LE 4 - Micro

Question 1

1. Which of the following is true about the pathogenesis of M. pneumoniae?

a. Attachment is mediated by a specific adhesin protein on the differentiated terminal structure of the organism
b. M. pneumoniae is transmitted by infectious secretion of the genitourinary tract
c. Infection is initiated by attachment of the organisms’ tip to a receptor on the surface of respiratory epithelial cells
d. M. pneumoniae remain extracellular during infection

Answer 1

a. Attachment is mediated by a specific adhesin protein on the differentiated terminal structure of the organism

M. pneumoniae attaches to respiratory epithelial cells via a specific adhesin protein located on a differentiated terminal organelle, initiating infection.

Question 2

2. Water organisms which produce superficial skin lesions

a. M. fortinatum
b. M. marinum
c. M. ulcerans
d. AOTA

Answer 2

D. All of the choices are correct

All listed Mycobacterium species can cause superficial skin lesions and are associated with water or aquatic environments.

Question 3

3. This is the most rapid sensitive and specific method of identification of mycobacteria

a. Acid fast staining
b. Molecular probe
c. Culture
d. NOTA

Answer 3

b. Molecular probe
Molecular probes are rapid, sensitive, and specific for identifying mycobacteria, offering advantages over traditional methods like acid-fast staining and culture.

Question 4

4. Intact cell-mediated immunity

a. Tuberculoid
b. Lepromatous

Answer 4

a. Tuberculoid
Tuberculoid leprosy is characterized by a strong cell-mediated immune response, which limits the spread of the disease and results in fewer lesions.

Question 5

5. Characterized by pale anesthetic macular lesions or diffuse erythematous infiltrated nodules

a. M. leprae
b. M. marinum
c. M. tuberculosis
d. M. ulcerans

Answer 5

a. M. leprae
M. leprae, the causative agent of leprosy, can cause pale anesthetic macular lesions in the tuberculoid form or diffuse erythematous infiltrated nodules in the lepromatous form.

Question 6

6. The identification of Mycoplasma isolates can be done through different tests. Which one would not be ideal in identifying Mycoplasma isolates?

a. Immunofluorescence
b. Growth inhibition
c. Intradermal inoculation test
d. Cold agglutination test

Answer 6

d. Cold agglutination test
The cold agglutination test, primarily used for diagnosing Mycoplasma pneumoniae infections by detecting antibodies in the blood, is not ideal for directly identifying Mycoplasma isolates.

Question 7

7. A mycobacterium which is scotochromogen which produces chronic cervical lymphadenitis in children

a. M. avium Complex
b. M. scrofulaceum
c. M. ulcerans
d. M. kansasii

Answer 7

b. M. scrofulaceum
Mycobacterium scrofulaceum is known to cause chronic cervical lymphadenitis in children and is a scotochromogen.

Question 8

This type of mycobacterial lesion produces the chronic granuloma

a. Exudative type
b. Productive type
c. Both
d. NOTA

Answer 8

b. Productive type

Question 9

9. Which of the following cause postpartum fever?

a. M. genitalium
b. M urealyticum
c. M. pomimoniae
d. M. hominis

Answer 9

d. M. hominis
Mycoplasma hominis can be associated with postpartum fever, among other infections of the genitourinary tract.

Question 10

10. Positive lepromin test

a. Tuberculoid type
b. Lepromatous type

Answer 10

a. Tuberculoid type
A positive lepromin test indicates a strong cell-mediated immune response, characteristic of the tuberculoid type of leprosy.

Question 11

1. The etiologic agent of Endemic typhus

a. Rickettsia prowazekki
b. Rickettsia typhi
c. Rickettsia rickettsii
d. Rickettsia conorii

Answer 11

b. Rickettsia typhi
Rickettsia typhi is the causative agent of endemic typhus, also known as murine typhus.

Question 12

2. The etiologic agent of Scrub typhus

a. Orientia tsutsugamushi
b. Ricketttsia akari
c. Coxiella burnetii
d. Ehrlichia ewingii

Answer 12

a. Orientia tsutsugamushi
Orientia tsutsugamushi causes scrub typhus, transmitted by the bite of infected chiggers.

Question 13

3. Vector of Rickettsia typhi
   a. Humans
   b. Rodents
   c. Mice
   d. Dogs

Answer 13

b. Rodents
Rodents are the primary reservoirs of Rickettsia typhi, with fleas serving as the vector to humans.

Question 14

4. Rickettsiae are not destroyed by heat, drying, and bacterial chemicals
   a. True
   b. False

Answer 14

b. False
Rickettsiae are relatively fragile organisms outside of the host or vector and can be destroyed by heat, drying, and certain chemical agents.

Question 15

5. Disease caused by Rickettsia rickettsii
   a. Rickettsial pox
   b. Siberian tick typhus
   c. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
   d. Scrub typhus

Answer 15

c. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
Rickettsia rickettsii is the causative agent of Rocky Mountain spotted fever, a tick-borne illness.

Question 16

6. Which of the following statements about Ehrlichia and ehrlichiosis is most correct?
   a. Dogs and mice are reservoirs.
   b. Mosquitoes are the vectors.
   c. Ampicillin is the treatment of choice.
   d. Culture is a good method to confirm the diagnosis.
   e. Ehrlichia are typically found in lymphocytes.

Answer 16

e. Ehrlichia are typically found in lymphocytes.
Ehrlichia species infect white blood cells, including lymphocytes and monocytes, depending on the species.

Question 17

7. The most useful drug to treat ehrlichiosis is
   a. Doxycycline
   b. Penicillin G
   c. Trimethoprim–sulfamethoxazole
   d. Gentamicin
   e. Nitrofurantoin

Answer 17

a. Doxycycline
Doxycycline is the treatment of choice for ehrlichiosis in adults and children of all ages.

Question 18

8. The recommended treatment for Q-fever endocarditis is

a. Emergent surgery; antibiotics are not effective
b. Levofloxacin monotherapy for 6 weeks
c. 18 months of combination therapy with doxycycline and hydroxychloroquine
d. Penicillin and gentamicin combination therapy using IgG titers to determine duration

Answer 18

c. 18 months of combination therapy with doxycycline and hydroxychloroquine
Long-term combination therapy with doxycycline and hydroxychloroquine is recommended for Q-fever endocarditis.

Question 19

9. Coxiella burnetii can be transmitted by milk when animals such as goats and cows are infected. The presently recommended conditions of “high-temperature, short-time” pasteurization are adequate to destroy viable Coxiella organisms.

a. True
b. False

Answer 19

a. True
High-temperature, short-time (HTST) pasteurization is effective in destroying Coxiella burnetii in milk.

Question 20

10.Reasons why C. burnetii could be a potential agent of bioterrorism include

a. It is acquired by the inhalation.
b. It is highly infectious.
c. It can be difficult to treat depending on the phase of infection.
d. Pneumonia may be severe.
e. All of the above.

Answer 20

e. All of the above.
C. burnetii, the causative agent of Q fever, is considered a potential bioterrorism agent due to its high infectivity via inhalation, difficulty in treatment in certain phases, and the potential for severe pneumonia.

Question 21

1. Chlamydia pneumoniae pneumonia most resembles infection caused which of the following organisms?

a. Streptococcus pneumoniae
b. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
c. Haemophilus influenzae
d. Chlamydia trachomatis
e. Rhinovirus

Answer 21

b. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Chlamydia pneumoniae pneumonia often presents with symptoms similar to those caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae, including a gradual onset of symptoms and a persistent cough.

Question 22

2. Inclusion conjunctivitis of the newborn

a. Is a mucopurulent conjunctivitis that occurs 7–12 days after delivery
b. Is caused by Chlamydia psittaci
c. Is a result of exposure to pet birds in the home
d. Is treated with systemic penicillin because it may progress to pneumonia
e. None of the above

Answer 22

a. Is a mucopurulent conjunctivitis that occurs 7–12 days after delivery
Inclusion conjunctivitis in newborns is caused by Chlamydia trachomatis and typically presents 7–12 days after birth.

Question 23

3. The diagnostic method of choice for Chlamydia trachomatis pneumonia in the newborn is
   a. A nucleic acid amplification test that targets the ompA gene
   b. Culture of respiratory secretions in McCoy cells or other cell lines
   c. Enzyme immunoassay testing of respiratory secretions
   d. IgG antibodies detected by complement fixation

Answer 23

b. Culture of respiratory secretions in McCoy cells or other cell lines

Question 24

4. All of the following statements about perinatal Chlamydia trachomatis infections are correct except:

a. Between 15% and 40% of infants born to infected women develop inclusion conjunctivitis.
b. Between 10% and 20% of infants born to infected women develop infant pneumonia.
c. The incubation period for Chlamydia trachomatis inclusion conjunctivitis is 1–2 days.
d. The incubation period for infant pneumonia is typically 2–12 weeks.
e. Ocular prophylaxis with erythromycin or tetracycline for neonatal Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection is generally not effective against neonatal Chlamydia trachoma is infection.
f. Infant pneumonia caused by Chlamydia trachomatis often presents with a staccato cough.

Answer 24

c. The incubation period for Chlamydia trachomatis inclusion conjunctivitis is 1–2 days.
The incubation period for Chlamydia trachomatis inclusion conjunctivitis is longer, typically 5–14 days after birth, not 1–2 days.

Question 25

5. An adolescent girl came to the clinic because of a new and unusual vaginal discharge. She had recently become sexually active and had two new partners during the previous month. On pelvic examination, a purulent discharge was seen at the opening of her endocervical canal. Which of the following statements about this patient is most correct? a. A serologic test for syphilis is not indicated because her symptoms are not those of syphilis. b. A Gram stain of her endocervical specimen would show Chlamydia trachomatis inside polymorphonuclear cells. c. The differential diagnosis includes infection with Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Chlamydia trachomatis, or both. d. The endocervical specimen should be analyzed for herpes simplex. e. Initial treatment is with ampicillin.

Answer 25

c. The differential diagnosis includes infection with Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Chlamydia trachomatis, or both. Given the symptoms and recent sexual activity, the differential diagnosis should include both Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis, as these are common causes of cervicitis with purulent discharge.

Question 26

6. The following statements about trachoma are correct except a. It follows chronic or recurrent eye infection with Chlamydia trachomatis. b. Millions of people worldwide have trachoma. c. Trachoma is readily prevented by a chlamydial vaccine. d. Progression of trachoma can be slowed by intermittent treatment with azithromycin. e. Trachoma involves scarring of the conjunctiva, eyelid deformities, and eyelash injury to the cornea.

Answer 26

c. Trachoma is readily prevented by a chlamydial vaccine. There is currently no vaccine available for trachoma; prevention focuses on the SAFE strategy (Surgery, Antibiotics, Facial cleanliness, and Environmental improvement).

Question 27

7. The serovars of Chlamydia trachomatis generally can be divided into groups representing their clinical infections and anatomic site infected. Which of the following statements about the C trachomatis serovars is most correct? a. There is no immunologic cross-reaction between Chlamydia trachomatis serovars A, B, Ba, and D and the Chlamydia pneumoniae serovar. b. Serovars L1, L2, and L3 are associated with lymphogranuloma venereum. c. The same Chlamydia trachomatis serovars are associated with blinding trachoma and sexually transmitted infections. d. The antibody titer rise seen beginning around 6–8 years follows infections with Chlamydia trachomatis serovars D–K.

