IFR Quick Review Flashcards

Question

What is the function of the **altimeter** in flight instruments?

Answer 1

Shows the height above a given pressure level based on standard pressure lapse rate ## Footnote It uses aneroid wafers that expand and contract with changes in atmospheric pressure.

Answer 2

* Indicated altitude * Pressure altitude * Density altitude * True altitude * Absolute altitude ## Footnote Each type serves different purposes in navigation and performance calculations.

Answer 3

Indicates rate-of-climb in feet per minute (fpm) and rate trend ## Footnote It responds to static pressure changes over time.

Answer 4

Dynamic Pressure (airspeed) = Impact Pressure – Static pressure ## Footnote This difference is used to determine the airspeed indicated on the airspeed indicator.

Answer 5

Flap operating range ## Footnote It starts at Vs0 and ends at Vfe.

Answer 6

Indicates correctly only at the blockage altitude ## Footnote Higher altitudes show lower airspeed; lower altitudes show higher airspeed.

Answer 7

Indicates zero airspeed if the ram air inlet is clogged and the drain hole is open ## Footnote If both are clogged, it acts as an altimeter and becomes unreliable.

Answer 8

* Drops to zero if ram air inlet is clogged and drain hole is open * Acts as an altimeter if both air inlet and drain hole are clogged ## Footnote The airspeed indicator becomes unreliable under these conditions.

Answer 9

Consider using **pitot heat** to melt ice that may have formed in or on the pitot tube ## Footnote This is a critical step to restore functionality.

Answer 10

0 fpm ## Footnote This indicates no vertical speed during taxi.

Answer 11

* Ball centered * Wings level when not turning * Shows turn in correct direction during turns ## Footnote The ball moves to the opposite direction of the turn.

Answer 12

Correct pitch attitude and bank angle ±5° within 5 minutes of engine start (if vacuum) ## Footnote This ensures proper aircraft orientation.

Answer 13

Set and shows correct headings ## Footnote This is essential for navigation accuracy.

Answer 14

Shows surveyed elevation ±75 ft ## Footnote It must be set to local altimeter settings or to airport elevation.

Answer 15

* D - Deviation * V - Variation * M - Magnetic dip * O - Oscillation * N - North/south turn errors * A - Acceleration errors ## Footnote These errors affect compass accuracy.

Answer 16

Attitude Heading Reference Systems – Provides accurate and reliable attitude and heading data ## Footnote It is more advanced than traditional gyro systems.

Answer 17

Replaces mechanical pitot-static instruments ## Footnote It computes airspeed, true airspeed, vertical speed, and altitude.

Answer 18

Receives inputs from various sensors and provides guidance to the autopilot and flight director ## Footnote It monitors and selects the most appropriate navigation source.

Answer 19

Electronic Flight Instrument Systems ## Footnote Also known as 'Glass cockpit'.

Answer 20

* G - Generator / alternator * R - Radios * A - Altimeter (sensitive) * B - Ball (slip-skid indicator) * C - Clock * D - Directional gyro ## Footnote This is part of the minimum equipment required for IFR flight.

Answer 21

108.0 to 117.95 MHz, excluding 108.10-111.95 with odd tenths ## Footnote These frequencies are reserved for LOC frequencies.

Answer 22

Calculates slant range distance to the station based on reply time ## Footnote It is paired with VHF stations.

Answer 23

108.1 - 111.95 MHz with odd tenths only ## Footnote It provides lateral course guidance.

Answer 24

Vertical course guidance ## Footnote Frequencies range from 329.3 to 335 MHz.

Answer 25

* Outer marker: BLUE, indicates position to intercept GS * Middle marker: AMBER, indicates point where GS meets decision height * Inner marker: WHITE, indicates point where glide slope meets DH on CAT II ILS approach ## Footnote Each marker beacon transmits at 75 MHz.

Answer 26

Allows navigation on any desired path without the need to overfly ground-based facilities ## Footnote Types include GNSS, VOR/DME RNAV, and DME/DME RNAV.

Answer 27

At least 3 satellites ## Footnote This provides latitude and longitude.

Answer 28

Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring ## Footnote It monitors the integrity of satellite signals.

Answer 29

An angular distance off course in degrees ## Footnote CDI stands for Course Deviation Indicator, which helps pilots maintain their intended flight path.

Answer 30

FALSE ## Footnote GPS cannot substitute ADF on NDB approaches without a GPS overlay.

Answer 31

GPS NOTAMS ## Footnote It is important to check for any notices that may affect GPS operations.

Answer 32

Differential GPS ## Footnote DGPS improves GPS accuracy by measuring errors from reference stations.

Answer 33

* Satellite Based Augmentation System (SBAS) * Ground Based Augmentation System (GBAS) ## Footnote SBAS includes systems like WAAS and EGNOS, while GBAS is more accurate but covers a smaller area.

Answer 34

Required Navigation Performance ## Footnote RNP is a statement of navigation equipment and service performance.

Answer 35

RNP approaches ## Footnote RNAV stands for Area Navigation, allowing navigation between points without ground-based stations.

