1
Q
What are the effects of a compressed workweek on job outcomes?
A
Increases satisfaction with schedule and work–life balance; minimal effect on objective performance or supervisor ratings.
2
Q
What is the primary purpose of a leaderless group discussion?
A
To assess or develop leadership and interpersonal competence, often within assessment centers for managerial candidates.
3
Q
What does differential validity indicate?
A
The predictor–criterion relationship (slope of regression) differs between subgroups, suggesting the test predicts differently across them.
4
Q
When is a selection test most useful according to the Taylor–Russell tables?
A
When the base rate of success is moderate (≈.50) and the selection ratio is low—few candidates are hired.
5
Q
Define base rate, selection ratio, and validity coefficient in one conceptual chunk.
A
Base rate: % of applicants who would succeed without testing. Selection ratio: % of applicants hired. Validity coefficient: Strength of predictor–criterion link. High validity + moderate base rate + low selection ratio = optimal hiring accuracy.
6
Q
What are trainability tests and when are they used?
A
Work samples combining a brief training session and subsequent evaluation; used to predict learning potential in untrained applicants.
7
Q
What problem does the forced-choice method address?
A
Reduces rater biases (leniency, halo) by requiring raters to choose among equally favorable options.
8
Q
When is BARS preferred?
A
When the goal is developmental feedback—anchors describe concrete behaviors tied to performance levels.
9
Q
What bias does forced distribution correct and how?
A
Corrects leniency bias by forcing ratings into fixed proportions across categories (e.g., top 10%, middle 70%).
10
Q
Why is the critical incident technique limited?
A
Focuses on extreme behaviors, offering poor representation of typical job performance.
11
Q
Contrast Maslow, Herzberg, Alderfer (ERG), and Expectancy theories.
A
Maslow: Needs progress upward (physiological → safety → love → esteem → self-actualization). Alderfer (ERG): Condenses to Existence, Relatedness, Growth; regression possible. Herzberg: Hygiene factors prevent dissatisfaction; motivators (achievement, growth) create satisfaction. Expectancy (Vroom): Motivation = Expectancy × Instrumentality × Valence.
12
Q
According to equity theory, which inequity most affects motivation?
A
Perceived underpayment—leads to reduced effort or withdrawal; overpayment has weaker effects.
13
Q
What combination of goal characteristics best increases performance?
A
Specific, moderately difficult goals with ongoing performance feedback (Locke & Latham).
14
Q
Why do pay bonuses often fail to sustain motivation?
A
Financial incentives are extrinsic hygiene factors; without intrinsic motivators (Herzberg), satisfaction and motivation remain low.
15
Q
According to Fiedler, what determines leader effectiveness?
A
Match between leader’s fixed style (task vs. relationship oriented) and situational favorableness (leader–member relations, task structure, position power).
16
Q
Hersey–Blanchard situational leadership: match follower maturity with leader style.
A
Low ability/low motivation → Telling. High motivation/low ability → Selling. High ability/variable motivation → Participating. High ability/high motivation → Delegating.
17
Q
How does Vroom–Yetton–Jago’s model determine decision style?
A
Uses a decision tree of situational questions (importance, time, information quality) to choose between autocratic, consultative, or group decisions.
18
Q
What is the central idea of House’s Path–Goal Theory?
A
Leaders enhance motivation by clarifying paths to goals, removing obstacles, and matching style (directive, supportive, participative, achievement-oriented) to worker and task.
19
Q
Research on gender and leadership style: key finding?
A
Women generally use more democratic and participative approaches; men slightly more autocratic, with no consistent performance difference.
20
Q
Why does TQM often fail?
A
Lack of genuine employee involvement in decision-making undermines commitment to quality initiatives.
21
Q
What is the focus of process consultation?
A
Improving group functioning by helping members recognize and modify dysfunctional interaction patterns.
22
Q
Which change strategy emphasizes collaboration and shared norms?
A
Normative–reeducative approach—change occurs through redefining norms and relationships.
23
Q
What distinguishes mediation from arbitration?
A
Mediation facilitates voluntary agreement by introducing alternatives; arbitration imposes a binding decision.
24
Q
What characterizes Tuckman’s “norming” stage?
A
Cohesion, trust, and commitment to group goals emerge after initial conflict.
25
Distinguish group task types (chunk).
Additive: Sum of individual outputs (e.g., sales totals). Disjunctive: Best member determines result. Conjunctive: Slowest member limits performance. Compensatory: Averaged input (e.g., judgments).
