1
Q
Are you guaranteed aircraft separation when operating VFR-on-top?
A
No, pilot is responsible for see and avoid in VFR conditions
Ref: TC 3-04.5 para 10-48, AIM 4-4-8, 4-4-111
2
Q
What is the minimum equipment required on the aircraft for operating in Class D airspace?
A
Operable two way radio
Ref: TC 3-04.5 fig 8-1, AIM 3-2-5, Part 91.129
3
Q
What is the upper limit of the low altitude structure?
A
17,999 MSL
Ref: AIM 3-2-2, GP 2-28, FAR 71.33
4
Q
After initiating a straight-in approach with appropriate weather, subsequent weather is given below minimums, what action should you take?
A
- Advise ATC
- Proceed to MAP
- Execute the missed approach
Ref: TC 3-04.5 10-241-244, AIM 5-4-21
5
Q
How is ETE computed and entered on the DD 175 for VFR and IFR flights?
A
- VFR: Takeoff time to position over destination airport, including known or preplanned delays
- IFR: ETE is elapsed time from T/O until over 1st point of intended landing
Ref: GP 4-16 (11)
6
Q
What does an AWOS weather broadcast usually cover?
A
- Minimum-Wind Speed
- Gusts
- Direction
- Variable direction
- Temperature
- Dew point
- Altimeter
- Density altitude
- Additional (depending on AWOS model): visibility, variable visibility, sky condition, cloud type/height, present WX, precip ID, thunderstorms & LTG
Ref: FIH(2013) C-57 (13), TC 3-04.5 C-20 Table C-13, AIM Table 7-1-3
7
Q
Where can information for Restricted Areas be found?
A
GP 1-4 Index, AP-1, AP-1/A, 2/A, 3/A, Chart Legend
8
Q
What is a SIGMET?
A
SIGMET advises of nonconvective weather that is potentially hazardous to all aircraft
Valid for 4 hours, conditions associated with hurricanes/volcanoes are valid for 6 hours. Severe icing not associated with thunderstorms, severe/extreme turbulence, CAT, sand/dust reducing visibility to <3 miles, volcanic ash – Ref: AIM 7-1-6 (c)
9
Q
What is an AIRMET?
A
AIRMETs (WAs) are advisories of significant weather phenomena but describe conditions at intensities lower than those which require the issuance of SIGMETs
AIRMETs contain details about IFR, extensive mountain obscuration, turbulence, strong surface winds, icing, and freezing levels. 6 hour window, Sierra-Low IFR, Tango- Turbulence, winds>30kts, low level windshear, Zulu- mod icing/freezing levels – Ref: AIM 7-1-6 (f)
10
Q
When is the aircraft considered to be in the holding pattern?
A
Crossing the holding fix
Ref: GP 2-23, FIH B-6, C-12U DATM Task 1210, PC/G H-2
11
Q
Is it required to report entering holding when in radar contact?
A
Yes
Military aircrew may omit these reports at military terminal approach control in areas of IFR training- FIH B-6 Note 6&7
12
Q
When is a teardrop entry into holding authorized?
A
Arriving from the appropriate sector IAW TC 3.04.5 10-125, AIM 5-3-8 j.3.b Fig 5-3-4
13
Q
Is a pilot ever authorized to exceed one minute inbound while holding?
A
Yes, >14,000 MSL 1+30 legs
IAW TC 3.04.5 10-127, AIM 5-3-8 j.4 b.
14
Q
Can RVR be used in conjunction with a circling approach?
A
No
AR 95-1 Para 5-5
15
Q
What are the pilot actions while on a GPS and one or both of the following occur: RAIM failure or the GPS does not sequence to active approach?
A
- Request an alternate procedure
- If passed the final approach waypoint, climb to the missed approach altitude and execute the missed approach
16
Q
What information does Precision Approach Radar provide the pilot?
A
- Course
- Glideslope
- Range information
IAW TC 3.04.5 10-210, Range, azimuth and elevation (AIM 4-5-4,5-4-11 (c) 1.