Answer 27

b. Serovars L1, L2, and L3 are associated with lymphogranuloma venereum. Serovars L1, L2, and L3 of Chlamydia trachomatis are specifically associated with lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV), a sexually transmitted infection that can cause severe genital and lymphatic system damage.

Question 28

1. Ureaplasma urealyticum is so named because: a. It thrives in the upper urinary tract. b. It requires urea as a growth substrate. c. It is a frequent cause of symptomatic urinary bladder infections in young women. d. It causes chronic urinary tract infections in premature babies born to mothers with ureaplasmas as part of the genital flora.

Answer 28

b. It requires urea as a growth substrate. Ureaplasma urealyticum is named for its ability to hydrolyze urea, which is a key part of its growth and metabolism.

Question 29

2. Which of the following is important in the pathogenesis of mycoplasmal infections? a. The peptidoglycan in the mycoplasmal cell wall b. The presence of lacto-N-neotetraose with a terminal galactosamine as the host cell receptor c. The structures and the interactive proteins that mediate adhesion to host cells d. The absence of cilia on the surface of the host cells e. Growth in an anatomic site where anaerobic organisms thrive

Answer 29

c. The structures and the interactive proteins that mediate adhesion to host cells. The pathogenesis of mycoplasmal infections is significantly influenced by the structures and proteins that facilitate the organism's adhesion to host cells, enabling colonization and disease progression.

Question 30

3. Initiation of infection by Mycoplasma pneumoniae begins with a. Elaboration of a polysaccharide capsule that inhibits phagocytosis b. Secretion of a potent exotoxin c. Endocytosis by ciliated respiratory epithelial cells d. Adherence to respiratory epithelial cells mediated by P1 adhesin e. Phagocytic uptake by alveolar macrophages

Answer 30

d. Adherence to respiratory epithelial cells mediated by P1 adhesin. Mycoplasma pneumoniae initiates infection by adhering to respiratory epithelial cells, a process mediated by the P1 adhesin protein, which is critical for the pathogen's ability to attach and cause disease.

Question 31

4. Infection with Mycoplasma genitalium: a. Is not restricted to the genitourinary tract. results in inflammation causing urethritis in males and cervicitis in females. b. Is best treated with first-generation cephalosporin. c. Is associated only with nongonococcal urethritis in males. d. Is asymptomatic unless a co-infection with Chlamydia trachomatis is present.

Answer 31

a. Is not restricted to the genitourinary tract. results in inflammation causing urethritis in males and cervicitis in females. While Mycoplasma genitalium is primarily associated with the genitourinary tract, causing conditions such as urethritis in males and cervicitis in females, it's not exclusively restricted to these areas but is most commonly involved in these infections.

Question 32

1. The etiologic agent of Endemic typhus a. Rickettsia prowazekki b. Rickettsia typhi c. Rickettsia rickettsii d. Rickettsia conorii

Answer 32

b. Rickettsia typhi Rickettsia typhi is the cause of endemic typhus, transmitted by fleas.

Question 33

2. The etiologic agent of Scrub typhus a. Orientia tsutsugamushi b. Ricketttsia akari c. Coxiella burnetii d. Ehrlichia ewingii

Answer 33

a. Orientia tsutsugamushi Orientia tsutsugamushi causes scrub typhus, transmitted by chigger bites.

Question 34

3. Vector of Rickettsia typhi a. Humans b. Rodents c. Mice d. Dogs

Answer 34

b. Rodents While rodents are the primary reservoir, the actual vector to humans is the flea that feeds on infected rodents.

Question 35

4. Rickettsiae are not destroyed by heat, drying, and bacterial chemicals a. True b. False

Answer 35

b. False Rickettsiae are relatively fragile outside of a host or vector and can be destroyed by heat, drying, and certain disinfectants.

Question 36

5. Disease caused by Rickettsia rickettsii a. Rickettsial pox b. Siberian tick typhus c. Rocky Mountain spotted fever d. Scrub typhus

Answer 36

c. Rocky Mountain spotted fever Rickettsia rickettsii is the causative agent of Rocky Mountain spotted fever, transmitted by ticks.

Question 37

6. Which of the following statements about Ehrlichia and ehrlichiosis is most correct? a. Dogs and mice are reservoirs. b. Mosquitoes are the vectors. c. Ampicillin is the treatment of choice. d. Culture is a good method to confirm the diagnosis. e. Ehrlichiae are typically found in lymphocytes.

Answer 37

e. Ehrlichiae are typically found in lymphocytes. Ehrlichiae infect white blood cells, including lymphocytes and monocytes, depending on the species.

Question 38

7. The most useful drug to treat ehrlichiosis is a. Doxycycline b. Penicillin G c. Trimethoprim–sulfamethoxazole d. Gentamicin e. Nitrofurantoin

Answer 38

a. Doxycycline Doxycycline is the treatment of choice for ehrlichiosis in adults and children of all ages.

Question 39

8. The recommended treatment for Q-fever endocarditis is a. Emergent surgery; antibiotics are not effective b. Levofloxacin monotherapy for 6 weeks c. 18 months of combination therapy with doxycycline and hydroxychloroquine d. Penicillin and gentamicin combination therapy using IgG titers to determine duration

Answer 39

c. 18 months of combination therapy with doxycycline and hydroxychloroquine Long-term combination therapy with doxycycline and hydroxychloroquine is recommended for Q-fever endocarditis.

Question 40

9. Coxiella burnetii can be transmitted by milk when animals such as goats and cows are infected. The presently recommended conditions of “high-temperature, short-time” pasteurization are adequate to destroy viable Coxiella organisms. a. True b. False

Answer 40

a. True High-temperature, short-time (HTST) pasteurization is effective in destroying Coxiella burnetii in milk.

Question 41

10. Reasons why C. burnetii could be a potential agent of bioterrorism include a. It is acquired by the inhalation. b. It is highly infectious. c. It can be difficult to treat depending on the phase of infection. d. Pneumonia may be severe. e. All of the above

Answer 41

e. All of the above. C. burnetii, the causative agent of Q fever, is considered a potential bioterrorism agent due to its high infectivity via inhalation, difficulty in treatment in certain phases, and the potential for severe pneumonia.

Question 42

1. This treponema causes Pinta A. T. pallidum subspecies pertenue B. T. pallidum subspecies endemicum C. T. pallidum subspecies pallidum D. T. pallidum subspecies carateum

Answer 42

D. T. pallidum subspecies carateum Treponema pallidum subspecies carateum is the causative agent of Pinta.

Question 43

2. Conventional methods for identification of mycobacteria A. Molecular probe B. Observation of rate of growth C. High liquid chromatography D. Polymerase chain reaction

Answer 43

B. Observation of rate of growth Traditional methods for identifying mycobacteria include observation of the rate of growth, pigmentation, and colony morphology. Molecular methods like PCR are more modern.

Question 44

3. Signs of congenital syphilis except A. Nodular skin lesions B. Saddle nose C. Periostitis D. Hutchinson’s teeth

Answer 44

A. Nodular skin lesions Nodular skin lesions are not typically associated with congenital syphilis. Hutchinson's teeth, saddle nose, and periostitis are classic signs.

Question 45

4. Causes rat bite fever A. Borellia burgdorferi B. Borellia refringens C. Borellia buccalis D. Spirillum minor

Answer 45

D. Spirillum minor Spirillum minor is one of the causative agents of rat bite fever.

Question 46

5. This treponema causes yaws A. T. pallidum subspecies pertenue B. T. pallidum subspecies endemicum C. T. pallidum subspecies paliidum D. T. pallidum subspecies careteum

Answer 46

A. T. pallidum subspecies pertenue Treponema pallidum subspecies pertenue is responsible for yaws. pertenue - yaws endemicum - bejel paliidum careteum- pinta

Question 47

6. Transmitted by the Ixodes tick A. Borellia burgdoferi B. Leptospira C. Treponema D. NOTA

Answer 47

A. Borrelia burgdorferi Borrelia burgdorferi, the causative agent of Lyme disease, is transmitted by Ixodes ticks.

Question 48

7. This is a disease related to syphilis which is highly endemic in children producing ulcerating papules in arms and legs through direct contact A. Pinta B. Yaws C. Bejel D. NOTA

Answer 48

B. Yaws Yaws is a disease caused by Treponema pallidum subspecies pertenue, characterized by ulcerating papules and nodules, mainly in children in tropical regions, spread through direct nonsexual contact.

Question 49

1. Target organ of Cytomegalovirus a. Glands b. Lymphoid tissue c. Neuron d. NOTA

Answer 49

b. Lymphoid tissue

Question 50

2. Morphology of virus particles immune electron microscopy a. Viral genome detection b. Antigen detection c. Electron Microscopy d. Light microscopy

Answer 50

c. Electron Microscopy Electron microscopy is used to visualize the morphology of virus particles directly.

Question 51

3. Histological appearance inclusion bodies a. Viral genome detection b. Antigen detection c. Electron Microscopy d. Light microscopy

Answer 51

d. Light microscopy Inclusion bodies, which are indicative of viral infection within cells, can be observed using light microscopy in histological sections.

Question 52

4. Viral receptor of Epstein-Barr Virus A – Target cell: B cell (C3d complement receptor) B – Target cell: epithelial cell (ICAM-1) a. Only A is associated with the statement b. Only B is associated with the statement c. Both A and B d. Neither A or B is associated with the statement

Answer 52

c. Both A and B Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV) targets B cells using the CD21 (C3d complement receptor) and can also infect epithelial cells, where it uses different molecules such as ICAM-1 for attachment and entry.

Question 53

5. Hybridization with specific nucleic acid probes polymerase chain reaction (PCR) a. Viral genome detection b. Antigen detection c. Electron Microscopy d. Immunoassay

Answer 53

a. Viral genome detection PCR and hybridization with specific nucleic acid probes are techniques used for the detection of viral genomes.

Question 54

6. Confirmation of the identity of the virus may be carried out using a. Neutralization b. Hemadsorption-inhibition c. Immunofluorescence tests d. AOTA

Answer 54

d. AOTA All of the listed methods (neutralization, hemadsorption-inhibition, immunofluorescence tests) can be used for confirming the identity of a virus.

Question 55

Importance of characterizing specific strains of mycobacteria a. Trace transmission from one person to another b. Analysis of outbreaks of tuberculosis c. Demonstration of reactivation vs reinfection d. All of the choices are correct

Answer 55

d. All of the choices are correct Characterizing specific strains is crucial for tracing transmission, analyzing outbreaks, and distinguishing between reactivation and reinfection.

Question 56

7. A mycobacterium which is scotochromogen which produces chronic cervical lymphadenitis in children. a. Mycobacterium kansasii b. Mycobacterium ulcerans c. Mycobacterium Avium complex d. Mycobacterium scrofulaceum

Answer 56

d. Mycobacterium scrofulaceum Mycobacterium scrofulaceum is a scotochromogen known to cause chronic cervical lymphadenitis in children.

Question 57

13. What do you call the abnormal inward growth of eyelashes associated with C. Trachomatis? a. Trichiasis b. Blepharitis c. Chalazion d. Trachoma

Answer 57

a. Trichiasis Trichiasis is the term for the abnormal inward growth of eyelashes, which can be associated with chronic infection by Chlamydia trachomatis.

