1
Q
What 3 things is Pilot Competence a blend of?
A
Knowledge, skills, attitudes
2
Q
What are the 8 ICAO core competencies?
A
Application of Procedures
Communication
Flight Path Management with Automation
Manual Flight Path Management
Leadership and Teamwork
Problem Solving and Decision Making
Situational Awareness
Workload Management
3
Q
What is the “Sensory Threshold”?
A
The threshold above which the intensity of a stimulus is sufficient to generate a response in the organism.
4
Q
What is “Sensory Adaption”?
A
A decrease in the physiological response as a result of repeated exposure to a stimulus.
5
Q
What is “Sensory Habituation” and where does it take place?
A
Where sensory signals trigger progressively smaller responses in the brain.
Takes place in the CNS.
6
Q
What lasts longer, “Habituation” or “Sensory Adaption” and why?
A
Habituation because it is not dependent upon short-term physiological changes.
7
Q
What may happen if you become habituated to a stimulus?
A
You may no longer notice it.
8
Q
What are the 3 major components of the circulatory system?
A
Heart, arteries, veins
9
Q
What do the heart, arteries, and veins do?
A
Heart pumps blood around the body.
Arteries carry oxygenated blood from the heart to organs and tissues.
Veins carry deoxygenated blood from organs and tissues.
10
Q
How is cardiac output defined?
A
Heart rate x stroke volume
11
Q
What is the normal heart rate and cardiac output for an adult.
A
70BPM
5.2 litres per minute
12
Q
What is systolic blood pressure?
A
Blood pressure measured when heart muscle contracts.
13
Q
What is diastolic blood pressure?
A
The pressure measured when the heart muscle relaxes. BP lowest here.
14
Q
What is BP measured in and what is a normal reading for a young, healthy adult. What does each number mean?
A
mmHg, 120/80
First number is systolic, second diastolic.
15
Q
What are the 4 main constituents of blood and what do they do?
A
Red blood cells carry oxygen
White blood cells fight infection
Platelets repair damage
Plasma provides transporting fluid medium
16
Q
What is the purpose of haemoglobin?
A
Greatly increase the oxygen-carrying capability of RBCs.
17
Q
What is anaemia? Give 5 causes.
A
Lack of RBCs or haemoglobin, or both.
Causes: iron deficiency, illness, loss of blood from injury or other sources such as ulcers, abnormal haemoglobin causing deformed RBCs that block arteries.
18
Q
What are hyper/hypotension
A
Hyper: high BP
Hypo: low BP
19
Q
How does hypertension affect blood vessel and heart muscle?
A
Thickening and reduced strength of heart muscle.
Thickening and narrowing of blood vessel.
20
Q
What 4 things can hypotension cause?
A
Dizziness, shortness of breath, fainting, coma.
21
Q
What 10 things can cause hypertension?
A
Smoking, obese, salt, alcohol, age, hereditary factors, stress, certain oral contraceptive, lack of exercise, certain medical conditions.
22
Q
How may hypertension be correctable? 2 ways
A
Drugs and addressing root causes
23
Q
What does hypertension significantly increase the risk of?
A
Stroke
24
Q
What is angina?
A
Progressive narrowing of coronary arteries. Causes shortness of breath and chest pain when exercises.
25
What is a heart attack? What 5 symptoms can it cause and what else can it lead to?
Complete blockage of coronary arteries.
Intense chest pain, crushing sensation in chest, high pulse rate, pale pallor, sweating.
Can cause complete cardiac arrest.
26
What are 5 major risk factors for coronary heart disease?
Hypertension, high cholesterol, obesity, smoking, lack of exercise.
27
What 5 ways does exercising help reduce the risk of coronary heart disease?
Strengthens heart muscle, improves circulation, increases number of RBCs, improves blood flow, reduces BP.
28
Through which 7 ways can heart rate increase?
Exercise, emotional arousal, digesting food, age, temperature, lack of fitness, illness.
29
What does histotoxic hypoxia result from? Where may it be of concern? Through which 2 things can it occur?
Results from an interference with the tissues ability to utilise a normal oxygen supply for oxidative processes. It may be a concern in crash survivability, and may arise from certain biochemical disorders as well as poisoning: chronic alcohol abuse, drug misuse, poison.
30
What are the. 3 main components of the respiratory system? What are 2 additional components that also important, and what 2 things do they both do?
Trachea, lungs, pulmonary artery.
Heart and blood, which transport oxygen around the body and carry CO2 back to the lungs.
31
What is the purpose of the trachea?
Carry air from nose or mouth to lungs
32
What is the purpose of lungs?
Absorb oxygen from inspired air and expel CO2 in expired air
33
What happens to the volume percentage of the gases in ambient air as altitude increases (within operating altitudes of all aircraft)?
Stays the same.
34
What is hypoxia? Think tissues.
Insufficient oxygen to support the metabolism of tissues.
35
What is hypoxic hypoxia caused by? What’s the most common cause and what is this associated with?
Low saturation levels of oxygen in the blood.
Cause: low partial pressure of atmospheric oxygen associated with high altitude.
36
What is anaemic hypoxia caused by? 2 most common causes?
Reduced ability of blood to carry oxygen.
Carbon monoxide poisoning or insufficient haemoglobin in RBCs
37
What are the 10 symptoms of hypoxia? IIII CHELDS
IE; Impaired… (x2); Increased…; CHLDS.
Irritability or euphoria, impaired judgement, headache, cyanosis, increased breathing rate, impaired vision, drowsiness, slurred speech, loss of consciousness.
38
Up to what altitude can healthy individuals compensate for hypoxic hypoxia up to?
10,000ft-12,000ft
39
What are the 3 physiological thresholds for hypoxia?
Reaction threshold 7000ft
Disturbance threshold 10-12000ft
Critical threshold 22000 ft
40
When might short term memory be affected (altitude)?
Above 12000 ft
41
What is the time of useful consciousness and what’s another name for it? EPT
Effective performance time
Period available to individuals after being deprived of oxygen during which they are still aware of their environment and capable of controlling their actions
42
4 different TUCs for seated person at rest
30 mins 20000ft
1-2 mins 30000ft
30-90 secs 35000ft
15-20 secs 40000ft
43
Which 6 factors affect severity of hypoxia symptoms? (SB)
Rapidness of onset of hypoxic conditions
Severity of hypoxic conditions
Level of physical activity
Smoking
Body weight
Individual’s health
44
What is hyperventilation?
State of breathing faster and/or deeper than is necessary for the body’s current demand of oxygen.
45
What determines respiration rate? What occurs when hyperventilation occurs?
Blood CO2 levels.
Blood CO2 level falls significantly
46
Through which 2 ways can hyperventilation be caused deliberately? Through which other two (related) ways can it be caused?