26
How do communication networks affect performance?
Centralized networks suit simple tasks; decentralized networks yield better performance for complex or creative tasks.
27
Which correlates more strongly with job satisfaction: health or performance?
Physical and mental health show stronger correlations than performance.
28
Is job satisfaction stable across time and jobs?
Moderately stable; partly trait-based but influenced by job conditions.
29
Early indicator of burnout?
Sudden surge in work effort without proportional productivity gains—precursor to exhaustion.
30
Krumboltz’s social learning theory of career development: key determinant?
Learning from environmental interactions and chance events shapes career decisions more than innate traits.
31
Super’s life-span, life-space theory: core idea of satisfaction?
Satisfaction arises when work roles allow realization of self-concept.
32
Brousseau & Driver’s career concept model: define career concept.
Pattern of career motives and decisions (linear, steady-state, spiral, or transitory).
33
What defines a highly differentiated personality in Holland’s RIASEC model?
Clear dominance in one type with low scores in others—stronger person–environment fit.
34
What drives perceptions of distributive justice?
The fairness of outcome distribution relative to one’s inputs (pay, rewards, recognition).
35
Which Hofstede dimension is highest for the U.S.?
Individualism—emphasis on personal goals and autonomy.
36
How is person–organization fit achieved?
Through selection (matching values and norms) and socialization (reinforcing those norms post-hire).
37
Name the three main program evaluation approaches.
Process-based (how), outcomes-based (what), and goals-based (whether goals met).
38
Difference between formative and summative evaluation.
Formative = guides ongoing improvement; summative = judges effectiveness after completion.
39
According to Kirkpatrick, which evaluation level is most meaningful?
Results criteria—organizational impact (e.g., productivity), though hardest to develop.
40
Define “identical elements” in training transfer.
Degree to which training tasks resemble job tasks; greater similarity improves transfer.
41
What is the Position Analysis Questionnaire (PAQ) used for?
Standardized job analysis instrument identifying work behaviors and job characteristics across occupations.
42
predictive and concurrent validity studies
Predictive validity collects criterion data from future job performance of new hires; concurrent validity uses current employees—faster but subject to range restriction.
43
adverse impact
Occurs when selection rates for protected groups are less than 80% of those for the highest group; may still be lawful if job-related and consistent with business necessity.
44
incremental validity
The increase in accurate decisions gained by adding a new predictor to an existing battery.
45
selection ratio
Ratio = number hired ÷ number of applicants; lower ratios allow more discrimination among candidates, increasing accuracy.
46
standard error of estimate
Reflects prediction accuracy in regression; smaller SE = greater criterion-score precision.
47
cross-validation
Testing a regression equation on a new sample to check that validity generalizes beyond the original sample.
48
halo vs. horn effect
Halo = general positive impression inflates all ratings; Horn = one negative trait deflates others.
49
central tendency bias
Raters avoid extremes, clustering all ratings around the midpoint.
50
behavioral observation scale (BOS) vs. BARS
BOS measures frequency of observed behaviors; BARS anchors performance levels with critical behaviors but not frequency.
51
rater-training method
Frame-of-reference training—teaches raters to use a common performance standard and recognize bias cues.
52
reinforcement theory in work motivation
Behavior followed by positive outcomes is repeated; schedules of reinforcement shape performance consistency.
53
self-determination theory (Deci & Ryan)
Motivation highest when autonomy, competence, and relatedness needs are met—extrinsic controls can reduce intrinsic motivation.
54
expectancy theory components
Expectancy (effort→performance), Instrumentality (performance→reward), Valence (value of reward).
55
goal-setting theory moderators
Goal commitment, feedback, task complexity, and self-efficacy determine how strongly goals affect performance.
56
reinforcement schedule and extinction resistance
Variable-ratio schedules (e.g., commission sales) produce the most persistent behaviors after reinforcement stops.
57
transactional vs. transformational leadership
Transactional = exchanges and contingent rewards; Transformational = vision, inspiration, and follower empowerment.
58
LPC score in Fiedler’s model
Least Preferred Coworker scale; low LPC = task-oriented, high LPC = relationship-oriented.
59
five bases of social power (French & Raven)
Reward, coercive, legitimate, referent, and expert power.
60
participative leadership effectiveness
Under moderate follower ability and when decision quality benefits from input (per path-goal and Vroom models).
61
Job Characteristics Model (Hackman & Oldham)
Motivation ↑ when skill variety, task identity, task significance, autonomy, and feedback are high → yield high motivating potential score.