17
Q
What is the required obstacle clearance on a direct leg of flight over mountainous terrain?
A
2000’ AGL
TC 3-04.5 page C-27
18
Q
While enroute, can an IFR flight be changed to VFR and how?
A
Contact ATC and say ‘I would like to cancel my IFR flight plan’
Ref: AIM 5-1-15
19
Q
How do you file VFR-On-Top on your flight plan?
A
File IFR-File (Y) on DD 1801-Request climb to VFR-on-Top
Ref: GP 4-23, AIM 5-5-13, TC .5- 10-7
20
Q
Can a pilot hold at his destination if weather is below minimums for the approach upon arrival and what conditions must be met?
A
Yes, provided fuel and alternate reserves remain adequate
21
Q
Under normal conditions, will an ARTCC accept VFR flight plans?
A
No
22
Q
What does a cruise clearance allow a pilot to do?
A
Fly at a specified altitude
23
Q
When a pilot flies through a restricted area, who is responsible to obtain the clearance through the area?
A
The pilot
24
Q
What weather is required to file to a destination VFR?
A
Weather must be above minimums
25
How long is the **weather briefing void time** good for on the 175-1?
1 hour
## Footnote
26
With whom do you close your **flight plan** at a civilian airfield?
ATC or FSS
## Footnote
27
Does the phrase **'cleared as filed'** include approval of your altitude?
No
## Footnote
28
What are the required items of an **IFR clearance**?
* Aircraft identification
* Clearance limit
* Route of flight
* Departure point
* Altitude
* Departure time
## Footnote
29
When arriving at your **clearance limit** without further clearance, what should the pilot expect to do?
Hold or proceed to the missed approach point
## Footnote
30
What is a **SID**?
Standard Instrument Departure
## Footnote
31
What AR requires an **Army Aviator** to comply with FARs while in IFR conditions?
AR 95-1
## Footnote
32
When may a pilot descend from **procedure turn altitude**?
After established on the inbound leg
## Footnote
33
What is an **option approach**?
An approach where the pilot can choose to land or go around
## Footnote
34
What does the term **NOPT** mean?
No Option
## Footnote
35
Where is the **runway touchdown zone marker**?
At the beginning of the runway touchdown zone
## Footnote
36
When may a pilot descend from his **MDA** or **DH**?
When the runway environment is in sight
## Footnote
37
When any part of a **short range clearance** differs from that specified in the original flight plan, the clearance must include what?
The specific changes made
## Footnote
38
What are the **takeoff minimums** for an Army aviator with more than 50 hours of weather time?
1 statute mile visibility
## Footnote
39
What are the **three classifications of VORs** and the usable ranges?
* Terminal: 25 NM
* Low altitude: 40 NM
* High altitude: 100 NM
## Footnote
40
If published and reported, **RVR** must be used instead of prevailing visibility?
True
## Footnote
41
If you are unsatisfied with an **ATC clearance**, what can you do?
Request clarification or a different clearance
## Footnote
42
What is the primary difference between an **ESA** and **MSA**?
ESA provides obstacle clearance for emergency situations, MSA is for normal operations
## Footnote
43
Where is the **missed approach point** on an ASR approach?
At the decision altitude
## Footnote
44
What **obstacle clearance** does the MSA provide?
1000 feet in non-mountainous terrain, 2000 feet in mountainous terrain
## Footnote
45
When cleared to climb or descend by **ATC**, when should a pilot begin the maneuver?
Immediately after receiving clearance
## Footnote
46
If clearance is given short of your destination, when is the **controlling agency** expected to issue further clearance?
Prior to reaching the clearance limit
## Footnote
47
If you were going to set up an **instrument approach** at an airfield, what would be your guide for the procedure?
The published approach procedure
## Footnote
48
What is a **VOT** and what is its use?
VOR Test Facility, used to check VOR accuracy
## Footnote
49
How long may you operate **VFR over the top** on a VFR flight plan and what is the difference between VFR over-the-top and VFR on-top?