Through which two ways are the causes classified?
Stress and anxiety.
Brain injury and strokes.
Psychological and physiological.
47
What are the five main signs of hyperventilation? RT HIF
Rapid breathing rate, tingling or dizziness, hot or cold flushes, impaired performance, fainting.
48
What 4 ways can hyperventilation be stopped?
Breath slowly. Hold one opening of the mouth or nose closed. Speak loudly. Breath into paper bag.
This increases level of blood CO2.
49
What are the 9 terms associated with lung volume that must be remembered? TRIFE RIVV
50
What is the rate and depth of breathing controlled by? When might one get an urge to breathe in?
Sensing the level of CO2 in the blood. Excessive CO2.
51
What is external respiration?
Air molecules are drawn into the lungs by the action of the diaphragm muscle.
Molecules of nitrogen and oxygen and other trace gases diffuse across the very thin membranes in the alveoli and enter bloodstream.
Only oxygen molecules then attach to haemoglobin in the RBCs.
52
What is internal respiration?
Breathing out
Each cell in the body receives oxygen molecules which diffuse from the bloodstream and fluid surrounding the cells across the cell membrane.
The byproduct of cell metabolism (converting food into energy) is CO2. CO2 molecules diffuse across the cell membrane into the bloodstream. They are carried back to lungs where they diffuse across alveoli membranes and expelled to atmosphere by breathing out.
53
How is the amount of oxygen attached to haemoglobin measured? What is this value in normal healthy humans? How does the oxygen saturation level vary with altitude?
Oxygen saturation level. 98%.
Holds steady until 7000ft, then decreases.
54
What is the upper limit of cabin altitude and why?
8000ft by regulation.
Protects pax. and crew against hypoxia and decompression sickness.
55
What 4 things must be remembered in the event of a cabin depressurisation event?
Oxygen mask on
Emergency descent
Land ASAP
Don’t fly for 24hrs (decompression sickness precautions)
56
What are the 3 (5) structures of the eye directly associated with vision?
Cornea, lens, retina (Containing rods and cones)
57
What does the optic nerve do?
Carries sensory information from the retina to the visual cortex
58
Explain how the cornea and lens work together, what the lens does, and what rods and cones do.
Cornea and lens together focus light into eye and onto retina.
Lens fine-tunes focus.
Rods and cones embedded in retina detect black and white and colour respectively.
59
How does the iris perform its function?
Function is to control the amount of light entering the eye
Contracts and expands rapidly to do this
60
Where are cones concentrated and what do they allow to be seen? What about rods?
Cones (colour vision) concentrated around central part of retina, fovea.
Rods (for black and white, sensitive vision) concentrated more densely in the peripheral parts of the retina.
61
What is accommodation in relation to eyes?
Contraction and relaxation of ciliary muscles which changes the shape, thus focal point, of lens.
62
What is the fovea a part of? What is it most densely packed with? When is it used?
Central part of retina
Most densely packed with cones
Used when eye is attending to a visual stimulus to focus object onto fovea
63
What is visual acuity? What product is it analogous to? Where is VA highest and why?
Resolving power of retina, ability to discern small details.
Analogous to resolution in digital camera.
Highest in fovea (densest concentration of receptors)
64
What is central vision and what provides it? What is peripheral vision and what provides it?
Central: part of visual field provided by fovea, primarily by cones.
Peripheral: vision at edges of visual field. Provided by rods.
65
What happens to visual acuity at night and why?
Degrades, cones are relatively insensitive, leaving rods to be responsible for night vision.
66
Apart from night, what other 5 things can degrade visual acuity? SHAC D
Smoking, hypoxia, age, cataracts, damage to retina.
67
What is lookout reliant upon, what happens when the object of interest (threat) is spotted?
Reliant on highly sensitive motion-detection capability of peripheral vision, which catches one’s attention.
Threat then examined in detail by turning head and eyes to focus object on fovea.
68
Compare sensitivity between rods and cones. How can you optimise night vision?
Rods more sensitive. At night, look slightly off centre at very dim objects to make them out. If you look direct,y at them, image falls on less sensitive cones.
69
Effect of hypoxia on vision. At what altitude can this occur? When is it most noticeable?
Reduces
5000ft
At night
70
How long does it take to adjust to bright light from darkness and why?
10 seconds
Iris in eye needs to contract
71
What happens to neurons in retina in dark conditions? What is this called?
Become physiologically more sensitive to stimuli. Increased sensitivity lowers the threshold for detecting stimuli.
Dark adaptation.
72
How long do i. Cones and ii. Rods take to adapt to dark?
9 mins i
30 mins ii
73
What is colour blindness?
The inability to detect, or distinguish between, some colours.
74
What is monocular vision? What is lacking? What is not possible? How can far-field depth perception be retained?
One-eyed vision lacking stereoscopic cues.
Near-field depth perception not possible.
Non-stereoscopic cues give far-field depth perception.
75
How is stereoscopic vision obtained?
Because of the very slight difference in perspective between one eye and the other.
76
Through which 4 stereoscopic cues is depth perception obtained from in normal vision? When is depth perception most important?
Colour, contrast, relative size, relative motion.
Final stages of approach and flare.
77
In monocular vision, through which 4 things can depth perception be cued from?
Colour, contrast, relative size, relative motion.
78
What do sunglasses prevent?
Damage to the retina, caused by high-energy blue or UV light.
79
Why are not polarising sunglasses a good idea?
Make polarised cockpit display units unreadable.
80
What is myopia and how is it corrected?
Short-sightedness (inability to focus on distant objects).
Point of focus ahead of retina, so concave lenses used to move it back.
81
What is hyperopia, and another name for it, and how is it corrected?
Hypermetropia
Inability to focus on near objects.
Convex lense to bring focal point from behind retina, forward onto retina.
82
What is astigmatism and what does it cause?
Slight imperfections of the curve of the cornea or lens.
Causes slight variations in optical power between one area of cornea or lens and another.
83
What is presbyopia?
Age-related long sightedness caused by reduction in elasticity of the lens.
84
What are cataracts?
Clouding of the lenses of the eye.
85
What is glaucoma and what does it lead to?
High internal eye pressure leading to irreversible damage to the retina.
86
What can flash blindness be caused by and how can its effects be reduced?
Caused by nearby lightning.
Reduced by turning up cockpit lighting to maximum brightness.
87
How can contact lenses be dangerous when in flight?
Can damage cornea because of slightly hypoxic conditions.
88
What must glasses correct vision to i. In either eye ii. Overall? What must be carried?
No worse than 6/9 in either eye
No worse than 6/6 overall
Must carry a spare pair
89
How is the eyes’ blind spot created? What’s a risk of this blind spot?
Exit point on retina for all sensory nerves creates a blind spot.