Question 58

14. Fried egg appearance on suitable agar media a. M. pneumonia b. M. hominis c. M. orale d. M. fermentans

Answer 58

B. M. hominis

Question 59

15. In the traditional classification system the pathogenic species of Leptospira a. Leptospira interrogans b. Leptospira biflexia c. Both d. None of the choices are correct

Answer 59

a. Leptospira interrogans Leptospira interrogans is the pathogenic species traditionally recognized in the classification of Leptospira.

Question 60

16. C Psitacci is transmitted similar to mechanism of COVID 19 infection a. True b. False

Answer 60

b. False Chlamydophila psittaci, the agent of psittacosis, is primarily transmitted to humans through inhalation of dust contaminated by bird droppings, not exactly like the primary transmission mechanism of COVID-19, which is person-to-person through respiratory droplets.

Question 61

17. Lab diagnosis of c psitacci a. elisa b. complement fixation test c. blood culture d. clinical symptomatology

Answer 61

b. complement fixation test The complement fixation test is one of the methods used for the laboratory diagnosis of C. psittaci infection.

Question 62

18. Treatment of C. psittaci a. Pfizer-BioNtech b. Amoxicillin c. Clindamycin d. Tetracycline

Answer 62

d. Tetracycline Tetracycline or doxycycline is the treatment of choice for C. psittaci infection.

Question 63

19.. C. pneumonia is usually associated with a. atherosclerosis b. COPD c. Thyroid disorder d. asthma

Answer 63

a. atherosclerosis There is evidence suggesting an association between chronic Chlamydia pneumoniae infection and atherosclerosis.

Question 64

L. monocytogenes a. Complement fixation b. Schilling test c. Breath test d. Anton test

Answer 64

d. Anton test The Anton test, involving the observation of eye swelling in rabbits after inoculation with Listeria monocytogenes culture, is a historical method for diagnosing Listeriosis, but modern diagnostics rely more on culture and PCR.

Question 65

26. Rat bite fever a. Gardnerella b. Streptobacillus c. C.Trachomatis d. Donovania

Answer 65

b. Streptobacillus Rat bite fever in North America is most commonly caused by Streptobacillus moniliformis.

Question 66

27. 50-65 percent of Reiter’s syndrome patients have this infection: a. Chlamydia b. Listeria c. Legionella d. Mycoplasma

Answer 66

a. Chlamydia Reiter's syndrome, also known as reactive arthritis, is often associated with a preceding Chlamydia infection.

Question 67

28. A 25 year old pregnant patient develops severe vomiting due to ingestion of poorly cooked meat. A gram stain of the meat sample showed gram positive bacilli. What antibiotic must be given? a. IV Aminoglycosides b. Levofloxacin c. Ampicillin d. Cefuroxime

Answer 67

c. Ampicillin The description suggests listeriosis, caused by Listeria monocytogenes, for which ampicillin is the treatment of choice, especially in pregnant patients.

Question 68

29. Parrot fever a. C.tetani b. C.psittaci c. C.pneumonia d. C.trachomatis

Answer 68

b. C.psittaci Parrot fever, or psittacosis, is caused by Chlamydophila psittaci.

Question 69

30. Bacterial Vaginosis a. Gardnerella b. C.trachomatis c. Flavobacterium d. Donovania

Answer 69

a. Gardnerella Gardnerella vaginalis is associated with bacterial vaginosis, a condition characterized by an overgrowth of certain bacteria in the vagina.

Question 70

31. Conjunctivitis a. C.tetani b. C.psittaci c. C.pneumonia d. C.trachomatis

Answer 70

d. C.trachomatis Chlamydia trachomatis can cause conjunctivitis, particularly inclusion conjunctivitis in newborns and adults.

Question 71

32. Post Gonococcal Urethritis a. Mycoplasma b. Listeria c. Chlamydia d. Legionella

Answer 71

c. Chlamydia Post-gonococcal urethritis is often caused by Chlamydia trachomatis, especially following or in conjunction with a gonococcal infection.

Question 72

33. Fluoroquinolone resistance is caused by: a. Mutation in DNA gyrase b. Deletion and mutation in the catalase-peroxidase gene c. Alteration in the beta subunit of RNA polymerase d. Alteration in ha-gene-mycolic acid synthesis

Answer 72

a. Mutation in DNA gyrase Fluoroquinolone resistance often results from mutations in DNA gyrase (and topoisomerase IV in gram-positive bacteria), which are the target enzymes of fluoroquinolones.

Question 73

34. Known to cause Strep resistance a. Mutation in DNA gyrase b. Deletion and mutation in the catalase-peroxidase gene c. Mutations in genes encoding the ribosomal S12 protein and 16S rRNA d. Alteration in ha-gene-mycolic acid synthesis

Answer 73

c. Mutations in genes encoding the ribosomal S12 protein and 16S rRNA Resistance in Streptococcus species (and many other bacteria) to antibiotics can be caused by mutations in genes encoding ribosomal proteins and rRNA, affecting the binding of antibiotics to the ribosome.

Question 74

35. The antigenic structure of spirochetes composed of 3 core proteins and a sheath protein. a. Cardiolipin b. Endoflagella c. Hyaluronidase d. Reagin

Answer 74

b. Endoflagella The antigenic structure of spirochetes includes endoflagella (flagella-like structures located in the periplasmic space), which play a role in the motility and antigenicity of these organisms.

Question 75

41. Trachomatis has long lasting immunity a. true b. false

Answer 75

b. false Immunity to Chlamydia trachomatis is not long-lasting, and individuals can be reinfected multiple times.

Question 76

42. Reactions to tuberculin except a. erythema b. Induration of 5mm after 5 tuberculin units c. fever d. edema

Answer 76

b. Induration of 5mm after 5 tuberculin units

Question 77

43. Method kills spirochetes except a. penicilln b. drying c. Dec temp of 37 degrees

Answer 77

c. Dec temp of 37 degrees Decreasing the temperature to 37 degrees Celsius would not kill spirochetes; this is around the normal human body temperature where many pathogens, including spirochetes, thrive. Penicillin can kill spirochetes, and drying can also be detrimental to their survival.

Question 78

44. Intact cell mediated immunity a. tuberculoid b. lepromatous

Answer 78

a. tuberculoid Tuberculoid leprosy is characterized by a strong cell-mediated immune response, which helps to contain the spread of the disease and results in fewer lesions.

Question 79

45. L. monocytogenes a. Complement fixation b. Schilling test c. Breath test d. Anton test

Answer 79

d. Anton test The Anton test is a classical method for demonstrating Listeria pathogenicity, typically involving the observation of conjunctivitis in rabbits after inoculation with the bacterium. However, in modern settings, the immunocompromised mouse pathogenicity test is more relevant for research and diagnostic purposes.

Question 80

46. An inanimate object that is capable of infecting and provide adequate environment for microorganism to multiply and reproduce. a. Host b. Reservoir host c. Definitive host d. Fomite

Answer 80

d. Fomite A fomite is any inanimate object that can carry infectious organisms and thus transfer disease.

Question 81

76. Fluoroquinolone resistance is caused by: a. Deletion and mutations in the catalase-peroxidase gene b. Alterations in INha-gene-mycolic acid synthesis c. Alteration in the beta subunit of RNA polymerase d. Mutation in the DNA gyrase

Answer 81

d. Mutation in the DNA gyrase Fluoroquinolone resistance is primarily caused by mutations in DNA gyrase (and topoisomerase IV in gram-positive bacteria), which are the target enzymes of these antibiotics.

Question 82

The mycobacterial strain is particularly resistant to first line anti-TB drugs and requires treatment for life a. Mycobacterium avium complex b. Mycobacterium kansasii c. Mycobacterium leprae d. None of the choices are correct

Answer 82

a. Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) infections, particularly in immunocompromised individuals, can be difficult to treat and may require ongoing therapy. However, the notion of "treatment for life" generally applies to cases with severe immunodeficiency, such as advanced HIV, rather than to all MAC infections.

Question 83

Cell mediated immunity is intact a. Lepromatous b. Tuberculoid

Answer 83

b. Tuberculoid In tuberculoid leprosy, cell-mediated immunity is intact, leading to a more localized form of the disease with fewer lesions.

Question 84

Severe asymmetric nerve involvement a. Lepromatous b. Tuberculoid

Answer 84

b. Tuberculoid Tuberculoid leprosy is characterized by severe asymmetric nerve involvement, leading to significant nerve damage and the potential for disability.

Question 85

Deficient cell-mediated immunity a. Lepromatous b. Tuberculoid

Answer 85

a. Lepromatous In lepromatous leprosy, there is a deficiency in cell-mediated immunity against Mycobacterium leprae, leading to widespread dissemination of the bacteria and numerous lesions.

Question 86

81. Congenital syphilis is transmitted vertically from mother to baby during? a. 2-28 weeks AOG b. 6-8 weeks AOG c. 10-15 weeks AOG d. 32- 36 AOG

Answer 86

c. 10-15 weeks AOG

Question 87

82. Growth characterisitics of spirochetes include the following except a. Microaerophilic b. Viable for 72 hrs when stored at 4c c. remains motile for 3-6 days at 25c d. grows in 1-4% oxygen

Answer 87

b. Viable for 72 hrs when stored at 4°C Spirochetes are generally not viable for extended periods outside a host or specific culture conditions, making option (b) the least likely characteristic listed.

Question 88

84. Tertiary stage of syphillis is characterized by the following except? a. Gummas b. Aortitis c. degenerative changes in the CNS d. Condylomas

Answer 88

d. Condylomas Condylomas, which are genital warts, are not typically associated with the tertiary stage of syphilis. The tertiary stage is more commonly characterized by gummas (soft, non-cancerous growths), aortitis (inflammation of the aorta), and degenerative changes in the central nervous system (CNS).

Question 89

85. Signs of congenital syphilis except: a. Hutchinson’s teeth b. Nodular skin lesions c. Saddlenose d. Periostitis

Answer 89

b. Nodular skin lesions

Question 90

83. Spirochetes produces this distinct antobody substance which gives positive flocculations tests a. Reagin b. Hyaluronidase c. Cardiolipin d. Lipids

Answer 90

a. Reagin Spirochetes, including those that cause syphilis (Treponema pallidum), can produce a substance known as reagin, which can lead to positive flocculation tests like the Wassermann test or Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) test used for diagnosing syphilis.

Question 91

6. Main target for epstein barr virus a. B lymphocytes b. T lymphocytes c. Mononuclear cells d. Phagocytes

Answer 91

a. B lymphocytes Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) primarily targets B lymphocytes.

Question 92

7. Control of CMV inclusion disease involves the following except a. Live and recombinant CMV vaccines b. Isolation of newborns with generalized CMV inclusion diseases from other newborns c. Screening of transplant donors and recipients for CMV antibody d. Administration of human IgM prepared from plasma pools obtained from healthy persons with high titers of CMV

Answer 92

d. Administration of human IgM prepared from plasma pools obtained from healthy persons with high titers of CMV While CMV immunoglobulin is used for prophylaxis and treatment in certain high-risk cases, the administration of human IgM prepared from plasma pools for CMV is not a standard control measure for CMV inclusion disease.

Question 93

8. Core of double stranded DNA is composed of a. Tegument b. Protein coat c. nucleocapsid d. All of the choices are correct

Answer 93

d. All of the choices are correct

Question 94

9. Viruses range in size from approximately a. 1-25um b. 1-25nm c. 25-300um d. 300nm-1um

Answer 94

d. 300nm-1um

Question 95

The envelope form of herpes virus measures a. 120 nm b. 140 nm c. 150 nm d. 160 nm

Answer 95

c. 150 nm The envelope of herpesviruses typically measures around 150 nm in diameter.