Answer 36

RNAV enables navigation between points; GNSS is a broad term for satellite-based RNAV systems ## Footnote GPS is an example of GNSS operated by the USA.

Answer 37

Performance Based Navigation ## Footnote PBN sets standards for navigation equipment based on accuracy, integrity, and availability.

Answer 38

* En route: RNP 2.0 (2 NM accuracy) * Terminal & Departure: RNP 1.0 (1 NM accuracy) * Final Approach: RNP 0.3 (0.3 NM accuracy) ## Footnote These standards ensure safe navigation performance during different flight phases.

Answer 39

* Cross Check * Instrument interpretation * Aircraft Control ## Footnote These skills are essential for maintaining control of the aircraft using instruments.

Answer 40

Mandatory reports under IFR ## Footnote This acronym helps pilots remember key reporting requirements in non-radar environments.

Answer 41

* At or below 14,000’ MSL: 1 minute * Above 14,000’ MSL: 1.5 minutes ## Footnote Timing adjustments ensure proper spacing in holding patterns.

Answer 42

200 kts ## Footnote This speed limit helps maintain safety and efficiency in holding patterns.

Answer 43

* Direct * Parallel * Teardrop ## Footnote These methods determine how an aircraft enters a holding pattern.

Answer 44

Aeronautical Information Manual ## Footnote AIM provides essential information for pilots regarding regulations and procedures.

Answer 45

A defined point on the final approach course for descent from MDA to runway touchdown ## Footnote The VDP is identified by a 'V' symbol on the descent profile.

Answer 46

At least 1000’ ceiling and 3SM visibility ## Footnote This ensures safe visual separation from other traffic.

Answer 47

To execute when insufficient visual reference to runway environment ## Footnote A missed approach is a safety procedure to ensure safe landing conditions.

Answer 48

VDP = MDH / 300 ## Footnote Example: Given MDH is 600 ft, VDP = 600 / 300 = 2 NM.

Answer 49

MDH / 10 = seconds to subtract from time between FAF and MAP ## Footnote Example: Given MDH is 500 ft, FAF to MAP is 4:00, start descent at 3:10.

Answer 50

**Visual Descent Angle** ## Footnote A computed glide path from the FAF to the runway’s TCH published for non-precision approaches.

Answer 51

Typically **3º** ## Footnote The VDA does not guarantee obstacle protection below the MDA in the visual segment.

Answer 52

VS (fpm) = Ground Speed X (10 / 2) or VS (fpm) = Ground Speed X 5 ## Footnote Example: 120 kts X 5 = 600 fpm.

Answer 53

TOD = Altitude to lose (ft) / 300 ## Footnote Example: 800 ft to lose MDA to TCH: 800/300 = 2.67 NM.

Answer 54

Controlled airspace from **18,000' MSL to FL600** ## Footnote IFR only unless otherwise authorized.

Answer 55

Usually extends from the surface up to **10,000' MSL** ## Footnote Requires two-way radio communications and ATC clearance to enter.

Answer 56

**5 NM radius** surrounding its primary airport ## Footnote Extends up to 4,000' above airport height.

Answer 57

Extending from the surface to **2,500' above airport height** ## Footnote Usually shaped as a cylinder with a 4 NM radius.

Answer 58

Requires **Mode-C transponder and ADS-B Out equipment** ## Footnote Excluding at or below 2,500' AGL.

Answer 59

**1 SM clear of clouds** ## Footnote Night: 3152 or 1 SM Clear of Clouds if in a traffic pattern.

Answer 60

Flight is prohibited unless permission is granted ## Footnote Example: Prohibited airspace P-56A over the White House.

Answer 61

To warn nonparticipating aircraft of potential hazards ## Footnote Extends 3 NM outward from the coast of the U.S.

Answer 62

Established for separating military training activities from IFR traffic ## Footnote Pilots should exercise caution when operating within an active MOA.

Answer 63

* Operable Transponder with altitude encoding * Two-way radio communication * File an IFR or DVFR Flight Plan ## Footnote Depart within 5 minutes of flight plan's estimated departure time.

Answer 64

* Protect persons or property from hazards * Provide a safe environment for disaster relief * Prevent unsafe congestion of sightseeing aircraft * Protect declared national disasters ## Footnote Current TFRs are found at www.tfr.faa.gov.

Answer 65

**250 kts** ## Footnote If the aircraft minimum safe airspeed is greater, it may be operated at that minimum speed.

Answer 66

A source for weather information and flight planning ## Footnote Includes NOAA’s Aviation Weather Center Website and other flight planning websites.

Answer 67

**Automatic Terminal Information Service** ## Footnote A continuous broadcast of local airport weather and NOTAMs, updated hourly.

Answer 68

Automatic Terminal Information Service ## Footnote ATIS is published over the radio and, in locations with D-ATIS, via data link (ACARS).

Answer 69

Hourly ## Footnote ASOS provides weather observations at airports.

Answer 70

Every minute ## Footnote AWOS provides real-time weather data.