If traffic on a collision course happens to fall on blind spot, won’t see it.
90
What are the three major sections of the ear and each of their roles?
Outer ear: channel sound to the eardrum
Middle ear: transmit vibrations of ear drum to fluid in inner ear
Inner ear: translate fluid vibrations into electrical auditory nerve signals
91
What are the two constituents of the inner ear and what do they do?
Cochlea: translates fluid vibrations into into auditory signals
Balance organ (vestibular apparatus): detects linear and angular accelerations
92
What are the three main causes of hearing loss? (Special names)
Conductive deafness: problems of the middle ear
Noise induced hearing loss (NIHL): prolonged exposure to a loud noise (90dB) or single exposure to a very loud noise
Presbycusis: age related hearing loss
93
What are two sources of NIHL on the apron and what is a precaution?
Jet engines
Props
Failure to wear protection leads to NIHL
94
What should be worn when in the vicinity of a running engine?
Ear defenders
95
What are the three main elements of the vestibular system?
Three semi-circular canals to detect angular accelerations
Utricle to detect linear, horizontal accelerations (gravity)
Saccule to detect linear, vertical accelerations
96
What do the utricle and saccule detect in accelerated flight? What is accelerated flight?
Accelerated flight is flight in positive or negative g
They detect accelerations caused by g or any other component of acceleration caused by gravity
97
How are electrical signals created in the inner ear after angular accelerations?
Semi-circular canals contain fluid which moves when subjected to an angular acceleration
Hairs in the canals are bent by fluid movement
This creates electrical signals which are interpreted by the brain as angular accelerations
98
What is air sickness and how is it caused?
The name given to motion sickness caused by flight
Caused by a disagreement between acceleration detected by the vestibular system and accelerations and orientation detected by the eyes
99
What two things does air sickness typically cause?
Dizziness and vomiting
100
Best countermeasure to get rid of motion sickness?
Restore straight, level, unaccelerated flight, and look steadily on the visual horizon.
101
What are the otoliths?
Saccule and utricle
In accelerated flight detect accelerations caused by g, as well as any component of acceleration caused by gravity.
102
What is the role of the circadian rhythm?
To prepare the body, depending on the time of day, for rest or for action, for fasting or for feeding.
103
What 6 bodily functions does the circadian rhythm alter? TBR HEO
Base levels of body temperature, blood pressure, respiration rate, hormone, enzyme, and organ functions.
104
Which of the bodily function modifications made by the circadian rhythm does EASA believe has the most significant implication for sleep?
Body temperature
105
What does the circadian rhythm operate on, and what is this regulated by?
Operates on a 24 hour “internal clock”, regulated by environmental cues, “zeitgebers”.
106
What is a free-running circadian rhythm? What does this operate on, and what’s the average time period?
A circadian rhythm without environmental cues to reset it.
Operates on a 24-28 hour cycle, averaging 25.
107
When does an individual experience the best quality sleep?
Inside their WOCL (window of circadian low)
108
When do individuals perform at their worse (in relation to the circadian rhythm)?
When trying to work during their WOCL.
109
What are the 5 stages of sleep?
Drowsiness
Light sleep
Moderate to deep sleep
Deep (slow-wave) sleep
REM
110
How do we cycle through sleep cycles through the night?
We progressive cycle through them, repeating the cycles at a steadily increasing rate.
111
What may appear to be happening during REM sleep? What is actually happening?
Sleeper may appear to be sleeping lightly due to rapid eye movement. In fact the REM sleeper is sleeping more deeply than in other phases.
112
What 4 processes does sleep allow to occur?
Rest the brain
Clean the brain of buildup of plaques
Assists in laying down memories
Refreshes cognitive functions
113
What builds up if deprived of sleep, how is this satisfied?
Sleep deficit
Satisfied by one or more longer periods of sleep to catch up
114
What 4 things does a lack of sleep increase the risk of? DILS
Degradation of physical and mental performance
Loss of concentration
Slower reaction time
Increased risk of accidents
115
When does circadian dysrhythmia occur? What does it result in, and what is this a key feature of?
When the normal pattern of sleeping and waking is disrupted
Results in the individual trying to work during the circadian low / sleep in circadian high
Key feature of jet lag
116
Explain sleep debits and credits
+2 points for every hour asleep
-1 point for every hour awake
Maximum credits 16 (8hours)
117
Explain the time zone adjustment technique
<24 hours in new zone: maintain home time
24 hours in new zone: short nap after arriving. Longer sleep before next duty period
>24 hours in new zone: adjust to new zone ASAP
118
Which jet lag results in significantly greater circadian dysrhythmia?
Eastbound travel
119
During what do the majority of industry accidents take place in? Why?
During individuals’ WOCL (window of circadian low)
Operating in WOCL decreases ability to remain vigilant and reduces overall performance.
120
4 jet lag hacks
Avoid sleep during new zone’s day
Expose yourself to sunlight in the morning
Avoid mentally stimulating activity before bed time
Avoid alcohol
121
Most important zeitgeber
Daylight
122
What is the cause of decompression sickness?
Nitrogen gas dissolved in the blood coming out of solution in low ambient pressure conditions and then forming small gas bubbles which block blood vessels.
123
Through which 3 measures can DCS be avoided?
Avoiding flights with cabin altitudes >18000ft
Maintaining cabin pressure <8000ft during high altitude flight
Breathing 100% oxygen for 30 minutes before and during flight
124
What are THE 4 symptoms of decompression sickness?
The bends: aches and pains in the joints
The creeps: sensation of ants crawling under the skin
The chokes: choking sensation
The staggers: disturbances in walking
125
What activity increases the risk of decompression sickness and why? What are 2 examples of this in which you must not fly after?
Scuba diving, but not snorkelling, significantly increases the risk of DCS because the high pressure air forces more nitrogen into the blood stream.
Do not fly within:
12 hours of shallow diving using compressed air
24 hours of diving >30ft using compressed air
126
How is decompression sickness treated? When do the mild symptoms disappear?
By putting the individual into a high pressure chamber to force nitrogen back into solution.
Mild symptoms disappear when you descend.
127
When are linear accelerations experienced in an aircraft?
When the aircraft increases or decreases its airspeed.
128
When are angular accelerations (g) experienced in an aircraft?
When the aircraft is pitching nose up or nose down
129
What axis of rotations is associated with angular accelerations? What does pitching up cause in terms of blood flow?
Z axis
Blood circulation to the head is reduced so blood pools in legs
130
Which 3 things does the effects of positive g on the body depend on?
Magnitude
Duration
Speed of onset
131
What are the seven effects of positive G?
Sensation of heaviness, skin on face being pulled down, progressive loss of vision, sense of fatigue and drowsiness, difficulty breathing, all vision lost (blackout), G-LOC.
