1
Q
- What is the main goal of active immunization?
a) To provide immediate, temporary protection.
b) To elicit protective immunity and immunologic memory.
c) To provide maternal antibodies to offspring.
d) To neutralize bacterial toxins immediately.
A
b) To elicit protective immunity and immunologic memory.
Rationale: Active immunization is designed to stimulate the body’s immune response so that it remembers the pathogen and can fight it off in the future. It achieves this by building immunity and immunologic memory.
2
Q
- Which type of immunization is achieved by placental IgG transport?
a) Natural Active
b) Artificial Passive
c) Artificial Active
d) Natural Passive
A
d) Natural Passive
Rationale: Natural passive immunity is acquired from the mother to the offspring, with antibodies like placental IgG and colostrum being transferred.
3
Q
- What is the primary purpose of the government’s EPI initiative?
a) To provide vaccines to adults.
b) To reduce the elderly mortality rate.
c) To lower infant/child mortality rate.
d) To focus on passive immunization.
A
c) To lower infant/child mortality rate.
Rationale: The EPI initiative focuses on providing vaccines for children up to 5 years old with the aim to reduce infant and child mortality.
4
Q
- Which immunization involves the administration of antibodies produced in a different host?
a) Active Immunity
b) Passive Immunity
c) Natural Immunity
d) Artificial Immunity
A
b) Passive Immunity
Rationale: Passive immunity is achieved by introducing antibodies from a different host into an individual, providing temporary protection against a disease.
5
Q
- What risk is associated with individuals having an IgA deficiency in relation to immunization?
a) They can’t produce IgG.
b) They are at risk to develop reactions to infused IgA.
c) They tend to have a stronger immune response.
d) They are resistant to passive immunization.
A
b) They are at risk to develop reactions to infused IgA.
Rationale: Individuals with IgA deficiency might react adversely when exposed to external IgA, such as in some immunizations.
6
Q
- Which disease is NOT associated with Artificial Passive immunization?
a) Measles
b) Polio
c) Rabies
d) Hepatitis A
A
b) Polio
Rationale: Polio is associated with Artificial Active immunization, where vaccines like the live or inactivated polio vaccine are used.
7
Q
- Why might passive immunization be used after a needlestick injury?
a) To stimulate long-term memory.
b) To provide immediate protection against potential infection.
c) To strengthen the natural immunity.
d) To stimulate vaccine production.
A
b) To provide immediate protection against potential infection.
Rationale: Passive immunization offers rapid, temporary protection, making it suitable for emergencies like potential exposure through a needlestick injury.
8
Q
- Which vaccine is associated with Artificial Active immunization?
a) Horse anti-toxin against diphtheria
b) Colostrum
c) DTaP vaccine
d) Placental IgG
A
c) DTaP vaccine
Rationale: DTaP (Diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis) is a vaccine given to stimulate the body’s active immune response against these diseases.
9
Q
- How long does the immunity obtained from passive immunization typically last?
a) Years to a lifetime
b) A few days
c) A few weeks to months
d) Indefinitely
A
c) A few weeks to months
Rationale: Passive immunity provides temporary protection, typically lasting from a few weeks to a few months.
10
Q
- Which type of immunization involves the administration of vaccines?
a) Passive immunity
b) Active immunity
c) Natural immunity
d) Both a and b
A
b) Active immunity
Rationale: Vaccines are administered to stimulate the body’s own immune response, which is characteristic of active immunity.
11
Q
- Which of the following is a risk of passive immunization?
a) IgE production
b) Overstimulation of immunologic memory
c) Increased vaccine production
d) Heightened resistance to natural immunity
A
a) IgE production
Rationale: One of the risks associated with passive immunization is the potential production of IgE, which can lead to allergic reactions.
12
Q
- Where does Natural Passive immunity typically come from?
a) Vaccines
b) Mother to offspring
c) External host to individual
d) Infected individual to healthy individual
A
b) Mother to offspring
Rationale: Natural passive immunity is typically transferred from the mother to the offspring, such as through placental IgG transport and colostrum.
