1
Q
You’re flight planning a 767 to FL430. Can you accept that altitude?
A
Yes. Max certified altitude is 43,100 ft (767) or 42,000 ft (757). FL430 = 43,000 ft is acceptable for 767 only, but FL430 exceeds 757 limits. Limited by structural pressurization differential.
2
Q
Dispatching to a high-altitude airport — what’s the maximum takeoff/landing pressure altitude?
A
8,400 PA for both aircraft types.
3
Q
Ground crew asks about runway slope limits for the 757/767. What do you tell them?
A
± 2% slope maximum.
4
Q
Cargo door is open in canopy position during ground ops — what’s the wind limit?
A
60 knots with cargo door in canopy position. 40 knots with cargo door full open.
5
Q
You need to make a 180° turn on a narrow taxiway. Minimum pavement width required?
A
129 feet for a 180° turn.
6
Q
What’s VMO/MMO for the 757/767?
A
360 KIAS / 0.86 Mach
7
Q
Checking tire speed limits before a high-speed taxi — what’s the maximum?
A
235 MPH wheel speed.
8
Q
Minimum engine oil quantity for dispatch?
A
17 quarts.
9
Q
What’s the minimum fuel temperature you can operate with?
A
3°C above the freezing point of the fuel type being used.
10
Q
Which tank provides the fuel temperature indication? (757 vs 767)
A
Left tank (767). Right tank (757).
11
Q
What are the fuel capacities for each aircraft type?
A
757: 75,000 lbs. 767-200/300: 112,000 lbs. 767-300ER: 162,400 lbs.
12
Q
What PSI do wing tank pumps produce vs center tank pumps?
A
Wing tank pumps: 15 PSI. Center tank pumps: 30 PSI. (Higher pressure ensures center tank fuel is used first.)
13
Q
When does motive flow start pulling fuel from the center tank?
A
When wing tanks reach half full. Motive flow from wing pumps scavenges remaining center tank fuel.
14
Q
Center tank pumps won’t operate on the ground unless what conditions are met?
A
Either: Engines at 50% N2, OR refueling panel door is open. (Safety interlock prevents pumping during refueling ops.)
15
Q
When does the DC fuel pump operate?
A
On battery power only, OR for a left engine relight. You cannot control it manually.
16
Q
Will the left forward A/C pump run whenever the APU is running?
A
Yes — cannot be shut off as long as APU is running.
17
Q
Two rules for crossfeeding fuel?
A
Rule 1: Don’t crossfeed until cruise + 20 minutes (allow systems to stabilize). Rule 2: Open crossfeed valve BEFORE turning crossfeed pumps off (prevents vapor lock).
18
Q
EICAS shows ‘FUEL QTY ERROR’ — what does this mean?
A
3,000 lb discrepancy (±) between FMC calculated fuel and the totalizer. Investigate the cause.
19
Q
EICAS shows ‘LOW FUEL’ — how much fuel remains?
A
Less than 2,200 lbs (±500 lbs) in a tank.
20
Q
EICAS shows ‘FUEL CONFIG’ — what’s the issue?
A
Tank imbalance of 2,000 lbs (±500 lbs). Consider crossfeed to balance.
21
Q
How many hydraulic coolers are in the fuel tanks?
A
3 total: 1 in left tank, 2 in right tank.
22
Q
Roughly how much fuel provides 1 hour of flight?
A
767: ~10,000 lbs/hour. 757: ~8,000 lbs/hour. (Useful for quick bingo fuel calculations.)
23
Q
Is there an altitude limit for starting the APU?
A
No limit, but starts may be difficult above FL350 due to thin air.
24
Q
How much fuel does the APU burn per hour?
A
Approximately 400 lbs/hour.
25
What altitude can the APU pressurize the aircraft to?
About 17,000 feet.
26
How many APU start attempts allowed in 60 minutes?
3 starts maximum. (Prevents overheating the starter.)
27
What does the APU battery power during an APU start?
Air inlet door, APU control circuitry, and initiates DC fuel pump operation.
28
What does the aircraft battery power during an APU start?
Fire protection, APU fuel valve, DC fuel pump, and provides backup control power when APU battery voltage drops under load.
29
Why does the APU FAULT light briefly illuminate during start?
The APU fuel valve is moving to open position — momentarily not in correct position until it fully opens. Normal indication.
30
You shut off the aircraft battery before the APU — what do you lose?
Fire detection capability. Always maintain fire protection — shut down APU before removing battery power.
31
What conditions cause automatic APU shutdown?
Overspeed, overtemp, high oil temperature, APU inlet door not fully open, or APU fire detection.
32
How many batteries are required to start the APU?
Both the aircraft battery AND APU battery are required.
33
What powers the DC electrical system?
TRUs (Transformer-Rectifier Units) — convert AC to DC power.
34
What does the IDG 'DRIVE' light indicate?
HOT (high oil temp) or LOP (low oil pressure). Remember: Once disconnected, IDG cannot be reconnected in flight.