132
How is carbon monoxide produced?
Incomplete combustion of fuel
133
What is a key property of carbon monoxide and what does this prevent?
Binds readily to haemoglobin (RBCs), preventing breathable oxygen from being absorbed and transported to tissues and organs.
134
4 CO countermeasures?
Immediately close hit air vents
Turn off cabin heating
Open cabin windows
Land ASAP
135
7 symptoms of CO poisoning?
Headache, dizziness, flu symptoms, nausea, abdominal pain, sore throat, dry cough
136
4 symptoms of PROLONGED exposure to CO? BLMD (think colour)
Bright pink skin, mental confusion, loss of consciousness, death
137
3 atmospheric high altitude threats?
Greater conc. ozone (some aircraft fitted with ozone removers)
Cosmic radiation
High intensity UV light
138
What can exposure to high intensity UV light cause? What can exposure to cosmic radiation cause?
Cataracts
Damage DNA
139
What is high relative humidity in the atmosphere mostly associated with? How do the levels of RH in atmosphere compare with on pressurised aircraft?
High ambient temperature
Much lower on aircraft
140
What does low RH cause (4)? 3 remedies?
Spurious thirst, dry eyes, dry skin, dry mucus membranes
Drink plenty, eye drops, aqueous cream
141
What does the Eustachian tube do?
Equalises pressure in middle ear with ambient
142
What is barotrauma and 4 types?
Injury caused by air pressure
Otic: blocked Eustachian tube causes pressure difference between middle ear and ambient, causing pressure on ear drum
Sinus: blocked sinuses cause pressure build up in sinus passages. Intense pain in face and forehead.
Aerodontalgia: trapped gas under fillings cause intense toothache
Gastroenteritis: trapped gas in stomach or bowel causes intense abdominal pain
143
During which phase of flight can optic barotrauma be worst and why?
Descent
Relatively high pressure at entrance to Eustachian tube (back of throat) can cause it to close
144
How can middle ear pressure be equalised with ambient and when should this be done?
How can you alleviate other forms of barotrauma symptoms?
Valsalva technique during climb / descent
Reduce or temporarily stop rate of climb of descent to alleviate other symptoms
145
What does a cold or flu significantly increase the risk of ? What doesn’t it affect the risk of?
Sinus / otic Barotrauma
Aerodontalgia
146
Most common cause of inflight incapacitation in flight crew?
Gastrointestinal upsets
147
When is incapacitation most dangerous? (Onset)
When its onset is insidious
148
What is the most important issue regarding an incapacitated pilot?
Make sure that no part of their body is interfering with aircraft controls
149
How can you help prevent a pilot’s body from interfering with aircraft controls when incapacitated?
Ask a member of cabin crew for help moving them
150
9 hazardous materials in an aircraft?
HFAH BESP C (4 fluids, 2 solid materials, 2 gases, 1 acid-related item)
Hydraulic oil
Fuels
Anti ice fluid
Halon fire extinguishers
Batteries
Exhaust gases
Solvents and degreasers
Plastics in cabin and insulation (toxic fumes when heated or burning)
Composite materials (when damaged)
151
Why can fumes spread rapidly from source throughout cabin? Which type of fumes can degrade pilot performance and what can this lead to? What 5 actions should you follow?
Due to design of AC system
Noxious fumes, leading to incapacitation
1. Oxygen masks 2. Select 100% as soon as fumes suspected 3. Emergency descent. 4. Consider depressurising when safe and opening DV windows 5. Land ASAP
152
When should you seek medical advice from an AME or AMC (aeromedical centre)? X3
If admitted to hospital or clinic
Undergo surgical operation or invasive procedure
Regularly use medication
153
What effect can the in - flight environment have on symptoms that are minor on the ground?
Increase severity of
154
What is fatigue? What are the 2 types?
Tiredness, in aviation, most commonly used to describe mental tiredness.
Short-term: caused by temporary lack of sleep or period of intense work
Chronic: deep seated tiredness caused by continuous exposure to jet lag
155
7 symptoms of chronic fatigue. A PRD IMW (memory, reaction, concentration)
A profound lack of energy and deep sense of tiredness
Poor motor skills and increased reaction time
Reduction in short term memory
Difficulty in concentrating
Increased number of mistakes when flying and/or making calculations
Mood swings and depression
Withdrawing from social inepteraction
156
What is the most effective countermeasure against fatigue?
Adequate periods of rest
157
What is FRMS?
Fatigue risk management system
Data-driven means of continuously monitoring and managing fatigue-related safety risks, based upon scientific principles and knowledge as well as operational experience that aims to ensure relevant personnel are performing at adequate levels of alertness.
158
What is the primary cause of stomach upsets in most of the developing world?
Bacterially contaminated food and water
159
What 9 precautions exist against gastrointestinal upsets in developing countries?
Drink bottled water from sealed bottles
Clean teeth using bottled water only
Wash hands frequently
Avoid ice in drinks and ice creams
Avoids salad and buffet type meals
Thoroughly wash fruit with bottled water before eating
Eat freshly prepared hot food avoid re warmed food
Boil water before drinking of cooking if no bottles
Avoid shellfish
160
What are health risks in tropical climates a result of? X2
Insect and waterborne illnesses and lack of infrastructure for provision of clean drinking water
161
6 sources of incapacitation in tropical countries. LR PIPS (inc. 2 specific diseases) (a small animal ~)
Low hygiene standards
Poor quality of water supply
Insect borne diseases
Parasitic worms
Rabies and other diseases spread through animal contact
STDs
162
5 tropical climate precautions (avoiding bites, malaria, insects, gastro upsets, STDs)
Cover exposed skin at dusk, dawn, nights to avoid bites
Use anti malarial prophylactics
Insect sprays
Follow advise for avoiding gastrointestinal upsets
Avoid risky sexual contact or use protection
163
Name 5 major infectious diseases.
Yellow fever, malaria, tuberculosis, polio, rabies
164
How are aircraft disinfected in certain regions and why?
By spraying in the cabin to avoid the risk of transporting disease carrying insects between regions
165
What is obesity? What are 7 harmful effects? (Disease, sleep, circulation)
A condition in which a person has excessive stores of fat.
Coronary disease
Diabetes
Reduced ability to withstand g
Problem with joints
Circulatory problems
Reduced ability to cope with hypoxia and DCS
Sleep apnea
166
What are the major components of a healthy diet? X5
Water and healthy balance of protein, fats, carbs, vitamins and minerals.
167
How is hyperglycaemia avoided?