Question 96

Infects mostly young children a. HSV2 b. HSV1 c. Both choices are correct d. None of the choices are correct

Answer 96

b. HSV1 HSV1 (Herpes Simplex Virus 1) is more commonly associated with infections in young children, often leading to oral herpes or cold sores.

Question 97

has animal vectors a. HSV2 b. HSV1 c. All of the choices are correct d. None of the choices is correct

Answer 97

d. None of the choices is correct Neither HSV1 nor HSV2 is typically transmitted through animal vectors. These viruses are primarily transmitted through human-to-human contact.

Question 98

Sexually transmitted a. HSV1 b. HSV2 c. Both choices are correct d. None of the choices are correct

Answer 98

b. HSV2

Question 99

Infects mostly adults a. HSV1 b. HSV2 c. Both d. None of the choices are correct

Answer 99

b. HSV2

Question 100

Manifest as cold sores a. HSV1 b. HSV2 c. both d. None of the above

Answer 100

a. HSV1

Question 101

16. Eczema herpeticum a. HSV1 b. HSV2 c. Both choices are correct d. None of the choices are correct

Answer 101

a. HSV1

Question 102

17. Associated with Herpetic whitlow a. None of the choices b. HSV1 c. HSV2 d. Both

Answer 102

d. Both

Question 103

18. Associated with herpes encephalitis a. None of the choices b. HSV1 c. HSV2 d. Both

Answer 103

b. HSV1

Question 104

20. associated with cutaneous herpes a. HSV1 b. HSV2 c. Both choices are correct d. None of the choices are correct

Answer 104

c. both choices are correct Both HSV-1 (Herpes Simplex Virus type 1) and HSV-2 (Herpes Simplex Virus type 2) can cause cutaneous herpes, which refers to herpes infections of the skin. HSV-1 is more commonly associated with oral herpes, including cold sores or fever blisters, but it can also cause genital herpes. HSV-2 is more commonly associated with genital herpes, but it can also cause infections of the skin in other parts of the body.

Question 105

26. Which virus can produce non-neutralizing antibodies? a. Ebola Virus b. Influenza Virus c. Covid19 Virus d. None of the above

Answer 105

c. Covid19 Virus

Question 106

27. Which virus contains linear genome double-stranded DNA, non-segmented? a. Retrovirus b. Adenovirus c. Parvovirus d. Filovirus

Answer 106

b. Adenovirus

Question 107

28. Which virus can replicate in-vitro only? a. Epstein-Barr Virus b. Cytomegalovirus c. Varicella-Zoster Virus d. Human Herpes Virus

Answer 107

b. Cytomegalovirus

Question 108

Which virus can usually be found in patients with proliferative disease? a. Epstein-Barr Virus b. Cytomegalovirus c. Varicella-Zoster Virus d. Human Herpes Virus

Answer 108

d. Human Herpes Virus

Question 109

Most Dangerous strain of Hepatitis Virus a. Hepatitis A b. Hepatitis B c. Hepatitis C d. Hepatitis D

Answer 109

d. Hepatitis D

Question 110

Hepatitis strand with no heterologous immunity except: a. Hepatitis A b. Hepatitis B c. Hepatitis C d. Hepatitis D

Answer 110

d. Hepatitis D

Question 111

32. Hepatitis strains with no homologous immunity a. Hepatitis A b. Hepatitis B c. Hepatitis C d. Hepatitis D

Answer 111

c. Hepatitis C

Question 112

33. Hepatitis strains with unknown immunity a. Hepatitis A b. Hepatitis B c. Hepatitis C d. Hepatitis D

Answer 112

d. Hepatitis D

Question 113

34. The following are double stranded DNA viruses, EXCEPT: a. Epstein barr virus b. Human immunodeficiency virus c. Hepadnavirus d. Varicella Zoster Virus e. None of the choices are correct

Answer 113

b. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). HIV is a retrovirus, which is a single-stranded RNA virus, not a double-stranded DNA virus. - Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is a member of the herpesvirus family, which is indeed a double-stranded DNA virus. - Hepadnavirus, such as Hepatitis B virus, has a partially double-stranded DNA genome. - Varicella Zoster Virus (VZV) is also a member of the herpesvirus family and is a double-stranded DNA virus. Therefore, the only option that does not fit the category of double-stranded DNA viruses is the Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).

Question 114

35. Occurrence of virus in blood takes months to years a. Viral Hep C b. Viral Hep A c. Viral Hep B d. Both Hep B and C

Answer 114

d. Both Hep B and C

Question 115

41. The herpes virus transmitted thru bites of old world monkeys or macaques a. Epstein barr virus b. adenovirus c. HIV d. Influenza virus

Answer 115

d. Influenza virus

Question 116

42. No homologous immunity a. Hepa C b. Hepa B c. Hepa A d. Hepa D

Answer 116

a. Hepa C

Question 117

43. Promotes interferon production a. imiquimod b. tamiflu c. Alpha interferon d. fortovase

Answer 117

c. Alpha interferon

Question 118

44. Associated with keratitis a. HSV1 b. HSV2 c. nota d. aota

Answer 118

a. HSV1

Question 119

45. Virus that is enveloped a. nota b. adenovirus c. poliovirus d. herpesvirus

Answer 119

d. herpesvirus

Question 120

46. An inanimate object that is capable of infecting and provide adequate environment for microorganism to multiply and reproduce. a. Host b. Reservoir host c. Definitive host d. Fomite

Answer 120

d. Fomite

Question 121

61. Cause of viral gastroenteritis in infants a. Rotavirus b. Norovirus c. Adenovirus d. Astrovirus

Answer 121

a. Rotavirus

Question 122

The integration of viral genome material into a host's genome can be described as: a. DNA integration b. Retroviral integration c. Provirus formation d. Genetic integration

Answer 122

a. DNA integration

Question 123

64. Genome of polio a. Single-stranded RNA b. Positive-sense single-stranded RNA c. Non-segmented RNA d. Linear RNA genome

Answer 123

a. Single-stranded RNA

Question 124

65. Segmented dsRNA virus: a. Reovirus b. Norovirus c. Adenovirus d. Astrovirus

Answer 124

a. Reovirus

Question 125

71. Transmitted via urine a. Cytomegalovirus b. Norovirus c. Adenovirus d. Astrovirus

Answer 125

a. Cytomegalovirus

Question 126

Influenza B undergoes more drift than Influenza A does a. True b. False

Answer 126

b. False Influenza A undergoes more antigenic variation and drift than Influenza B.

Question 127

Virus particles present in the sample will be absorbed onto the grid by the antibody while the grid is coated with specific anti-sera a. Radioimmunoassay b. Immunofluorescence c. Viral genome detection d. Solid phase immune electron microscopy (SPIEM) e. Classical immune electron microscopy

Answer 127

d. Solid phase immune electron microscopy (SPIEM)

Question 128

1. The sign marks the initial stage of Lyme disease A. Erythema migrans B. Arthritis C. Arthralgia D. Neurological involvement

Answer 128

A. Erythema migrans

Question 129

2. Glycogen in inclusions A. C. pneumonia B. C. psitacci C. C. trachomatis D. C. tetani

Answer 129

C. C. trachomatis

Question 130

3 Growth characterisitics of spirochetes include the following except a microaerophilic b viable for 72 hrs when stored at 4c c. remains motile for 3-6 days at 25c d grows in 1-4% oxygen

Answer 130

b viable for 72 hrs when stored at 4c

Question 131

4. Lymphogranuloma venereum A. C. trachomatis B. C. tetani C. C. psittaci D. C. pneumonia

Answer 131

A. C. trachomatis

Question 132

5. C. pneumonia is usually associated with A. atherosclerosis B. COPD C. Thyroid disorder D. asthma

Answer 132

A. atherosclerosis

Question 133

6. This treponema causes pinta A. T. Pallidum subspecies carateum B. T. Pallidum subspecies endemicum C. T. Pallidum subspecies pallidum D. T. Pallidum subspecies pertenue

Answer 133

A. T. Pallidum subspecies carateum

Question 134

7. Trachomatis has long-lasting immunity a. true b. false

Answer 134

b. false

Question 135

8. Trachoma is the disease of A. eye b. ear c. pharynx d. genital

Answer 135

A. eye

Question 136

9. Reactions to Tuberculin except a. Erythema b. Induration of 5mm after 5 tuberculin units c. Fever d. Edema

Answer 136

b. Induration of 5mm after 5 tuberculin units

Question 137

10 A mycobacterium which is scotochromogen which produces chronic cervical lymphadenitis in children A. Mycobacterium kansasii B. Mycobacterium ulcerans C. Mycobacterium Avium complex D. Mycobacterium scrofulaceum

Answer 137

D. Mycobacterium scrofulaceum

Question 138

11 method kills spirochetes except a. Penicillin b. Drying c. dec temp of 37 C d. NOTA

Answer 138

c. dec temp of 37 C

Question 139

12 M. pneumonia is associated with genital tract infcetions a. True b. False

Answer 139

b. False

Question 140

13. postgonococcal urethritis a. mycoplasma b. listeria c. chlamydia d. legionella

Answer 140

c. chlamydia

Question 141

14. Importance of characterizing specific strains of mycobacteria A. Trace transmission from one person to another B. Analysis of outbreaks of tuberculosis C. Demonstration of reactivation vs reinfection D. All of the choices are correct

Answer 141

D. All of the choices are correct

Question 142

15. Intact cell mediated immunity A. Tuberculoid B. Lepromatous

Answer 142

A. Tuberculoid

Question 143

16 The antigenic structure of spirochetes which is composes of 3 core protein plus a sheath protein a endoflagella b cardiolipin c reagin d hyaluronidase

Answer 143

a endoflagella

Question 144

17. L. monocytogenes A. Complement fixation B. Schilling test C. Breath test D. Anton test

Answer 144

D. Anton test

Question 145

18. This type of microbacterial lesion produces the chronic granuloma. A. Productive type B. Exudative type C. None of the choices D. Both choices

Answer 145

A. Productive type

Question 146

19 lab diagnosis of c psitacci a elisa b complement fixation test c. blood culture d clinical symptomatology

Answer 146

b complement fixation test

Question 147

21. The antibody that develops in the neonate with congenital syphilis A. IgA antitreponemal antibody B. IgG antitreponemal antibody C. IgM antitreponemal antibody D. NOTA

Answer 147

C. IgM antitreponemal antibody

Question 148

Arrange in proper order the developmental cycle of chlamydia 1. Binary Fission 2. Ingestion 3. EB Attachment 4. Reorganization into RB inside phagosome A. 1,3,2,4 B. 3,4,2,1 C. 2,1,4,3 D. 3,2,4,1

Answer 148

D. 3,2,4,1 This sequence represents the steps as follows: 1. EB Attachment (3) - The cycle begins with the attachment of the elementary body (EB) to the host cell. 2. Ingestion (2) - Following attachment, the EB is ingested by the host cell. 3. Reorganization into RB inside phagosome (4) - Once inside the host cell, the EB reorganizes into a reticulate body (RB), which is the metabolically active form of the bacterium. 4. Binary Fission (1) - The RB undergoes binary fission, replicating within the inclusion to produce more RBs, which eventually differentiate back into EBs.

