1
Q
What is the minimum iPad battery charge required before daily flight sequences?
A
Fully Charged near 100% (FOM 4.14.2)
2
Q
What Software and Apps are required inflight for our EFB?
A
Apple iOS, Jeppsen FlightDeck Pro X, Comply365, HOTs (FOM 4.14.3)
3
Q
How do ensure EFB compliance?
A
EFB STAR (FOM 4.14.3)
4
Q
Prior to pushback, what mode must be selected on our EFB?
A
Airplane
5
Q
Where can you find the Current Updates for the EFB
A
EFB STAR and Verify if up to date on iPad Settings>General>iPad Storage (FOM
4.15.13)
6
Q
I’m a check airman and I come out for your CQLE or a random line evaluation. Where do I
find the EFB software that is required for flight?
A
EFB STAR (FOM 4.15.3)
7
Q
What are the required EFB items and when does each version have to be updated by?
A
Apple ios, Comply365, Flitedeck ProX, AAL HOT (sureWx)…Compliance date (FOM
4.15.3)
8
Q
Are there any other things that have to be “current” for flight:
A
Jepp charts updated and “Comply” items in comply365 by the compliance date. (FOM
4.15.3)
9
Q
How do you comply with the EFB required apps?
A
Checking the IPAD storage compliance. (FOM 4.15.3)
10
Q
What is the requirement for syncing Comply365?
A
“All pilots are required to “Check for Updates” in Comply365 by selecting SYNC prior to
the first flight of the day and shall verify a successful EFB update has occurred.” (FOM 4.15.7)
11
Q
Per the FOM when are you required to declare Minimum fuel?
A
If projected fuel consumption will result in landing with less than 45 minutes of fuel
remaining plus alternate fuel. (FOM 17.4.2)
12
Q
Does declaring MIN FUEL give us priority handling?
A
A: No, but implies to ATC little to no delays can be accepted. (FOM 17.4.2)
13
Q
Per the FOM when are you required to declare emergency fuel?
A
If projected fuel consumption will result in landing with less than 30 minutes of fuel
remaining. (FOM 17.4.3)
14
Q
When would ATC give us priority handling?
A
When declaring Emergency Fuel if may land with less than 30 mins of fuel remaining.
(FOM 17.4.3)
15
Q
What is RAMP Fuel?
A
T/O FUEL + TANKER FUEL + TAXI FUEL. (POH 9.12.5 Bull 03-19)
16
Q
Ramp Fuel vs FOB tolerance?
A
500 lbs (POH 9.12.5 Bull 03-19)
17
Q
T/O Fuel, do we have any variance allowed?
A
Can bbe higher not lower
18
Q
Release shows TO FUEL 4800. We get to the end of the runway and FOB is 4600. Can we
take off?
A
No. (FOM 17.1.2)
19
Q
What is Takeoff Fuel?
A
BURN + RESERVE + ALT + CONTINGENCY. (FOM 9.12.6, Bull 03-19)
20
Q
What is the definition of Fuel Burn?
A
Sum of Climb + Cruise/Descent + one instrument approach at destination. (POH 9.12.6,
Bull 03-19)
21
Q
What does contingency fuel contain and is it required?
A
Anticipated traffic delays, holding, possible missed approach, and other conditions
delaying landing. Yes, it is required. (POH 9.12.3, Bull 03-19))
22
Q
Tanker has changed as of late; what is tanker to us now?
A
Provides additional fuel for APU burn at gate and unusual ground delays such as deicing.
(POH 9.12.4)
23
Q
You are holding for your destination. How long can you hold?
A
BARM
24
Q
If you were at your alternate on final at 3000’ AGL and had your reserve fuel of 2250
pounds would you have 45 minutes of fuel remaining?
A
No. Reserve fuel is calculated as Long Range Cruise at FL 250 (POH 9.12.1, Bul 03-19)
25
How is RESERVE Fuel calculated?
Long range cruise at FL 250 (POH 9.12., Bull 03-19)
26
If your alternate is 75 miles from your destination, what altitude is your ALT fuel number
planned?
15,000 Ft (POH 9.12.1, Bull 03-19)
27
T/O Fuel (#5002), what number should be written on the TOLD card?
5100 (POH 4-44)
28
Does RESERVE .45 fuel mean you have 45 minutes of fuel?
NO. Demonstrate an understanding that that figure is calculated using FL250 and Long
Range Cruise speed (subject to a minimum quantity) At 600 feet, the reserve fuel will be exhausted much faster. (POH 9.12.2, Bull 03-19))
29
How do they calculate ALT fuel?
Direct to the furthest alternate using Long Range cruise and a additional #400 for missed
approach. (POH 9.12.1 Bull 03-19)
30
Does dispatch select a random altitude or just use planned cruise altitude?
Based on distance, 0-50NM 10,000ft, 51-100 NM 15,000ft, 101-150 NM 20,000ft, 151 NM
or greater 25,000ft. (POH 9.12.1, Bull 03-19)
31
Minimum required considering all factors, alt(s), TO alt, any planned delays, MELs...
assuming need to add alt (based on given wx), do we have enough fuel already without
taking on more load (can we “rob Peter and pay Paul” with Tanker/Contingency?), if not,
then what?
May be able to take from Tanker and move to ALT (with dispatcher approval) to avoid
more load and possibly bumping pax, etc. (FOM 17.1.5)
32
When are we required to conduct an enroute fuel check?
At least once if the flight is more than 36 minutes, and and least once per hour during
cruise for longer flights. (FOM 17.3.7)
33
What is the Minimum Tanker fuel?
330
34
What are the minimum contingency fuel requirements?
700...937 lbs, 900...1082 lbs (POH 9.12.3, Bull 03-19)
35
What are the minimum reserve fuel requirements?
700...2100 lbs, 900...2220 lbs (POH 9.12.2, Bull 03-19))
36
What are you signing for when you sign the release?
CA: CFR’s 121.439-445; Compliance with EFB STAR, rested and complying with 117.5D
limitations, CA is current on recent experience, PIC is qualified for Special areas and
airports, PIC qualified for Route and Airports, has had a PC or applicable check in the
previous 12 months, and has had a line check within the last 24 months.
FO: Compliance with EFB STAR and compliance with 117.5D.
37
What true airspeed are you scheduled to fly?
Candidate should be able to locate TAS number on release.
38
What are MINIMUM required items on the release?
Aircraft registration, flight number, flight type (IFR), minimum fuel (T/O Fuel),
ORG/DST/TOA/ALT1/ALT2 CFR 121.687(a) (FOM 16.19)
39
At the destination, at the ETA, what must the weather (main body) be forecast to be?
At or above the minimums for the approach to be expected.
40
When do we need a Takeoff Alternate?
Ensure a takeoff alternate has been designated anytime weather conditions at the
departure airport are below the lowest available CAT I approach minimums for the runways in
use. (FOM 10.5.2)
41
How far away can the Takeoff Alternate be located?
The takeoff alternate must be within one hour from the departure airport based on normal
cruise speed in still air with one- engine inoperative. 300 miles for PSA (FOM 10.5.2, and
16.20.1 dispatch)
42
Is the weather required at a TOA reducible?
NO
43
What is the lowest Takeoff Visibility RVR we can use as a Captain?
500, 500, 500 RVR (FOM 10.4.3)
44
Can any one of the three RVR reporting systems be INOP and we can still takeoff? Which
one?
Yes. Takeoff. Airport Charts 10-9A (FOM 10.4.3; Ops Spec C56, C78; ISARP FLT 3.6.4)
45
As a low time FO what is the lowest visibility you can takeoff with?
When RVR is reported 4000 or less. The Captain (unless an appropriately qualified check
airman) will make all takeoffs (from ground roll initiation through cleanup). (FOM 4.13.4)
46
What if you’re not a low time FO?
The Captain will conduct the takeoff (ground roll through clean-up) when visibility is:
1600 ft RVR or less for any RVR on that runway
1/4 statute mile or less (if no RVR is reported for that runway). (FOM 5.8.1)
47
How do we determine RVR for a specific runway?
Airport 10-9A Chart.
48
What does CL & HIRL mean?
Centerline lights & High Intensity Runway Lights
49
When do we need an Alternate?
1,2, 3, Rule. (FOM 10.5.4)
50
Besides the “123” rule, when would you need an AL1?
When weather at destination requires use of RNAV approach, an alternate is required
with another-than-RNAV approach. FOM 5.10.9International ops use approximate 123
rule + crosswind consideration, see FOM 5.17.4Canadian ops use approximate 123 rule +
thunderstorms and 2 runways, see FOM 5.20.1 Your own judgment: area weather,
NOTAMs, etc.
51
Once you are diverting to an alternate, what minimums do you use to decide if you can
shoot the approach?
The published minimums for the approach (not the derived alternate minimums).
52
When do you need a 2nd Alternate?
Exemption 17347 or when the destination and first alternate are considered marginal.
(FOM 10.5.5 & FOM 10.5.6)
53
Both above examples have Derived Alternate Minima in the language, tell me what that
means?