35
Can the APU generator power both main AC buses?
Yes — single APU generator can power the entire AC electrical system.
36
What does the External Power 'AVAIL' light mean?
Good quality external power is available and within parameters.
37
Three reasons the AC Utility Bus trips offline?
1) Loss of generator. 2) Electrical overload. 3) APU during start sequence.
38
Is the Ground Handling Bus powered in flight?
No — only powered on ground by GPU or APU. Provides cargo handling and refueling power.
39
What powers the Ground Service Bus?
On ground: Ground Handling Bus (when connected to external power or APU). In flight: Right Main Bus.
40
If both DC Bus isolation switches are in 'ISLN', what happens during a failure?
Buses will NOT automatically join/close. Must be in AUTO for automatic bus tie protection.
41
Is the Hot Battery Bus always powered?
Yes — always energized when battery is installed. Powers safety-critical items: engine fire extinguishers, engine/APU fuel shutoff valves.
42
What happens when you push the BAT switch with STBY POWER in AUTO on an unpowered aircraft?
1) Annunciator lights illuminate. 2) APU can be started. 3) Standby AC/DC and battery buses are powered. 4) Hot Battery Bus was already powered.
43
What is the HMG and why do we have it?
Hydraulic Motor Generator — provides AC and DC power during total AC failure. Located left side near left main wheel well.
44
With STBY POWER selector in AUTO, what happens if normal AC power is lost?
Standby buses automatically transfer to battery power.
45
What does the 'DISCH' light next to BAT indicate when HMG is powering the aircraft?
Battery is discharging until battery voltage drops to match the lower HMG voltage output.
46
Both main AC buses are lost — what powers the Captain's flight instruments?
The HMG (Hydraulic Motor Generator) powers Captain's instruments.
47
How is electrical power distributed to the three Autoland systems?
Left Autoland: Left electrical system. Right Autoland: Right electrical system. Center Autoland: Center AC/DC buses (switches to static inverter and hot battery bus during autoland for triple isolation).
48
What is 'triple electrical isolation' during Autoland?
Each of three Autoland systems has independent power source — prevents single electrical failure from affecting multiple autopilots. Isolation occurs automatically when Approach mode is selected.
49
During Autoland, how are the three autopilots powered?
Left Main System → Left A/P + Captain's flight instrument transfer bus. Right Main System → Right A/P + F/O's flight instrument transfer bus. Battery/Standby System → Center A/P.
50
Above 200' during Autoland, a generator fails — what happens?
Both bus tie breakers CLOSE, operating generator powers both buses. Left main system powers center A/P. ASA shows 'NO LAND 3' — now fail-passive.
51
Below 200' during Autoland, a generator fails — what happens?
LOCKOUT: Bus tie breakers remain OPEN. A/P associated with failed generator is unpowered. Flight instruments stay powered via transfer buses. Autoland continues with remaining two autopilots.
52
How many hydraulic systems on the 767?
Three: Left, Center, Right.
53
What powers the demand pumps (gear and flaps)?
Center hydraulic system Air Demand Pump. Note: If center air is lost, gear/flaps still work but operate slowly.
54
With flaps set to takeoff position, what hydraulic pump activates?
Right Demand Pump comes on automatically.
55
As long as you have bleed air, you will have hydraulics — true or false?
True. Air-driven pumps provide hydraulic power from bleed air.
56
When does the RAT deploy automatically?
Both engines fail AND engines drop below 50% N2.
57
Minimum airspeed for RAT operation?
130 knots.
58
When does the Center hydraulic system isolate?
When engine N2 drops below 50%.
59
What does the 'BRAKE SOURCE' light indicate?
Normal AND alternate brake pressure is low — only accumulator pressure remains available.
60
How many brake applications from the accumulator?
4 applications. Warning: Anti-skid valve cycling depletes accumulator rapidly.
61
Does the 757 have a PTU (Power Transfer Unit)?
Yes — on left hydraulic system. Transfers hydraulic power from right system to left. Activates automatically if left engine fails or left system pressure is low.
62
Is there a PTU on the 767?
No. Only the 757 has a PTU.
63
Is there a PES (Pitch Enhancement System) on the 757?
No — only on 767. PES uses trapped hydraulic fluid from left side to power stabilizer trim at 1/4 normal rate during hydraulic failure.
64
With Left or Right demand switch in AUTO and fire switch pulled, does the demand pump continue?
Yes — demand pump continues to operate even with fire switch pulled.
65
What are the secondary flight controls?
Spoilers, Flaps, Slats, Horizontal Stabilizer.
66
How many spoilers on each aircraft?
767: 12 spoilers. 757: 10 spoilers.
67
How are primary flight controls powered on the 757?
All three hydraulic systems power all primary controls (ailerons, rudder, elevators). Full redundancy.
68
Will speedbrakes automatically retract if you advance thrust levers to full forward in flight?