Question 149

24. In the traditional classification system the pathogenic species of Leptospira A. Leptospira interrogans B. Both C. Leptospira biflexia D. None of the choices are correct

Answer 149

A. Leptospira interrogans Leptospira interrogans is the species traditionally associated with pathogenic strains of Leptospira, responsible for causing leptospirosis in humans and animals. Leptospira biflexa, on the other hand, is generally considered to be non-pathogenic or less pathogenic and is often associated with environmental isolates.

Question 150

25. Positive lepromin test A. tuberculoid B. lepromatous

Answer 150

A. tuberculoid

Question 151

26. This is the most rapid, sensitive, and specific method of identification of mycobacteria A. none of the choices B. culture C. molecular probe D. acid fast staining

Answer 151

C. molecular probe

Question 152

27. Transmitted by the Ixodes tick A. Treponema B. Leptospira C. None of the choices are correct D. Borellia burgdorferi

Answer 152

D. Borellia burgdorferi

Question 153

28. Fried egg appearance on suitable agar media A. M. pneumonia B. M. hominis C. M. orale D. M. fermentans

Answer 153

B. M. hominis

Question 154

29. Rat bite fever a. Streptobacillus b. C. Trichomatis c. Gardnerella d. Donovania

Answer 154

a. Streptobacillus

Question 155

30. Inclusion conjunctivitis of the newborn is caused by C. psittaci a. false b. true

Answer 155

a. false Inclusion conjunctivitis of the newborn is typically caused by Chlamydia trachomatis, not C. psittaci. C. psittaci is more commonly associated with psittacosis, a respiratory illness transmitted by birds.

Question 156

31. 50-65 percent of Reiter's syndrome patients have: a. Chlamydia b. Legionella c.Listeria d. Mycoplasma

Answer 156

a. Chlamydia

Question 157

32.fluoroquinoline resistance is caused by: a. deletion and mutations in the catalase-peroxidase gene b. alterations in INha-gene-mycolic acid synthesis c. alterartion in the beta subunit of RNA polymerase d. mutation in the dna gyrase

Answer 157

d. mutation in the dna gyrase

Question 158

33This treponema cause bejel A. T Pallidum subspecie pallidum B. T Pallidum subspecie endemicum C. T Pallidum subspecie carateum

Answer 158

B. T Pallidum subspecie endemicum

Question 159

34. A 25 year old pregnant patient develops severe vomiting due to ingestion of poorly cooked meat. A gram stain of the meat sample showed gram positive bacilli. What antibiotic will you give? A. IV Aminoglycoside B. Cefuroxime C. Levofloxacin D. Ampicillin

Answer 159

D. Ampicillin

Question 160

35. Parrot fever A. C. tetani B. C. trachomatis C. C. psitacci D. C. pneumonia

Answer 160

C. C. psitacci

Question 161

36. Erysipelothrix a. G(-)bacilli b. G(+)bacilli c. G(+)cocci d. G(-)cocci

Answer 161

b. G(+)bacilli Erysipelothrix is a genus of bacteria that are Gram-positive (G+) bacilli. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae, the species within this genus, is known to cause erysipeloid, a skin infection primarily seen in people handling fish, meat, and poultry.

Question 162

7. Conventional methods for identification of mycobacteria a. Molecular probe b. Polymerase chain reaction c. High liquid chromatography d. Observation of rate growth

Answer 162

d. Observation of rate growth

Question 163

38. The cell wall of chlamydia a. Gram positive b. Gram positive with no cell wall c. Gram negative with LPS d. No cell wall

Answer 163

c. Gram negative with LPS

Question 164

39. Tumbling motiliy A. Streptobacillus B. L.monocytogenes C. Gardnerella D. Donovania

Answer 164

B. L.monocytogenes

Question 165

40 Method of mycobacterial identification is used in profiling in mycolic acid content A. Polymerase chain reaction B. None of the choices are correct C. High performance liquid chromatogoraphy D. Molecular probe

Answer 165

C. High performance liquid chromatogoraphy

Question 166

41. C. trachomatis treatment A. Iodine B. Mulnopiravir C. Vaccination D. Erythromycin

Answer 166

D. Erythromycin

Question 167

42. Characterized by pale anesthetic macular lesions or diffuse erryhematous infiltrated nodules A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis B. Mycobacterium leprae C. Mycobacterium marinum D. Mycobacterium ulcerans

Answer 167

B. Mycobacterium leprae

Question 168

43. This is a central area of peripheral fibrous tissue which undergoes caseation necrosis A. Granuloma B. Tubercle C. None of the choices are correct D. Macular skin lesion

Answer 168

B. Tubercle A tubercle refers to a small nodular lesion, particularly in the context of tuberculosis, that often contains a central area of caseation necrosis surrounded by a peripheral fibrous tissue. This structure is a type of granuloma specific to tuberculosis infection.

Question 169

44. Causes rat bite fever A. Borellia buccalis B. Borellia refringens C. Spirillum minor D. Borellia burgdorferi

Answer 169

C. Spirillum minor

Question 170

45. Microorganisms that produce pigment in the dark a. non-chromogens b. none of the choices are correct c. scrotochromogens d. photochromogens

Answer 170

c. scrotochromogens

Question 171

46. This treponema causes yaws A. T. Pallidum subspecies pallidum B. T. Pallidum subspecies endemicum C. T. Pallidum subspecies carateum D. T. Pallidum subspecies pertenue

Answer 171

D. T. Pallidum subspecies pertenue

Question 172

47. Congenital syphilis is transmitted vertically from mother to baby during? a. 2-28 weeks AOG b. 6-8 weeks AOG c. 10-15 weeks AOG d. 32- 36 AOG

Answer 172

c. 10-15 weeks AOG

Question 173

48. Saprophyte A. Gardnerella B. Chromobacterium C. Acinetobacter D. Alcaligenes

Answer 173

D. Alcaligenes

Question 174

49. Water organisms that produce superficial skin lesions A. Mycobacterium marinum B. Mycobacterium fortuitum C. Mycobacterium ulcerans D. All of the choices are correct

Answer 174

D. All of the choices are correct

Question 175

50. LGV is transmitted by A. Droplet spread B. fecal-oral ingestion C. insect vectors D. Sexual Contact

Answer 175

D. Sexual Contact Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) is primarily transmitted through sexual contact. It is caused by certain serovars of Chlamydia trachomatis.

Question 176

51. M. genitalium is the easist organism to culture a. true b. false

Answer 176

b. false Mycoplasma genitalium is notoriously difficult to culture in a laboratory setting due to its fastidious nature and specific growth requirements.

Question 177

52. Bilateral inguinal buboes A. Legionella B. Listeria C. LGV D. Acetinobacter

Answer 177

C. LGV Bilateral inguinal buboes are a characteristic feature of Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV), which is caused by the bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis. The other options listed are not typically associated with this presentation.

Question 178

53. This test is the first to be positive in early syphilis A. FTA-ABS test B. VDRL C. RPR D. None of the choices

Answer 178

A. FTA-ABS test

Question 179

54. Severe asymmetric nerve involvement A. Tuberculoid B. Lepromatous

Answer 179

A. Tuberculoid

Question 180

55. The mycobacterial strain is particularly resistant to first line anti- TB drugs and requires treatment for life a. Mycobacterium Avium complex b. Mycobacterium kansasii c. Mycobacterium leprae d. None of the choioce are correct

Answer 180

a. Mycobacterium Avium complex

Question 181

56. Microorganisms which produces pigment in light a.none of the choices are correct b. photocromogens c. scotochromogens d. non-chromogens

Answer 181

b. photocromogens

Question 182

57. The incubation period fo C. trachomatis inclusion conjunctivitis is 1-2 days a. TRUE b. FALSE

Answer 182

b. FALSE The incubation period for Chlamydia trachomatis inclusion conjunctivitis is longer than 1-2 days. It typically ranges from 5 to 14 days after exposure. Inclusion conjunctivitis, also known as chlamydial conjunctivitis, can take several days to develop symptoms after the bacteria have been transmitted to the eye.

Question 183

58 Abundant acid fast bacili in skin lesions A. Tuberculoid type B. Lepromatous type

Answer 183

B. Lepromatous type

Question 184

59 process known to cause isoniazide resistance a. Deletion of mutations in the catalase-peroxidases gene b. Alterations in the Beta subunit of RNA polymerase c. Alterations in genes encoding the rS12 protein and 16s rRNA

Answer 184

a. Deletion of mutations in the catalase-peroxidase gene Isoniazid resistance in Mycobacterium tuberculosis is primarily due to mutations in the katG gene, which encodes the catalase-peroxidase enzyme needed to activate isoniazid.

Question 185

60 Clue cells a. Acinetobacter b. Alcaligenes c. Chromobacterium d. Gardnerella

Answer 185

d. Gardnerella Clue cells are vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria, characteristic of bacterial vaginosis, most commonly associated with Gardnerella vaginalis.

Question 186

61. ureaplasma urealyticum requires urea as a growth substrate a. true b. false

Answer 186

a. true

Question 187

2. Skin lesions with pyemia and multiple abscess A. Chromobacterium B. Alcaligenes C. Flavobacterium D. Psitacossis

Answer 187

A. Chromobacterium Skin lesions with pyemia and multiple abscesses are more commonly associated with infections caused by Chromobacterium violaceum, which is a Gram-negative bacterium. The other options listed are less commonly associated with this presentation.

Question 188

63. Known to cause streptomycin resistance A. Alterations in hA gene mycolic acid synthesis B. Mutations in gene encoding the ribosomal S12 protein and 16S rRNA C. mutations in DNA gyrase

Answer 188

B. Mutations in gene encoding the ribosomal S12 protein and 16S rRNA

Question 189

64. L. monocytogenes a. Spore forming b. Non-spore forming

Answer 189

b. Non-spore forming L. monocytogenes (Listeria monocytogenes) is a non-spore-forming Gram-positive bacterium.

Question 190

65. A constituent of tubercle bacilli responsible for producing caseous necrosis A. Mycolic acid B. Muramyl dipeptide C. Waxes D. Phospholipids

Answer 190

D. Phospholipids

Question 191

66. Continuous bacteremia A. Lepromatous type B. Tuberculoid type

Answer 191

A. Lepromatous type

Question 192

67. Malignant form a. Lepromatous type B. Tuberculoid type

Answer 192

a. Lepromatous type

Question 193

68. C Psitacci is transmitted similar to mechanism of COVID 19 infection A.True B. False

Answer 193

B. False C. psittaci, the causative agent of psittacosis (also known as parrot fever), is primarily transmitted to humans through inhalation of dust contaminated with dried secretions (like feces or urine) from infected birds, rather than the respiratory droplets through which COVID-19 is spread.

Question 194

69. One serovar of Chlamydia trachomatis causes eye infections, while the second serovar causes genital infections A. True B. False

Answer 194

A. True Different serovars of Chlamydia trachomatis are responsible for different types of infections: some serovars cause eye infections, such as trachoma (serovars A-C), while others are responsible for genital infections, including lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) (serovars D-K for urogenital infections and L1-L3 for LGV).