13
Q
- What is a primary goal of Passive Immunization?
a) Long-term protection against diseases
b) Temporary protection or alleviation of an existing condition
c) Development of immunologic memory
d) Stimulation of IgA production
A
b) Temporary protection or alleviation of an existing condition
Rationale: The main objective of passive immunization is to provide immediate, short-term protection or to alleviate symptoms of an existing disease.
14
Q
- Which type of immunity results from the body’s response to a vaccine?
a) Natural Active
b) Natural Passive
c) Artificial Active
d) Artificial Passive
A
c) Artificial Active
Rationale: Vaccines are designed to stimulate the body’s immune system artificially, leading to artificial active immunity.
15
Q
- How does active immunity primarily differ from passive immunity?
a) Source of antibodies
b) Duration of protection
c) Method of administration
d) Diseases it protects against
A
b) Duration of protection
Rationale: Active immunity aims at long-term protection by eliciting protective immunity and memory, while passive immunity offers temporary protection.
16
Q
- What is the primary purpose of vaccines?
A) Treat viral diseases
B) Suppress the host’s immune system
C) Activate the host’s immune response to prevent diseases
D) Produce viral antigens
A
C) Activate the host’s immune response to prevent diseases
Rationale: Vaccines are designed to activate the host’s immune response so that the body can recognize and fight off specific viruses/bacteria in the future, thereby preventing the disease.
17
Q
- Which vaccine type uses living pathogens with reduced virulence?
A) Killed Virus Vaccine
B) Live-Attenuated Vaccine
C) Subunit Vaccine
D) Toxoid Vaccine
A
B) Live-Attenuated Vaccine
Rationale: Live-Attenuated vaccines use a living but weakened form of the pathogen to stimulate the immune system without causing the full-blown disease.
18
Q
- Which vaccine is created by inactivating viral infectivity while preserving structural proteins?
A) Killed Virus Vaccine
B) Live-Attenuated Vaccine
C) Subunit Vaccine
D) Toxoid Vaccine
A
A) Killed Virus Vaccine
Rationale: Killed Virus Vaccines are made by purifying and then inactivating the virus’s ability to infect, while ensuring the structural proteins remain intact for the immune response.
19
Q
- Which type of vaccine is safe and cannot revert to virulence?
A) Live-Attenuated Vaccine
B) Killed Virus Vaccine
C) Subunit Vaccine
D) Toxoid Vaccine
A
D) Toxoid Vaccine
Rationale: Toxoid vaccines use bacterial toxins that have been detoxified, ensuring that they are safe and can’t revert to their virulent state.
20
Q
- What component does the Protein-Based Subunit vaccine use?
A) Detoxified toxins
B) Live but weakened pathogens
C) Genetically engineered proteins
D) Inactivated viruses
A
C) Genetically engineered proteins
Rationale: Protein-Based Subunit vaccines use genetically engineered proteins, like the Hepatitis B surface antigen, to stimulate the immune response.
21
Q
- Which vaccine type is not recommended for children under two years due to its T cell-independent antigens?
A) Conjugate Vaccines
B) Protein-Recombinant Antigens
C) Polysaccharides
D) Toxoid Vaccine
A
C) Polysaccharides
Rationale: Polysaccharide vaccines contain T cell-independent antigens that do not effectively stimulate antibody production in very young children.
22
Q
- Which type of vaccine can potentially spread the infection to unvaccinated individuals?
A) Killed Virus Vaccine
B) Live-Attenuated Vaccine
C) Subunit Vaccine
D) Toxoid Vaccine
A
B) Live-Attenuated Vaccine
Rationale: Live-Attenuated vaccines use living but weakened pathogens, which carry a risk of spreading the infection to unvaccinated individuals.
23
Q
- Which immune response is associated with mucosal immunity?
A) Measles
B) Polio
C) Rhinoviruses
D) Hepatitis
A
C) Rhinoviruses
Rationale: Rhinoviruses replicate in mucosal membranes, and their infection is resisted by mucosal immunity.
24
Q
- Which of the following is NOT an advantage of Live-Attenuated vaccines?
A) Longer-lasting antibody production
B) Acts like natural infection
C) Requires multiple doses
D) Stimulates both TH1 and TH2 immune responses
A
C) Requires multiple doses
Rationale: One of the advantages of Live-Attenuated vaccines is that they often require only a single dose to provide immunity.