One Nav Aid Two Nav Aid rule. Explanation may be required. FOM 10.5.4 Determining
Alternate Weather Minima Ops Spec C055
54
If you are dispatched under Exemption 17347 what needs to be on your release?
Two Alternates listed and in the remarks section it should read “Flight released under
Exemption 17347”
55
What weather criteria triggers crews to setup and brief a CAT II approach?
When the visibility anticipated at the final approach point is 3/4 mile (RVR 4000) or less,
company policy shall be to plan for and utilize the lowest possible minimums consistent
with operations specifications authorization, aircraft capability and approach system
limitations.
Examples:
Visibility expected to be 3/4 mile or less, runway capability is Category I, plan a CAT I
approach.
Visibility expected to be 3/4 mile or less, runway capability is Category II, aircraft and
crew capability is CAT II, plan a CAT II approach. (FOM 5.10.4)
56
Where could we “fast reference” information on how to setup and brief the required CAT
II approach items? (Don’t laugh, they seldom get the lead into FRED).
FRED
57
What are the 17347 Destination Main Body Weather Forecast requirements?
The destination main body forecast visibility must be at least equal to the landing
minimums, (FOM 16.20)
58
What are the 17347 Destination Conditional Statement Weather requirements?
The conditional forecast visibility must not be less than half of that required for the
approach. (FOM 16.20)
59
FIRST ALTERNATE
22.Q: What are the 17347 First Alternate Main Body Weather requirements.?
The first alternate main body forecast must meet derived alternate criteria specified for
that airport.
60
FIRST ALTERNATE
What are the 17347 First Alternate Conditional Statement Weather requirements? (FOM
16.20)
The conditional forecast must not be less than half of the required alternate minimum
visibility and ceiling requirements.
61
SECOND ALTERNATE
24.Q: What are the 17347 Second Alternate Main Body Weather requirements.?
The second alternate main body forecast must meet derived alternate criteria.
62
SECOND ALTERNATE
What are the 17347 Second Alternate Conditional Statement Weather requirements?
The second alternate conditional forecast must meet derived alternate criteria.
63
SECOND ALTERNATE
Tower reports RVR is 1000 Touchdown, 900 Midpoint, 1000 Rollout. Can we take off?
(10-9A says we need 1000/1000/1000)
No. If three RVR’s are working three are controlling.
64
What is the difference between 1 vs 2 navaids when determining alternate minimums?
1 Navaid you add 400-1 to ceiling and visibility.
2 Navaid you add 200-1/2 to the higher landing minimums of the two approaches used.
65
ROUTE R00 0213M WIND P054 ETE 00:36 TAXI IN 0012
27.Q: What is all that above?
R00 preferred routes, 0213M is flight in NM, WIND P054 is P for tailwind at 54 knots, ETE
00:36 is time enroute of 36 m
66
If we had multiple approaches available to us at our destination I would question, Must
we use the 2 NAV rule?
NO, we have the ability to choose 1 NAV or 2 NAV, which ever one will give us the lowest
derived minimums.
67
If your alternate has 1 runway with an ILS to both ends with a different LOC frequency, is
that one or two NAVAIDS?
2
68
What limitations do we have on the use of the 2 NAV rule?
Could be opposite ends of same runway, with a common ILS frequency but must be
different identifier.
69
What is MFPTW? How is MFTW determined?
Maximum Flight Plan Takeoff Weight. “This is the maximum takeoff weight for which the
flight plan is valid when considering all flight planning limits except Maximum Runway
Takeoff Weight (MRTW). These limits include the structural Maximum Takeoff Weight
(MTOW) and the Maximum Landing Weight (MLDW) + planned fuel burn.” (POH 9.5.2)
70
When is a runway considered wet?
When there is sufficient moisture on the runway to cause it to appear reflective. (POH
9.5.2)
70
Can you leave the gate if you were over the MFPTW?
Yes, provided you don’t exceed your taxi weight you could burn some tanker fuel prior to
take off. (FOM 9.5.2)
71
Can we take off over the MFPTW weight?
No, it is driven by structural weight, landing weight or other restrictions. (FOM 9.5.2)
72
What is PQNH?
Planed altimeter setting. (POH 9.5.2)
73
What is PMRTW?
Planned max rw. T/O weight, Max runway performance T/O wt. At temp and pressure alt.
Subject to Mel.s CDL.s Wt. penaltys/ I/A. contamination (POH 9.5.2)
74
How does the PQNH affect the TLR?
TLR is valid when the actual QNH is no less than .10 (29.74) below the PQNH. (POH 9.5.2)
75
8.Q:When can we commence a turn after Takeoff?
A:POH 9.2
76
If a Complex Special Engine Failure procedure is required, where do we find the
procedure?
PSA Station Bulletins/10-7 pages
77
Where do we find Actual Landing Distances when in flight?
POH Chapter 9
78
If we are doing a FULL rated T/O, and the TLR says N1 86.3 but on ED 1 N1 is 85.7 what do
you do?
Nothing we can takeoff within +/- 1% of TLR
79
If your flex number is 46 for a N1 of 84.66 snf you put it into the FMS and it comes out as 84 wdyd
Reduce the FLEX number until the N1 is at or above the TLR flex number
80
I go very heavy into the takeoff and landing data, such as that the flight was planned at 18
C, but the actual temperature was 24 C, do we need a new release?
They need to check the maximum temperature for the runway they intend to use on the
TLR page (POH 343)
81
Min landing dis RLD
ALD + 60% RCAM ; OLD + 15% (POH 348)
82
What is the difference between ALD and OLD?
Operational, normal pilot technique landing distance. ALD max effort stop. Often referred
to as test pilot or Chuck Yeager. (POH 405)
83
What is the EFP for Runway xx?
Depends on TLR? (POH 341)
84
When would you use ALD?
QRH
85
What does BLEEDS OPEN mean?
Engines supplying bleed air to the air conditioning system for Takeoff. (POH 344)
85
At our PTOW for RWY XX, read me the information for that runway.
Have them read across the data block (MTOW, MT, Flex/Full, Rolling/Stndg, BL Op/Clsd,
N1, Flap setting, V1, VR, V2, VT (POH 343)
86
Where can you find contamination level numbers?
FRED
86
Do we have to take a penalty for landing with a tailwind? If so, how much is the penalty?
Yes...varies with TLR (POH 344)
87
When you enter the assumed FLEX temp into the ACARS the N1 is below the value. Is that
OK? (Follow up, how do you fix it?)
No, must be at or above required N1. Fixed by lowering the assumed temperature. (POH
344)
88
I point to the EFP and ask when can we fly this heading? (ex LT060) Then what?
400’ VMC, 1000’ IMC. (POH 342)
89
On TLR, what does the BL CL or BL OP refer to?
Engine Bleeds
90
25 on tlr
91
Does the T/O data account for thrust reverser use in a reject?
No. It’s extra stopping capability. (POH 343)
92
/// TAKEOFF DATA///
APT PRWY POAT PWIND PQNH PMRTW FLP MAXV1 PTOW MFPTW
DCA 01 27.0 000M00 29.81 536 20 129 485 48641
What runway did dispatch plan for departure?
RWY 1
93
What if after push back from gate the airport changed around and is now departing
runway 19, would we need to go back to get for a new TLR?
As long as we have data for takeoff of runway 19 we would not need to go to gate or
contact dispatch. (POH 343)
94
What is POAT?
Planned outside air temp. (POH 345)
95
If ATIS was reporting 35 degrees would we need new data?
No limitation on temperature however need to verify not exceeding the MT for our
planned runway and conditions. (POH 345)
96
Do we have any limitations associated with the QNH on the takeoff data line?
Yes, PQNH actual QNH cannot be lower than .10 of planned, higher is fine. Also, cannot
takeoff of if actual weight is greater than MFPTW. POH (388)
97
What does MT stand for?
Maximum temp, also number we use for assumed temperature when using flex thrust for
takeoff. (POH 343)
98
When can we not use FLEX thrust for takeoff?
If say will look up in FRED I move on. Anti-skid must be operative, Prohibited on
contaminated runways, if airplane has been deiced, if wing and/or cowl anti-ice bleeds are
in use, if warnings or windshear or downdrafts have been forecasted, with an engine that
cannot achieve full-rated thrust, or when a special departure procedure specifies full
thrust takeoff. (POH 73)
99
What is RLNG?
Rolling takeoff, N1 is set between brake release and 60 knots. (POH 344)
100
What is the other type of takeoff we could perform?
STDG or Static (POH 344)
101
Any limitations we have with doing a STDG takeoff?
Winds must be entered into the ACARS (POH 72)
102
DRY RWY - PTOW PLUS 62, What does that 62 indicate?
This is the weight above PTOW allowed before going over the MFPTW. (POH 343)
103
DRY RWY - PTOW - WSHR, What should we consider when using this data?
CONT IGN, no flex thrust, longest runway, hand fly to 1500ft recommended. (POH 344)
104
What is our max TO weight for this flight? What if we exceed it? What if we exceed
+1000? What is the max weight the dispatcher should be able to generate numbers up
to? Why is this number less than the Max Structural Limit?