Question 195

70. Conjunctivits a. C. psitacci b. C. tranchomatis c. C. pneumonia d. C. tetani

Answer 195

b. C. tranchomatis

Question 196

71. Bacterial vaginosis A. Gardnerella B. Flavobacterium C. C. trachomatis D. Donovania

Answer 196

A. Gardnerella

Question 197

72. Chlamydia infectious particle A. Elemental body B. Reticulate body C. Reticular body D. Elementary body

Answer 197

D. Elementary body The elementary body is the infectious form of Chlamydia, capable of infecting host cells.

Question 198

73. lipid constituent of tubercle bacilli responsible for granuloma formation A. waxes B. phospholipids C. muramyl dipeptide D. mycolic acid

Answer 198

C. muramyl dipeptide

Question 199

74. The variation forms the basis for the serological classification of Leptospira species A. Antigenic structure B. Morphology C. Culture D. Growth requirements

Answer 199

A. Antigenic structure

Question 200

75. The diagnostic method of choice for C. trachomatis pneumonia in the newborn is culture of respiratory secretions. A. True B. False

Answer 200

A. True

Question 201

76. This is a disease related to syphilis which is highly endemic in children producing ulcerating papules in arms and legs through direct contact A. Pinta B. Bejel C. None of the choices are correct D. Yaws

Answer 201

D. Yaws

Question 202

78. A 26-year-old gemale commercial sex worker consulted at your clinic. She was found to have foul-smelling vaginal discharge with vaginal epithelial cells studded with numerous bacteria. What will be your treatment? a. Tetracycline b. Dactinomycin c. Metronidazole d. Cefoxitin

Answer 202

c. Metronidazole

Question 203

77. Chlamydia can make ATP A. FALSE B. TRUE

Answer 203

A. FALSE Chlamydia is an obligate intracellular bacterium that cannot produce its own ATP. It relies on the host cell's ATP for energy.

Question 204

79. Mycoplasma are responsive to treatment with Co-amoxiclav as they do not have penicillinase activity A. True B. False

Answer 204

B. False

Question 205

80.a serologic test for syphilis which estimates the amount of regain in plasma giving quantitative results a. VDRL b. None of the choices are correct c. Flocculations d. rpr

Answer 205

c. Flocculations A serologic test for syphilis that estimates the amount of reagin (an antibody) in plasma and gives quantitative results is typically based on flocculation reactions. Tests like the VDRL (Venereal Disease Research Laboratory) and RPR (Rapid Plasma Reagin) are examples of such tests that measure the amount of reagin in the blood and are used for diagnosing syphilis.

Question 206

The most sensitive means of diagnosis C. Pneumonia a. NAAT b. culture C. serology

Answer 206

a. NAAT (Nucleic Acid Amplification Test) The most sensitive means of diagnosing Chlamydia pneumoniae (C. pneumonia) is through NAAT, which can detect the genetic material of the bacterium in clinical samples. This method is highly sensitive and specific for the detection of C. pneumonia.

Question 207

82. Spirochetes produces this distinct antobody substance which gives positive flocculations tests A. Reagin B. Hyaluronidase C. Cardiolipin D. Lipids

Answer 207

A. Reagin

Question 208

83. Chlamydia have shared group or genus-specific antigens. A. False B. True

Answer 208

B. True

Question 209

84. Yellow Pigment a. Legionella b. Acinetobacter c. Chromobacterium d. Flavobacterium

Answer 209

d. Flavobacterium

Question 210

85. Serovar C a. LGV b. Trachoma c. LGBT d. oculogenital disease

Answer 210

b. Trachoma Serovar C of Chlamydia trachomatis is associated with trachoma, an infectious eye disease that can lead to blindness.

Question 211

86. Staining method for identifying acid-fast bacilli a. Ziehl-Nieelsen technique b. None of the choices are correct c. Wrights stain d. Giemsa stain

Answer 211

a. Ziehl-Neelsen technique The Ziehl-Neelsen staining technique, also known as the acid-fast stain, is used to identify acid-fast bacilli like Mycobacterium tuberculosis. It's commonly employed in the diagnosis of tuberculosis.

Question 212

87. Mycoplasma are part of the normal microbiota of the mouth. A. False B. True

Answer 212

B. True

Question 213

88 Urogenital infections A. C. pneumonia B. C. psitacci C. C. Trachomatis D. C. tetani

Answer 213

C. C. Trachomatis

Question 214

89. Obvious disfigurement A. Lepromatous type B. Tuberculoid type

Answer 214

A. Lepromatous type Lepromatous leprosy can lead to obvious disfigurement due to the widespread skin lesions, nodules, and potentially severe damage to the skin, nerves, and other tissues.

Question 215

90. Signs of congenital syphilis except: A. Hutchinson’s teeth B. Nodular skin lesions C. Saddlenose D. Periostitis

Answer 215

B. Nodular skin lesions

Question 216

91. Chromatin-closed safety pin appearance A. Donovania B. Gardnerella C. C. Trachomatis D. Flavobacterium

Answer 216

A. Donovania

Question 217

92. A mycobacterium which is a photochromagen with low to absent communicability. A. Mycobacterium scrofulaceum B. Mycobacterium kansasii C. Mycobacterium Avium complex D. Mycobacterium ulcerans

Answer 217

B. Mycobacterium kansasii Mycobacterium kansasii is a photochromogen, meaning it produces pigment when exposed to light. It typically has low to absent communicability among humans.

Question 218

93. Alcaligenes fecalis A. Gram (+) bacilli B. Gram (-) cocci C. Gram (-) bacilli D. Gram (+) cocci

Answer 218

C. Gram (-) bacilli Alcaligenes faecalis is a Gram-negative bacillus.

Question 219

94. Decontamination and concentration of specimen for identification of mycobacteria involves a. all of the choices are correct b. neutralization with buffer c. liquefaction with n-acetyl-cysteine d. decontamination with NaOH

Answer 219

a. all of the choices are correct

Question 220

95. Markedly deficient cell mediated immunity A. Lepromatous type B. Tubeculoid type

Answer 220

A. Lepromatous type

Question 221

96. In LGV, inguinal lymph nodes become enlarged and matted, draining pus through the skin a. TRUE b. False

Answer 221

a. TRUE

Question 222

97. Ferments glucose A. M. hominis B. M. genitalium C. Ureaplasma D. M. pneumoniae

Answer 222

D. M. pneumoniae

Question 223

98. L. monocytogenes A. G(-) bacilli B. G(-) cocci C. G(+) cocci D. G(+) bacilli

Answer 223

D. G(+) bacilli

Question 224

99. Tertiary stage of syphillis is characterized by the following except? A. gummas B. Aortitis C. degenerative changes in the CNS D. Condylomas

Answer 224

D. Condylomas

Question 225

100. Exhibit slow symmetric nerve involvement A. Lepromatous type B. Tubercoloid type

Answer 225

A. Lepromatous type

Question 226

1. The function of a viral capsid is A. providing binding sites that enable the virus to attach to specific receptor sites on the host cell B. serving as vehicle of transmission from one host to another C. protection against the viral genome from physical and enzymatic destruction D. All of the choices are correct

Answer 226

D. All of the choices are correct

Question 227

2. Lodges in the trigeminal ganglia A. HSV 1 B. HSV 2 C. Both choices are correct D. None of the choices are correct

Answer 227

A. HSV 1

Question 228

3. Predominantly transmitted through the oral fecal route A. Viral Hepatitis C B. Viral Hepatitis A C. Viral Hepatitis B D. Viral Hepatitis D

Answer 228

B. Viral Hepatitis A

Question 229

4. Primary infection of this herpes virus commonly causes exanthema subitum or roseola infantum a. HHV7 b. HHV6 c. HHV8 d. EBV

Answer 229

b. HHV6

Question 230

5. true regarding virus isolation, EXCEPT: a. examples of semi-continuos cells are human embryonic kidney and skin fibrolasts b. primary cell culture is the best cell culture systems available since they support the widest range of viruses c. very expensive and difficult to obtain reliable supply d. continuos cells are the most easy to handle with wide range of viruses supported

Answer 230

b. primary cell culture is the best cell culture systems available since they support the widest range of viruses

Question 231

6. The viral nucleocapsid is the combination of: A. Genome and Capsid B. Capsomere and Genome C.Capsid and Spikes D. Envelope and Capsid

Answer 231

A. Genome and Capsid

Question 232

7. Which of the following is a fundamental principle of viral disease causation? A. Many viral infections are subclinical and do not produce clinical disease B. the type of disease produced by a virus can be predicted by the morphology of that virus C. One virus type induces a single diseases syndrome D. A particular disease sundrome has a single viral cause

Answer 232

A. Many viral infections are subclinical and do not produce clinical disease

Question 233

8 has animal vectors a. None of the choices is correct b. HSV 2 c. HSV 1 d. All of the choices are correct

Answer 233

a. None of the choices is correct

Question 234

9 in serology criteria for diagnosing Primary infections includes EXCEPT: A. high single titer-of IgG (Total antibody) B. Absence or slight increase in IgM C. four-fold increase in titer of IgG or total antibody between acute and convalescent sera D. seroconversion E. presence of IgM

Answer 234

B. Absence or slight increase in IgM

Question 235

0. core of double stranded DNA is composed of a. all of the choices are correct b. nucleocapsid c. tegument d. protein coat

Answer 235

a. all of the choices are correct

Question 236

11. Target organ of HHV 7 A. Lymphoid tissue B. Neuron C. Glands D. None of the choices are correct

Answer 236

A. Lymphoid tissue

Question 237

12. May be inactive in the sacral ganglia A. HSV 1 B. HSV 2 C. both choices are correct D. none of the choices are correct

Answer 237

B. HSV 2

Question 238

13 Has reservoirs a. HSV 1 B. HSV 2 C. all of the choices are correct D. none of the choices are correct

Answer 238

D. none of the choices are correct

Question 239

14. Positive stranded RNA viruses have which of the following characteristics? A. They have to transcribe their genome RNA to a mirror image copy as a mRNA B. This genome is circular C. Their genome is segmented D. Their genome RNA can be translated directly as mRNA

Answer 239

D. Their genome RNA can be translated directly as mRNA

Question 240

15. Negative serologic marker in patients with disease of the biliary tract and toxic injury of the liver A. HbsAg B. Anti-HBs C. All of the choices are correct D. Anti-Hbc

Answer 240

C. All of the choices are correct

Question 241

16. There are no chronic complication noted a. Viral hepatitis D b. Viral hepatitis B c. Viral hepatitis C d. Viral hepatitis A

Answer 241

d. Viral hepatitis A

Question 242

17. Infects mostly adults A. None of the choices are correct B. HSV1 C. HSV2 D. Both are correct.

Answer 242

C. HSV2

Question 243

18. Serologic marker which becomes positive as a result of vaccine type response A. Anti-HBc B. HBeAg C. Anti-HBs D. HbsAg

Answer 243

C. Anti-HBs Anti-HBs (antibodies to hepatitis B surface antigen) becomes positive as a result of a vaccine-type response to hepatitis B. This marker indicates immunity to hepatitis B, either from vaccination or recovery from a past infection. In the context of vaccination, it is the specific serologic marker indicating a successful immune response to the hepatitis B vaccine.