25
10. Which vaccine uses genetically engineered proteins derived from the Hepatitis B surface antigen?
A) Protein-Recombinant Antigens
B) Polysaccharides
C) Conjugate Vaccines
D) Protein-Based Subunit
D) Protein-Based Subunit
Rationale: Protein-Based Subunit vaccines, like the one for Hepatitis B, utilize genetically engineered proteins.
26
11. What is the role of Conjugate Vaccines?
A) Detoxifying toxins
B) Combining polysaccharides with proteins
C) Using inactivated viruses
D) Utilizing live but weakened pathogens
B) Combining polysaccharides with proteins
Rationale: Conjugate Vaccines work by coupling bacterial capsular polysaccharides to proteins, enhancing their immunogenicity, especially in young children.
27
12. What characterizes the immunity conferred by killed vaccines?
A) It is long-lived and doesn't require boosting
B) It is brief and often requires boosting
C) It can spread to other individuals
D) It reverts to virulence
B) It is brief and often requires boosting
Rationale: Killed vaccines often provide shorter-duration immunity, and thus, repeated doses or boosters may be needed.
28
13. Which of the following vaccines is produced from fully virulent microorganisms?
A) Live-Attenuated Vaccine
B) Protein-Based Subunit
C) Killed Virus Vaccine
D) Conjugate Vaccine
C) Killed Virus Vaccine
Rationale: Killed Virus Vaccines are produced from fully virulent microorganisms that are then inactivated to ensure safety.
29
14. Which immune response is mainly associated with Measles?
A) Cell-Mediated Immunity
B) Viremic Mode of Spread
C) Mucosal Immunity
D) Natural innate
A) Cell-Mediated Immunity
Rationale: Measles requires a cell-mediated immune response for protection against systemic infections.
30
15. Which vaccine type requires extreme care in manufacturing to ensure no live virulent virus is present?
A) Live-Attenuated Vaccine
B) Toxoid Vaccine
C) Subunit Vaccine
D) Killed Virus Vaccine
D) Killed Virus Vaccine
Rationale: Killed Virus Vaccines need to be produced in such a way that the virus's infectivity is eliminated without harming its structural proteins, thus requiring extreme caution to ensure no live virulent viruses remain in the vaccine.
31
1. What are the components of a vaccine that are derived from the structure of disease-causing organisms and trigger the immune system's protective response?
A) Stabilizers
B) Adjuvants
C) Antibiotics
D) Antigens
D) Antigens
Rationale: Antigens are components derived from disease-causing organisms that are recognized as foreign by the immune system. When introduced into the body through a vaccine, they stimulate a protective immune response.
32
2. Which component ensures vaccine stability, especially in areas with unreliable cold storage?
A) Adjuvants
B) Antibiotics
C) Stabilizers
D) Antigens
C) Stabilizers
Rationale: Stabilizers help vaccines maintain their effectiveness during storage, especially in places where the cold chain might be unreliable.
33
3. What purpose do antibiotics serve in vaccines?
A) Boosting immune response
B) Prolonging antigen persistence
C) Preventing contamination during production
D) Inducing granuloma formation
C) Preventing contamination during production
Rationale: Antibiotics are added in trace amounts to vaccines to prevent contamination that might occur during the manufacturing process.
34
4. Which adjuvant induces granuloma formation?
A) Muramyl Dipeptide
B) Potassium Sulfate
C) Alum (Aluminum salt)
D) Lipopolysaccharides
C) Alum (Aluminum salt)
Rationale: Alum, or Aluminum salt, is an adjuvant used in some vaccines to induce granuloma formation, which can enhance the immune response.
35
5. For which vaccine is it advised that infants born to HBs-Ag-positive mothers receive it at birth?
A) Influenza
B) Hepatitis A
C) Hepatitis B
D) Measles
C) Hepatitis B
Rationale: Infants born to HBs-Ag-positive mothers are at risk of acquiring Hepatitis B, so they are given the Hepatitis B vaccine shortly after birth to protect them.
36
6. What signifies a reduced diphtheria toxoid dose in a vaccine?
A) h
B) t
C) p
D) d
D) d
Diphtheria (D) and Tetanus (T) Toxoids & Acellular Pertussis (AP) Vaccine (DTaP): "d" signifies a reduced diphtheria toxoid dose.