62
job enlargement vs. job enrichment
Enlargement = add same-level tasks (variety); Enrichment = increase autonomy, responsibility, feedback (depth).
63
role conflict and role ambiguity
Conflict = incompatible expectations; Ambiguity = unclear expectations—both predict strain and dissatisfaction.
64
early and late stages of burnout (Maslach)
Early = emotional exhaustion; Mid = depersonalization; Late = reduced personal accomplishment.
65
groupthink and reduction
Premature consensus under cohesion and pressure; reduced by encouraging dissent, using outside evaluators, and leader neutrality.
66
social loafing
Decreased individual effort in group tasks; minimized by accountability and cohesive small teams.
67
process loss in groups
Any inefficiency reducing potential productivity—coordination loss, motivation loss.
68
organizational climate vs. culture
Climate = shared perceptions of policies/practices (surface); Culture = deeper shared values and assumptions.
69
transfer of training
Degree learned skills generalize to job performance; promoted by identical elements, overlearning, and feedback.
70
Kirkpatrick’s four levels of training evaluation
Reaction → Learning → Behavior → Results (ascending importance and difficulty).
71
utility analysis in training evaluation
Quantifies economic value of training by combining validity, cost, and performance gains.
72
Griggs v. Duke Power (1971)
Employment tests causing adverse impact must be demonstrably job-related.
73
Albemarle Paper v. Moody (1975)
Validation studies must follow professional standards; back pay possible when procedures cause discrimination.
74
Americans with Disabilities Act principle for selection
Tests must measure essential job functions and provide reasonable accommodation for disabilities.
75
Predictive vs Concurrent Validity
Predictive validity collects predictor scores from applicants and criterion data later from job performance; concurrent validity collects both at the same time from current employees—faster but subject to range restriction.
76
Incremental Validity
Increase in accurate selection or diagnostic decisions gained when adding a new predictor to an existing test battery.
77
Cross-Validation
Reapplying a regression equation to a new sample to confirm that observed validity generalizes beyond the original sample.
78
Standard Error of Estimate
Quantifies prediction accuracy in regression; smaller values indicate more precise prediction of criterion scores.
79
Halo / Horn / Central-Tendency Bias
Halo = overall positive impression inflates all ratings; Horn = single negative trait lowers all ratings; Central-tendency = rater avoids extremes by clustering ratings near the mean.
80
Frame-of-Reference Rater Training
Bias-reduction training that teaches raters to apply uniform performance standards and recognize common rating errors.
81
Reinforcement Schedules
Variable-ratio schedules (e.g., commission sales) yield highest response rates and greatest resistance to extinction once reinforcement stops.
82
Self-Determination Theory
Motivation increases when autonomy, competence, and relatedness needs are met; external control can reduce intrinsic motivation.
83
Transactional vs Transformational Leadership
Transactional leaders rely on exchanges and contingent rewards; transformational leaders inspire through vision, idealized influence, and intellectual stimulation.
84
French & Raven Power Bases
Five sources of power: reward, coercive, legitimate, referent, and expert—referent and expert usually predict the highest subordinate satisfaction.
85
Job Characteristics Model (Hackman & Oldham)
Motivation and satisfaction rise with skill variety, task identity, task significance, autonomy, and feedback, producing a high motivating-potential score.
86
Job Enrichment vs Enlargement
Enrichment adds depth—autonomy, responsibility, feedback; enlargement adds breadth—more similar-level tasks for variety.
87
Role Conflict vs Role Ambiguity
Conflict = incompatible role expectations; Ambiguity = unclear expectations; both elevate stress and reduce satisfaction.
88
Groupthink
Faulty decision-making due to pressure for unanimity; prevented by leader neutrality, inviting dissent, and outside review.
89
Social Loafing
Reduced individual effort in group settings; minimized by individual accountability and small cohesive teams.
90
Organizational Climate vs Culture
Climate = shared perceptions of policies and practices (surface level); Culture = deep shared values and assumptions shaping long-term behavior.
91
Utility Analysis
Quantitative method estimating the monetary value or ROI of personnel selection or training based on validity, cost, and performance gains.
92
Griggs v. Duke Power (1971)
Established that employment tests producing adverse impact must be demonstrably job-related and consistent with business necessity.
93
Albemarle Paper v. Moody (1975)
Affirmed that validation studies must meet professional standards; discrimination without proper validation can require back pay.
