primary purpose of a saddle pad?
To provide cushioning, absorb sweat, or improve saddle fit.
92
What is a key fitting principle for equine blankets?
To prevent shoulder and wither friction.
93
When fitting a blanket, approximately how much clearance should there be for the surcingles under the belly?
About 4 fingers of clearance.
94
What is a major advantage of using pressure-sensing mats to evaluate saddle fit?
It provides a quantitative assessment of overall and peak pressures, tree width, and bridging.
95
Sustained pressure of ____ for more than 2 hours can cause inflammation and ischemic necrosis in underlying tissue.
32 mmHg (0.7 psi)
96
During a trot, the total force on the horse's back is approximately how many times the combined rider and saddle weight?
2.0 times.
97
During a canter, the total force on the horse's back is approximately how many times the combined rider and saddle weight?
2.5 times.
98
What is a potential clinical effect of excessive girth pressure?
Reduced respiratory performance.
99
How does the skill of a rider influence spinal function in a horse?
A skilled rider has greater synchrony with the horse, stabilizing motion and reducing peak pressures, while a less skilled rider can increase instability.
100
What is the definition of manual therapies in the context of equine practice?
The application of the hands to the body with therapeutic intent, using variable force, amplitude, and tissue displacement.
101
What is the diagnostic focus of 'Touch' as an equine manual therapy?
Assessing cutaneous sensitivity, superficial tissue pain, and areas of fibrosis or altered tissue response.
102
In equine manual therapy, what is the primary diagnostic focus of 'Massage'?
Evaluating muscle tone, the presence of hypertonicity, palpable trigger points, and soft tissue pain patterns.
103
Massage findings in horses help localize _____, as opposed to joint-based dysfunction.
soft tissue–based restrictions
104
What is the therapeutic focus of equine massage?
To reduce muscle hypertonicity, improve venous and lymphatic return, and promote relaxation.
105
What aspects of equine biomechanics are assessed with 'Stretching' as a diagnostic tool?
Joint range of motion, muscle length and flexibility, and the presence of myofascial contractures.
106
What is the dual role of 'Stretching' in equine manual therapy?
It serves as both a diagnostic and therapeutic intervention.
107
What is the diagnostic focus of 'Soft Tissue Mobilization' in horses?
Assessing skin and fascial mobility, ligament and tendon pliability, and adhesions in periarticular tissues.
108
What are the therapeutic goals of 'Soft Tissue Mobilization' in equine therapy?
To mobilize connective tissue, reduce pain, and restore normal tissue glide.
109
What is the diagnostic focus of 'Joint Mobilization' in equine manual therapy?
Evaluating the quantity and quality of joint motion and the end-range “end-feel”.
110
What type of joint motion is specifically assessed during 'Joint Mobilization' to identify hypomobile segments?
Physiologic joint motion.
111
What is the diagnostic focus of equine 'Manipulation (Chiropractic)'?
Assessing joint and neuromuscular integrity and identifying segmental motion dysfunction (subluxation).
112
Chiropractic manipulation uses high-velocity, low-amplitude (HVLA) thrusts that target the _____ joint space.
paraphysiologic
113
What is Active Range of Motion (AROM) in a horse?
Joint motion produced by the horse's own muscular effort.
114
What factors can limit a horse's Active Range of Motion (AROM)?
Pain, muscle strength, and neuromuscular control.
115
What is Passive Range of Motion (PROM) in a horse?
Joint motion applied by an external force, such as a therapist.
116
What anatomical structures primarily limit a horse's Passive Range of Motion (PROM)?
The joint capsule, ligaments, and articular surfaces.
117
Comparing AROM and PROM allows clinicians to determine if a restriction is primarily _____ or _____.
mechanical or neuromuscular
118
What types of manual therapies are best for addressing a restricted Passive ROM in a horse?
Joint mobilization, soft tissue mobilization, stretching, and HVLA manipulation.
119
What do therapies that target restricted Passive ROM primarily address?
Connective tissue and joint-based restrictions.
120
What types of therapies are best for addressing a restricted Active ROM in a horse?
Massage, stretching, mobilization with active exercise, and neuromuscular retraining.
121
What are the mechanical mechanisms of chiropractic (HVLA) treatment?
Stretching periarticular tissue, reducing collagen cross-links, breaking down adhesions, and improving joint motion.
122
What are the neurologic mechanisms of chiropractic (HVLA) thrusts?
They stimulate mechanoreceptors, inhibit nociceptors, reduce pain, and normalize muscle tone.
123
How do manual therapies influence muscle spindles?
They can alter muscle spindle activity, leading to muscle relaxation and improved coordination.
124
List three soft tissue causes of restricted joint motion in horses.
Muscle spasms, muscle shortening, contractures, or fascial restrictions.
125
List three articular (joint) causes of restricted joint motion in horses.