Usually answer PTOW... PTOW +1000... Call dispatcher for new numbers... MFPTW... Max
Ldg Wgt plus burn = MFPTW (POH 344)
104
N0346FL210 DOCTR AGARD KORRY, What is this line saying?
N0346 is the true airspeed in knots, FL210 is filed altitude of FL 210, DOCTR AGARD
KORRY, is the filed flight plan. (FOM 510)
105
What do the symbols (D), (M), (O) and (M/FC) mean?
MEL 3.1.1
106
If a system failure occurs on the ground and a system reset procedure is available, where
do we find system reset procedures?
In the collection of MEL/SR/NEF/GNG/CDL
107
Are there different system reset procedures if the Aircraft is on the gate vs off the gate?
Yes. FOM 11.3.5
108
What maintenance items are on the dispatch release?
MEL’s and CDL’s
109
How long can items be deferred?
Cat A: Specified in the MEL
Cat B: 3 consecutive days starting at midnight of the day the MEL was made.
Cat C: 10 consecutive days
Cat D: 120 days (MEL 3-6)
109
Which MEL’s can we extend?
B and C (MEL 2.8)
110
Which categories of MELs cannot be extended?
A and D are NOT able to be extended. (MEL 2.8)
111
What Repair Category is APU Generator System 24-22-01?
C
112
How do we know if an MEL has been extended?
It is present on the dispatch release (FOM 5.3.8)
113
PLACARD....DESCRIPTION.... What is this section for?
List of open MEL or CDL
114
How do you inspect the maintenance logbook?
Variable, but at least demonstrate knowledge of tail number, airworthiness release, open
write ups, MELs, CDLs, flight release compliance. (FOM 5.3.9)
114
Must the Release and AML agree (match) for deferred items?
Yes (FOM 5.3.8)
115
When should you inspect the maintenance logbook?
Before running Safety Power On checklist. Why?
Before each flight thereafter (POH Before Start checklist - expanded). Why?
116
How do you know if an MEL has been extended?
Extensions may not be noted on the Aircraft Maintenance Log but will be acknowledged
by the presence of the deferral on the dispatch release. FOM 11.3.4
117
Will CDL’s be listed on the release?
Maybe. If the CDL carries a performance penalty it will be listed on the release where the
MEL’s are listed.
117
Where does it show they have to be placarded?
CDL 1.1...General Limitations
118
What does M/FC mean in a deferral
Maintenance that can be performed by flight crew. (MEL 3.1.1)
119
Are CDL’s required to be placarded?
Yes (CDL 1.1)
120
How many hydraulic systems are on the aircraft?
(3) – HYD SYS 1; HYD SYS 2; HYD SYS 3 (PRM 358)
121
What is the normal operating pressure for each system?
3000 PSI (PRM 362)
122
How many hydraulic pumps does each system have?
Two (PRM 362, 366)
123
What hydraulic pumps are directly controlled from the hydraulic control panel?
1B, 3A, 3B, 2B (PRM 363)
124
HYD SYS 1 and 2 main pumps are driven by what?
Engine Driven Pump (EDP) (PRM 362)
125
HYD SYS 1 and 2 back up pump is powered by?
Electric AC motor pumps (PRM 363)
126
HYD SYS 3 main pump is powered by?
AC motor pump (PRM 367)
126
HYD SYS 3 backup pump is powered by?
AC motor pump (PRM 367)
127
What does HYD 1 system power?
Left aileron; Rudder; Elevator; OB flight spoilers; OB ground spoilers; OB spoilerons; Left
ENG TR (PRM 371)
128
What does HYD 2 system power?
Right aileron; Rudder; Elevator; IB flight spoilers; IB spoilerons; Right ENG TR; MLG
auxiliary actuators; OB brakes (PRM 371)
129
What does HYD 3 system power?
Rudder; Elevator; Left and right ailerons; IB ground spoiler; Main landing gear; Nosewheel
steering; IB rakes (PRM 371)
129
HYD 1 and HYD 2 systems main pumps working when?
When respective engine is running (PRM 369)
130
All primary flight controls are powered by AT LEAST how many HYD system(s)?
Two (PRM 371)
130
When in AUTO, HYD pumps 1B, 2B and 3B will operate?
Anytime AC power is available; Flaps selected out of 0* position (PRM 363, 367)
131
What is the purpose of the ground interlock for the hydraulic system.
It allows you to operate the hydraulic system backup pumps while on the ground without
the flaps selected out of the 0* position (PRM 363)
132
What systems are powered by all three HYD systems?
Ailerons; Rudders; Elevators (PRM 371)
133
What is the purpose of pressurizing HYD systems reservoir?
Provides positive pressure to engine driven main pumps and all backup pumps (PRM 364, 366)
134
Where can the HYD shutoff valve position be viewed?
HYD system synoptic page (PRM 371)
135
Where are the hydraulic SOV’s installed within the HYD system?
Installed in the supply lines of the engine driven pumps (PRM 365)
135
Are the HYD SOV’s normally opened or closed?
Open (PRM 365)
136
How is it possible to close the HYD SOV’s?
Pressing the ENG FIRE PUSH switchlight; Pressing the HYD SOV switchlight (PRM 370)
137
What is the purpose of the HYD SOV’s?
To isolate the flow of hydraulic fluid from the engine driven pumps inn the event of an
overheat or fluid leak or provide a means to cool fluid (PRM 365)
138
Which of the HYD systems require cooling?
HYD 1 and HYD 2 systems (PRM 361)
139
Why do HYD 1 and HYD 2 systems require fluid cooling?
Their proximity to aircraft engines and other heat within the nacelle (PRM 361)
140
Where does the air come from to cool the heat exchanger for the HYD systems?
Ram air scoop on the tail (PRM 364)
141
How is the hydraulic fluid cooled for HYD 1 and HYD 2 systems?
Air/Oil heat exchanger (PRM 361)
142
Which HYD system has the largest demand?
HYD 3 (PRM 366)
143
Does HYD 3 system require fluid cooling?
No (PRM 366)
144
If the engine driven HYD pump fails inflight, will the backup pump automatically power
the system?
No, the backup pump must be selected ON (PRM 363)
145
If all AC power is lost while inflight and the ADG deploys, how will pump 3B come online?
Automatically, regardless of the switch position (PRM 367)
146
When does the HYD system pressure readout turn amber on the HYD system synoptic
page?
< 1800 PSI (PRM 371)
147
When does the HYD system pressure readout turn white on the HYD system synoptic
page?
> 3200 PSI (PRM 371)
148
When does the HYD system temperature readout indicate green on the HYD synoptic
page?
< 96*C (PRM 371)
149
When does the HYD system temperature readout indicate amber on the HYD synoptic
page?
At or above 96*C (PRM 371)
150
When does the HYD quantity readout indicate green?
Between 45% and 85% (PRM 371)
151
What is the purpose of the isolation valve?
To divide the bleed air manifold into two separate systems (PRM 720)
152
How is the isolation valve operated?
Electrically (PRM 724)
153
What happens to the isolation valve if electrical power is removed?
It will remain in the last energized position (PRM 724)
154
What is the purpose of the high-pressure bleed valve?
It controls the operation of the 10th stage bleed air (PRM 723)
155
What is required to open the engine high pressure bleed valve?
10th stage bleed air pressure; Signal from the respective ACSC controller
156
The aircraft’s bleed air system is normally powered from which stage bleed air?
6th stage (PRM 723)
157
Under high demand the high -pressure bleed valve will open and supply which stage bleed air to the system?
10th stage (PRM 723)
158
Is it possible to tell if the 10th stage bleed air is being supplied to the system?
No (PRM 723)
159
When will the engine high pressure bleed valves close automatically?
Loss of ACSC signal; Engine shut down; ENG FIRE PUSH pushlight is pressed (PRM 723)
160
What is the purpose of the engine bleed valve?
It regulates bleed air to maintain a constant pressure within the bleed air manifold (PRM 723)
161
What is the purpose of the APU load control valve (LCV)?
It regulates the bleed air of the APU to pressurize the left side of the bleed manifold
(PRM 723)
162
What controls the APU’s LCV operation?
The APU electronic control unit (ECU) (PRM 723)
163
Which source of bleed air has priority on the ground?
APU (PRM 727)
164
What ensures that the engine bleed valves remain closed on the ground?
The ACSC interlock. It prevents the engines from supplying bleed air (PRM 727)
165
What normally controls the isolation valve?
ACSC 1. If ACSC 1 fails, then ACSC 2 will control (PRM 726)
166
What commands the isolation valve to OPEN?
The engine start switch (PRM 728)
167
With the bleed air source selected to AUTO, when does bleed air transfer back to engine after takeoff?
Thrust levers reduced below TO position; Gear retracted; Flaps < 20* (PRM 730)
168
With the bleed air source selected to AUTO, when will bleed air be transferred back to APU during landing?
APU running, and; Gear down, or; Flaps selected > 20* (PRM 730)
169
What prevents the APU from providing bleed air when the anti-ice is selected ON?
The ACSC interlock. With the anti-ice selected ON it will close the APU LCV (PRM 730)
170
Is the external ground air connector depicted on the ECS synoptic page?