Indefinitely, VFR over-the-top is under a cloud layer, VFR on-top is above it
## Footnote
50
What are the **minimum requirements** that must be met before operating in Class B airspace?
* ATC clearance
* Mode C transponder
* Two-way radio communication
## Footnote
51
What in the U.S. is designated as **mountainous terrain**?
Areas with elevations above 3,000 feet
## Footnote
52
Explain the term **direct route**.
A flight path that does not follow established airways
## Footnote
53
What is the **publishing cycle** for the GP?
Every 56 days
## Footnote
54
Describe the **semicircular rule** for VFR and IFR.
Odd altitudes for eastbound flights, even altitudes for westbound flights
## Footnote
55
When being **radar vectored** to the final approach course for an instrument approach, what are the maximum intercept angles and their distance limits?
20 degrees within 3 NM, 30 degrees within 5 NM
## Footnote
56
While being vectored to the final approach course for an instrument approach, you notice the vector is taking you through the course, should you turn and intercept the course inbound?
Yes, if safe to do so
## Footnote
57
When are you required to make a **malfunction report**?
When a significant malfunction occurs affecting safety
## Footnote
58
When is a **position report** required when operating on an IFR flight plan?
At each reporting point or when requested by ATC
## Footnote
59
When executing an **instrument approach**, under what conditions can you expect a PAR monitor?
When radar service is provided
## Footnote
60
What are the **altitude and distance limitations** for an ILS localizer?
Typically 250 feet AGL and 10 NM
## Footnote
61
How many ways can you check the **VOR for accuracy**?
Three ways: ground check, airborne check, and VOT
## Footnote
62
What is a **visual approach**?
An approach where the pilot has visual reference to the runway
## Footnote
63
What is a **contact approach**?
An approach where the pilot navigates visually to the airport
## Footnote
64
While on a radar vector you experience **lost commo**, what are your actions?
Follow the last clearance received and proceed to the last known position
## Footnote
65
When does the **MOCA** guarantee everything that MEA does?
When operating within 22 NM of a VOR
## Footnote
66
When may ATC terminate **radar** without notifying the pilot?
When the pilot is established on the approach
## Footnote
67
During a **circle to land**, visual contact is lost with the landing runway, what, if any, are the pilot’s actions?
Execute the missed approach
## Footnote
68
Explain the **usable distance limitations** for NAVAIDS.
Distance limitations apply based on the type of NAVAID and environmental factors
## Footnote
Ref: JO para 4-1-1, AIM para 1-1-8
69
When specifying a route other than an established airway or route, do not exceed the limitations in the table on any portion of the route which lies within **controlled airspace**.
True
## Footnote
70
When do the **distance limitations** not apply for NAVAID usage?
When routing is initiated by ATC or requested by the pilot and radar monitoring is provided
## Footnote
71
What facilities are available to the pilot for **updating weather** while enroute?
* VOLMET Voice Wx/Broadcasts
* ADS-B/FIS-B-equipped aircraft
* ARTCCs broadcast Severe WX Alert
* SIGMETs, Convective SIGMETS, or CWAs
* HIWAS broadcast over NAVAIDS
* EFAS (Enroute Flight Advisory Service)
## Footnote
72
ATC announces that **PAT3545** is 'Cleared Approach', what does that clearance mean?
ATC authorization for an aircraft to execute any standard or special instrument approach procedure for that airport
## Footnote
Normally, an aircraft will be cleared for a specific instrument approach procedure. Ref: .65Y-4-8-1, PC/G, GP 2-12, AIM 5-4-6
73
Define the **battery requirements** for use of an EFB in flight.
* Not connected to power source without AWR
* 10% for each hour of flight, not less than 50%
## Footnote
Ref: AR 95-1 5-7
74
What does **FAR 91.21** state about Portable electronic devices (PEDs)?
Pilots must determine that the PED won’t interfere with the navigation or communication systems
## Footnote
75
What is the **guideline** for the Certification, Airworthiness and Operational Use of Electronic Flight Bags (EFB)?