Eating meals at regular times
168
What major body processes rely on adequate hydration? Give 3 egs. FOH
All of them
Free flowing circulation
Oxygenation of corneas
Healthy cell function
169
What is another name for type 2 diabetes and what are 4 risk factors? AHHB
Late onset
Age and ethnicity
Hereditary factors
High blood pressure
Body weight
170
3 problems associated with diabetes? Inc. 2 types of damage
Insulin resistance
Vascular damage
Neurological damage
171
Can you have a licence with diabetes?
No, licence disqualifier
172
What type of hazard is back pain for flight crew? What are 5 countermeasures?
Back pain, either generalised or the result of a slipped disk, is an occupational hazard
Good sitting posture
Using a lumbar support
Keep self in good physical condition
Inflight exercise
Physiotherapy
173
8 harmful effects of tobacco
HELS RRPC
Heart attacks
Strokes
Lung disease
Emphysema
Reduced ability to resist hypoxia
Reduced ability to withstand g forces
Poorer night vision
Cancer
174
What is the recommended daily limit for caffeine intake and what may an excess cause x2?
250mg
Cause over stimulation of CNS and degrade performance
175
4 sources of caffeine
Coffee, tea, chocolate, energy drinks
176
What is the EASA limit of blood alcohol level?
0.2g per litre (0.02%)
Or national statutory limit, whichever lower
177
7 effects of Alcohol?
Reduced ability to reason
Reduced inhibitions and loss of. Self control
Degraded vision
Degraded balance
Interrupted sleep patterns
Increased risk of hypoxia
Degraded performance due to interaction with other prescription or non prescription drugs
178
What volume of alcohol is one unit equal to? At what rate does the body eliminate alcohol?
10ml pure
1 unit per hour
179
10 early signs of alcoholism
Gulping the first drink
Needing alcohol to feel good
Continuing to drink well beyond the point when others have stopped
Feeling of guilt about drinking
Anger or irritability when confronted by others about drinking habits
Secret drinking alone
Drinking alone before an evening of socialising
Disguising the mount of alcohol you consume
Binge, compulsive drinking
Morning after shakes
180
What does alcoholism normally develop from?
Prolonged use and abuse
181
Maximum units per day without causing damage to organs for men and women?
3-4
2-3
182
How should you approach a colleague you suspect is becoming dependant on alcohol? X3
Approach promptly and directly.
Be frank but positive.
Expect anger and denials about the suggestion.
183
What do you do if you suspect a colleague of being intoxicated before a flight?
You have no option but to immediately report suspicions.
184
Why is use of non prescription drugs dangerous when flying?
Effect may be much greater in the slightly hypoxic conditions of flight.
185
What medicines in particular can be dangerous and why?
Drugs used to treat colds, flu, hay fever, other allergies, antihistamines in particular
Drowsiness and lack of alertness
186
Self-medication before a flight? General rule..?
No
Not if you’ve not used that drugs before
If you feel unwell enough to self medicate, shouldn’t fly
187
5 initial symptoms of CO poisoning? (Think flu…) +DH
Dry cough
Flu like symptoms
Sore throat
Dizziness
Headache
188
A pilot who is trying to pick up a fallen abject from the cockpit floor during a tight turn may experience?
Coriolis illusion
189
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. A state of hyperventilation can occur in response to psychological stress.
2. Physiological stress, e.g. through intense exercise, can cause hyperventilation.
Both
190
Which four things combine to provide spatial orientation in flight?
Combination of interaction between vision, equilibrium, proprioception and hearing.
191
What is an illusion? (What kind of perception?)
A false or misinterpreted perception of a sensory experience
192
What is shape constancy?
The brain tries to interpret ambiguous information as a consistent 3-D object viewed from different sides
193
Which two flying-related visual occurrences can induces dizziness and vertigo?
Flickering light from strobes, sunlight through prop rotors
194
What is size constancy?
Where the brain makes (sometime false) assumptions about the size of objects
195
What is the prime cause of cognitive illusions?
Faulty mental models
196
What is top-down/bottom-up processing?
TD: A hypothesis is made, and then information is sought to confirm it
BU: Information is sensed and then used to slowly build up a useful perception of the world
197
Is perception objective or subjective? What is the objectiveness/subjectiveness influenced by?
Subectiveness influenced by the individual’s past experience
198
What is one example of how perception plays a decisive role in flight safety? (Think night time)
Interpretation of the presentation of aircraft lights at night in flight.
Working out the orientation of an aircraft at night from its pattern of lights is critical to safe separation from the aircraft.
199
What is the basis of the perceptual process?
Receiving sensory information and constructing mental models to make sense of it.
200
What 2 properties do mental models tend to have once created? What is an example of where this occurred?
Very rigid
Unsusceptible to change
Kegworth accident
201
What effect on individuals can incorrect mental models have? How does this link to the Tenerife Disaster?
They can be very persuasive.
KLM Captain was completely persuaded by what he heard on the radio that he convinced himself and partly convinced his crew that they were cleared for takeoff.
202
What are the 4 influence on perception? TTPE (think cues)
The ambiguity or otherwise of the cues
The number of cues available
Perceptual set (past experience)
Expectancy
203
What is an everyday, practical example of the perceptual process?
Constructing a mental model of a TV set in a room
204
5 visual illusions from an aerial perspective?
False depth perception
False height perception
Disorientation from false terrain horizons
Disorientation caused by sloping cloud tops
False perception of flight path
205
What can cause false depth perception?
Atmospheric haze
206
What can cause false height perception? (X2)
Lack of textural cues
Runway slope
207
What can cause disorientation visual illusions? (X2)
False terrain horizons
Sloping cloud tops
208
What is autokinesis?
False perception of flight path of other aircraft at night.
Other aircraft appears to jump from one location to another.
209
What can empty field myopia inhibit? When in particular (x3)?
Ability to detect other aircraft in flight.
Daylight, high altitude, clear skies.
210
When does the black hole effect occur? What happens to the trajectory of visual approaches?
Night with very few lights surrounding runway or aerodrome.
Dangerously low.
211
Best countermeasure for illusions?
Use aircraft instruments to help correct mental model.
212
Best countermeasures for approach height problems i. in IMC, ii. in VMC? How else?
i. Rely on ILS indications
ii. Rely on PAPIs
Improve size of visual segment by sitting at correct height.
213
When do vestibular illusions occur?
When visual cues are absent
214
Somatogravic illusion?
False sensation of pitching up when accelerating (taking off at night) or pitching down when decelerating (configuring aircraft for landing in IMC).
215
The leans? Caused by? Countermeasures (x2)?
False sensation of increasing or decreasing aircraft bank or attitude (caused by gentle or unintentional control inputs in IMC).
Use instruments and use positive applications if bank and pitch.
216
Coriolis (illusion on body)? Countermeasure?
False sensation of tumbling, usually when you move your head while the aircraft is turning in IMC.
Avoid rapid head movement in IMC.