No (PRM 720)
171
What automatically selects the appropriate bleed air source?
The ACSC (PRM 730)
172
The bleed source rotary switch and isolation valve switch will only function under what circumstances?
If the bleed air switch is selected to MANUAL (PRM 731)
173
If the bleed air source is selected to MANUAL, with the APU selected as the source, will bleed air supply be automatically shutoff above FL250?
No (PRM 737)
174
Bleed air leak detection is provided for what system?
Anti-Ice and Leak Detection Controller (AILC) (PRM 735)
175
The AILC will monitor what 4 zones?
Left Bleed Duct; Right Bleed Duct; Left Wing Anti-Ice; Right Wing Anti-Ice (PRM 735)
176
Does the AILC system monitor for leaks in the engine cowl anti-ice system?
No (PRM 735)
177
What monitors the cowl anti-ice system for bleed leaks?
A pressure transducer (PRM 732)
178
What method is used to detect bleed air leaks in the following systems? Left and right bleed ducts; Wing leading egde anti-ice ducts; Engine Cowl
Dual sensing loops; Dual sensing loops and temperature sensors; pressure transducer
(PRM 732)
179
If a bleed air leak is detected within the engine bleed air duct, what will automatically
close?
The respective engine bleed air valve (PRM 732)
180
If a bleed air leak is detected within the wing anti-ice duct, what will automatically close?
The respective wing anti-ice valve (PRM 732)
181
How does the pressure transducer function to detect a bleed air leak within the cowl anti- ice system?
It measures the pressure between the inner and outer duct (PRM 732)
182
What are the 3 sources of cooling air for the EFIS and EICAS displays?
(2) AC display fans; Recirculation fan; Cockpit air conditioning duct (PRM 404)
183
What does the color logic indicate on the following EICAS colors? Green, Amber, Red, Black, Blue
Green: Normal; Amber: Below normal; Red: Above normal; Black: No flow; Blue: Structure (PRM 426)
184
What do the different valve colors indicate on the EICAS system? White, Amber, Green, 1⁄2 Magenta
White: Valve is operable; Amber: Valve inoperable; Green: Valve is performing work; 1⁄2 Magenta: Insufficient data (PRM 425)
185
When are CAS Messages inhibited?
Takeoff: Two Conditions – (1) Engines are at takeoff thrust; Below 100 knots (2) Above 100 knots; <400’ AGL (cancels 30 sec after takeoff) Landing: Within 400’ AGL w/gear down
(cancels 30 sec after landing or climbing through 400’ on a go-around) (PRM 431)
186
How many EICAS displays are there?
(2) ED 1 and ED 2 (PRM 403)
187
ED 1 displays what page under normal conditions?
Primary page (PRM 417)
188
ED 2 displays what page under normal conditions?
Status page (PRM 417)
189
What will occur if ED 1 primary page fails?
The primary page will automatically transfer to ED 2 (PRM 432)
190
At what time are the N1 vibration gauges displayed?
When both engines are running and the oil pressure is normal (PRM 878)
191
When are the landing gear, flaps/slats and BTMS indications shown on the EICAS?
Gear is selected down, or; Flaps are selected down, or; Brake temperatures are not
normal, or; FLAPS or SLATS HALFSPEED message displayed (PRM 419)
192
How many different synoptic pages may be displayed on ED 2?
Eight different synoptic pages (PRM 423 & 424)
193
At what times are the APU RPM and EGT gauges shown on the status page?
When the APU PWR/FUEL switchlight is pressed (PRM 421)
194
At what times is the APU door position displayed on the EICAS status page?
It is always displayed (PRM 421)
195
At what times are the aileron, rudder and stabilizer trim settings shown on the status
page?
They are always displayed (PRM 421)
196
If the trim settings are within acceptable parameters for takeoff, how are they displayed?
Needles are green while on the ground (PRM 421)
197
If the trim settings are not within acceptable parameters for takeoff, how are they
displayed?
Needles are white (PRM 421)
198
During flight what color are the trim settings displayed as?
White (PRM 421)
199
What indications are always displayed on the status page of the EICAS DISPLAY 2
Oxygen pressure; Trim position; APU intake door position (PRM 421)
200
How are the EICAS system’s ED 1 and ED 2 powered?
Battery BUS (QRH 4-9)
201
If the cooling fan fails for the CRT’s, what must be done?
Select either the FLT ALTN or GND ALTN position on the display fan control to use the
alternate cooling fan (PRM 404)
202
The Data Concentrator Units (DCU) provide information to what components?
EICAS display; Lamp driver units; Maintenance diagnostic computer; FDR (PRM 406)
203
How many DCU’s are there?
Two (PRM 406)
204
Are both DCU’s active at all times?
Yes, each DCU provides different information (PRM 406)
205
If one DCU fails, what will automatically occur?
The remaining DCU will provide all data (PRM 406)
206
What provides the aural alerts?
DCU’s (PRM 410)
207
If a warning occurs, what type of chime will the DCU provide?
A triple chime (PRM 408)
208
If a caution occurs, what type of chime will the DCU provide?
A single chime (PRM 408)
209
What type of chimes or bells will the DCU’s provide?
Single chime; Triple chime; Engine/APU fire bells (PRM 410)
210
Can the audio warnings be disabled?
Yes, all may be disabled by selecting the appropriate DCU switchlight OFF except ground
proximity warnings and TCAS alerts (PRM 413)
211
What will the DCU’s do if multiple alerts occur at once?
They will prioritize the warnings (PRM 410)
212
Is it possible to clear or box a warning on the primary page?
No (PRM 428)
213
Is it possible to clear or box an advisory message on the status page?
No (PRM 430)
214
Is it possible to clear or box a status message on the status page?
Yes (PRM 430)
215
Is it possible to clear or box a caution message on the primary page?
Yes (PRM 428)
216
A warning message is associated with a(n)?
Red Switchlight (PRM 427)
217
A caution message is associated with a(n)?
Amber Switchlight (PRM 428)
218
What is the purpose of the Lamp Driver Units (LDU)?
The LDU sends the signal as instructed by the DCU to illuminate the appropriate
switchlight (PRM 407)
219
What is accomplished by pressing the PRI button on the EICAS control panel?
It causes the primary page to be displayed on ED 2 (PRM 414)
220
What is accomplished by pressing the STAT button on the EICAS control panel?
It causes the status page to be displayed on ED 2. If the status page is already displayed, it will box the white status message (PRM 414)
221
What is accomplished by pressing the CAS button on the EICAS control panel?
It will box the caution message on the primary page or cycle through the pages if multiple pages exist (PRM 414)
222
What is accomplished by pressing the STEP button on the EICAS control panel?
It will cycle through the synoptic pages beginning with the last page displayed (PRM 414)
223
What is the purpose of the reversionary control panel?
Provides control for displaying PFD and EICAS information in the event one ED screens failing (PRM 432)
224
What alternate data may be selected to display on the MFD by using the reversionary control panel?
EICAS status page information; PFD (PRM 432)
225
The reversionary control panel directly controls what is displayed on which screen?
The multi-function display (PRM 432)
226
What does the source selector panel provide?
A way to provide alternate data to both PFD’s at once (PRM 434)
227
On the source selector panel, what happens if the DISP CONT knob is selected to either the 1 or 2 position?
It will select which display control panel will control both displays in the event one fails (PRM 434)
228
On the source selector panel, what happens if the EICAS switch is selected to the ED 1 or ED 2 position?
It selects which ED display will display all EICAS information that one ED was to fail (PRM
435)
229
If you are viewing all EICAS information on one ED as selected by the source selector panel, what will occur if a warning occurs?
If a page other than the primary page is displayed, a triple chime will be heard and the display will automatically revert back to the primary page (PRM 434)
230
If you are viewing all EICAS information on one ED as selected on the source selector panel, what will occur if a caution occurs?
A single chime. The page will not automatically revert to the primary page (PRM 434)
231
Maintenance diagnostic information may be selected to display where?
Captain’s MFD; First Officer’s MFD (PRM 436)
232
What are the two primary purposes of the maintenance diagnostic computer?
It counts engine start cycles; Records trend data (PRM 436)
233
Upon impact, what is automatically accomplished to prevent erasure of the FDR?
Power is removed (PRM 438)
234
Where is the landing gear position displayed?
ED 1 (primary page) (PRM 458)
235
At what times is the landing gear indicator displayed?
Gear selected down; Flaps selected down; BTMS temperatures not normal; Flaps and/or slats half speed message (PRM 491)
236
How many PSS sensors are there for the landing gear?
Main gear wheels (2); Nosewheel (2) – for redundancy (PRM 482)
237
When is the landing gear indication system removed from the primary page?
30 sec after: Gear Up/Locked; Flaps – up; BTMS- norm temps; No flap/slat half speed
message (PRM 491)
238
What HYD system powers the landing gear system?
HYD 3 system (PRM 458)
239
When does HYD SYS 2 assist HYD SYS 3 with landing gear extension/retraction?