No — speedbrakes will NOT auto-retract even with thrust levers full forward. Must be manually stowed.
69
What does aileron lockout do?
Locks out outboard ailerons at high speeds (prevents overcontrol/flutter). Full outboard aileron authority returns at low speeds.
70
What does the rudder ratio system do?
Desensitizes rudder pedal inputs at high speeds — reduces rudder deflection authority to prevent structural overload or loss of control.
71
When should you use rudder inputs?
Three times only: 1) Takeoff. 2) Landing. 3) Engine failure. Otherwise, keep feet on floor — use ailerons for coordination.
72
Can you manually trim with multiple autopilots engaged?
No — aircraft won't trim. With single A/P engaged, activating trim kicks the autopilot off.
73
Nose wheel steering authority?
65 degrees via tiller.
74
Rudder pedal steering authority?
7 degrees.
75
Normal brakes come from which hydraulic system?
Right hydraulic system. Alternate brakes: Center hydraulic system.
76
What does the auto brake deceleration rate account for?
Both wheel brakes AND thrust reversers working together.
77
When anti-skid is operating normally, how many valves?
Each wheel has its own anti-skid valve (individual wheel control).
78
When anti-skid is degraded, how many valves?
2 anti-skid valves — 1 per axle (paired wheel control).
79
Auto Brake RTO arming conditions?
1) RTO selected before takeoff. 2) Aircraft on ground. 3) Groundspeed above 85 knots. 4) Both thrust levers at idle AND wheels spun up.
80
How do you disarm auto brakes on the 757?
Manual braking, advancing either thrust lever, speedbrake 'DOWN' after deployment, or selecting 'DISARM/OFF'.
81
What does the Reserve Brake light indicate?
Confirms the reserve brake valve is in correct position.
82
How many motors on the outflow valve?
3 motors: 1 DC motor (manual system), 2 AC motors (one for each auto system).
83
If one AUTO pressurization system fails, what happens?
System automatically switches to the other AUTO system.
84
'Cabin Altitude' EICAS message appears at what altitude?
10,000 ft cabin altitude. At 11,000 ft: command sent to close outflow valve. At 9,000 ft: outflow valve available again. At 8,500 ft: message clears.
85
What do positive pressure relief valves and negative pressure relief doors protect against?
Excessive pressure differential — protects fuselage structure from over/under pressurization.
86
Pack HIGH FLOW is inhibited when? (COFE)
C - Cargo fire/depr switch pushed. O - One engine inoperative. F - Flaps not in UP position. E - One engine supplying bleed air with anti-ice ON.
87
A/C Standby mode 'N' vs 'W' — what do they provide?
N = Constant moderate temperature. W = Full warm.
88
Pack internal overheat — what indications?
'INOP' light AND 'Pack Off' light.
89
Pack external overheat — what indications?
'INOP' light only, and pack goes full cold (attempts to cool the overheat).
90
Auto Rate tick marks on Cabin Altitude Control panel — what rates?
Limited to 300 fpm descent / 500 fpm climb.
91
Main Deck temperature ranges on P-61 panel?
Animal/Normal: 65°F to 85°F. Perishable: 35°F to 71°F.
92
When does equipment cooling keep all air onboard (no overboard exhaust)?
1) Aircraft on ground. 2) Engines/packs off. 3) OAT below 45°F.
93
How many equipment cooling fans run on ground vs airborne?
Both fans on ground. One fan airborne.
94
'NO COOLING' light — when does it illuminate?
If no airflow detected in equipment cooling for 1 minute.
95
Pneumatic ISLN valves only open during what operation?
Engine starts only.
96
Isolating a duct leak but light doesn't extinguish — what does this mean?
Leak may exist between the isolation valves. This area is protected — usually not a major concern.
97
How many fire loops detect engine fire?
2 loops must detect fire to trigger engine fire warning. (Dual-loop for reliability.)
98
How many engine fire extinguisher bottles?
2 bottles per engine.
99
How many cargo fire extinguisher bottles and discharge timing?
2 bottles. 1st discharged immediately. 2nd at 30 minutes or on final approach. ETOPS aircraft: metered discharge at 195 minutes.
100
How many fire detection loops in the wheel wells?
1 loop only. Detects fire only — does NOT detect hot brakes.
101
What's the only fire condition with no EICAS warning?
Main deck fire — no automatic warning. Requires crew/FA detection.
102
How are wheel well fires handled in flight?
No suppression system — extend landing gear. Gear extension helps extinguish by airflow and removes heat source from wheel well.
103
What items trigger a Takeoff Configuration Warning?
Flaps, Spoilers, Stabilizer, Parking Brake. (Plus Main Cargo Door message if applicable.)
104
Takeoff WARNING inhibitions — when do they apply?
Inhibited from: Rotate → 20 seconds after nose gear extension, OR Rotate → 400 ft RA (whichever comes first).
105
Takeoff CAUTION inhibitions — when do they apply?