217
Somatogyral illusion?
False sense of angular acceleration or false sense or no angular acceleration.
Fluid begins rotating with canal after prolonged angular acceleration, making the acceleration. undetectable. Equally, fluid continues moving when accel. stops.
218
Cause of G-related illusions?
“Seat-of-the-pants” sense is incorrect.
Eg. 1G being possible whilst inverted, interpreted by brain as straight and level.
219
Spatial disorientation? 4 steps to counter?
Difference between sensed attitude and actual attitude.
Establish as many visual cues as possible.
Refer to and rely on instruments.
VMC ASAP.
Be aware of risk.
220
What is attention? What is vigilance?
Focussing resources on one set of events to the exclusion of almost all others.
A state of sustained attention over time.
221
6 factors that affect vigilance? AM SEAL
Anxiety
Motivation
Stress
Expectation
Arousal
Level of cockpit automation
222
What is selected attention? What about divided attention?
Processing information from one input to the exclusion (almost) of all others.
Parallel information processing or rapid attention switching, enabling you to attend to multiple stimuli almost simultaneously.
223
Hyper vigilance vs hypo vigilance?
Hyper: very high levels of vigilance
Hypo: very low
224
8 signs of reduced vigilance?
Slower reaction times
Failure to notice stimuli for long periods
Frequent yawning
Slower blink rate
Periods of cognitive absence
Poor motor control
Inadvertent micro sleeps (1-5 secs)
Delusions (false alarms)
225
4 factors affecting attention? ST SW
Salience of stimulus
Workload
Tunnelling of attention
State of vigilance
226
What sequence are stimuli which register attention drawn into memory in?
Sensory store
Working memory
Long-term memory
227
How many sensory stores do we have? What do they hold and for how long?
One for each sense
Holds unprocessed information for very brief periods
228
Another name for working memory? Capacity? What does it hold and for how long?
Short-term memory
Very limited
Holds partially processed information for only a few seconds
229
Capacity of long-term memory? For how long does it hold information for? Does everything get committed to long - term memory?
Large
Very long
No
230
How long does the sensory stores hold unprocessed sensory information for?
Just long enough to allow it to be registered for higher cognitive processing.
231
Average number of separate items that can be held in working (short-term) memory?
7+/- 2
232
What is the working (short-term) memory very sensitive to? What do these cause?
Interruptions
Items in working memory to be lost
233
How can working (short-term) memory capacity be increased?
Chunking
234
2 types of long-term memory? Definitions, examples.
Semantic memory: store of accumulated knowledge. General knowledge about world and language. High structured and organised.
Episodic memory: autobiographical information. Memories of places been to, people known, experiences had.
235
Where are skills (the result of learning) stored?
Long-term memory
236
What is amnesia? 2 types.
Inability to recall or even recognise events that were previously firmly stored in memory. Temporary or permanent.
237
What is a common problem with memory? What is ability to recall a memory adversely affected by? (X2)
Items stored in memory may not be retrievable.
High emotional arousal; limited context.
238
4 ways of improving short-term memory?
Chunk
Rehearse
Repeat
Write down
239
2 ways of improving long-term memory?
Remember associated contexts
Use mnemonics
240
4 types of learning? COIM
Classical conditioning
Operant conditioning
Insight (cognitive learning)
Modelling
241
What is classical conditioning? Conscious? Learning by…
Almost subconscious learning by association
242
What is operant conditioning? Conscious? Modification of behaviour…
Conscious modification of behaviour to produce desirable outcome or avoid undesirable outcome.
243
What is insight (cognitive learning)?
Drawing insights from pieces of knowledge and extrapolating them to a new untried situation.
244
What is modelling?
Imitating and reproducing behaviours
245
2 types of mental schema? What is recall schema based on? What is it used to generate?
What is recognition schema based on?
Recall and recognition.
Initial conditions and past results - motor programme to address a new goal
Sensory actions and outcome
246
Advantage and disadvantage of mental schema? What are mental schema?
Mental schema: method of executing learned skill.
Reduces amount of conscious processing required.
Once initiated tends not to be continuously monitored.
247
What does Rasmussen’s SRK model describe? 3 stages?
Degree of conscious control exercised by the individual over an activity.
Skill mode; rule mode; knowledge mode.
248
What is motivation? The IDE of…
The initiation, direction, and energisation of human behaviour.
249
9 factors affecting human reliability? TWMPNATTC
The organisation
Working conditions
Man-machine interface
Procedures and plans
Number of simultaneous goals
Available time
Time of day
Training and experience
Crew collaboration
250
What is situation awareness and what does good SA involve? (Building…)
Modelling of a situation
Building a mental air picture of one’s situation
251
Indicators of lost situation awareness? (X3)
Feeling that events are in control of you
Things happen which surprise you
Difficulty reconciling new information with what you THINK are the known facts
252
3 steps to regain situation awareness? RSE
(Re)establish control of aircraft
Stabilise flight path
Examine, assess and integrate information from flight instruments and visual cues
253
4 factors affecting situational awareness? PAD W
Workload
Pace of events
Attention tunnelling
Decision making
254
What creates mental models, and what are they approximate to? Why are mental models important?
Brain
Reality
Important method for quickly dealing with very large amounts of information
255
How easy-to-correct are faulty mental models and why?
Difficult
Once made, MM become relatively immune from reevaluation.
256
What is an error chain?
Sequence of interdependent errors whose effects are cumulative.
257
Example of isolated error?
Misreading altimeter leading to an altitude bust
258
Most common cause of aircraft accidents?
Error chains
259
7 types of errors, omissions and faults? AMALO VF
Action slip: correct intention; poor execution.
Mistake: error from incorrect intention.
Violation: intentional deviation from what’s known to be correct.
Active error: short-lived failures, directly linked to accident/incident.
Latent error: errors which are lain dormant for some time before contributing to accident/incident.
Omissions: forgetting or failing to carry out required action.
Faults: incorrect functioning of hardware.
260
How easy are latent errors to detect? When do they often come to light?
How can active errors be reduced (x2)?
Hard
When accident chain of events is examined
Training and MCC
261
What are i. internal, and ii. external errors generated by?
i. Cognitive factors
ii. Things which impose of the human
262
7 sources of internal error?
4 sources of external error?
Perceptual errors; memory failure; distraction; poor motivation; low arousal; fatigue; skill deterioration.
Stressors; organisational issues; poor ergonomics; excessive workload.
263
What 2 things are motor programmes susceptible to? (2 specific names for the types of “error”)
Action slips: right intention, wrongly executed.
Environmental capture: programme executed due to its association with familiar/similar external conditions.
264
Error tolerance?
A design which reduces the seriousness of the consequences of an error.