Intervertebral disc degeneration, entrapped synovial folds, osteoarthritis, or spondylosis.
126
What is the general diagnostic approach for a thoracolumbar spinal problem in a horse?
It is diagnosed by exclusion of other causes (like limb lameness) and confirmation with spinal-specific tests.
127
What are the three general categories of equine thoracolumbar disorders?
Osseous disorders, soft tissue disorders, and neurologic disorders.
128
What signs are typically associated with osseous spinal disorders in horses?
Localized pain, reduced motion, and bony palpation abnormalities.
129
What signs are often associated with soft tissue spinal disorders in horses?
Muscle hypertonicity, swelling, and pain on soft-tissue palpation.
130
What clinical findings differentiate neurologic spinal disorders from other back problems?
Neurologic deficits, altered proprioception, and abnormal reflexes.
131
List the five cardinal signs of inflammation as they apply to the equine spine.
Heat, swelling, pain, altered function, and muscle hypertonicity.
132
What are the four broad procedural categories for equine spinal evaluation?
Observation, Soft Tissue Palpation, Bony Palpation, and Joint Mobilization.
133
The cutaneous innervation at the point of the horse's shoulder is primarily from which spinal nerves?
Cervical spinal nerves, with overlap from the brachial plexus.
134
The cutaneous innervation of the lateral triceps region in a horse is from which spinal nerves?
Thoracic spinal nerves, specifically T3–T4.
135
What are the primary motions in the horse's cranial thoracic region (T1–T12)?
Lateral bending and axial rotation.
136
How does the facet joint orientation differ between the cranial thoracic and caudal thoracolumbar regions of the equine spine?
Cranial thoracic facets are primarily horizontal, while caudal thoracolumbar facets become more vertical.
137
What two primary muscles, innervated by the trigeminal nerve (CN V), are responsible for closing a horse's mouth?
The temporalis and masseter muscles.
138
Opening the horse's mouth involves muscles innervated by which two cranial nerves?
The trigeminal nerve (CN V) and the facial nerve (CN VII).
139
What two muscles are essential for lateral mandibular movement during mastication in horses?
The medial and lateral pterygoid muscles.
140
How can dental malocclusions in a horse lead to secondary restrictions in the upper cervical spine?
By restricting mandibular mobility, which leads to asymmetric TMJ motion, muscle hypertonicity, and compensatory changes at Occiput–C1.
141
What is the primary motion of the equine hyoid apparatus?
Dorsoventral mobility, coupled with tongue and laryngeal motion.
142
List three clinical signs that may suggest upper cervical dysfunction (Occ–C1, C1–C2) in a horse.
Reduced poll flexion, head tilting, head shaking, or asymmetric rein tension.
143
What is the primary muscle responsible for cervical flexion in the horse?
The longus colli muscle (part of the ventral cervical musculature).
144
List two major muscles responsible for cervical extension (raising the head and neck) in the horse.
Splenius, semispinalis capitis, or longissimus capitis.
145
What is the general orientation of articular facets in the equine cervical spine?
They are angled ventromedially in the transverse plane, with the angle changing progressively down the neck.
146
List three key clinical observations that suggest pelvic dysfunction or injury in a horse.
Gluteal muscle asymmetry/atrophy, bony pelvic asymmetry (tuber coxae/sacrale height), or performance deficits like difficulty with canter.
147
What is the primary function of the pelvic limb retractor muscles (e.g., gluteals, biceps femoris)?
Propulsion and impulsion during the stance phase of the stride.
148
What is the primary function of the pelvic limb protractor muscles (e.g., iliopsoas, rectus femoris)?
Advancing the limb forward during the swing phase of the stride.
149
When palpating for tuber sacrale height asymmetry, what bony landmark is used as a midline reference point?
The S2 spinous process.
150
What is the primary biomechanical function of the sacroiliac (SI) joints in the horse?
Force transfer, as their motion is limited and stability is prioritized over mobility.
151
A positive diagnosis of equine sacroiliac (SI) disease is suggested when at least how many specific clinical criteria are present?
Three or more.
152
What does a restricted or painful response to lateral mobilization at the sacral apex (S5) indicate?
Potential sacroiliac (SI) joint dysfunction.
153
During an axial tail pull test, what constitutes a 'Good' response?
Strong forward movement with obvious bilateral contraction of the middle gluteal muscles.
154
Why does the perceived prevalence of equine 'back problems' vary so widely between general practitioners (~1%) and chiropractors (~94%)?
Primarily due to case selection and the specific referral/clinic population being seen by each practitioner group.
155
List three spinal tissues most likely responsible for producing clinical signs of back pain in horses.
Intervertebral disks, facet joints, ligaments, fascia, muscles, or nerve root dura.
156
What is the first phase in the pathogenesis of spinal dysfunction, characterized by restricted motion and abnormal stress?