Inhibited from: 80 knots → 20 seconds after takeoff, OR 80 knots → 400 ft RA. Aural reactivates below 75 knots.
106
When are fire warnings inhibited during takeoff?
From nose gear strut extension until: 20 seconds after nose gear extension, OR 400 ft RA. Any existing fire warning activates when inhibition ends.
107
Landing Configuration Warning activates when?
Below 800 ft RA with throttles at idle.
108
The only way to clear an overspeed condition?
Slow down. No other fix.
109
How many FCC's required to engage autopilot?
2 Flight Control Computers.
110
How many autopilots can be engaged above 1,500 ft?
Only 1 autopilot — even with approach armed.
111
Is rudder control active on single autopilot?
No — rudder not controlled with single A/P engaged.
112
Which transponder with which autopilot?
A/P 1 or 2: Use Transponder 1. A/P 3: Use Transponder 2.
113
What basic modes are available?
Pitch modes: PIT, V/S. Roll modes: ROL, HDG.
114
Dangers of V/S mode?
No speed protection — will fly into stall or overspeed. Will fly away from altitude.
115
What bank limits in AUTO mode?
15° to 25° depending on speed and configuration.
116
Pitch bar target before takeoff vs after liftoff?
Before takeoff: 8°. After liftoff: Greater of V2+15 OR actual liftoff speed.
117
Engine failure during takeoff — pitch bar targets what speed?
Selected V2 (if below V2), OR existing airspeed (if between V2 and V2+15), OR V2+15 (if above V2+15).
118
What does the Altitude Alerter indicate?
Alerts at 900 to 300 ft from assigned altitude.
119
What kind of VSI do we have?
Instantaneous VSI — no lag.
120
What bank angle maintains stall margin per speed bugs?
Up to 25° of bank.
121
What does the ASA (Autoland Status Annunciator) monitor? (FIIRES)
F - Flight control computers. I - IRS (Inertial Reference System). I - ILS. R - Radio altimeters. E - Electrical systems. S - Servo hydraulic systems. Note: Autothrottles are NOT monitored.
122
ASA shows nothing (blank windows) — what does this mean?
Above 1,500 ft with no malfunctions, OR full CAT III capability with no issues below 1,500 ft.
123
ASA shows 'LAND 3' — what does this mean?
Fail-Operational mode. Three independent systems available. Can complete autoland to touchdown/rollout after single failure below Alert Height.
124
ASA shows 'LAND 2' — what does this mean?
Fail-Passive mode. Two systems operating. Single failure = pilot assumes control. Requires DA/DH and visual references.
125
ASA shows 'NO LAND 3' — what minimums can you fly?
CAT III fail-passive. Still can do CAT III approach but to fail-passive minimums.
126
ASA shows 'NO AUTOLAND' — what does this mean?
Multiple system failures — cannot make automatic landing. Never inhibited at any altitude.
127
Below 200 ft RA, can the ASA change to 'LAND 2' or 'NO LAND 3'?
No — inhibited from changing to these. Can only display 'NO AUTOLAND' (which is never inhibited).
128
CAT III Fail-Operational minimums?
RVR 300 (all segments). Alert Height 100 ft. No visual references required.
129
CAT III Fail-Passive minimums?
RVR 600. DH 50 ft. Requires visual references.
130
With 'LAND 2' annunciated, how many autopilots operating?
2 FCCs / 2 Autopilots with sensors and servos.
131
With 'LAND 3' annunciated, what's required?
Three independent: FCCs/A/P sensors/servos, electrical power sources, hydraulic power sources. Required for all CAT III approaches.
132
Fail-Operational definition?
If failure occurs below Alert Height, autoland continues using remaining systems. After failure, operates as fail-passive.
133
Fail-Passive definition?
If failure occurs, no significant out-of-trim or flight path deviation, but landing not completed automatically — pilot assumes control.
134
IRS DISPL SEL shows heading in True or Magnetic?
True heading.
135
Transponder in 'N' mode looks up and down how far?
2,700 ft (normal TCAS surveillance volume).
136
White ALIGN lights flash — what are the causes?
1) Aircraft moved. 2) No present position within 10 minutes. 3) Wrong position entry (>1° lat/long from previous). 4) System fault. Note: If you enter wrong position 3+ times, system accepts it anyway.
137
On HMG power, which RDMI is powered and what's the issue?
Captain's RDMI is powered but normally receives heading from Right IRS. Right IRS on DC power only lasts 5 minutes. F/O must select IRS to ALTN so Center IRS provides heading to Captain's RDMI.
138
Boeing definition of V1?
Maximum speed for INITIATING a rejected takeoff — NOT a decision speed. Decision to stop must be made BEFORE V1.
139
Why must the go/stop decision be made before V1?
1-2 seconds required to perceive, interpret, react. By V1, there may not be enough runway to stop.
140
Consequence of rejecting 2 seconds AFTER V1 on a field-length-limited takeoff?