During alternate gear extension (PRM 464)
240
Do MLG doors fully enclose the main gear wheel wells?
No, the tire assembly remains exposed (PRM 460)
241
Do the nose landing gear doors fully enclose the nose gear wheel bay?
Yes (PRM 462)
242
What will be the indication on the gear indicator while the gear is in transit?
Amber hash marks (PRM 480)
243
What is displayed on the landing gear indicator if the gear stays in transit for too long?
The amber hash marks turn red (PRM 480)
244
Is the landing gear handle mechanically connected to the landing gear system?
No (PRM 487)
245
How are the up - locks for the landing gear system released under normal extension?
Hydraulically (PRM 464)
246
How is the main gear locked in the down position?
Hydraulically; Two over – center springs (PRM 464)
247
Does the main gear retract inwards or outwards?
Inwards (PRM 474)
248
How are the MLG doors attached?
They are mechanically fixed to the main gear strut (PRM 460)
249
What is provided to stop tire rotation of the nose gear after retraction?
Anti-spin mechanism (PRM 463)
250
How is the NLG held up?
Mechanical up-lock assembly; Over-center mechanism (PRM 462)
251
How is the up-lock released when extending the NLG?
Hydraulically (PRM 462)
252
How is the NLG held in the down position?
Over-center mechanism (PRM 462)
253
In which direction does the NLG retract?
Forward (PRM 462)
254
With the gear selected down, do the nose gear doors close and cover the bay?
No, they remain open (PRM 462)
255
What feature on the landing gear system prevents an UP selection of the gear while on
the ground?
A down lock solenoid (PRM 464)
256
If a PSS fails after takeoff, what must be accomplished to raise the gear?
The down-lock release button must be depressed to mechanically retract the solenoid pin (PRM 464)
257
The landing gear horn will sound under what circumstances?
Flaps > 20* with gear up; The speed is < 170 KIAS with flaps > 30* or airspeed is < 190 KIAS with slats and flaps at 0*; Radio Alt < 500’ AGL with both throttles at < maximum landing setting or with flaps > 30*; One thrust lever is selected IDLE with gear up (PRM 481)
258
The landing horn cannot be muted under what circumstances?
Flaps are selected >30* with gear up; Both thrust levers are retarded to IDLE (PRM 481)
259
When will the landing horn automatically mute?
During windshear conditions (PRM 481)
260
What is indicated on EICAS when the gear horn is manually selected to MUTE?
HORN MUTED advisory message (PRM 494)
261
When will the TOO LOW GEAR warning sound?
Within 500’ AGL and < 190KIAS (PRM 481)
262
When is the main gear emergency extension procedure used?
Failure of the landing gear control circuity; Loss of HYD 3 SYS pressure (PRM 467)
263
What does pulling the alternate gear T-Handle do?
Mechanically releases the up-locks on MLG, gear free falls down assisted by HYD 2 SYS
pressure; NLG, HYD 2 SYS pressure releases the up-locks and the slipstream forces the NLG down (PRM 468)
264
Once the landing gear is extended by using the alternate system, what must happen to raise the gear again under normal circumstances?
HYD 3 SYS pressure must be restored (PRM 467 468)
265
Which HYD SYS are required to extend the gear using the alternate gear extension
method?
HYD SYS 2 auxiliary actuator assists in MLG extension and also assists in releasing the up- locks for the NLG (PRM 466 467)
266
MLG bays contain what to provide for overheat protection?
Single loop overheat detection wire (PRM 476)
267
When conducting the MLG overheat test, what is being tested in the following switch
positions? (MLG BAY OVHT and MLG OVHT FAIL)
MLG BAY OVHT – continuity of loops, generates a MLG BAY OVHT warning on EICAS if the test is successful; MLG OVHT FAIL- simulates a Failure detection of the overheat detection system, generates MLG OVHT FAIL caution on EICAS if successful (PRM 476 477)
268
Is the NW steering system directly connected to the rudder pedals?
No, it is a steer by wire system (PRM 478)
269
What hydraulic system powers the NW steering system?
HYD SYS 3 (PRM 478)
270
What are the steering limits of the NW steering system?
Tiller, 80* left or right; Rudder, 8* left or right; Free castoring, 80* left or right (PRM 478)
271
During towing operations, the torque links can be removed to provide what degree of NW castor?
360* (PRM 478)
272
Where are the torque links actually located on the nosewheel steering?
On the back of the NLG assembly (PRM 462 463)
273
What is indicated if a failure occurs within the nose steering system?
A STEERING INOP caution message will appear on EICAS and the system will default to
free castor mode (PRM 479)
274
In order to check the brake wear indicator pins, what must first be accomplished?
The parking brake must be set (PRM 470)
275
Normally, how many of the main wheels will be held if the parking brake is applied?
All four (PRM 473)
276
With the hydraulics OFF, which wheel brakes will hold?
Only the IB brakes (PRM 473)
277
With the hydraulics OFF, how many parking brake applications will the accumulator permit?
Six brake applications (PRM 473)
278
Loss of either HYD SYS 2 or 3 will cause a loss of how much braking capacity?
50% (PRM 4699 470)
279
The anti-skid control unit (ASCU) will regulate brake pressure to each wheel
independently or together?
Independently (PRM 471)
280
When is the anti-skid disabled?
Parking brake set; Below 10 KIAS; Anti-skid selected OFF; In-flight (PRM 471)
281
What conditions must be met to ARM the anti-skid system?
Switch – ARM; Parking brake – OFF; 1 MLG down (PRM 471)
282
When will the anti-skid become operational after landing?
> 35 KIAS or WOW for 5 sec (if a wheel speed sensor fails) (PRM 471)
283
Where are the brake temperatures displayed?
ED 2 status page (PRM 474)
284
Brake temperatures are displayed when?
Landing gear is extended; Flaps/slats are extended; Brake temps are not normal; Flaps or slats half speed message (PRM 474)
285
What is the numerical range of the BTMS?
1 to 20 ( 200 only PRM 243 )
286
Each number on the BTMS system represents an increase of how many degrees?
95*F or 35*C (200 PRM only 243 )
287
Once the brake temperatures cool following a brake overheat warning, what must be accomplished?
The BTMS OVHT WARN RESET button must be pressed to restore the color logic of the
indicator (PRM 477)
288
The EFIS system consists of how many CRT displays?
Four (PRM 403)
289
What are the displays each pilot is provided with for flight information on the EFIS system?
Primary Flight Display (PFD); Multi-function Display (MFD) (PRM 536)
290
What are the seven available NAV formats for the MFD’s?
HSI; Nav air sector map; FMS map; FMS flight plan; Radar; EGPWS; TCAS (PRM 536)
291
What other displays can be transferred to display on the MFD through the reversionary display panel?
PFD; EICAS display (PRM 435)
292
What is the purpose of the reversionary display panel?
It directly controls what is displayed on the MFD. It is used in the event that a PFD or EICAS display failure (PRM 432)
293
What is the purpose of the source selector panel?
It provides an alternate source of data to both PFD displays at the same time (PRM 435)
294
Each DCP will control its respective EFIS displays provided that _____ is selected on the source selection panel.
NORM (PRM 435)
295
What will happen by selecting the source selection panel DISPL CONT knob to either the 1 or 2 position?
It will allow the selected DCP to operate both the CA’s and FO’s EFIS displays. It’s used if
one DCP were to fail (PRM 435)
296
If the source selection panel DSPL CONT knob were selected to either the 1 or 2 position, what would display on the PFD’s?
Either DCP 1 or DCP 2 (PRM 435)
297
What is the purpose of the air data reference panel?
It selects the altimeter settings and speeds (PRM 626)
298
The EFIS compare monitor compares which instruments?
CA’s and FO’s PFD (PRM 682)
299
If the EFIS compare monitor detects a mismatch, how will it be displayed?
A caution message will be displayed on the CA’s and FO’s PFD indicating the system that
has mismatched (PRM 682)
300
What information does the EFIS compare monitor compare and what are the tolerances?
Heading- diff of >6*; Roll- Diff of 4* before GS capture, Diff of 3* after GS capture; IAS Diff of > 10 KIAS, Altitude Diff > 60’ LOC Diff between receivers; GS Diff between receivers; RA only monitored within 1000’ AGL (PRM 682)
301
What are the components of the pitot static system?
CA’s and FO’s pitot tubes; Standby pitot tube; CA’s and FO’s static sources; Static source to ISI (PRM 385, 628 )
302
Where is the TAT probe located on the aircraft?
Below the FO’s side window (PRM 386)
303
What reference can the air data reference panel set?
Altimeter; MDA; DA; Takeoff speeds; Target speed (PRM 626)
304
What errors are displayed on the PFD with air data flags?
IAS; ALT; VDS (PRM 637)
305
What is the function of the trend vector?
It estimates where the airspeed will be in 10 sec at the current trend (PRM 637)
306
If the RA data becomes invalid, how is it indicated?
Red box displayed on the PFD (PRM 646)
307
If the AHRS is indicating ATT/HDG ALIGNING DO NOT TAXI, what action should be taken when on the ground or in flight?