The dysfunctional phase.
157
What occurs during the 'instability phase' of spinal dysfunction pathogenesis?
Degeneration of cartilage, ligaments, and intervertebral disks, with early osteophyte formation.
158
What characterizes the final 'degenerative (stability) phase' of spinal dysfunction?
Severe osteoarthritis, spondylosis, and ossification of spinal ligaments.
159
How are limb lameness and back problems interconnected?
Altered gait from limb lameness causes abnormal biomechanical stress on the back, and back pain can cause altered gait, creating a cycle.
160
What is the clinical significance of finding patches of white hairs over a horse's wither region?
They are often associated with poor saddle fit or friction from blankets or other tack.
161
What is the primary diagnostic imaging modality used for dorsal sacroiliac ligament desmitis?
Ultrasonography.
162
What condition, diagnosed via myelography, is a common cause of ataxia localized to the cervical spine?
Cervical vertebral stenosis or malformation (CVSM or Wobbler Syndrome).
163
Cervical vertebral instability in a horse leads to a _____ myelopathy, often associated with proprioceptive loss.
dynamic
164
What is the clinical significance of impinged thoracolumbar spinous processes ('kissing spines')?
They represent a major proportion (33% in one study) of vertebral lesions in horses presented for thoracolumbar complaints.
165
How does spondylosis contribute to spinal stiffness or back pain?
It is a late-stage degenerative pathology involving bone spurs that reduce normal mechanics and cause pain via associated joint/tissue changes.
166
According to the provided research, what are two treatment modalities with the highest level of evidence for chronic equine back pain?
Spinal mobilization/manipulation and acupuncture (including electroacupuncture).
167
Name two commonly used modalities for equine back pain that have only anecdotal evidence to support their use.
Nutraceuticals, muscle relaxants, corticosteroids, mesotherapy, or extracorporeal shock wave therapy.
168
What is the intended long-term benefit of spinous process resection surgery for 'kissing spines'?
To address pain and dysfunction by removing or reducing the osseous impingement.
169
What is a potential long-term detriment of spinous process surgery that some surgical techniques aim to mitigate?
Disruption of key stabilizing ligaments (like the supraspinous ligament), which could negatively affect long-term spinal mechanics.
170
What did kinematic studies show regarding the effect of chiropractic manipulation on a horse's back?
Substantial segmental spinal motion is induced during the manipulation, comparable to findings in humans.
171
According to in-vitro kinematics, which spinal level is responsible for the greatest amount of thoracolumbar flexion-extension?
The mid-thoracic spine, specifically at T11–T12.
172
In studies on spinal flexibility, spinal manipulation (SMT) produced stronger _____ increases in flexibility.
immediate (within-session)
173
In studies on spinal flexibility, spinal mobilization was associated with increases in displacement _____, suggesting a different mechanism of action.
between sessions
174
What is the general regional pattern of normal mechanical nociceptive thresholds (MNTs) in the equine axial skeleton?
Thresholds are lowest in the cervical region, intermediate in the thoracic region, and highest in the lumbopelvic region.
175
What was the median baseline MNT for the equine lumbopelvic region in the cited study?
16 kg/cm².
176
According to objective research, how did spinal manipulation affect muscle tone and activity in horses with muscle spasms?
It produced a decrease in both muscle tone (13%) and muscle activity (21%).
177
What are three potential soft tissue or muscular injuries associated with poor saddle fit in horses?
Soft tissue swelling, hypertonic/painful epaxial muscles, muscle fibrosis, or muscle atrophy (especially in the wither region).
178
List three primary horse-centered goals of proper saddle fitting.
Allowing free spinal movements, unrestricted forelimb mobility, and even distribution of low overall pressures.
179
List three primary rider-centered goals of proper saddle fitting.
Comfort and function, a centered balance point, and a stable seat.
180
What are three key issues to assess for proper saddle fitting on a horse?
Saddle stability, shoulder clearance, panel symmetry/contact, and spinal clearance (gullet symmetry).
181
What are two advantages of using pressure-sensing mats to measure saddle pressures?
It provides quantitative assessment of tree width/bridging and allows measurement of overall and peak pressures.
182
Sustained pressure above what threshold for over two hours can cause inflammation and ischemic necrosis in tissues?
32 mmHg (0.7 psi).
183
How do total forces under the saddle generally change with different gaits?
Forces are lowest at the walk, increase to ~2x rider weight at the trot, and are highest at ~2.5x rider weight at the canter.
184
What is a primary clinical effect of excessive girth pressure in horses?
Reduced respiratory performance.
185
How does a skilled rider influence a horse's spinal motion compared to a less skilled rider?
A skilled rider can exert a stabilizing effect, leading to more symmetrical spinal motion and greater synchrony with the horse.
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