767-300 departs end of runway at 70 knots, overruns by 650 ft.
141
Consequence of continuing with engine failure 2 seconds BEFORE V1?
15-20 ft lower height above runway threshold. Still flyable.
142
80 knots marks what transition?
Crossover from low-speed RTO to high-speed RTO. Kinetic energy increases exponentially with speed.
143
Below 80 knots, reject for what conditions?
Master Caution, system failures, unusual noise/vibration, tire failure, slow acceleration, takeoff config warning, side window opens — plus any critical condition.
144
Above 80 knots, reject ONLY for what conditions?
Fire or fire warning, engine failure, aircraft unsafe or unable to fly. (The big three.)
145
Any crewmember observes a malfunction during takeoff — what's the procedure?
Call it out immediately. PIC decides to continue or abort.
146
What landing category for 757-200 and 767-200?
CAT C minimums.
147
What landing category for 767-300?
CAT D minimums.
148
Minimum DA/MDA for non-precision approaches?
300 ft above TDZ/runway/airport elevation. Straight-in only.
149
Can ATI conduct circling approaches?
VMC only. Requires 1,000 ft ceiling AND 3 SM visibility (or charted circling mins, whichever higher). MDA 1,000 ft or charted, whichever higher. Must remain clear of clouds.
150
When is the CDFA (Continuous Descent Final Approach) technique required?
All non-precision approaches using Baro-VNAV or V/S. ATI prohibits dive-and-drive.
151
Visual approach requirements?
3 SM visibility, 1,000 ft ceiling, visual contact with airport or preceding traffic.
152
When do you use wet runway data (+15% field length)?
RVR at or below 4,000 ft or 3/4 SM. Requires precision runway markings or centerline lights.
153
Is ATI approved for GPS approaches to LNAV minima?
Yes — can fly with VNAV or V/S to MDA/DDA.
154
Is ATI approved for LNAV/VNAV approaches using DA?
Yes — OpSpec C073 allows using MDA as DA.
155
Is ATI approved for LPV approaches?
No — not authorized.
156
Is ATI approved for RNP AR (Authorization Required) approaches?
No — not currently authorized.
157
US airport — can you descend below MDA/DA before the FAF if weather drops?
No. Must have required visibility to continue past FAF. May continue to mins if lower report received AFTER passing FAF.
158
Foreign airport — can you conduct a 'look-see' approach?
Yes — may descend to DH/MDA to verify actual conditions. Exception: prohibited in some countries (e.g., UK).
159
Standard takeoff minimums (no OpSpec)?
1 SM visibility or RVR 5000 for 2-engine aircraft.
160
Lower-than-standard takeoff minimums under OpSpec C078?
500/500/500 RVR (TDZ/MID/RO) with HIRL and centerline lighting operational.
161
CAT I minimum RVR with OpSpec C052?
1800 RVR. Requires flight director or autopilot in approach mode to DA.
162
CAT II minimums — DH and RVR?
100 ft DH. RVR 1000/600/300 (TDZ/MID/RO). TDZ required, Mid advisory, Rollout required for 1200 RVR and below.
163
CAT III Fail-Operational minimums?
100 ft AH. RVR 300/300/300. All RVR required and controlling.
164
CAT III downgraded to Fail-Passive — minimums?
RVR 600/400/300 (TDZ/MID if available/RO).
165
CAT II/III — when must you execute missed approach?
CAT II: Required system fails after FAF, ground element lost before DH, no visual refs at DH. CAT III: Won't land safely in TDZ, lighting fails before AH/DH, LOC/GS fails before touchdown, crosswind exceeds 15 kts at touchdown, FO/FP failure before AH/touchdown, no TDZ visual at DH (when FP).
166
For CAT II/III, can you begin final approach segment if RVR drops below mins?
No — all required RVR must be met before beginning final approach segment. Once established, may continue if lower report received.
167
CAT II/III ground equipment requirements?
Working glideslope, localizer, FAF fix (outer marker/DME/waypoint), TDZ lights, centerline lights, HIRL. Approach lights required except sequenced flashers may be inop.
168
What PIC experience is required for CAT III?
100 hours as PIC in 757/767 (not including OE).
169
High-mins Captain (less than 100 hrs PIC in type) — what additives?
Add 100 ft to DH/MDA. Add 1/2 SM to visibility (convert RVR). Minimums may not be below 300 ft and 1 SM. Does not apply to alternate minimums.
170
High-mins Captain — can they fly CAT I/II to published mins?
Yes — Exemption 5549 allows CAT I and CAT II to published mins with restrictions. See GOM 3.405.
171
Unconsolidated PIC (less than 100 hrs) — approach restriction?
Cannot conduct approach in less than RVR 4000 or 3/4 SM visibility. Requires precision runway markings or centerline lights.
172
FO with less than 100 hours in type — when must CA make the landing?
Special airport, visibility ≤3/4 SM or RVR 4000, contaminated runway, braking less than 'good', crosswind >15 kts, windshear reported, PIC discretion.