265
9 strategies to reduce human error? Error… CPDRT; ASFE
Error cause removal programmes
Error prevention
Automation
Error detection programmes
Error recovery techniques
Error tolerant systems
Safety audits (LOSA)
Flight Ops Quality Assurance (FOQA) programmes
Evidence based training (EBT) techniques
266
What is deciding?
Actively and consciously choosing between 2 or more options.
267
What is decision-making?
The process of choosing between 2 or more possible courses of action.
268
4 major factors on which decision-making is based? AAAC
Aim
Available info
Available options
Consequences
269
6 error sources in decision-making? BIMFEL
Bias
Inexperience
False hypothesis’s
Emotional state
Mental saturation
Lack of time
270
3 risk assessment factors? IPC (All threat-related)
Identification of potential threats
Probability of the threat occurring
Consequences of the threat
271
When is an individual likely to make a quick decision based on past experience? (X2)
When risk of decision is assessed as low
And/or
Time pressure very high
272
What kind of decisions can a well-functioning group produce? What’s a risk? (What’s risky shift?)
More effective decisions
Group dynamics can lead to riskier decisions than would otherwise have been taken by each individual in the group (risky shift).
273
9 points for ideal decision-making model? D CADE MIAR (AIROEDCR)
Define aim
Collect necessary information
Assess the risk
Develop the options
Evaluate each option
Make a decision
Implement a decision
Assess the consequences
Review decision and, if necessary, change it.
274
4 undesirable group influences? GREC
Risky shift
Conformity
Groupthink
Excessive obedience
275
Is cooperation helpful? What 2 things does it involve?
Yes
Communicate
Share information and tasks
276
What is co-action?
All crew members sopersting towards the same aim but not necessarily communicating or sharing.
277
What is a group?
2 or more people with shared goals, values or motives which distinguish them from others.
278
What is there between members of a healthy group?
Interdependence.
279
4 advantages of teamwork?
Better decision-making
Better defence against errors
Reduced workload
Ability to deal with multiple tasks safely
280
3 disadvantages of teamwork?
Poor dynamics leading to riskier decisions, lack of cooperation or lack of objectivity.
Potential for conflict
Sometimes slower decision making process
281
What is synergy?
Cohesive group working cooperatively becomes more than the sum of its parts.
282
What is cohesion?
Degree to which a group hangs together as a tightly knit, self-contained entity.
283
What is groupthink?
Mode of thinking where desire to reach unanimous agreement overrides motivation to use proper, rational decision making processes.
284
4 essential conditions for good teamwork? GMWI
Good leadership and followship
Mutual respect
Well-defined roles
Individuals matched to roles
285
What are group norms?
Informal, often unstated, rules that groups develop to convey expectations of what behaviour is appropriate.
286
Status vs role?
Status: relative social position within a group
Role: formally assigned position in group
287
4 ways individual behaviour can be modified by group? POCC
Persuasion
Conformity: desire to conform overwhelms individual judgement
Compliance: authority gradient results in compliance even if wrong
Obedience: obeying order even if wrong
288
What is leadership? Art of..
The art of influencing thoughts and actions of others by own behaviour and ideas
289
What is followership? Skill of…
Skill of complementing leadership to ensure optimal functioning and effectiveness of group.
290
Trans-cockpit authority gradient? What if too steep?
Perceived difference in ability, status and role between Cpt. and FO.
FO will fail to adequately contribute to effective group decision-making.
291
3 leadership styles?
Interactive: good teamwork. Eliciting, listening, acting.
Authoritarian: strict with inferiors. Unreceptive to FO inputs. Rigid thinker.
Paternalistic: discourages attempts by ‘juniors’ to question judgement. Highly conscious of status. Sees subordinate’s function to carry out orders.
292
3 attributes of positive leadership style (P+G+)? (Balances… maximises… creates)
Balances needs of crew and task
Maximises crew respect and commitment
Creates positive crew dynamic
293
Percentage of all communication that is non-verbal?
75%
294
Explicit vs implicit comms? How can they be perceived?
Explicit: unambiguous, clear intent but could be perceived as imperious, rude, domineering.
Implicit: subtly conveys message but may be ambiguous.
295
Intrapersonal vs interpersonal conflict?
Intra: conflict within; doubt and questioning ability and perf.
Inter: between people.
296
5 stages of conflict escalation? pdcfc
1: problem to be solved
2: difference of opinion
3: confrontation
4: fight or flight
5: combat
297
6 measures to prevent conflict escalating? IAAF MN
Inquiry: open questions
Active listening: listen, don’t just prepare next statement
Advocacy: present rational argument
Feedback: provide it politely
Meta-communication: restrict negative non-verbal cues
Negotiation: where possible, compromise
298
What 3 things is individual behaviour the product of? PAG
Personality, attitudes, group influences
299
What is personality? (How stable? Set of what 2 things?) Result of which 2 things?
A broadly stable set of characteristics and behaviour patterns.
Result of innate characteristics and early experiences.
300
What is attitude? Assembled as a result of?
General and more or less stable predisposition to behave in a certain way in response to specific situations.
Due to external influences and experience.
301
What is a habit? 2 types?
Standard responses to familiar situations.
Good and bad.
302
2 causes of conflict on the flight deck? (One option is a type of behaviour)
Personality differences
Selfish behaviour
303
2 principle modes of personality?
Personality factors (common trait): made up of stable combination of characteristics which can be measured and tested.
Humanist: change over time, depending on individual’s perception of self concept vs ideal self. If matched, individual is happy, if not, bad.
304
6 hazardous attitudes ? AMI ICR
Anti-authority
Macho
Impulsiveness
Invulnerability
Complacency
Resignation
305
What is arousal? What does it increase and improve? State of PP…
State of physiological or psychological excitement which increases sensitivity to external stimuli and improves response times to them.
306
Effect of too much or too little arousal? (Both cause same thing)
Degradation in ability to detect and respond to stimuli
307
What is stress? (State + cause)
A heightened sate of arousal caused by external, stressful events known as stressors.
308
What is the general adaptation syndrome (GAS)?
Fight or flight, physiological response to stress
309
What happens during GAS response? (General, then soecific 7 examples)
Autonomic nervous system prepares body for intense physical action.
Increased heart rate
Increased respiration rate
Increased muscle tension
Reduced production of saliva
Loss of appetite
High level of alertness
Increased energy levels
310
Relationship between physiological stress and arousal?
Proportional
311
4 categories of stress ODPP
Occupational
Domestic
Physiological
Paychological
312
6 examples of flight deck environment stressors?
Poor temperature control
Poor humidity control
Noise
Vibration
Multiple aural and visual warning alerts
313
At what point does an individual become overloaded with stress? What happens after?
Break point
Performance deteriorates rapidly
314
6 principle causes of domestic stress?
