1
Q
Nature: The role of Heredity
A
Heredity (nature) provides the genetic blueprint for traits such as intelligence, personality, and physical characteristics. In other words, Genes are like instructions written in DNA. Depending on how those instructions combine, traits show up differently.
Some traits are polygenic, while others are due to a single pair of genes.
Polygenic
* Meaning: Traits influenced by many genes working together, not just one.
* Example: Height, intelligence, and skin color.
* Flashcard Tip: “Poly = many → many genes shape complex traits.”
Dominant Gene
* Meaning: A gene that shows its effect even if only one copy is present.
* Example: Brown eyes—if you inherit one brown-eye gene, you’ll likely have brown eyes.
* Flashcard Tip: “Dominant = takes charge.”
Recessive Gene
* Meaning: A gene that only shows its effect if you inherit two copies (one from each parent).
* Example: Blue eyes—you need two blue-eye genes to have blue eyes.
* Flashcard Tip: “Recessive = needs backup.”
Homozygous
* Meaning: Having two of the same gene version (alleles).
* Example: Two blue-eye genes = homozygous for blue eyes.
* Flashcard Tip: “Homo = same.”
Heterozygous
* Meaning: Having two different gene versions (alleles).
* Example: One brown-eye gene + one blue-eye gene = heterozygous. Brown shows because it’s dominant.
* Flashcard Tip: “Hetero = different.”
2
Q
Heritability Estimate
A
a concept in behavioral genetics that quantifies how much of the variation in a trait within a population can be attributed to genetic differences (the extent to which phenotypes vary within groups due to differences in genotype), as opposed to environmental factors.
📊 Key Points
* Population-based, not individual-based:
* A heritability estimate of 0.60 for intelligence means that 60% of the variation in IQ scores in that population is linked to genetic differences.
* It does not mean that 60% of an individual’s intelligence is genetic.
* Context-dependent:
* Heritability estimates change depending on the population studied and the environment.
* Example: Height has a high heritability (~80%), but poor nutrition can lower average height outcomes.rved traits.
3
Q
Bronfenbrenner’s Ecological Model
Mneumonic: “My Messy Ex Makes Chaos”
A
Conceptualizes human development as shaped by nested environmental systems that interact over time.
- Microsystem-Immediate, direct environments (e.g., Family, peers, teachers, neighbors)
- Mesosystem-Connections between microsystems (e.g. Parent-teacher relationships, peer-family interactions)
- Exosystem-Indirect environments that affect the individual (e.g. Parent’s workplace, local government, media, school board)
- Macrosystem-Broader cultural and societal context (e.g. Laws, cultural values, SES norms, political ideologies)
- Chronosystem-Dimension of time (e.g. Life transitions, historical events, technological shifts)
These systems illustrate how various environmental contexts influence human development.
4
Q
What are Rutter’s Indicators of Risk?
A
- Severe marital discord
- Low SES
- Large family size
- Parental criminality
- Maternal mental illness
- Placement outside the home
These factors increase vulnerability to psychopathology.
5
Q
Adverse Childhood Experiences (ACEs)
A
Adverse Childhood Experiences (ACEs) are potentially traumatic events that occur before age 18—such as abuse, neglect, or household dysfunction—that can have long-lasting effects on physical health, mental health, and life opportunities.
Abuse
* Physical (being hit or harmed by an adult)
* Emotional (being insulted, humiliated, or threatened)
* Sexual (inappropriate sexual contact or exploitation)
Neglect
* Physical (not having food, clothing, or safe shelter)
* Emotional (lack of protection, support, or consistent care)
Household Challenges
* Parental separation or divorce
* Domestic violence (intimate partner violence in the home)
* Substance misuse in the household
* Mental illness in the household (e.g., depression, suicide attempts)
* Incarcerated household member
6
Q
Werner’s Kauai Longitudinal Study
A
High-risk infants can show resilience if they experience fewer stressors and have supportive relationships.
Landmark research project on resilience, following all 698 children born in 1955 on the Hawaiian island of Kauai from birth into adulthood. It revealed that despite exposure to poverty, perinatal complications, and family adversity, about one-third of high-risk children grew into competent, caring, and successful adults.
📊 Key Findings
* Risk factors: About 30% of the cohort grew up in poverty, with additional stressors like parental psychopathology, divorce, or chronic family conflict.