173
FO less than 1 year or 500 hours — when must PIC make takeoff/landing?
Visibility below CAT I or ≤3/4 SM or ≤4000 RVR, crosswind >15 kts.
174
Domestic fuel requirements with alternate?
Fuel to destination + fuel to most distant alternate + 45 minutes at normal cruise.
175
Domestic fuel requirements — Exemption 18843 (no alternate)?
Applies when forecast shows 2,000 ft ceiling and 3 SM visibility within 1 hour before/after ETA. Reserve limited to 45 minutes at normal cruise after reaching destination.
176
International fuel requirements (outside 48 states)?
Fuel to destination + 10% of enroute time at cruise consumption + fuel to alternate + 30 minutes holding at 1,500 ft above alternate.
177
No alternate available (island reserve)?
Fuel to destination + 2 hours at normal cruise.
178
Minimum planned arrival fuel?
757: 6,000 lbs. 767: 8,000 lbs.
179
What is 'bingo fuel' calculation in holding?
Fuel from hold to arrival airport + fuel from arrival to alternate + buffer for weather deviations and traffic.
180
When should you declare minimum fuel vs emergency?
Minimum Fuel: Will land with less than reserve fuel. Emergency: Will land with less than 30 minutes of fuel.
181
Destination forecast must show what for departure?
At or above published minimums for applicable approach. TEMPO/PROB/BECMG may be considered part of forecast.
182
Alternate weather minimums for planning — how derived?
Multiple nav facilities/runways: Add 200 ft and 1/2 SM. Single nav facility or runway: Add 400 ft and 1 SM.
183
Can ATI release into known or forecast severe icing?
No — flights will not be released into known or forecast severe icing.
184
ATI policy on ice/snow/frost for takeoff?
Never attempt takeoff with ice, snow, or frost adhering to wings, fuselage, tail, or control surfaces.
185
When is a runway considered contaminated?
More than 25% of required length covered by standing water, slush >1/8 inch deep, or snow/ice accumulation.
186
Reduced thrust takeoff is prohibited when?
Windshear present/suspected, contaminated runway, anti-skid inoperative, special departure procedure requires full thrust.
187
When is cockpit considered sterile?
During taxi (aircraft moving under own power) and in flight below 10,000 ft.
188
Altitude awareness callouts required from PM?
Climbing/descending through 1,000 ft of assigned altitude, through 18,000 ft, descending through 10,000 ft, plus any requested by PF during approach.
189
Normal pitch and bank limits?
No bank before 50 ft, then max 15° during takeoff/final approach. Otherwise: 30° bank, 25° nose up, 10° nose down.
190
Headsets with boom mics required when?
Below 18,000 ft.
191
Reverse thrust policy?
Use on every landing unless undue braking not required. Begin as soon as practical after touchdown, terminate by appropriate speed.
192
Is braking action 'NIL' or 'UNRELIABLE' permitted?
No — not authorized for ATI operations.
193
Engine monitoring requirement?
Once per day in stabilized cruise for at least 3 minutes, still air, A/T off. Complete log, then re-engage A/T.
194
When is SMGCS (Surface Movement Guidance) required?
RVR 1200 and below.
195
When is oxygen required for crewmembers?
All crewmembers when cabin altitude exceeds 10,000 ft. Pilot flying when above FL410. Must be continuous when required. Masks tested before each flight.
196
Nav lights — when required?
Sunset to sunrise.
197
Beacon — when used?
Prior to engine start until engines shut down.
198
Landing/turnoff lights — when used?
Takeoff, landing, terminal area below 10,000 ft, supplement ground ops. PIC discretion enroute or IMC.
199
Strobe lights — when used?
On just prior to takeoff, remain on until after landing. May turn off in IMC if distracting.
200
MEL category time limits?
A: As assigned (e.g., within 2 flights). B: 3 calendar days. C: 10 calendar days. D: 120 calendar days.
201
What is an 'M' procedure vs 'O' procedure?
M: Maintenance actions to deactivate/inspect deferred item. O: Flight crew operating procedures/info for flying with MEL item.
202
When is MEL controlling vs QRH?
MEL: On ground before thrust set for takeoff. QRH: After thrust advanced for takeoff.
203
Daily Check requirement?
Required once per calendar day. Not required before first flight of day.
204
Service Check requirement?
Expires 72 hours after completion. More thorough than Daily — satisfies Daily requirement for that calendar day.
205
ETOPS Pre-departure Service Check requirement?
Must occur within 4 hours of departure. Block out more than 4 hours after inspection requires new inspection.
206
Events requiring maintenance inspection?
Hard landing, overweight landing, high drag/side load, departure from prepared surface, landing short, 2+ blown tires, gear striking obstacle, large crab/high bank landing, severe turbulence, overspeed (flap/slat/MMO/VMO/gear/tire speed), high energy stop, lightning strike, extreme dust, tail strike.