The in-flight use of an EFB/ECD in lieu of paper reference material is the decision of the aircraft operator and the pilot in command
## Footnote
Ref: AC 120-76D
76
What are the two types of **EFBs**?
* Installed: Hardware incorporated into aircraft type design
* Portable: Consumer commercial off-the-shelf devices
## Footnote
77
What must battery-powered EFBs provide before departing?
* An established procedure to recharge the battery from aircraft power during flight operations
* A battery or batteries with a combined useful battery life to ensure operational availability
## Footnote
78
When are **altimeter settings** required to be read back?
No requirement, however, recommends 'readback of the numbers'
## Footnote
Ref: AIM 4-4-7
79
What is the **established procedure** to recharge the battery from aircraft power during flight operations?
A battery or batteries with a combined useful battery life to ensure operational availability during taxi and flight operations to include diversions and reasonable delays considering duration of flight.
## Footnote
This ensures that the aircraft remains operational throughout its flight.
80
When are **altimeter settings** required to be read back?
* No requirement, but recommended readback of the numbers
* Safety-related parts of ATC clearances and instructions must be read back
## Footnote
Specific items to read back include runway-in-use, altimeter settings, SSR codes, level instructions, heading and speed instructions.
81
What is the **maximum allowable altimeter error**?
* C-12U: 70 feet of field elevation
* AIM: +/- 75 Feet Field elevation
## Footnote
This ensures accuracy in altitude reporting and safety during flight operations.
82
Define **runway environment** according to TC -10-185, FAR 91.175.
* Approach light system
* Threshold
* Threshold markings
* Threshold lights
* Runway end identifier lights
* Visual glideslope indicator
* Touchdown zone or markings
* Touchdown zone lights
* Runway or runway markings
* Runway lights
## Footnote
These components are critical for pilots during approach and landing phases.
83
Can **ASR radar** be used to identify a fix on an instrument approach?
Yes
## Footnote
ASR provides a backup system for airport surveillance radar in case of terminal secondary radar system failure.
84
Is ATC required to notify the pilot if the **weather is below minimums** for the approach being flown?
No
## Footnote
Pilots must be aware of weather conditions but ATC is not mandated to inform them.
85
Where is the **missed approach point** for a PAR approach?
At the decision height
## Footnote
This is crucial for pilots to know when to execute a missed approach.
86
What is the **transponder code** for emergency operations?
7700
## Footnote
This code is universally recognized for emergency situations.
87
Under what conditions are you **not expected to execute a procedure turn**?
* Radar Vectors
* Straight-in approach
* No PT on IAP for arrival route
* Timed approach from holding fix
## Footnote
These conditions streamline the approach process.
88
What is the **approach category** of a C-12 aircraft based on?
CAT B, 1.3 stall speed of the aircraft in the landing configuration at max gross landing weight
## Footnote
This classification affects approach and landing procedures.
89
What time should be entered on the **time to destination block** on the DD 175 for a stopover flight plan?
_______
## Footnote
Specific guidance is needed for accurate flight planning.
90
Who is responsible to ensure that the most recent **weather** has been received for the flight being conducted?
Pilot In Command
## Footnote
This responsibility is critical for flight safety.
91
What type of airport has a **green and white rotating beacon**?
Lighted land airport
## Footnote
Difference between civil and military beacons includes two white flashes between the green.
92
What is the primary responsibility of the **air route traffic control center**?
Provide ATC services to aircraft operating on IFR flight plans within controlled airspace
## Footnote
They may assist VFR aircraft if workload permits.
93
When can you descend out of **7000 feet** after being cleared RNAV Rwy 32 approach into Bradford?
When within 30 NM of Zuter TAA you can descend to 4500
## Footnote
This is crucial for maintaining safe altitude during approach.
94
What does a **Remote Air/Ground communications outlet** provide?
An unmanned communications facility remotely controlled by air traffic personnel
## Footnote
RCOs serve FSSs and extend communication range for air traffic facilities.