Ground- do not move the aircraft; In Flight – hold the aircraft straight and level for the first 30 sec of alignment (PRM 649)
308
What does AMI stand for in relation to windshear conditions?
Alpha Margin Indicator (PRM 655)
309
What does the AMI represent when displayed on the PFD during a windshear encounter?
Maximum pitch allowed prior to reaching stick shaker (PRM 655)
310
A caution windshear alert is displayed for what:
Increasing performance (PRM 655)
311
A warning windshear alert is displayed for what?
Decreasing performance (PRM 655)
312
What are the NAV source selections available to display on the PFD?
VOR1/LOC1; VOR2/LOC2; FMS1/FMS2; OFF (PRM 535)
313
When displaying cross side information, how is it identified?
Display indications are AMBER (PRM 535)
314
If DME 1 is in HOLD, how is it displayed?
An amber H is displayed next to the frequency on the nav radio; An amber H is displayed on the PFD next to NAV identifier, station id is removed (PRM 532)
315
What is indicated if a red boxed DCP1 or DCP2 warning is displayed on the PFD’s?
The associated DCP has failed (PRM 666)
316
What is displayed if a CRT overheats?
A red DISPLAY TEMP is indicated (PRM 666)
317
If a CRT overheats, is it possible to regain the display function?
Yes, it will automatically resume operation once the display cools (PRM 666)
318
The radar will not overlay on what MFD formats?
HAS; FMS flight plan (PRM 675)
319
The terrain format will not overlay on what MFD formats?
HSI; FMS flight plan; Radar (PRM 550)
320
What functions will the Integrated Standby Indicator (ISI) provide?
Altitude; Airspeed; Attitude (PRM 685)
321
What source powers the ISI?
Battery Bus (PRM 685)
322
Where does the ISI receive its NAV data from?
NAV 1 or BTU (PRM 685)
323
What does the CAGE function button do on the ISI?
It will set the horizon to 0* when held in for 2 sec (PRM 685)
324
What does the STD button do on the ISI?
Changes barometric pressure to 29.92” (PRM 685)
325
What is the priority order of the EGPWS system?
Stalls; Windshear; Ground proximity (PRM 548)
326
How many transponders are installed in the aircraft?
Two (PRM 540)
327
From what panel are the transponders selected from?
Backup RTU (PRM 540)
328
The EGPWS uses color logic to display terrain information ahead of the aircraft. What is
meant by shading/low density and solid/high density readout?
Shading/Low density- no immediate threat; Solid/High density- immediate danger (voice warning heard, EGPWS switchlight flashes) (PRM 550)
329
What will automatically occur if conflicting terrain is detected ahead of the aircraft?
Terrain overlay automatically display on MFD range set to 10NM; Caution voice heard;
EGPWS switchlight flashes (PRM 550)
330
When receiving a caution from the EGPWS system, time available to impact?
60 sec (PRM 550)
331
When a warning is received from the EGPWS system, time available to impact?
30 sec (PRM 550)
332
TCAS indications are presented on what instruments?
PFD; MFD (PRM 563)
333
How is other traffic displayed on the TCAS?
Blue open diamond (PRM 564)
334
How is the proximity traffic displayed on the TCAS?
Blue solid diamond (PRM 564)
335
What is the definition of proximity traffic on the TCAS System?
Within 1200’ and/or 6 NM of your aircraft (PRM 564)
336
When is a TCAS TA alert generated and how is it displayed?
Target aircraft is within 40 sec CPA (closest point of approach); Displayed as solid yellow circle (PRM 565)
337
When is a TCAS RA alert generated and how is it displayed?
Target aircraft is within 25 sec CPA; Displayed as a solid red square (PRM 566)
338
If a TCAS RA is generated, how long until the pilots must respond?
5 sec (PRM 566)
339
If a TCAS corrective RA is generated, how long until the pilots must respond?
The TCAS resolution advisory programs are based on
the pilot initiating the RA maneuver within
approximately 5 seconds. If an additional corrective
resolution advisory is issued (e.g. a reversal), the
maneuver must be initiated within 2.5 seconds
340
How can the ground clutter suppression mode on the radar be activated?
By pressing the center of the GAIN control knob (PRM 578)
341
When pushing the SEC sector scan pushbutton on the radar control panel, what will the
cycle sweeps change to?
30* and 60* (PRM 580)
342
What is the purpose of the XFR pushbutton on the radar control panel?
Selects which radar control panel will operate both radars in the event one control fails (PRM 581)
343
By what means are the wing tanks refueled?
Pressure refueling; Gravity (overwing) refueling (PRM 321 & 322)
344
How can the center tank be refueled?
Only by pressure refueling (PRM 319)
345
What is the fuel capacity of the wing tanks for pressure and overwing refueling?
Pressure – 7492lbs; Overwing – 7290lbs (PRM 340)
346
What is the tank capacity for the center tank?
4610 lbs (PRM 340)
347
Where is the fuel quantity information displayed?
EICAS primary page; Fuel synoptic page (PRM 319)
348
What does the fuel computer control?
Refuel/defuel operations; Fuel feed; Fuel balancing; Fuel quantity indications (PRM 325)
349
Where are the collector tanks physically located on the aircraft?
Within the center tank (PRM 326)
350
All fuel drawn from the fuel system comes from where?
The collector tanks (PRM 326)
351
What keeps the collector tanks full?
Scavenge ejector pumps (PRM 326)
352
How is the fuel transferred from the center tank to the collector tanks?
Fuel is never transferred directly to the collector tanks from the center tank. It mus first be
transferred to the wing tanks and then back to the Collector tanks via the scavenge ejector pumps (PRM
329)
353
Fuel tank venting is provided by what?
NACA vents (PRM 324)
353
What is the purpose of the NACA vents?
Venting during refueling/defueling; Normal venting during flight; Positive head pressure of
pressure to fuel tanks during flight (PRM 324)
353
Where are the NACA vents located on the aircraft?
Underside of the wings near the trailing edge (PRM 324)
354
If fuel inadvertently enters the NACA vents, where does it go?
It’s returned to the center tank (PRM 324)
355
Is it normal for the center tank to show an increase in quantity during a climb?
Yes, the fuel has entered the NACA vents and returned to the center tank (PRM 324)
356
What do the NACA vents provide in-flight?
A positive head of pressure to the fuel tank system (ram air) (PRM 324)
356
What prevents fuel from moving within the main tanks during low wing maneuvers?
One way flow valves (PRM 324)
356
How many fuel computers are there on the aircraft and how many channels does it have?
One fuel computer/Two channels (Channel A & B) (PRM 325)
357
If one channel of the fuel computer fails, what will happen?
The other channel automatically takes control (PRM 325)
357
When does the fuel computer automatically (BITE) test itself?
Continuously (PRM 325)
358
What is the purpose of the transfer ejectors?
Move fuel from the center tank to wing tanks (PRM 329)
358
What is the purpose of the scavenge ejectors?
Move fuel from the wing tanks to the collector tanks (PRM 326)
358
How many different types of ejectors are within the fuel system?
Main ejectors; Scavenge ejectors; Transfer ejectors (PRM 326 &329)
359
What powers the ejector pumps?
Engines Operating - motive flow fuel from the engine drives the HP pumps; Engines Shutdown –
boost pumps provide motive flow fuel to power The main ejectors for engine start. (PRM 326)
359
What is the purpose of the main ejectors?
To provide a positive head of pressure to the engine driven HP fuel pumps (PRM 326)
360
If only battery power is available, will the fuel boost pumps operate?
Only the left boost pump because it’s powered by battery bus
R pump is powered by DC Bus 2 (PRM 356) QRH4-11
360
What occurs when both fuel boost pumps are selected to ON?
It will arm the fuel pumps to operate when a decrease in pressure is detected within the fuel
manifold (PRM 327)
360
What is the primary purpose for the fuel boost pumps?
Provide a backup source of fuel pressure in the event of a main ejector failure (PRM 327)
361
What powers the fuel boost pumps?
DC power (PRM 327)
362
What is the secondary purpose of the fuel boost pumps?
Provide motive flow fuel to power the ejector pumps with the engines shutdown (PRM 327)
363
Are the fuel SOV’s normally opened or closed?
Open (PRM 349)
363
During engine start will both fuel pumps be working?
Both fuel pumps will function if only one engine is running. Following the second engine start, the
boost pumps are then in the ARM position (PRM 327)
364
How may the fuel SOV’s be closed to engines and APU?
Pressing either ENG FIRE switchlight; Pressing the APU FIRE switchlight (PRM 349)
364
How is the fuel heated within the fuel system?
Fuel/oil heat exchanger (PRM 329)
364
What will happen if the fuel filter becomes clogged?
L/R FUEL FILTER caution light illuminates and the bypass valve opens to allow fuel to bypass the
fuel filter (PRM 329)
364
Is the APU fuel pump DC or AC powered?
DC powered pump in left collector (PRM 329)
364
What will occur if the APU fuel pump fails?
Fuel is drawn from the left collector tank, but automatically via the APU suction (PRM 329)
365
By what means is fuel crossflow provided for?