* Negative outcomes: Two-thirds of children exposed to four or more risk factors by age two developed learning or behavioral problems by age 10, or delinquency/mental health issues by age 18.
* Resilience: Remarkably, one-third of high-risk children did not develop significant problems. They became competent, confident, and caring adults, succeeding in school, maintaining healthy relationships, and setting realistic life goals.
7
Q
Reaction Range
A
Genetic makeup sets boundaries for potential development, but environment determines where within that range an individual actually falls.
The reaction range refers to the range of possible phenotypic outcomes for a given genotype, depending on environmental influences.
In other words, genes provide limits, but environment shapes expression.
🧬 Example
* Intelligence (IQ):
* A child may have a genetic potential IQ range of 90–120.
* If raised in a stimulating, supportive environment, they may reach the higher end (closer to 120).
* If raised in a deprived environment, they may fall toward the lower end (closer to 90).
* Height:
* Genes may set a potential height range (e.g., 5’6”–6’0”).
* Adequate nutrition and health care allow the child to reach the upper limit, while malnutrition may keep them at the lower limit.
8
Q
What is Canalization?
A
A narrow developmental path that traits take, showing resistance to environmental forces.
Highly canalized traits are less influenced by the environment.
9
Q
Three (3) types of genotype-environment correlation.
A
Passive Genotype–Environment Correlation
Occurs when children inherit both their genes and the environment shaped by their parents.
- Example: Parents who are musically talented may pass on genes for musical ability and provide a home filled with instruments and music lessons.
- Impact: The child’s environment supports the expression of their genetic potential without the child actively choosing it.
Evocative Genotype–Environment Correlation
Happens when an individual’s genetic traits elicit specific responses from others in their environment.
- Example: A naturally cheerful, outgoing child may attract more positive social attention, while a shy child may receive fewer invitations to play.
- Impact: The environment reacts to the child’s genetic tendencies, reinforcing certain developmental pathways.
Active Genotype–Environment Correlation
Individuals actively seek out or create environments that align with their genetic predispositions.
- Example: A child with athletic ability may choose to join sports teams, while a book-loving child may spend more time in libraries.
- Impact: Also called “niche-picking”, this reflects how people shape their own environments to match their genetic inclinations.
These correlations describe how genetics and environment interact to shape individual attributes.
10
Q
What is Epigenesis?
A
It emphasizes bidirectional influences between genes and environment, showing that genes do not act in isolation.
Epigenesis suggests that experiences can shape gene expression.
11
Q
What is Ethology?
A
The study of animal and human behavior in natural environments, focusing on biological instincts.
Ethology emphasizes the role of evolution in shaping behavior.
12
Q
What is a Critical Period?
A
A narrow window during which specific experiences are essential for normal development.
Missing experiences during a critical period can lead to permanent impairment.
13
Q
What is a Sensitive Period?
A
A broader window when the brain is receptive to certain experiences, allowing for development later with more effort.
Sensitive periods are more flexible than critical periods.
14
Q
What are the stages of Prenatal Development?
A
- Germinal Stage (Weeks 0-2)
- Embryonic Stage (Weeks 3-8)
- Fetal Stage (Week 9-Birth)
Each stage has distinct developmental milestones and vulnerabilities.
15
Q
What causes birth defects?
A
Chromosomal disorders, exposure to teratogens, and poor maternal health.
Birth defects can result from genetic and environmental factors.
16
Q
What is an example of a Dominant Gene Disorder?
A
Huntington’s Disease.
This disorder results from the inheritance of a single dominant gene.
17
Q
What is an example of a Recessive Gene Disorder?
A
Cystic Fibrosis.
This condition requires two copies of a recessive gene to manifest.
18
Q
What are common teratogens?
A
- Alcohol
- Drugs
- Toxins
Teratogens can interfere with normal prenatal development, leading to various abnormalities.
19
Q
What is Fetal Alcohol Syndrome (FAS)?
A
The most severe form of Fetal Alcohol Spectrum Disorder (FASD) characterized by a triad of physical, cognitive, and behavioral abnormalities.
FAS results from significant prenatal alcohol exposure.
20
Q
What are the diagnostic features of Fetal Alcohol Syndrome (FAS)?
A
- Facial anomalies
- Growth deficits
- CNS abnormalities
These features are used to diagnose FAS in children.
21
Q
What is Fetal Alcohol Syndrome (FAS)?