207
What does a yellow MEL sticker indicate?
Deferred item present. Control number recorded on sticker. Placed as directed by MEL manual.
208
Logbook preflight requirements?
Correct logbook for aircraft, 10 previous pages (3 flight days minimum), all inspections signed off, verify MEL deferrals match release, all corrective action blocks complete, no open writeups.
209
Required documents on aircraft?
Airworthiness Certificate, Registration, FCC Radio License, Insurance Certificate, DD-181 (military airports), Military fuel indent-a-plates.
210
Required flight crew certificates?
Airman certificate, Medical, Passport, Visa, Vaccination card, Radio operator permit, Company crew badge.
211
Required personal equipment?
Flashlight, flight computer, reflective vest.
212
Forms required for preflight?
Logbook with MX preflight and release, Flight release, Flight plan, Weight and balance.
213
EFB battery requirement when reporting for duty?
At least 80% charge.
214
When notify Flight Follower of ETA change?
ETA varies by ±15 minutes (domestic: ±10 minutes).
215
When notify Flight Follower of altitude/route change?
Cruise altitude varies by 4,000 ft or more, OR route deviates more than 100 nm.
216
When notify ATC of ETA change?
When ETA for reporting point is in error by more than 3 minutes (except US in radar contact).
217
When notify ATC of airspeed change?
Flight plan airspeed must be within 5% or 10 kts or .01 Mach. Otherwise notify (except US in radar contact).
218
Position reports for international flights?
When flight track varies 50 nm or more, or ETA varies ±10 minutes.
219
SELCAL unavailable — what's required?
Continuous listening watch on assigned frequency.
220
Transponder code outside US without specific ATC assignment?
Squawk 2000.
221
What is ETP (Equal Time Point)?
Point where aircraft is same time from ahead and behind ETP airports. Critical for emergency planning — must have fuel to reach either airport with reserves.
222
ETOPS preflight additions?
Enter EEP/ETP/EXP as floating waypoints, plot on chart, crosscheck lat/long, verify NAT Track message (if HLA), verify ETOPS alternate charts, verify ETOPS Pre-departure Service Check, check volcanic ash NOTAMs, complete AIREP form preliminaries.
223
ETOPS — prior to entering oceanic airspace?
Verify nav systems fully functional, SELCAL check both HF radios, calculate ETAs for EEP/ETP/EXP.
224
ETOPS — coast out procedure?
Calculate ETA to first oceanic waypoint before leaving radar. Position verified with ground navaids if not GPS equipped. Squawk 2000 30 minutes after leaving radar coverage.
225
ETOPS — at each oceanic waypoint?
Check bearing/distance to next waypoint (within 2 nm, 2°). Slash waypoint circle on CFP. After passing, slash again (X). Record time and fuel score.
226
ETOPS — approaching ETP?
Advise all crew of any enroute alternate changes.
227
ETOPS — within one hour of EEP?
Update weather for ETOPS alternates, destination, destination alternate. Verify aircraft systems satisfactory. Start APU if required.
228
ETOPS — coast in?
After passing EXP, shutdown APU (unless required by MEL or emergency). Remove route offset. Verify domestic route clearance with FMC.
229
FMC preflight verification?
Load waypoints, verify each leg within 2 nm distance and 2° course of CFP. Verify groundspeed doesn't exceed 3 kts while stationary.
230
Enroute fuel/position recording?
For flights over 1 hour: Record waypoint ATA hourly, calculate time score (+ early, - late). Record fuel score hourly (+ extra, - less than planned).
231
What triggers action on fuel trend?
Negative fuel trend — determine cause. Consider LRC, altitude change, reroute. If projected below reserve fuel and can't correct, consider diversion.
232
Time score triggers revised ETA notification?
30 minutes behind — notify Flight Follower of revised ETA.
233
AIREP position reporting requirement?
ETA differs by more than 2 minutes — immediately report revised ETA to ATC.
234
FAA holding speeds?
Through 6,000 ft: 200 kts. 6,001-14,000 ft: 230 kts. 14,001 ft and above: 265 kts.
235
ICAO holding speeds?
Through 14,000 ft: 230 kts. 14,001-20,000 ft: 240 kts. 20,001-34,000 ft: 265 kts. Above 34,000 ft: 0.83 Mach.
236
Boeing recommended holding speeds?
FL250 and below: VREF30 + 80 kts. Above FL250: VREF30 + 100 kts.
237
Where is 'BEST SPEED' for holding found?
HOLD page of CDU — always shows clean maneuvering speed for current weight regardless of altitude.
238
Does turning in holding increase fuel consumption?
Yes — requesting longer legs reduces fuel consumption.
239
PIC emergency authority?
May deviate from procedures, weather minima, and FARs in interest of safety. Must notify ATC and Flight Follower. Director of Operations informed ASAP.
240
Who can declare an emergency?
PIC, VP Flight Operations, DSSRC, Chief Pilot, Flight Follower.