95
How can you determine if **approach control** has radar capability?
(R) annotated in IFR Supplement
## Footnote
TRACON list can also be referenced.
96
Where is the **reference or distance circle** measured from on Instrument Approach Charts?
From the navigation facility unless otherwise indicated
## Footnote
This is important for approach planning.
97
What is the **Landing threshold point (LTP)**?
Intersection of the runway centerline and the runway threshold
## Footnote
Defined by latitude/longitude coordinates and MSL elevation.
98
For what period of time must the **weather meet or exceed** the alternate requirements?
ETA + 1 hour
## Footnote
This ensures safe alternate planning.
99
Can Army pilots file a **flight plan** and fly to a civil airport?
Yes
## Footnote
They must advise FSS of departure time.
100
If weather is forecast to be below published minimums for the lowest approach, can a pilot take off to that destination?
No
## Footnote
Destination weather must meet or exceed published WX planning minimums.
101
What is the difference between a **straight in approach** and a **straight in landing**?
* Straight-in approach: IFR approach without executing a procedure turn
* Straight-in landing: Landing made on a runway aligned within 30 degrees of the final approach course
## Footnote
This distinction is important for approach and landing procedures.
102
On a circling approach, can the **airport be over flown** during the maneuver for landing?
Yes
## Footnote
There is no restriction from passing over the airport.
103
Can an airport be used as an **alternate** if the letters ANA are published on the approach plate?
No
## Footnote
This indicates restrictions for alternate use.
104
When can **DME** be substituted for the outer marker?
When authorized in the standard instrument approach procedure
## Footnote
Substitution is determined by the appropriate 14 CFR part 97 approach procedure.
105
What transponder code would be entered on the **DD-175 flight plan** for a C-12 with GPS installed?
_______
## Footnote
Specific codes are required for accurate flight tracking.
106
What is the purpose of the **ILS Critical Area hold line**?
To protect the critical area during specific weather conditions
## Footnote
Less than ceiling 800 feet and/or visibility 2 miles.
107
How is the **ETE to an Alternate airfield** computed?
* Time from MAP to missed approach holding point
* Missed approach holding point to the alternate including approach and landing time
## Footnote
This ensures accurate flight planning for alternate routes.
108
What is the **maximum operating speed** of an aircraft in Class B airspace?
250 KIAS
## Footnote
Provisions exist for military aircraft to exceed this speed below 10,000 feet.
109
What is the **in-flight visibility** and distance from the clouds requirement for operating in Class B airspace?
3 miles, clear of clouds
## Footnote
This is crucial for maintaining safe flight operations.
110
What is the visibility and cloud clearance requirement for operating in **Class E airspace**, above and below 10,000 ft?
* Below 10K: 3 miles, 500’ below, 1000’ above, 2000 horizontal
* Above 10K: 5 miles, 1000’ below, 1000’ above, 1 sm horizontal
## Footnote
These requirements ensure safe operations in varying airspace classes.
111
What are the **basic ground components** of an ILS?
* Localizer
* Glideslope
* Marker beacon
* DME
* Approach lights
* Touchdown & centerline lights
* Runway lights
## Footnote
These components are essential for precision landing.
112
What must be in the **frequency box** of a published localizer frequency for DME to be available?
An 'I' in front of the NAVAID identifier
## Footnote
This indicates a localizer and a TACAN channel.
113
What must be in the **frequency box** of a published localizer frequency for DME to be available?
An “I” in front of the NAVAID identifier
## Footnote
Indicates a localizer and a TACAN channel, which signifies DME availability.
114
What is the required **obstacle clearance (IFR)** on a direct leg of a flight over non-mountainous terrain?
1000 feet AGL
## Footnote
Refer to 91.177, TC 4-29, GP 7-10.
115
Will the **circling, visibility, and MDA** change for the approach being flown if the category changes?
Yes
## Footnote
Circling approach radii vary according to approach category and MSL circling altitude due to TAS changes.
116
What is the **minimum and maximum radius criteria** for an intermediate approach segment which is based on an arc?