A
A condition diagnosed with distinct facial features after confirmed maternal alcohol use during pregnancy.
22
Q
What are the common deficits associated with Alcohol-Related Neurodevelopmental Disorder (ARND)?
A
- Executive dysfunction
- Attention problems
- Learning disabilities (especially in math)
23
Q
Give an example of a child diagnosed with ARND.
A
A 9-year-old with confirmed prenatal alcohol exposure shows poor working memory and social immaturity but lacks facial anomalies.
24
Q
What does Alcohol-Related Birth Defects (ARBD) refer to?
A
Physical malformations without CNS involvement.
25
List some potential physical malformations associated with ARBD.
* Heart defects
* Kidney abnormalities
* Skeletal anomalies
26
Provide an example of a condition suggestive of ARBD.
A newborn with congenital heart disease and renal malformations found to have prenatal alcohol exposure but no cognitive deficits.
27
What is Neurobehavioral Disorder Associated with Prenatal Alcohol Exposure (ND-PAE)?
A diagnosis capturing individuals exposed in utero, focusing on mental health effects rather than physical effects.
28
What are the requirements for a diagnosis of ND-PAE?
* Confirmed prenatal alcohol exposure
* Neurocognitive impairment
* Behavioral self-regulation deficits
* Adaptive functioning deficits
29
Give an example of a child diagnosed with ND-PAE.
A 7-year-old with confirmed exposure shows poor frustration tolerance, difficulty following instructions, and impaired social judgment.
30
What timing is critical regarding teratogenic effects of alcohol?
Alcohol is teratogenic at any stage, especially during the embryonic period (weeks 3–8).
31
True or False: Binge drinking increases the risk of fetal alcohol exposure damage.
True.
32
What systemic factors should be considered regarding maternal health and access to care?
Cultural humility.
33
What are the birth effects associated with cocaine use during pregnancy?
* Stillbirth
* Increased risk of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS)
* Premature birth
* Low birth weight
* Microcephaly
* Increased risk of attention deficits, irritability, and poor self-regulation
34
Provide an example of symptoms in a newborn exposed to maternal cocaine use.
Tremors, high-pitched crying, and difficulty feeding.
35
What effects does nicotine have on fetal development?
Affects fetal oxygenation and disrupts acetylcholine and catecholamine systems.
36
List some birth effects associated with nicotine use during pregnancy.
* Low birth weight
* Respiratory problems
* Later risk of externalizing behaviors and learning difficulties
37
What does lead exposure during pregnancy interfere with?
Calcium-dependent processes in the brain.
38
What are the birth effects linked to lead exposure?
* Neurodevelopmental delays
* Lower IQ
* Attention deficits
* Behavioral problems
39
Provide an example of symptoms in a toddler exposed to lead-based paint.
Delayed speech and poor frustration tolerance.
40
What are some maternal conditions that may impact fetal development?
* Rubella Virus
* Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV)
* Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
* Syphilis
* HIV/AIDS
41
What are the effects of rubella virus on fetal development?
* Heart defects
* Eye cataracts
* Deafness
* GI anomalies
* Mental Retardation (MR)
42
What is the risk associated with Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) during pregnancy?
Increased risk of miscarriage and high risk of death, brain damage, and blindness if contracted during delivery.
43
What effects can Cytomegalovirus (CMV) have on an embryo?
Retarded growth, blindness, deafness, MR, microencephaly, and cerebral palsy.
44
What complications can syphilis cause during pregnancy?
* Deafness
* Facial deformities
* Malformations of teeth and bones
* Excess fluid in the brain
* Mental Retardation (MR)
45
What are the early symptoms of HIV/AIDS in infants?
* Increased susceptibility to infections
* Failure to thrive
* Swollen lymph nodes
* Development delays
46
What effects can prenatal malnutrition have during the first trimester?
Spontaneous abortion or congenital malformations.
47
What are the consequences of severe malnutrition during the third trimester?
* Intellectual Developmental Disorder (IDD)
* Low birth weight
* Low brain weight
48
What are some effects of chronic emotional stress on pregnancy?
* Spontaneous abortion
* Premature delivery
* Low birth weight
* Higher levels of irritability and hyperactivity
49
What defines a premature infant?
Born before 37 weeks.
50
What factors increase the risk of premature birth?