94
Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) Selection Rules
Tests must assess essential job functions and include reasonable accommodation; cannot screen out qualified applicants with disabilities.
95
In job performance measurement, what is the “ultimate (conceptual) criterion”?
A theoretical construct you care about (e.g., “effective employee”) that cannot be directly measured; it must be inferred via observable indicators.
96
What is the “actual criterion”?
The specific measurable outcome used as the criterion in a study (e.g., “dollar sales in 3 months,” “units produced,” “supervisor rating score”).
97
Ultimate (conceptual) criterion vs actual criterion—what’s the relationship?
The actual criterion is your operationalization (imperfect proxy) of the ultimate criterion.
98
What is criterion deficiency?
The actual criterion fails to capture important parts of the ultimate criterion (you’re measuring too little of what “good performance” really is).
99
What is criterion contamination?
The actual criterion includes variance unrelated to the ultimate criterion (noise/bias), e.g., rater bias, opportunity/territory effects in sales, favoritism.
100
Why isn’t the “ultimate criterion” the one “unaffected by measurement error” or “perfectly correlated with the predictor”?
Because “ultimate criterion” is defined by conceptual unobservability, not by statistical perfection. Error-free/perfectly correlated criteria are a fantasy, not the definition.
101
What does I/O research conclude about the predictive validity of structured interviews compared to unstructured interviews?
Structured interviews have superior predictive validity for job performance compared to unstructured interviews.
102
Why do structured interviews outperform unstructured interviews in predicting performance?
Standardization reduces interviewer bias, increases reliability, and ensures job-relevant, consistently scored content across candidates.
103
Does adding unstructured items to a structured interview improve its validity?
No. Adding unstructured elements does not increase validity and can dilute the benefits of structure.
104
What combination is shown to further increase predictive validity beyond a structured interview alone?
Combining a structured interview with a measure of general mental ability (GMA).
105
How does interview structure affect reliability and validity?
Greater structure → higher interrater reliability, which supports higher criterion-related validity
106
What major research synthesis supports the superiority of structured interviews?
Levashina et al. (2013) meta-analysis showing consistent evidence favoring structured interviews for predicting job performance.
107
What three pieces of information are required to use the Taylor–Russell tables?
Base rate, selection ratio, and validity coefficient.
108
What do the Taylor–Russell tables estimate?
The expected positive hit rate (proportion of selected applicants who will be successful).
109
In selection psychology, what is the base rate?
The proportion of applicants who would be successful on the job without using the selection test.
110
What is the selection ratio?
The proportion of applicants who are hired (number selected ÷ number of applicants).
111
What is the validity coefficient in the context of Taylor–Russell tables?
The correlation between the predictor (test) and the criterion (job performance).
112
Why is “hit rate” not an input to the Taylor–Russell tables?
Because hit rate is the output being estimated, not an input.
113
How do predictor cutoffs relate to Taylor–Russell tables?
Indirectly. Cutoffs influence the selection ratio, but the tables themselves require the selection ratio—not the cutoff score.
114
According to Krumboltz (1996), what is the primary goal of career counseling?
To instill attitudes and skills that allow individuals to adapt to changing work requirements over time.
115
Krumboltz’s career theory is grounded in what broader theory?
Social learning theory.
116
How does Krumboltz’s approach differ from trait-and-factor or matching models?
It does not focus on matching stable traits or self-concepts to jobs; it emphasizes learning, adaptability, and openness to chance events.
117
What concept later associated with Krumboltz captures his view of career development?
Planned happenstance—developing skills (curiosity, persistence, flexibility) to capitalize on unplanned career opportunities.
118
Which theory emphasizes self-concept and stage-based career tasks?
Super’s life-span, life-space theory (not Krumboltz).
119
Which theory emphasizes anticipation/preoccupation and implementation phases?
Tiedeman & O’Hara (not Krumboltz).
120
On the EPPP, what keywords should trigger “Krumboltz”?
Learning experiences, adaptability, skills/attitudes, coping with change, chance events—not matching or stages.
121
In Fiedler & Garcia’s Cognitive Resource Theory, what moderates the relationship between leader intelligence and leader effectiveness?
The leader’s stress level.
122
According to CRT, how does leader intelligence relate to performance under different stress levels?
Positive relationship in low-stress situations; negative relationship in high-stress situations.
123
According to CRT, how does leader experience relate to performance under different stress levels?
Negative relationship in low-stress situations; positive relationship in high-stress situations.