241
Primary objective in emergency?
Safety of passengers and crew. Secondary: Preserve airplane and cargo.
242
Emergency conditions defined?
Mechanical impairment creating hazard, unable to establish position, impaired comm/nav, flight overdue 30+ min with no contact, no arrival report 30 min after scheduled, distress message received, weather below mins at destination/alternates, insufficient fuel, suspected explosive device, unauthorized diversion, any circumstances creating dangerous situation.
243
Mayday vs Pan Pan?
Mayday: Immediate danger, highest priority. Pan Pan: Urgent, second priority.
244
Emergency squawk code?
7700
245
Emergency radio procedures?
Primary frequency first. If unable, try 121.5 MHz (VHF line of sight) or 3023 kHz (HF, <300 nm day, <100 nm night).
246
Post-accident requirement?
Crew tested for alcohol and drugs.
247
FA emergency briefing acronym — TEST?
T - Time available. E - Emergency type. S - Signal to brace (or remain seated). T - Take special instructions (unusable exits, etc).
248
Passenger misconduct levels?
Level 1: Disruptive/suspicious/threatening behavior. Level 2: Physically abusive. Level 3: Life threatening, serious injury, weapon threat/use. Level 4: Attempted/actual flight deck breach.
249
Unacceptable passengers?
Intoxicated, obviously contagious, mentally imbalanced, requiring extreme assistance, critical illness, endangering self/others, multiple disabilities, requiring aircraft modification, without valid passport/visa.
250
Flight deck door policy?
Closed and locked block-out to block-in except authorized access. Two persons must remain in flight deck at all times (one must be PIC or F/O).
251
When can keypad be used to open flight deck door?
In flight: Emergency only (pilot incapacitation expected). On ground: Flight deck unoccupied. Passcode restricted to crewmembers.
252
A014 — what does it authorize?
IFR operations in Class G airspace under Part 121.
253
A025 — what does it authorize?
Electronic signatures, record keeping, manual systems.
254
A048 — what does it require?
Verification of personnel identity and eligibility for flight deck access (CASS).
255
B031 — what navigation authorized?
Class 1 Navigation. Class 2 if Class 1 cannot be maintained.
256
B034 — single RNAV system operation?
Class 1 navigation on single RNAV authorized if redundant receivers operational and capability exists to return via airways if remaining unit fails. Radar required.
257
B046 — RVSM equipment requirements?
Two air data computers, altitude alerting system, one autopilot, one transponder. Report any failure to ATC immediately. Aircraft must be listed in D092.
258
B044 — what does it allow?
Planned redispatch/rerelease enroute — depart to closer airport, then re-release to more distant airport.
259
C050 — Special Airport PIC qualification?
Simulator qualified within 12 months, OR pictorial means, OR destination VFR (3 SM ceiling, 1000 ft above lowest MEA/MOCA).
260
C052 — TDZ RVR controlling?
Yes for all approaches (substitute Mid if TDZ unavailable). Mid and Rollout advisory. No approaches below 1/2 SM visibility. No RNP AR approaches.
261
C055 — GPS approaches for ETOPS alternates?
Authorized under certain weather and RAIM conditions.
262
C071 — Autopilot minimum use heights?
200 ft takeoff/initial climb. 1000 ft enroute. 50 ft below MDA/DA/DH or 50 ft AGL on approach. Does not apply to autoland.
263
C077 — Cancel IFR in flight?
Authorized if: Remaining in controlled airspace with ATC contact, OR within 10 nm of uncontrolled airport on advisory frequency with visual references for approach and landing.
264
C078 — Lower than standard takeoff minima?
500/500/500 RVR with HIRL and centerline lighting operational.
265
What do release limit codes mean? (CBOTFAV)
C - Climb limited. B - Brake limited. O - Obstacle limited. T - Tire speed limited. F - Field length limited. A - Max AFM chart weight. V - Vmcg limited.
266
Is LAHSO authorized for ATI?
No — prohibited.
267
Shortest runway without DO approval?
6,000 ft minimum.
268
Flight crew shall not blank what display for takeoff and landing?
Engine vibration display.
269
Autothrottle use recommendation?
Recommended during takeoff and climb (auto or manual flight). All other phases: recommended only when autopilot engaged.
270
HF radio frequency rule?
Never have both HF radios on same frequency. Usually set to USB (Upper Side Band).
271
What are ATI overweight landing procedures?
PIC may determine overweight landing preferable for safety. Burn or dump fuel when possible. Logbook entry with gross weight required. MX overweight inspection required before further flight.
272
Re-release procedures — when used?
To extend range of remaining fuel, OR when flight cannot operate safely or as originally released. PIC and Flight Follower must coordinate.
273
Altimeter setting — climb through 17,000 ft?
Set to 29.92 (QNE) when assigned FL180 or higher.
274
Altimeter setting — descent through transition level?
Set to QNH for that country (ICAO).
ATI 757 / 767
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