37
7. Before the introduction of effective vaccines, which bacteria was a leading cause of invasive bacterial disease?
A) Hepatitis B
B) Varicella
C) Haemophilus Influenzae Type B
D) Measles
C) Haemophilus Influenzae Type B
Rationale: Haemophilus Influenzae Type B (Hib) was a major cause of invasive bacterial diseases before the introduction of effective Hib vaccines.
38
8. Which vaccine is recommended for children without a definitive history of chickenpox?
A) Pneumococcal
B) Hepatitis A
C) Varicella
D) Mumps
C) Varicella
Rationale: The Varicella vaccine is recommended for children who do not have a clear history of chickenpox to ensure they are protected against the disease.
39
9. What condition can be a subsequent concern after having chickenpox?
A) Hepatitis B
B) Asthma
C) Zoster (Shingles)
D) Mumps
C) Zoster (Shingles)
Rationale: After having chickenpox, individuals are at risk of developing Zoster, commonly known as Shingles, later in life.
40
10. Which vaccine is suggested for kids aged 2-23 months?
A) Hepatitis A
B) Heptavalent conjugate vaccine (PCV)
C) Polysaccharide vaccine (PPV)
D) Influenza
B) Heptavalent conjugate vaccine (PCV)
Rationale: The heptavalent conjugate vaccine (PCV) is recommended for all children aged 2-23 months to protect against various strains of pneumococcal disease.
41
11. Which type of Influenza vaccine is annually recommended for children with specific risk factors like asthma, cardiac disease, and diabetes?
A) Varicella Vaccine
B) Hepatitis A Vaccine
C) Influenza Vaccine
D) Pneumococcal Vaccine
C) Influenza Vaccine
Rationale: The Influenza Vaccine is recommended annually for children with certain risk factors to protect them from the flu.
42
12. The Hepatitis A vaccine is a type of:
A) Attenuated-live vaccine
B) Killed virus vaccine
C) Subunit vaccine
D) Toxoid vaccine
B) Killed virus vaccine
Rationale: The Hepatitis A vaccine is described as a "killed virus vaccine," meaning the virus used in the vaccine is dead or inactivated.
43
13. Which adjuvant is responsible for non-specific lymphocyte proliferation?
A) Muramyl Dipeptide
B) Alum
C) Potassium Sulfate
D) Lipopolysaccharides
D) Lipopolysaccharides
Rationale: Lipopolysaccharides and synthetic polyribonucleotide are known to induce non-specific lymphocyte proliferation, enhancing the immune response.
44
14. How many doses of the Influenza vaccine should children aged <8 years receive if it's their first time?
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
B) Two
Rationale: Children aged <8 years receiving the influenza vaccine for the first time are recommended to have two doses separated by at least four weeks to ensure adequate immunity.
45
15. Which component can, in some cases, cause an allergic reaction like with neomycin?
A) Stabilizers
B) Antigens
C) Antibiotics
D) Adjuvants
C) Antibiotics
Rationale: Antibiotics are present in trace amounts in some vaccines. While they prevent contamination, certain antibiotics like neomycin might cause allergic reactions in some individuals.
46
16. Which of the following is NOT a vaccine but a sequel of a disease?
A) Hepatitis A
B) Influenza
C) Zoster (Shingles)
D) Pneumococcal
C) Zoster (Shingles)
Rationale: Zoster, or Shingles, is not a vaccine but a disease that can develop later in life in individuals who have previously had chickenpox.
47
17. Which adjuvant enhances co-stimulatory signals?
A) Potassium Sulfate
B) Muramyl Dipeptide
C) Alum
D) Lipopolysaccharides
B) Muramyl Dipeptide
Rationale: Muramyl Dipeptide is an adjuvant known to enhance co-stimulatory signals, thereby improving the immune response to an antigen.
48
18. Which vaccine uses attenuated virus strains?
A) Hepatitis B
B) Measles, Mumps, and Rubella
C) Haemophilus Influenzae Type B
D) Hepatitis A
B) Measles, Mumps, and Rubella
Rationale: The Measles, Mumps, and Rubella vaccine uses attenuated (weakened) virus strains to stimulate the immune system without causing the full-blown disease.