Min of 7 NM and no more than 30 NM
## Footnote
Refer to TERPS 2-5-4.
117
What is the **width of a federal airway**?
8 NM (4 each side)
## Footnote
Refer to LF 4.34 NM each side, TERPS 15-1-2, 15-1-7, PHAK G-33, G-12.
118
What is the **width of the primary and secondary area** of an airway (VOR airway) for segments less than 50 NM long?
8 NM Primary, 12 NM Secondary
## Footnote
Refer to IPH 2-21.
119
How far from the airport can a facility be located and be considered an **On-Airport facility**?
1 mile
## Footnote
Refer to TERPS 4-1-1.
120
What is the **maximum distance** that a step-down fix can be placed from a facility on a straight-in approach?
4 NM
## Footnote
Refer to TERPS 2-5-5.
121
After receiving your **IFR clearance**, are you required to read back the clearance?
Should, but not mandatory
## Footnote
AIM 4-4-7, FAR 91.123, JO 2-4-3 allows “Roger.”
122
Will straight-in **DH or MDA** change for an instrument approach if the approach category changes?
Yes
## Footnote
Changes may occur based on the approach category.
123
What information does **Airport Surveillance Radar** provide the pilot?
Azimuth
## Footnote
Guidance in elevation is not possible; the pilot will be advised when to commence descent.
124
What aircraft systems can be used to identify an **unmonitored Outer Marker** on an ILS Approach?
DME, another NAVAID, a crossing radial, or radar
## Footnote
If these substitutes are depicted on the approach plate or identified by NOTAM.
125
Explain **CDI sensitivity** and the associated change distances when nearing the terminal area.
CDI sensitivity refers to the scaling of the CDI deflection scale
## Footnote
Three basic modes: Enroute > 30NM ±5 NM, Terminal ±1 NM, Approach .3 NM.
126
While executing an RNAV (GPS) instrument approach, what FMS/GPS system functions must be verified by the aircrew prior to crossing the initial approach fix?
Receiver has switched from Armed to Approach
## Footnote
Procedures match published approach plate.
127
What weather is required to initiate a **straight-in approach**?
Mil-0/0 for military, VFR minimums for civil
## Footnote
Civil – No pilot may land unless weather is at or above minimums.
128
Above what altitude must the **altimeter** be set to 29.92 (CONUS)?
18,000 MSL
## Footnote
Refer to FAR 91.121.
129
How soon before ETD should a pilot file an **IFR flight plan**?
At least 30 minutes prior
## Footnote
To preclude possible delay in receiving a departure clearance.
130
May an aircraft operate **VFR in Class B airspace**?
Yes
## Footnote
Must have two-way radio and obtain ATC clearance.
131
When can you initiate the descent to the **procedure turn completion altitude** from the procedure turn fix altitude?
After completing the outbound turn
## Footnote
Do not descend until established on the inbound segment.
132
What is the difference between **HAA, HAL, and HAT**?
HAA: Height Above Airport, HAL: Height Above Landing, HAT: Height Above Touchdown
## Footnote
Refer to GP 2-21 Terms, PC/G, IFH g-8.
133
Is **DME required** to fly on the jet routes?
Yes
## Footnote
Required at and above FL 240 unless equipped with approved DME or suitable RNAV system.
134
What does a **cruise clearance** allow a pilot to do?
Conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to specified altitude
## Footnote
Includes clearance for the instrument approach at the destination.
135
What are the required items of an **IFR clearance**?
* Clearance limit
* Route of flight
* Altitude
* Frequency
* Transponder code
## Footnote
Additional items may include SID, void time, or special instructions.
136
What is a **Standard Instrument Departure (SID)**?
A pre-defined procedure for safe, efficient transition from runway heading to enroute structure, including altitude restrictions and turns
## Footnote
SIDs are designed to enhance safety and efficiency in the departure phase of flight.
137
What AR requires an Army Aviator to comply with **FARs** while in IFR conditions?