Answer 71

Air Traffic Control ## Footnote ATC issues center weather advisories to alert pilots of adverse weather conditions.

Answer 72

* Standard * Abbreviated * Outlook * Inflight ## Footnote Each type serves different purposes based on the timing and detail required.

Answer 73

Significant weather phenomena at lower intensities than SIGMETs ## Footnote Valid for 6 hours and may affect all aircraft.

Answer 74

Moderate turbulence, sustained surface winds of 30 knots or greater, and/or non-convective low-level wind shear ## Footnote AIRMETs are issued for conditions potentially hazardous to aircraft with limited capability.

Answer 75

Non-convective weather potentially hazardous to all types of aircraft ## Footnote A SIGMET is issued for severe icing, turbulence, dust storms, and more.

Answer 76

An inflight advisory of convective weather significant to the safety of all aircraft ## Footnote Issued hourly and valid for 2 hours.

Answer 77

Aviation routine weather report ## Footnote Scheduled METARs are published every hour.

Answer 78

Terminal Aerodrome Forecast ## Footnote Covers a 5SM radius area around the station and is issued 4 times a day.

Answer 79

* Sufficient water vapor * Unstable temperature lapse rate * Initial uplifting force ## Footnote These conditions are essential for thunderstorm development.

Answer 80

* Cumulus * Mature * Dissipating ## Footnote Each stage has distinct characteristics and hazards.

Answer 81

A cloud that begins within 50 ft of the surface ## Footnote Fog occurs when air temperature reaches its dew point.

Answer 82

* Radiation fog * Advection fog * Ice fog * Upslope fog * Steam fog ## Footnote Each type forms under different atmospheric conditions.

Answer 83

Insufficient supply of oxygen to the body cells ## Footnote There are different types of hypoxia, including hypoxic, hypemic, histotoxic, and stagnant.

Answer 84

Inert gasses released rapidly from solution in body tissues due to low barometric pressure ## Footnote Commonly results in joint pain known as 'the bends'.

Answer 85

Required minimum flight crew must use supplemental O2 for periods over 30 minutes ## Footnote This regulation ensures safety at high altitudes.

Answer 86

A condition where a pilot's perception of direction is distorted ## Footnote It can occur due to various factors, including vestibular system issues.

Answer 87

To equalize pressure in the middle ear ## Footnote Forces air through the Eustachian tube into the middle ear; may not work if the pilot has a cold, sinus or ear infection, or a sore throat.

Answer 88

* Vestibular System * Somatosensory System * Visual System ## Footnote These systems help the brain interpret movement and orientation.

Answer 89

* 3 semicircular canals * 2 otolith organs (utricle and saccule) ## Footnote The semicircular canals sense movement in three axes: pitch, roll, and yaw.

Answer 90

A false sensation of acceleration or turning on a different axis ## Footnote Caused by fluid movement in the ear canal after a prolonged turn.

Answer 91

The sensation of not turning followed by a false sensation of turning in the opposite direction ## Footnote This can lead to a loss of altitude and tightening of the spiral.

Answer 92

The illusion of a higher pitch angle during rapid acceleration ## Footnote Deceleration causes the opposite illusion of tilting the head forward.

Answer 93

Misidentifying the horizon line ## Footnote Can be caused by sloping cloud formation or obscured horizons.

Answer 94

The perception of movement of a stationary point of light ## Footnote Staring at it for too long may lead to loss of control.

Answer 95

The illusion that the aircraft is higher or lower than it actually is ## Footnote A narrow runway may create the illusion of being higher.

Answer 96

The illusion of being at a higher altitude when flying over dark areas ## Footnote Also known as 'black hole approach.'

Answer 97

* Understand causes of illusions * Maintain instrument proficiency * Avoid flying into adverse weather ## Footnote Trust instruments and disregard sensory perceptions.

Answer 98

(KTAS / 10) X 1.5 ## Footnote Example: For 120 KTAS, the bank angle is 18º.

Answer 99

An ATC clearance allowing operation under VFR with lower weather conditions ## Footnote Requires at least 1 SM visibility and clear of clouds.

Answer 100

* A: < 90 knots * B: 91-120 knots * C: 121-140 knots * D: 141-165 knots * E: > 165 knots ## Footnote Each category has a standard circling maneuver radius.

Answer 101

Low IFR ## Footnote Defined as ceiling less than 500’ and/or visibility less than 1 SM.

Answer 102

Instrument Flight Rules ## Footnote Defined as ceiling 500’ to below 1,000’ AGL and/or visibility 1 SM to less than 3 SM.

Answer 103

Marginal VFR ## Footnote Defined as ceiling 1,000’-3,000’ AGL and/or visibility 3 to 5 SM.

Answer 104

Visual Flight Rules ## Footnote Defined as ceiling greater than 3000’ AGL and visibility greater than 5 SM.

Answer 105

Notice to Airmen ## Footnote Important for pilots to be aware of changes or hazards affecting flight.

IFR Quick Review Flashcards

(129 cards)