49
19. How should the Hepatitis A vaccine be administered?
A) In a single dose
B) Two doses a week apart
C) Two doses six months apart
D) Three doses three months apart
C) Two doses six months apart
Rationale: The Hepatitis A vaccine is recommended to be administered in two doses with a six-month interval between them for complete protection.
50
20. For which disease was Hib a major cause before the introduction of vaccines?
A) Hepatitis A
B) Chickenpox
C) Invasive bacterial diseases
D) Measles
C) Invasive bacterial diseases
Rationale: Haemophilus Influenzae Type B (Hib) was a leading cause of invasive bacterial diseases before the introduction of its vaccine.
51
1. Which of the following can lead to vaccine failure?
A. Overhydration
B. Immunological unresponsiveness
C. UV exposure
D. Sound pollution
B. Immunological unresponsiveness
Rationale: Immunological unresponsiveness implies that the immune system does not respond appropriately to the vaccine, leading to a lack of protection against the disease. This makes it a direct cause for vaccine failure, unlike the other distractors provided.
52
2. Why is the typhoid vaccine administered intradermally in some cases?
A. To increase the pain
B. To reduce symptoms like fever and malaise
C. To prolong its efficacy
D. To make it more affordable
B. To reduce symptoms like fever and malaise
Rationale: The typhoid vaccine can cause symptoms like fever and malaise due to the presence of large amounts of killed endotoxins. Administering it intradermally can help reduce these symptoms.
53
3. Why shouldn't live vaccines be given to pregnant women?
A. Due to increased pain
B. Due to their teratogenic properties
C. Due to the high cost
D. Due to short shelf life
B. Due to their teratogenic properties
Rationale: Teratogenic properties imply that the substance can cause developmental malformations in the fetus. Live vaccines have this risk, making them unsafe for pregnant women.
54
4. When should the measles vaccine ideally be administered?
A. At birth
B. At three months
C. At six months
D. At nine months
D. At nine months
Rationale: The measles vaccine is recommended at the ninth month as the maternally transferred immunity declines by this time. This ensures that the child starts producing its own antibodies against measles.
55
5. Which vaccine should be given before the age of six months due to a high risk of intussusception if delayed?
A. BCG
B. Rotavirus
C. Measles
D. Diphtheria
B. Rotavirus
Rationale: The rotavirus vaccine should be administered before six months of age. If given later, there's a theoretical risk of intussusception, a severe condition where a part of the intestine slides into an adjacent part.
56
6. Which disease was one of the initial focuses of the EPI when it was initiated in 1976?
A. Malaria
B. HIV
C. Pertussis
D. HPV
C. Pertussis
Rationale: The EPI initially focused on certain major vaccine-preventable diseases, including pertussis, when it was started in 1976.
57
7. Why is the BCG vaccine ideally given at birth or within two weeks after?
A. To prevent tuberculosis
B. To avoid potential allergic reactions
C. To ensure best results
D. To prevent accelerated BCG reactions if given later
D. To prevent accelerated BCG reactions if given later
Rationale: If the BCG vaccine is administered later than two weeks after birth, there is a risk of accelerated BCG reactions. To avoid this, it is ideally given at birth or shortly after.
58
8. What was the percentage of "fully immunized" children less than fourteen months based on the EPI review in 1986?
A. 50%
B. 10%
C. 21.3%
D. 75%
C. 21.3%
Rationale: Based on the EPI review in 1986, only 21.3% of children under fourteen months were "fully immunized."
59
9. One of the goals of EPI is to:
A. Promote vaccine production
B. Eradicate maternal and neonatal tetanus
C. Increase the cost of vaccines
D. Focus on adult vaccination
B. Eradicate maternal and neonatal tetanus
Rationale: One of the stated goals of the EPI is to eliminate maternal and neonatal tetanus, ensuring the safety of both mothers and their newborns.
60
10. Which vaccine is associated with a theoretical risk of intussusception if given after six months?
A. Influenza
B. Polio
C. Rotavirus
D. Hepatitis B
C. Rotavirus
Rationale: The rotavirus vaccine should ideally be given before six months of age. Administering it later poses a theoretical risk of intussusception.