AR 95-1 (Flight Regulations)
## Footnote
This regulation mandates compliance with Federal Aviation Regulations to the extent practicable during IFR operations.
138
When may a pilot descend from **procedure turn altitude**?
After established on the inbound final approach course or after procedure turn completion
## Footnote
This ensures proper alignment and safety during the approach.
139
What is an **option approach**?
An approach clearance authorizing touch-and-go, low approach, missed approach, stop-and-go, or full-stop landing at pilot's discretion
## Footnote
Primarily used for training purposes.
140
What does the term **NOPT** mean?
No Procedure Turn required (or authorized) at the initial approach fix
## Footnote
This indicates that the approach can be made without a procedure turn.
141
Where is the **runway touchdown zone marker**?
Pairs of white stripes on each side of the runway centerline, marking the first 3,000 ft from the threshold
## Footnote
This helps pilots identify the touchdown area during landing.
142
When may a pilot descend from his **MDA or DH**?
When the aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a normal landing can be made using required visual references
## Footnote
Required visual references include the runway threshold and approach lights.
143
When any part of a **short range clearance** differs from that specified in the original flight plan, what must the clearance include?
The specific route and altitude from departure to the short-range clearance limit
## Footnote
This ensures clarity and safety in navigation.
144
What are the **takeoff minimums** for an Army aviator with more than 50 hours of weather time?
No minimums (unrestricted takeoff, provided the pilot deems it safe)
## Footnote
This allows experienced pilots greater flexibility in takeoff decisions.
145
What are the **three classifications of VOR’s** and the usable ranges?
* T (Terminal): 25 NM radius up to 12,000 ft MSL
* L (Low Altitude): 70 NM up to 18,000 ft MSL
* H (High Altitude): 130 NM up to 60,000 ft MSL
## Footnote
Each class serves different operational needs based on altitude and distance.
146
If published and reported, **RVR** must be used instead of prevailing visibility?
Yes
## Footnote
RVR takes precedence for takeoff/landing minimums when reported for an instrument runway.
147
If you are unsatisfied with an **ATC clearance**, what can you do?
Request an amended clearance or clarification
## Footnote
Pilots have the final authority and should not accept clearances that compromise safety.
148
What is the primary difference between an **ESA** and **MSA**?
MSA provides 1,000 ft obstacle clearance within 25 NM; ESA provides similar clearance over a larger area (up to 100 NM) for emergency use
## Footnote
This distinction is crucial for military operations.
149
Where is the **missed approach point** on an ASR approach?
Specified by ATC as a distance from the runway threshold
## Footnote
This allows for safe execution of missed approaches.
150
What obstacle clearance does the **MSA** provide?
At least 1,000 ft above all obstacles within a 25 NM radius of the navigation facility
## Footnote
This ensures safety during approach and landing.
151
When cleared to climb or descend by **ATC**, when should a pilot begin the maneuver?
Immediately upon receipt of the clearance, unless specified otherwise
## Footnote
Timely compliance is essential for safe operations.
152
If clearance is given short of your destination, when is the controlling agency expected to issue further clearance?
At least 5 minutes before the aircraft reaches the clearance limit
## Footnote
This allows for proper planning and execution of the flight.
153
If you were going to set up an **instrument approach** at an airfield, what would be your guide for the procedure?
The published instrument approach procedure (IAP) on the approach plate/chart
## Footnote
This is based on TERPS criteria in the FAA Instrument Procedures Handbook.
154
What is a **VOT** and what is its use?
A VOR Test Facility (VOT) is a ground-based signal for checking VOR receiver accuracy
## Footnote
Tune to VOT frequency; CDI should center with OBS at 0° or 180° (±4° tolerance) for IFR currency.
155
How long may you operate **VFR over the top** on a VFR flight plan?
No specific time limit; as long as VFR cloud clearances and visibility are maintained
## Footnote
VFR over-the-top is on a VFR flight plan, while VFR on-top is an IFR clearance.
156
What are the **minimum requirements** that must be met before operating in Class B airspace?