124
Why does high stress reduce the effectiveness of leader intelligence in CRT?
Stress interferes with information processing and problem solving, limiting the leader’s ability to use cognitive resources effectively.
125
Which variables are not the key moderators in Cognitive Resource Theory?
Self-efficacy, employee motivation, and employee experience.
126
On the EPPP, what word should immediately cue Cognitive Resource Theory?
Stress (especially in questions linking intelligence, experience, and leadership performance).
127
In an organizational assessment center, what type of exercise is most likely to be included?
An in-basket test.
128
What is the primary purpose of an assessment center?
Selection, promotion, or placement of managerial or supervisory employees using multiple job-relevant exercises.
129
What is an in-basket test?
A situational exercise where candidates prioritize, delegate, and respond to memos, emails, and problems typical of a managerial role.
130
Which of the following is not characteristic of an assessment center: psychomotor tests, lie detectors, or vestibules?
All three—psychomotor tests, lie detectors, and vestibules are not typical components.
131
What is vestibule training and how does it differ from an assessment center?
Vestibule training uses a simulated work environment for training (often production jobs), not for evaluating managerial competencies.
132
Why are psychomotor ability tests unlikely in assessment centers?
Assessment centers focus on managerial, cognitive, and interpersonal competencies rather than fine motor or physical skills.
133
What are the key rules of brainstorming?
Generate many ideas, withhold evaluation, encourage even absurd ideas, and allow elaboration on others’ ideas.
134
Research on brainstorming shows that who generates more ideas—individuals or groups?
Individuals brainstorming alone generate more ideas than the same number of people brainstorming in a group.
135
Why are groups often less productive than individuals in brainstorming?
Process losses such as production blocking, evaluation apprehension, and social loafing.
136
Why should ideas not be evaluated as they are presented during brainstorming?
Immediate evaluation inhibits idea generation and reduces creativity.
137
Under what condition can group brainstorming become more effective?
When group members are trained in brainstorming techniques.
138
On the EPPP, what is the default answer when comparing group vs individual brainstorming productivity?
Individuals are more productive.
139
In Kirkpatrick’s (1983) four-level model, what is the highest level of training evaluation?
Results criteria.
140
List Kirkpatrick’s four levels of training evaluation from lowest to highest.
Reaction → Learning → Behavior → Results.
141
What do behavioral criteria measure?
Transfer of training—changes in on-the-job behavior or performance.
141
What do learning criteria measure?
Knowledge or skill acquisition (e.g., post-tests, performance exams).
142
What do reaction criteria measure?
Trainees’ impressions and satisfaction with the training (e.g., “smile sheets”).
143
What do results criteria measure?
Organizational outcomes tied to training (e.g., productivity, profit, turnover, cost reduction).
144
Why do people often miss the highest level in Kirkpatrick’s model?
Because “behavior change” feels like the goal, but Kirkpatrick places organizational results above individual behavior.
145
In the context of training programs, what is utility analysis used for?
Assessing the return-on-investment (ROI) or cost–benefit of the training program.
146
In organizational psychology, what term is utility analysis often interchangeable with?
Cost–benefit analysis.
147
What types of variables are considered in training utility analysis?
Costs of development and implementation, productivity differences between trained vs untrained employees, and duration of training effects.
148
Which activities are not the purpose of utility analysis: needs assessment, component analysis, or participant satisfaction?
All three—those belong to other evaluation frameworks.
149
What type of analysis identifies organizational training needs?
Organizational analysis (part of needs assessment).
150
Which evaluations identify effective components of a training program?
Formative (during implementation) and summative (after implementation) evaluations.
151
Which Kirkpatrick level is most closely aligned with utility analysis?
Results criteria (organizational outcomes, financial impact).
152
In Fiedler’s leadership model, what does a low LPC score indicate?
A task-oriented leader.
153
According to Fiedler, what does a low LPC leader primarily focus on?
Completing tasks.
154
What does a high LPC score indicate about a leader’s orientation?
Relationship-oriented; focus on maintaining good interpersonal relationships.
155
How is the LPC score determined?
By how favorably a leader describes their least preferred coworker.
156
Which theories involve “hygiene factors” and “satisficing factors,” and why are they wrong here?
Herzberg’s two-factor theory (hygiene factors) and motivation theories; they are unrelated to Fiedler’s LPC model.
157
On the EPPP, what is the fastest way to answer LPC questions?
Low LPC = task; High LPC = relationship. Don’t overthink it.
EPPP
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