Death of partner
Divorce
Marital separation
Death of close family member
Personal injury
Illness
315
Why are different levels of stress perceived differently by individuals? What 2 things is stress a result of?
Differences in perceived difficulty in overcoming cause of stress.
Perceived demands and perceived ability.
316
5 factors affecting stress tolerance? NMEHH
Natural level of calmness
Maturity
Effective coping mechanisms
High level of self-confidence
High level of concentration
317
5 acute stress effects? (All physiological)
Increased breathing rate
Increased heart rate
Increased muscle tension
Rise in blood sugar level
Blood diverted to brain
318
Three stages of GAS? ARE
Alarm: acute stress symptoms
Resistance: corticosteroids released; blood flow raised; blood sugar level preserved; fat instantly available for conversion to sugar.
Exhaustion: fat reserves used up, drop in blood sugar level.
319
3 types of stress reaction? PPS
Psychological: restlessness, nervousness, excitement.
Psychosomatic: physiological changes caused by psychological stress.
Somatic: autonomic physiological responses.
320
What happens upon successful completion of a task, initially perceived to be difficult?
Future stress reduces
Perceived level of ability has increased.
321
5 stress coping strategies DIPIO
Direct action: change relationship with, remove, or escape from, stressor.
Information seeking: understand and predict stressor.
Inhibition: do nothing.
Palliative coping: reduce symptoms (relaxation techniques)
Obtaining support
322
Boeing vs. Airbus automation philosophies?
Boeing: pilot remains last operator.
Airbus: automated system can correct erroneous pilot action.
323
2 fundamental restrictions of autoflight systems? (Compared to what humans can do)
Lack of creativity in unknown situations
Lack of personal motivation with regard to safety
324
3 ironies of automation?
Design errors due to wrong interpretation of the data
Leaving tasks to the pilot that are too complex to automate
Loss of manual and cognitive skills of the pilot
325
One possible countermeasure to automation problems?
Regular training flights.
326
4 disadvantages of automation?
Loss of manual flying skills
Additional workload involved with programming FMS
Risk of slips during programming
Hypovigilence
327
4 human errors associated with automation? PBCL
Passive monitoring: looking, not taking in information
Blinkered concentration: focusing on just one element of the info displays
Confusion: loss of situation awareness caused by being out of the loop
Loss of mode awareness: caused by failure to monitor mode changes or ack of understanding of modes
328
Countermeasures against ineffective monitoring of automation? (X2)
Call-outs
Revert to lower level of automation (in the loop again)
329
330
What is complacency?
Sense of satisfaction resulting from, or leading to, a general lack of critical analysis of the circumstances.
331
3 objectives for multi-crew concept?
Provide redundancy
Divide responsbility
Share workload
332
2 fundamental elements of multi-crew concept? CC
Cooperation
Communication
333
What 2 things do SOPs reduce?
Ambiguity
Unexpected actions
334
With whose recommendations do checklists encourage the aircraft to be operated? 3 positive effects of checklists? Who reads out checklist, and who actions?
Manufacturer’s
Reduce risk of omissions; correctly sequence actions; encourage cooperations and cross-checking
Read out by PM, actioned by PF
335
What do crew briefings remind of and who carries them out?
Actions to be taken during critical phase
PF
336
What do deeply-ingrained SOPs become? Why can this be dangerous?
Habit
Converting between airlines/aircraft types
337
3 components of TEM model?
Threats
Errors
Undesired aircraft states
338
3 examples of latent threats? (Think Helios)
Incorrect safety altitude on charts
Same audio warning for different faults
Incorrect published SOPs
339
2 examples of environmental threats?
Very high traffic in the circuit
Windshear on final
340
3 organisational threats?
Culture of indiscipline
Lack of oversight/supervision
Commercial pressures
341
What is procedural error caused by? (Interaction between…) 1 example?
Caused interaction between pilot and procedure.
Incorrectly reading from a checklist.
342
What is communication error caused by? (Interaction between…) 1 example?
Interaction between pilot and other people (such as ATC/Ground Crew)
Incorrectly hearing a radio frequency chsnge
343
What is an aircraft handling error caused by? 1 eg.
Interaction between pilot and aircraft.
Failure to maintain level flight in a turn.
344
5 egs of undesired aircraft states?
Vertical, lateral or speed deviations
Unnecessary weather penetration
Unauthorised airspace penetration
Operation outside aircraft limitations
Unstable approach
345
Components of SHELL model?
Software: policies, procedures, manuals, checklists, charts, computer programmes.
Hardware: aircraft systems.
Environment: internal and external physical and social climate.
Liveware (central): human reliability.
Liveware (peripheral): human-human interactions.
346
What 2 things do the interactions between components of SHELL model determine?
Reliability of and proneness to error of flight deck ops.
347
What 2 things does an open culture allow?
Mistakes to be reported without risk of sanctions
Allows others to benefit from this knowledge
348
Closed culture: 2 features; what does it prevent?
Conspiracy of silence; mishaps are not publicised.
Individuals can’t learn from mistakes of others.
349
How might organisational norms be influenced?
National cultural norms
350
What does “safety first” fail to take account of? (Why might it be easier said than done?)
Commercial pressure to deliver a service.
351
Reason’s Swiss Cheese Model?
A series of defences (analogous to walls) are out in place to interrupt potential accident chains.
Holes in the wall can align.
When they do, they open an accident trajectory pathway through all the walls.
352
5 requirements of safety culture? JRILF (all types of culture)
Just culture
Reporting culture
Informed culture
Learning culture
Flexible culture
353
A just culture’s approach to deliberate transgression?
Compare to non-punitive culture?
Appropriate punishment
Unjustly unpunished
354
SMS meaning? 2 basic concepts (what 3 things do these break down into)?
Safety management system.
Identifying hazards and managing risks to…
* Define how organisation is set up to manage risks
* Identify workplace risk and implement suitable controls.
* Implement effective communication across all levels of organisation.
ATPL MOD1
flashcards
Decks in class (19)
# Cards
-
Human Performance LOs354
-
TEM4
-
Principles Of Flight LOs (1)500
-
Meteorology LOs (1)497
-
Instrumentation - Basic LOs232
-
Mass & Balance LOs166
-
AGK - Airframes & Systems LOs249
-
Instrumentation - Advanced LOs346
-
Jack And Dad - Gyros7
-
Air Law - LOs471
-
Air Law - Regulation (EU) No 965/2012 on Air Operations25
-
AGK - Electrics LOs146
-
AGK - Engines LOs243
-
Principles Of Flight LOs (2)38
-
Meteorolgy LOs (2)17
-
Engines Ch. 1-9116
-
Engines Ch. 10+126
-
Principles of Flight Ch. 26-32173
-
Air Law (conventions, EASA Basics)14