Question 244

19. Infects mostly young children a. HSV 1 b. HSV 2 c. Both choices are correct D. None of the choices are correct

Answer 244

a. HSV 1

Question 245

20. Which of the following viruses belong to family Flaviviridae? A. Hepatitis C virus B. Yellow fever virus C. All of the choices are correct D. Rubella virus

Answer 245

C. All of the choices are correct

Question 246

21. The Herpes virus transmitted through bites of old world monkeys or macaques A. Human Herpes Virus 7 B. EBV C. B Virus D. Human Herpes Virus 8

Answer 246

C. B Virus The B virus (Cercopithecine herpesvirus 1) is transmitted through bites or scratches from old world monkeys, such as macaques.

Question 247

22. Enzyme neuraminidase is carried by which of the following viruses? A. Epstein-Barr Virus B. Adenovirus C. HIV D. Influenza virus

Answer 247

D. Influenza virus

Question 248

23. Viruses range in size from approximately A. 300 nm - 1 um B. 1 - 25 um C. 1 - 25 nm D. 25-300 um

Answer 248

A. 300 nm - 1 um

Question 249

24. True of Hepatitis D infection A. None of the choices are correct B. Both choices are correct C. Independent of co-existing HBV infection D. Simultaneous infection or co-infection with HBV

Answer 249

B. Both choices are correct

Question 250

25. No homologous immunity A. Viral hepatitis C B. Viral hepatitis B C. Viral hepatitis A D. Viral hepatitis D

Answer 250

A. Viral hepatitis C

Question 251

26. The following are double stranded DNA viruses, EXCEPT: A. Epstein barr virus B. Human immunodeficiency virus C. Hepadnavirus D. Varicella Zoster Virus E. None of the choices are correct

Answer 251

B. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) HIV is a retrovirus, which means it is an RNA virus, not a double-stranded DNA virus. The other viruses listed (Epstein-Barr virus, Hepadnavirus, Varicella Zoster Virus) are all double-stranded DNA viruses. Epstein-Barr virus is a member of the herpesvirus family, Hepadnavirus includes the Hepatitis B virus, and Varicella Zoster Virus causes chickenpox and shingles, all of which have double-stranded DNA genomes.

Question 252

27. These agents are associated with disease such a Creutzfeldt- Jakob disease in humans, scrapie in sheep & bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE) in cattle a. Bacteriophage b. Viruses c. Prions d. Viroids

Answer 252

c. Prions

Question 253

28. Which one of the following is a fundamental principle of viral disease causation A. One virus type indiuces a single disease syndrome B. Many viral infections are subclinical and do not produce clinical disease C. A particular disease syndrome has a single viral cause D. The type of disease produced by a virus can be predicted by the morphology of the virus

Answer 253

B. Many viral infections are subclinical and do not produce clinical disease

Question 254

29.Promotes interferon production a. Imiquimod b. Tamiflu c. Alpha Interferon d. Fortovase

Answer 254

c. Alpha Interferon

Question 255

30. true of nasopharyngeal carcinoma except a. all are correct b. patient have high level of antibody to EBV c. infect female of chinese origin d. ebv dna is regularly found in nasopharyngeal cardinoma cell

Answer 255

c. infect female of chinese origin

Question 256

31. Enveloped viruses have a _____ shape A. Complex B. Icosahedral C. Roughly spherical D. Helical

Answer 256

C. Roughly spherical Enveloped viruses often have a roughly spherical shape due to the lipid bilayer envelope that surrounds their capsid. This envelope, derived from the host cell membrane, can confer a more flexible, spherical appearance, although the capsid inside the envelope may have icosahedral or complex symmetry.

Question 257

32. Associated with herpes meningitis. A. HSV1 B. HSV2 C. Both choices are correct D. None of the choices are correct

Answer 257

C. Both choices are correct

Question 258

33. Difference between bacteriophage and animal viral multiplication EXCEPT. A. Attachment sites are plasma membrane proteins and glycoproteins in animal virus B. In bacteriophage, capsid enters by endocytosis or fusion C. Biosynthesis occurs in cytoplasm in bacteriophage D. Latency slow viral infections such as cancer occurs in animal virus

Answer 258

B. In bacteriophage, capsid enters by endocytosis or fusion

Question 259

34. Associated with Kerititis A. HSV1 B. None of the choices are correct C. Both choices are correct D. HSV2

Answer 259

A. HSV1

Question 260

35. Occurence of virus in blood takes months to years A. Viral Hep C B. Viral Hep A C. Viral Hep B D. Both Hep A & B

Answer 260

D. Both Hep A & B

Question 261

36. The serologic marker is positive during early acute HBV infection. A. anti-Hbs B. None of the choices are correct C. HbsAg D. Anti-Hbc

Answer 261

C. HbsAg Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) is the serologic marker that appears early in acute HBV infection. Its presence in the blood indicates an active hepatitis B virus infection, either acute or chronic. HBsAg is one of the first markers to appear after infection and can be detected before symptoms begin to show.

Question 262

37 Kaposi's sarcoma associated herpes virus A. Human herpes virus 8 B. Human herpes virus 6 C. Epstein barr virus D. Human herpes virus 7

Answer 262

A. Human herpes virus 8

Question 263

38. In lytic cycle, assembly of phage particles into virions occurs during which phase? A. Penetration B. Biosynthesis C. Maturation D. Attachment

Answer 263

C. Maturation In the lytic cycle of a bacteriophage, the assembly of phage particles into mature virions occurs during the maturation phase. This is after the biosynthesis phase, where viral components are produced, and before the release of the new virions from the host cell.

Question 264

39. The following viruses are readily isolated for cell culture except: A. Adenovirus B. Coxsackie B virus C. Cytomegalovirus D. Rhinoviruses E. Parainfuenza

Answer 264

D. Rhinoviruses Rhinoviruses are notoriously difficult to isolate in cell culture compared to the other viruses listed. They require specific conditions, such as cooler temperatures and particular cell types, for successful isolation and growth, making them less readily isolated for cell culture than viruses like Adenovirus, Coxsackie B virus, Cytomegalovirus, and Parainfluenza, which generally grow more easily in a variety of cell culture systems.

Question 265

40. Inferferons are the important part of the host defense against infections. What is interferon’s principal action? A. It coats viral particles and blocks their attachment to cells B. It induces synthesis of one or more cellular proteins that inhibit translocation or transcription C. It protects the virus infected cell that produced it from cell death D. It is present in the serum of healthy individuals. producing a viral surveillance role.

Answer 265

B. It induces synthesis of one or more cellular proteins that inhibit translocation or transcription

Question 266

41. Which of the following virus is enveloped? A. None of the choices are correct B. Adenovirus C. Poliovirus D. Herpesvirus

Answer 266

D. Herpesvirus

Question 267

42. Duration of immunity is unknown A. Viral Hepatitis A B. Viral Hepatitis C C. Viral Hepatitis D D. Viral Hepatitis B

Answer 267

B. Viral Hepatitis C

Question 268

43. Associated with herpes encephalitis a. none of the choices are correct b. hsv2 c. hsv1 d. both choices are correct

Answer 268

c. hsv1

Question 269

44. Has year round seasonal incidence A. Viral Hepatitis B B. Viral Hepatitis A C. Viral Hepatitis C D. All of the choices are correct

Answer 269

D. All of the choices are correct

Question 270

45. Target organ of HSV 1 a. None of the choices are correct b. Lymphoid Tissue c. Glands d. Neurons

Answer 270

d. Neurons

Question 271

46. May have normal to slightly elevated immunoglobulin levels A. Both hepatitis A and B. Viral hepatitis A C. Viral hepatitis C D. Viral hepatitis B

Answer 271

C. Viral hepatitis C

Question 272

47. Papillomaviruses causes warts and cancer but how do they most often infect humans? A. Via scratches and breaks in the skin B. Are nosocomial and spread in hospitals C. Are airborne D. Are water borne

Answer 272

A. Via scratches and breaks in the skin

Question 273

48. A virion lacks A. Polymerase B. ligase C. Replicase D. Lysozyme

Answer 273

A. Polymerase

Question 274

49. Which is not a characteristic of viruses A. Exhibit high specificity for their respective host В. Contain DNA or RNA but never both С. Are obliged intracellular parasites D. Are active both inside and outside of host cells E. Can infect bacteria, protozoa, fungi, algae, plants and animals

Answer 274

D. Are active both inside and outside of host cells

Question 275

50. Target organ of Kaposi's Sarcoma (HHV-8) associated herpes virus A. Glands B. Lymphoid Tissue C. Neuron D. None of the choices are correct

Answer 275

B. Lymphoid Tissue

Question 276

51. No heterologous immunity A. Viral hepatitis A B. Viral hepatitis B C. Viral hepatitis C D. All of the choices are correct

Answer 276

D. All of the choices are correct

Question 277

52. Serologic marker which is positive in patients with HBV infection in the remote past and in low level carriers A. anti-Hbs B. anti-HBc C. HbsAg D. HBeAg

Answer 277

B. anti-HBc

Question 278

53. Which one of the following immunizations should be administered immediately after birth? a. Diptheria-pertussis tetanus (DPT) vaccine b. BCG vaccine c. Hepatitis B d. Hemophilus influenzae type b vaccine

Answer 278

b. BCG vaccine

Question 279

54. viruses are limited in their host range because a. they can only absorb to cells with glycoprotein b. they can only replicate in certain types of cell c. they can only bind to cells that have opposite charge d. only certain cells are susceptible to viral infections e. they can only absorb to cells with proper receptors

Answer 279

e. they can only absorb to cells with proper receptors Viruses are limited in their host range primarily because they require specific receptors on the surface of a host cell to attach and gain entry. The presence of the appropriate receptors on the cell surface dictates whether a virus can infect that cell or not. This specificity is a key factor in determining the host range and tissue tropism of a virus.

Question 280

55. Aims to look for sequences that have slight changes that varies between people or viruses: A. ELISA test B. Western Blotting C. RLFP D. PCR

Answer 280

D. PCR

Question 281

56 All of the follwing descriptions concerning viral multiplication and nucleic acids are true EXCEPT that A. Viral mRNA, viral tRNA and viral ribosomes are used in viral replication B. viruses contain DNA or RNA not Both C. Viruses replicate only in living cells D.The nucleic acid of a virus is surrounded by a protein coat.

Answer 281

A. Viral mRNA, viral tRNA and viral ribosomes are used in viral replication

Question 282

57 transmitted thru oral contact a. None of the choices is correct b. HSV 2 c. HSV 1 d. All of the choices are correct

Answer 282

c. HSV 1

Question 283

58 main target for epstein barr virus A. phagocytes B. T lymphocytes C. B lymphocytes D. mononuclear cells

Answer 283

C. B lymphocytes

Question 284

59. many virus infections result in immune pathology, this is caused predominantly by which of the following? a. antibody mediated reactions b. a cytokine storm c. a decline in function of the immune system d. a response of killer T cells (CD-8)

Answer 284

b. a cytokine storm

Question 285

60. A naked virion of herpes measures A. 110 nm B. 115 nm C. 125 nm D. 120 nm

Answer 285

C. 125 nm

Question 286

61. Hybridization with specific nucleic acid probes polymerase chain reactions (PCR) A. Light microscopy B. Viral genome detection C. Antigen Detection D. Electron Microscope

Answer 286

B. Viral genome detection

Question 287

62. What is the usual direction of "knowledge" in a cell a random b from rna to dna to protein c from protein to dna d from dna to rna e from dna to rna to protein

Answer 287

e. from DNA to RNA to protein This describes the central dogma of molecular biology, which states that genetic information flows from DNA to RNA to protein. DNA is transcribed to RNA, and RNA is then translated into protein. This process underlies the basic mechanism of gene expression in cells.