Power crossflow; Gravity crossflow (PRM 331-333)
365
When does automatic fuel transfer occur from the center tank to the wings?
When the wing tank fuel quantity reaches 93% the fuel computer directs the transfer pumps to
transfer fuel from the center tank to the wing tanks. Transfer then stops when the wing tank level
reaches 97% (PRM 338)
365
Power crossflow can be accomplished by what two means?
Automatic; Manual (PRM 331 &332)
366
How is automatic powered crossflow between the main tanks achieved?
Fuel computer will automatically crossflow fuel when a 200lb fuel imbalance occurs. Crossflow will
stop when the fuel is balanced within 50lbs (PRM 331)
367
How is the manual powered crossflow between main tanks achieved?
Press the MAN XFLOW switchlight; Activate the crossflow pump on the low tank side (PRM 333)
367
At what point will the FUEL IMBALANCE caution light illuminate?
800 lb imbalance (PRM 333)
368
At what times would you use the gravity crossflow method to balance the wing tanks?
Only if the powered crossflow system is not operational (PRM 335)
368
How is gravity crossflow of the main fuel tanks achieved?
Select the GRAVITY XFLOW switchlight OPEN; When fuel is balanced you must manually close the
crossflow valve (PRM 335)
368
What does the refuel/defuel panel allow for?
System testing of the fuel system computer; Pressure fueling in both automatic and manual modes
(PRM 340)
369
Where is the refuel/defuel panel physically located on the aircraft?
Right wing root/leading edge (PRM 341)
370
What methods are provided for fuel quantity gauging?
A digital display; Magnetic level indicators (MLI) (PRM 344-346)
370
When will the digital fuel quantity readout turn amber?
Total fuel quantity is less than 900 lbs; Fuel imbalance exceeds 800 lbs (PRM 351)
371
At what time will the center tank fuel quantity indication be shown as green?
When the center tanks is at least 10lbs or more (PRM 351)
371
How many MLI’s are on the aircraft and where are their locations?
Five total – (2) in each wing tank and (1) in the center tank (PRM 346)
372
What will be displayed on the fuel synoptic page if the fuel quantity readings are invalid?
Quantity displayed turns to the 1/2 magenta color (PRM 351)
373
By what means can the fuel used readout be reset?
Automatically following aircraft power-up; Manually entering a new fuel quantity on PERF INIT
page; Manually by selecting the fuel synoptic pageMENU key, the Fuel Used Reset (PRM 351)
374
At what time will the center tank fuel quantity indication be shown as white?
When the center tank quantity is 0lbs (PRM 351)
374
When may the fuel quantity readout be unreliable?
During un-coordinated flight; Wings must be level for at least 30 sec for an accurate reading (PRM
351)
375
Where is the bulk fuel temperature measured from?
The right wing tank (PRM 350)
376
At what temperature will the fuel feed temperature indicate green?
5*C or above (PRM 350)
376
When will the bulk fuel temperature readout be amber?
When the bulk fuel temperature is below – 40*C (PRM 350)
376
At what temperature will the fuel feed temperature indicate amber?
Fuel temperature is below 5*C (PRM 350)
376
When will the bulk fuel temperature be green?
Bulk fuel temperature is above -40*C (PRM 350)
377
What systems are protected by the ice and rain protection systems?
Cowl anti-ice; Wing anit-ice; Forward windshields; Side windows; Air data probes and sensors; Ice
detection; Windshield wipers (PRM 375)
378
If you use the fuel tank quantity using the MLI’s, what must be referenced?
The inclinometer must be referenced behind the FO seat and compared with the charts
(PRM 346)
379
What provides anti-icing for the tail?
There is not anti-ice on the tail (PRM 375)
379
The anti-ice synoptic page only shows those areas which are de-iced by what means?
Pneumatically (PRM 384)
380
The ice protection system protects which areas with bleed air?
Cowl anti-ice; Wing anti-ice (PRM 377 383)
381
How many ice detection systems are on the aircraft?
Two independent systems (PRM 375)
One on each side of fuselage
381
Which areas are electrically protected for the anti-ice system?
Forward windshield; Side windows; Air data probes; Ice detection probes (PRM 385, 387, 389)
382
What causes the ice annunciator to display?
The ice detection probe decreases in vibration to the pre-set trip point (PRM 376)
383
Where are the ice detect probes physically located on the aircraft?
One on each side of the fuselage below the pilot’s side windows (PRM 376)
383
What must occur for an ICE caution to occur?
At least ONE ice detection system must have sensed ice (PRM 376)
384
Each ice detector consists of?
A probe and microprocessor (PRM 376)
385
What happens if a single anti-ice system were to fail?
You would receive a ICE DET 1(2) status message (PRM 398)
385
When ice is detected, how long are the ice detection probes heated?
They are automatically electrically heated for as long as ice is detected and will turn off after ice is
no longer detected
385
When conducting the ice detection test, what indications are necessary?
Switchlight illuminates; ICE is annunciated; Hot wing: ICE status message; Cold wing: ICE caution
message; ADS HEAT TEST OK advisory (PRM 392)
386
When ice is detected, the ICE caution message will be displayed?
EICAS primary page; Anti-ice synoptic page (PRM 397)
386
What would occur if both anti-ice detectors were to fail?
An ICE DET FAIL caution message would be received (PRM 397)
387
What is the function of the T2 probe within the engine nacelle?
It measures inlet air temperature (PRM 383)
387
By what means may the T2 inlet temperature probe be de-iced?
Automatically by the FADEC; Manually by selecting engine cowl anti-ice switches ON (PRM 383 )
387
What will be de-iced when selecting the cowl anti-ice switches ON?
Engine cowls; T2 sensor (PRM 383)
387
Are the cowl anti-ice valves normally failed open or closed?
The normally fail OPEN (PRM 383)
388
What directs the hot bleed air onto the engine cowls when selected to ON?
Piccolo tubes (PRM 384)
388
What is required to close the cowl anti-ice valves?
DC power; Bleed air (PRM 383)
389
Where do the left and right wing normally receive their bleed are for de-icing?
Respective side- engine (PRM 378)
389
What portion of the wings are de-iced when the wing anti-ice is selected ON?
Wing leading edges and slats (PRM 378)
390
Where is the exhaust bleed air expelled from when the engine anti-ice is ON?
Louvers on the underside of the engine (PRM 384)
391
What controls the amount of bleed air to the wing for de-icing?
The respective anti-ice leak detection controller (AILC) modulates the wing anti-ice valve (PRM
378)
391
Is it possible to de-ice the left wing if the left engine fails?
Yes, by selecting the WING A/I CROSS BLEED valve to the FROM RIGHT wing position (PRM 381)
391
How does the AILC regulate wing temperature?
It modulates the wing anti-ice valve to maintain the wing temperature (PRM 378)
391
How does the wing crossbleed valve normally fail?
It will fail in the last position selected before the power is removed (PRM 381)
392
What actually occurs if the wing crossbleed valve is selected to the FROM LEFT position?
Right wing anti-ice valve closes; Wing crossbleed valve opens; WING ISOL OPEN status message
appears (PRM 381)
393
What is the purpose of the wing temperature sensors on the IB portion of the wing?
They monitor the wing temperature for an overheat condition (PRM 378)
393
Each AILC has how many channels?
Two (PRM 377)
393
What is the purpose of the wing temperature sensors on the OB portion of the wing?
They measure for wing anti-ice duct underheat condition (PRM 378)
394
How many sensors are there in each wing used to control and monitor wing temperature when
wing anti-ice is in use?
(4) total, (2) are controlled by each channel (PRM 378)
394
At what times does the wing anti-ice system heat the wings to the high temperature schedule?
When the SLATS are extended (PRM 377 378)
394
If an underheat condition is detected, what will be displayed?
L/R WING A/I caution message on EICAS; Wing anti-ice duct turns amber (PRM 378)
395
If an overheat condition is detected, what will happen?
Triple chime; WING OVHT warning on EICAS; “Wing overheat” aural message; Wing anti-ice duct-
red; Respective A/I valve will close (PRM 381)
396
What is the purpose of the white arc on the N2 indicator?
Keeping N2 RPM above the white arc ensures proper bleed air to de-ice the wings (PRM 381)
396
At what times does the wing anti-ice system heat the wings to the low temperature schedule?
When the SLATS are retracted (PRM 377 378)
396
Are the wing anti-ice valves failed to open or closed?
Closed
396
When will the wing anti-ice valves automatically close?
Overheat is detected in the wing; Bleed air supply is removed; Elec power removed (PRM 378)
396
What will the N2 guage indicate when the wing anti-ice is selected ON?
A white arc ranging from 0% to 77% (PRM 381)
397
Where is exhaust bleed air from the wing anti-ice system expelled?
Underneath the wing leading edge (PRM 379)
397
When does the wing anti-ice system automatically test itself?
During initial aircraft power-up (PRM 377)
398
What occurs when the left windshield is selected to the HIGH position?
The windshield goes through a warm-up cycle and is heated to HIGH. Side window remains in LOW
(PRM 389)
398
The LH WSHLD heat switch controls which windows?