* Private pilot certificate (or student with endorsement)
* ATC clearance
* Two-way radio communications
* Mode C transponder
* Specific training for turbine aircraft >12,500 lb
## Footnote
These requirements ensure safety and compliance in controlled airspace.
157
What in the U.S. is designated as **mountainous terrain**?
* Eastern U.S. Mountainous Area (Appalachians)
* Western U.S. Mountainous Area (Rockies/Sierra Nevada)
* Alaska Mountainous Area
* Hawaii Mountainous Area (specified islands)
## Footnote
These areas require 2,000 ft obstacle clearance for MEAs.
158
Explain the term **direct route**.
A non-airway route flown as a straight line between two waypoints using RNAV/GPS
## Footnote
This allows for more efficient navigation without following published airways.
159
What is the **publishing cycle** for the GP?
Every 28 days
## Footnote
This aligns with AP/1 supplements in military aviation.
160
Describe the **semicircular rule** for VFR and IFR.
* IFR: Eastbound: odd altitudes +500 ft; Westbound: even +500 ft
* VFR: Same as IFR but applies below 18,000 ft MSL
## Footnote
This provides basic vertical separation.
161
When being radar vectored to the final approach course for an instrument approach, what are the **maximum intercept angles**?
* ≤2 NM from FAF: 20° max intercept
* >2 NM from FAF: 30° max intercept (45° for helicopters)
## Footnote
Weather must be ≥ approach minimums.
162
While being vectored to the final approach course, should you turn and intercept the course inbound?
Yes, if approach clearance has been issued
## Footnote
If not, query ATC immediately for reason and updated vector.
163
When are you required to make a **malfunction report**?
Immediately to ATC for any IFR navigation/communication equipment failure
## Footnote
Include aircraft ID, malfunction details, and assistance needed.
164
When is a **position report** required when operating on an IFR flight plan?
* Compulsory reporting points
* 5 minutes after entering non-radar airspace
* Any altitude change
* Vacating controlled airspace
* Unforecast weather/hazards encountered
## Footnote
No report needed in radar contact unless requested.
165
When executing an instrument approach, under what conditions can you expect a **PAR monitor**?
When requested by the pilot, or in low visibility/ceiling conditions where PAR is authorized
## Footnote
Controller provides azimuth/elevation guidance via radio.
166
What are the **altitude and distance limitations** for an ILS localizer?
Usable to 18 NM within ±10° of centerline up to 4,500 ft; beyond 10 NM, usable to ±35° up to 4,500 ft
## Footnote
This ensures proper guidance during the approach.
167
How many ways can you check the **VOR for accuracy**?
* VOT (±4°)
* Ground checkpoint (±4°)
* Airborne checkpoint (±6°)
* Dual VOR check (±4° between radials)
## Footnote
These methods are essential for IFR currency.
168
What is a **visual approach**?
An ATC authorization for an IFR aircraft to proceed to the airport in visual meteorological conditions (VMC)
## Footnote
IFR is canceled upon acceptance.
169
What is a **contact approach**?
An IFR approach requested by the pilot in lieu of a published instrument approach, authorized when VFR conditions exist
## Footnote
Specific visual references to the airport are required.
170
While on a radar vector you experience **lost commo**, what are your actions?
Continue the last assigned vector, then proceed direct to the final approach fix
## Footnote
Descend to MDA/DA and land as close as possible to EFC time.
171
When does the **MOCA** guarantee everything that MEA does?
Within 22 NM of the NAVAID; beyond 22 NM, only obstacle clearance is guaranteed
## Footnote
This distinction is important for navigation signal coverage.
172
When may ATC **terminate radar** without notifying the pilot?
When the aircraft is outside radar coverage, in uncontrolled airspace, or when the pilot requests
## Footnote
This ensures efficient use of radar services.
173
During a circle to land, visual contact is lost with the landing runway, what are the pilot’s actions?
Execute the missed approach immediately
## Footnote
Climb to published missed approach altitude and follow the procedure.
General APART Study
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