Question 288

63. Has an incubation period of 50-180 days A. Viral hepatitis A B. Viral hepatitis D C. Viral hepatitis B D. Viral hepatitis C

Answer 288

C. Viral hepatitis B

Question 289

64. Which of the following statements explains why viruses are only able to multiply in living cells? A. They have only enough genetic information for DNA replication B. Viruses are too small in size to multiply outside living cells C. Their binary fission is controlled by host cell genes D. DNA is only able to replicate inside living cells E. Virus do not possess the necessary components for self-replication

Answer 289

E. Virus do not possess the necessary components for self-replication

Question 290

65. Epstein barr virus cause/s the following diseases except a nasopharyngeal carcinoma b kaposi sarcoma c hodgkin disease d infectious mononucleosis

Answer 290

b. Kaposi sarcoma Kaposi sarcoma is caused by the Human Herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8), also known as Kaposi's sarcoma-associated herpesvirus (KSHV), not by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). EBV is associated with nasopharyngeal carcinoma, Hodgkin disease, and infectious mononucleosis, among other conditions.

Question 291

66. Many viruses can be grown in the laboratory. Which of the following statements about virus propagation is not true. A. Some viruses with broad host ranges can multiply in many types of cells B. Some mammalian viruses can be cultivated in hen's eggs C. Some viruses can be propagated in cell free media D. Some human viruses can be grown in mice

Answer 291

A. Some viruses with broad host ranges can multiply in many types of cells

Question 292

67. A protein containing partial with no detachable nucleic acid are known as: A. Protein B. Prions C. Viriods D. Virion

Answer 292

B. Prions

Question 293

68. Manifest as cold sores A. None of the choices B. HSV1 C. HSV2 D. Both"

Answer 293

B. HSV1

Question 294

69. Histological appearance inclusion bodies: A. Electron microscopy B. Viral genome detection C. Light microscopy D. Antigen detection

Answer 294

C. Light microscopy

Question 295

70. Associated with Herpetic whitlow A. None of the choices B. HSV1 C. HSV2 D. Both

Answer 295

D. Both

Question 296

71. Eczema herpeticum A. HSV 1 B. HSV 2 C. Both choices are correct D. None of the choices are correct

Answer 296

A. HSV 1

Question 297

72. Viruses belonging to which of the following groups are likely to establish latent infections? A. Influenza viruses B. Filoviruses C. Herpesviruses D. Caliciviruses E. Poxviruses

Answer 297

C. Herpesviruses

Question 298

73. Elevation of animo transferases lasts for 1-6+ months A. viral hepatitis B. Both hepatitis A and B C. Viral hepatistis C D. Viral Hepatitis B

Answer 298

A. viral hepatitis

Question 299

74. Which of the following can be used to quantitate the infectious titer of viruses? A. Polymerase chain reaction B. Electron microscopy C. Hemagglutination D. Enzyme immunoassay E. Plaque assay

Answer 299

A. Polymerase chain reaction

Question 300

75. The skin is an impenetrable barrier to virus entry, but a few viruses are able to breach this barrier and initiate infection of the host. Which of the following is an example of a virus that enters through skin abrasions? a. Papillomavirus b. Influenza virus c. Rhinovirus d. Rotavirus e. Adenovirus

Answer 300

a. Papillomavirus

Question 301

76. Virus of different families have varied geometric structures. which of the following is true a the nucleu acid is commonly linear b all viruses have the same basic geometry c. all virus have a lipid bilayer d. virus nucleocapsis are either icosahedreal or helical

Answer 301

d. virus nucleocapsis are either icosahedreal or helical

Question 302

77. Which of the following nucleic acid types are not found in viruses a. all of the choices are correct b. circular single stranded RNA c. linear double stranded DNA d. circular double stranded DNA e. linear single stranded RNA

Answer 302

a. all of the choices are correct

Question 303

78.First step in infection of a host bacterial cells by a phage a. absorption b. penetration c. replicaion d. adsorption e. uncoating

Answer 303

d. adsorption The first step in the infection of a host bacterial cell by a bacteriophage (phage) is adsorption. During this step, the phage attaches to specific receptors on the surface of the bacterial cell, initiating the infection process. The infection process of a host bacterial cell by a bacteriophage (phage) typically follows these sequential steps: 1. **Adsorption**: The phage binds to specific receptor sites on the surface of the bacterial cell wall. This specificity determines the host range of the phage. 2. **Penetration (or Injection)**: After adsorption, the phage injects its genetic material (DNA or RNA) into the bacterial cell, leaving the phage capsid outside the cell. 3. **Biosynthesis**: The phage DNA takes over the cell's machinery to begin synthesizing viral components, such as viral nucleic acids and proteins. During this phase, the host cell's DNA may be degraded. 4. **Assembly (or Maturation)**: Newly synthesized viral components are assembled into complete virions (virus particles) within the host cell. 5. **Release**: The host cell is lysed (broken open), and new phage particles are released into the environment, ready to infect other cells. The lysis of the host cell is often facilitated by phage-encoded enzymes. This process describes a lytic cycle, where the infection leads to the production of new phages and the destruction of the host cell. Some phages can also undergo a lysogenic cycle, where the phage DNA integrates into the bacterial chromosome and replicates along with it without causing immediate harm to the host.

Question 304

79. viruses of different families have varied geometric structure which of the following is true a. the nuclei acid is commonly linear b. all viruses have the same basic geometry c. all viruses have a lipid bilayer d. virus nucleocapsid are either icosahedral or helical

Answer 304

d. virus nucleocapsid are either icosahedral or helical

Question 305

80. What is the most important factor for virus classification? A, How many proteins the virus has B. The geometry of the virus C. Chemistry of the DNA and RNA D. The disease of a virus causes

Answer 305

C. Chemistry of the DNA and RNA

Question 306

81. Sexually transmitted A. HSV 1 B. HSV 2 C. Both choices are correct D. None of the choices are correct

Answer 306

B. HSV 2

Question 307

82. Control of cytomegalovirus inclusion disease involves the following except a. Screening of transplant donors and recipients for CMV antibody b. Live and recombinant CMV vaccines c. Administration of human IgM prepared from plasma pools obtained from healthy persons with high titers of CMV d. Isolation of newborns with generalized CMV inclusion diseases from other newborns

Answer 307

b. Live and recombinant CMV vaccines As of my last update in April 2023, there are no licensed live or recombinant CMV (Cytomegalovirus) vaccines available for the prevention of CMV infection. While vaccines for CMV are under development and research, they are not yet part of the standard control measures for preventing CMV inclusion disease. The other options (a, c, and d) are relevant for the control and prevention of CMV transmission and infection.

Question 308

3. associated with cutaneous herpes a. hsv1 b hsv2 c both choices are correct d. non of the choices are correct

Answer 308

c both choices are correct

Question 309

84. This can spread easily and can be resistant to acid and bile in the enteric tract a. enveloped viruses b rna viruses c naked viruses d. dna viruses

Answer 309

c naked viruses

Question 310

85. Naked strand of RNA expressed only in the presence of Hepatitis B virus. A. adeno-associated virus B. Delta agent C. None of the choices are correct D. Sattelited viruses

Answer 310

B. Delta agent The Delta agent, also known as Hepatitis D virus (HDV), is a virus that cannot replicate independently without the presence of Hepatitis B virus (HBV). HDV is considered a subviral satellite because it requires the helper functions provided by HBV, particularly its surface antigen (HBsAg), for its own assembly and secretion. HDV infection can occur only in individuals who are infected with HBV, leading to co-infection or superinfection, which can result in more severe liver disease compared to HBV infection alone.

Question 311

86 May affect neonates A. VIral hepatitis D B. VIral hepatitis B C. VIral hepatitis C D. VIral hepatitis A

Answer 311

B. VIral hepatitis B

Question 312

87. Present in the saliva and/or semen. A. Both hepatitis A and B B. Viral hepatitis C C. Viral hepatitis A D. Viral hepatitis B

Answer 312

A. Both hepatitis A and B

Question 313

88. Which of the following viruses has not been associated with human cancer? A. Hepa B virus B. Hepa C virus C. Herpes simplex virus type 2 D. Varicella-Zoster virus

Answer 313

D. Varicella-Zoster virus

Question 314

89. It has the highest mortality rate A. Viral Hepatitis D B. Viral Hepatitis C C. Viral Hepatitis B D. Viral Hepatitis A

Answer 314

C. Viral Hepatitis B

Question 315

90. What is the most common way for a virus to kill a cell? A. Induces apoptosis via caspases B. Fragments cellular DNA C. Totally blocks cellular transcription D. Dissolves the cellular membrane

Answer 315

A. Induces apoptosis via caspases

Question 316

91. Mode of Action is to inhibit nucleic acid synthesis A. Saquinovir B. Acyclovir C. Tamiflu D. Interferon

Answer 316

B. Acyclovir

Question 317

92. what happens during the incubation period a. the period commonly last for a few hours b. virus is cleared from the body by the immune system c. virus replication happens in intracellular level d. period commonly last few days

Answer 317

c. virus replication happens in intracellular level

Question 318

93. When a virus enters a cell but does not replicate immediately, the situation is called. A. Lysis B. Synergism C. Symbiosis D. Lysogeny

Answer 318

D. Lysogeny

Question 319

94. The enveloped form of herpes virus measures a. 150nm b. 120nm c. 160nm d. 140nm

Answer 319

a. 150nm

Question 320

95. Virus particles present in the sample will be absorbed onto the grid by the antibody while the grid is coated with specific anti-sera A. Radioimmunoassay B. Immunofluorescence C. Viral Genome Detection D. Solid phase immune electron microscopy (SPIEM) E. Classical Immune electron microscopy (IEM)

Answer 320

D. Solid phase immune electron microscopy (SPIEM)

Question 321

96. True regarding viral multiplication of bacteriophages. Except A. release occurs via cell lysis only B. Uncoating is necessary C. Multiplication is similar to animal viruses D. Only the nucleic acid enters the cytoplasm

Answer 321

B. Uncoating is necessary For bacteriophages, uncoating is not a necessary step in the same way it is for many animal viruses. Bacteriophages often inject their genetic material directly into the bacterial host cell, leaving the capsid outside the cell. In contrast, uncoating is a step where animal viruses, after entering a cell, remove their capsid to release the viral genome into the host cell's cytoplasm. This distinction highlights a fundamental difference in the infection processes between bacteriophages and animal viruses.

Question 322

97. target organ of HHV 6 A. Glands B. Lymphoid tissue C. Neuron D. NOT

Answer 322

B. Lymphoid tissue

Question 323

98. The main criteria used to group viruses are structure, chemical composition, and what other characteristic A.Presence and type of envelope B.Overall viral size C.Area of host cell in which the virus multiplies D.Similarities in genetic makeup E.Type of capsid

Answer 323

A.Presence and type of envelope

Question 324

99. There is occurence of the virus in the urine A. Viral hepatitis A B. Viral hepatitis B C. Viral hepatitis C D. Viral hepatitis D

Answer 324

A. Viral hepatitis A

Question 325

100. Abrupt onset of disease A. Viral hepatitis A B. Viral hepatitis B C. Viral hepatitis C D. Viral hepatitis D

Answer 325

A. Viral hepatitis A