Left forward and Left side window (PRM 389)
398
Is each window controlled by a separate controller?
Yes (PRM 389)
399
What occurs when the left windshield is selected to the LOW position?
The windshield goes through a warm-up cycle and is heated to LOW. Side windows are heated to
LOW (PRM 389)
400
How many temperature controllers are there for the windshields?
(4) – one for each windshield and side window (PRM 389)
401
What is meant if the L/R WSHLD HEAT caution message ids displayed on the EICAS?
Windshield heat is selected OFF; Windshield has OVERHEATED (PRM 397)
401
What are the 3 windshield heat switch positions?
OFF/RESET; LOW; HIGH (PRM 389)
401
What occurs when the windshield heat switches are in the OFF/RESET position?
Power is removed from the respective windows; Temperature controller is reset (PRM 390)
402
What will automatically occur if the windshield overheats?
A L/R WSHLD HEAT caution message on EICAS; Power is removed from the window (PRM 390)
402
The left and right probe heat switch controls which probes?
It’s respective side; Captain’s or First Officer’s (PRM 388)
402
How is the probe heat controlled?
By switches on the anti-ice panel (PRM 385)
403
In ground mode of the probe heat, are the static ports and AOA vane heated with the probe heat
OFF?
NO (PRM 388)
403
Do the probe heat switches have any control when the aircraft is airborne?
No. All probes go to HIGH HEAT passing 60 KIAS regardless of switch position (PRM 388)
403
With the probe heat switches selected to OFF, will the probes heat on the ground?
The pitot heat is in low heat anytime there is an operating generator online (PRM 385)
404
What are the three sources for cooling air available to the EFIS and EICAS displays?
(2) AC powered cooling fans; Recirculation fan; Cockpit air conditioning duct (PRM 67)
404
How many CPC’s are there?
2 PRM 71
404
Probe heat switches selected ON, on the ground, will heat?
Full power to static ports and AOA vane; Pitot probes half power with an operating generator
online (PRM 388 )
405
When do the Cabin Pressure Controllers (CPC’s) alternate active controllers?
Three minutes after landing (PRM 71)
406
What is the purpose of the ground valve?
Dumps avionics cooling air overboard while on ground for more efficient cooling (requires the MCD
or galley service door to be opened); Ensures aircraft is depressurized while on the ground (PRM 71)
406
When will the ground valve open?
On Ground- MCD or galley door open; WOW; EMER DEPRESS switchlight is pressed (PRM 71)
407
At what altitude will the CABIN ALTITUDE caution and warning message be displayed?
8500’ cabin altitude; 10000’ cabin altitude (PRM 73)
407
What are the functions of the Cabin Pressure Acquisition Module (CPAM)?
Drop pax 02 masks above 14000’ cabin altitude; Control ground valve opening and closing; Limit
cabin pressure to 14,500. (PRM 72)
407
When will a DIFF PRESS warning occur?
Differential pressure exceeds 8.6 PSI (PRM 71)
407
Is the outflow valve controlled electrically or pneumatically?
Electrically (PRM 74)
408
What does operating the cabin pressure system in the manual mode allow?
Maintain a specific cabin altitude; Control the rate of climb/descent (PRM 71)
409
What is the normal cabin pressure differential?
8.5 PSI (PRM 76)
409
What are each of the three motors on the outflow valve controlled by?
Each CPC operates one; The manual cabin pressure control controls the third; The third motor may
be operated by pressing the MANUAL DEPRESS switchlight (PRM 74)
410
How many motors are there to drive the outflow valve?
Three (PRM 74)
411
When does cabin altitude under pressure relief occur?
-0.5 PSI (PRM 76)
411
When does cabin overpressure relief occur?
Above 8.6 PSI +-1 (PRM 76)
411
The outflow valve is spring loaded closed or open? What is required to open it?
Open; Pneumatic pressure (PRM 74)
411
What is indicated if the cabin differential pressure exceeds the overpressure limits?
DIFF PRESS warning displayed on EICAS; Triple chime aural warning; Differential pressure readout
on EICAS – red; PSI readout on ECS synoptic page – red (PRM )
412
When is the descent mode of the pressurization system automatically armed?
Upon reaching cruise altitude (PRM 78)
413
When the manual mode is selected on the cabin pressure control system, which motor is being
manipulated?
The third motor on the outflow valve (PRM 79)
413
DC power is provided by what sources?
Main battery; APU battery; TRU’s (PRM 222 )
414
Where are the ACSC’s physically located on the aircraft?
Aft equipment bay (PRM 56)
414
What rate will the cabin pressure controller descend the cabin during approach and landing?
300 FPM (PRM 78)
415
The IDGs provide 40 KVA power to what altitude?
41,000 feet (PRM 204)
415
IDGs are driven by what?
The accessory gearbox (PRM 204)
415
The engine driven generators are known as what?
Integrated Drive Generators (IDG) (PRM 204)
416
Once the IDG has been disconnected, can it be reconnected in the air?
No, only by maintenance personnel on the ground (PRM 205)
416
The engine driven generators provide what VAC, phase power and HZ?
115 VAC; phase power; 400 Hz (PRM 204 )
416
How is CSD oil cooled?
N1 Fan Air (PRM 204)
416
How may the IDGs be disconnected from the accessory gearbox?
By selecting the IDG DISC switchlight (PRM 205)
417
What are the two sub components of the IDGs?
Act as a constant speed drive (CSD); 40 KVA generator (PRM 204)
418
What faults will cause the IDG switchlight to illuminate?
High oi temperature; Low oil pressure (PRM 205)
418
Generator fault protection is provided for what?
Under/Over voltage; Under/Over frequency, Generator or bus overcurrent, generator phase
sequence (PRM 205)
419
The IDG will automatically disconnect with what two conditions?
Overtorque; Overtemperature (PRM 205)
419
The Generator Control Units (GCU) provide for what?
Bus priority; Fault protection (PRM 205)
419
What happens when the GCU detects a fault?
The respective generator is disconnected from the respective AC bus (PRM 205)
419
How can you verify disconnect once the IDG DISC switchlight has been pressed?
Look on the electrical synoptic page. The IDG is surrounded by a white box and the DISC is
displayed beneath it (PRM 205)
420
Where is the external service panel located on the aircraft?
Right, forward nose section (PRM 202)
420
What indication is received in the cockpit if external power is plugged into the aircraft and the
EPM senses that the power is within parameters?
Green AVAIL light illuminates (PRM 209)
420
If the green AVAIL light does not illuminate with external power applied, what is happening?
The power parameters have not been met (PRM 209)
420
With the external power on the aircraft, what will happen when an engine driven generator comes
online?
The white IN USE switchlight will change and indicate green AVAIL. The engine driven generator is
picking up the entire load (PRM 209)
420
Selecting the green AVAIL switchlight ON on the electrical panel will enable the eternal power to
power what buses?
All unpowered buses (PRM 209)
421
Once the green AVAIL switchlight is pressed, what will be indicated on the electrical power panel
switchlight?
IN USE (PRM 209)
422
What are the 4 main AC buses?
AC Bus 1; AC Bus 2; Essential AC Bus; AC Service bus (PRM 212)
422
What power source normally powers AC Bus 1?
Generator 1 (PRM 212)
423
What power source normally powers the AC Essential Bus?
AC Bus 1 (PRM 212)
423
What power source normally powers the AC Service Bus?
AC Bus 2 (PRM 215)
424
The AC Service Bus is normally powered by what?
AC Bus 2 (PRM 212, 213 )
424
What is the purpose of the AC switchlight on the external service panel?
It will power the AC Service Bus. This supplies power to the electrical outlets in the cabin and lav
for aircraft cleaning (PRM 233)
425
What power source normally powers AC Bus 2?
Generator 2 (PRM 212)
425
Left off on electric Q. 30
425
425
425
425
425
425
How long does it take the ground valve to open?
60 sec. Opens in 2 sec if EMER DEPRESS switchlight is pressed (PRM 76)
426
426
426
426
426
427
428
429
429
429
429
430
430
What occurs with the cabin pressurization during pre-pressurization mode?
The cabin is pressurized to 150’ below field elevation (PRM 77)
430
430
431
431
431
432
432
433
What occurs with the cabin pressurization system during the flight abort mode?
Departure field is remembered for 10 min after takeoff. If a return to field is accomplished, the
cabin altitude already set (PRM 77)
433
433
434
434
CRJ Systems
flashcards
Decks in class (28)
# Cards
-
Interior lights52
-
KV Study guide questions6
-
General40
-
EFIS56
-
Exterrior Lights27
-
Oxygen37
-
Emergency Equipment51
-
EICAS73
-
APU67
-
Fire protection and Overheat52
-
Electrical94
-
KV STUDY GUIDE553
-
Fuel61
-
Power Plants113
-
Pneumatics62
-
Nose gear steering30
-
Air conditioning75
-
Pressurization35
-
Hydraulics45
-
Landing gear42
-
Anti ice70
-
Flight controls and Stall protection80
-
AFCS80
-
FMS52
-
Brakes41
-
Communications60
-
Navigation72
-
Overhead panel71