* Lack of prenatal care
* Malnutrition
* Maternal age (younger than 15)
* Drug use
* Low socioeconomic status
* Multiple gestations
51
What percentage of infants in the U.S. are born preterm or low birthweight?
1 in every 10 infants.
52
What does Small-For-Gestational-Age (SGA) refer to?
Infants below the 10th percentile.
53
What can fetal distress during birth lead to?
Delayed cognitive and motor development, IDD, and cerebral palsy in severe cases.
54
What is the sequence of brain development?
neurogenesis → migration → differentiation → synaptogenesis → pruning
55
What percentage of its adult weight is the brain at birth?
25%
56
What percentage of its adult weight is the brain by age 2?
80%
57
What is synaptogenesis?
The increase in interconnections between neurons
58
What is synaptic blooming?
Rapid proliferation of synapses
59
What is synaptic pruning?
Elimination of unused connections to enhance efficiency
60
What can happen if a toddler is deprived of visual input?
Pruning may eliminate critical pathways
61
What role do glial cells play in brain development?
Responsible for the myelination of nerve fibers
62
When does myelination begin to form?
In the first month in the primary cortex
63
At what age is most myelination complete?
By the end of year 2
64
What is neurogenesis?
The formation of new neurons from neural stem cells
65
When does neurogenesis begin?
In the prenatal period, especially during the first trimester
66
What happens to the brain by age 30?
The brain starts to gradually shrink due to atrophy of neurons
67
Where does neurogenesis occur?
In the neural tube, which later forms the brain and spinal cord
68
What is a significant consequence of disrupted neurogenesis during gestation?
Can lead to microcephaly or intellectual disability
69
What is the role of the cerebral cortex?
Responsible for higher-order functions like reasoning and language
70
When does cortical development begin?
Prenatally and continues into adolescence
71
Which area of the brain matures last?
Prefrontal cortex
72
What are the four lobes of the cerebral cortex?
* Frontal * Temporal * Occipital * Parietal
73
What pattern characterizes cortical development?
Cephalocaudal and proximodistal patterns
74
What is a key aspect of adolescent behavior related to brain development?
Asynchronous maturation of limbic and prefrontal regions
75
What are the types of early reflexes in newborns?
* Rooting * Moro (Startle) * Palmar (Grasp) * Babinski * Stepping
76
When do newborn reflexes typically disappear?
During the first 6 months of life
77
What is habituation?
A decrease in behavioral response after repeated exposure to a stimulus
78
What is dishabituation?
A renewed response to a previously habituated stimulus
79
What is the significance of habituation in infant research?
It assesses sensory processing, attention, and memory
80
At what age can infants discriminate their mother's face?
1 month
81
What do newborns prefer to look at?
High contrast patterns
82
What preference do newborns show in taste?
Preference for sweetness
83
What happens to infants who undergo painful medical procedures?
They exhibit heightened responsivity to pain later
84
What can a child do by 1-3 months of age?
Able to raise chin from ground and turn head from side-to-side. By 3 months, plays with hands and fingers and brings objects in hand to mouth.
85
At what age does a child typically roll from abdomen to back?
By 4 months.
86
What milestones are observed at 5 months of age?
Sits on lap, reaches and grasps.
87
What can a 6-month-old child typically do?
Sits alone and stands with help.
88
When do the first teeth usually appear?
Between 5 and 9 months.
89
What coordination skills develop by 7-9 months?
Good coordination; sits alone without support and begins crawling/creeping.
90
What is the pincer grasp and when does it develop?
Use of thumb and index finger to grasp, develops around 9-10 months.
91
What milestones are reached by 10-12 months?
Stands alone and walks with help at 10-11 months; takes first steps alone at 12 months.
92
What walking characteristics are present by 13-15 months?
Walks alone with a wide-based gait by 13-14 months; creeps up stairs and scribbles spontaneously by 15 months.
93
What gross motor skills are developed by 16-24 months?
Runs clumsily, walks up stairs with handheld by 18 months; goes up and down stairs alone, kicks ball, turns pages of book by 24 months.
94
What is the typical toileting milestone by 24 months?
50% toileting during the day.
95
What can a child typically do by 30 months?
Jumps with both feet and has good hand-finger coordination.
96
What key skills are developed by 36 months?
Rides tricycle, dresses and undresses with simple clothing, and usually completes potty training.
97
What hand preference is usually established by 48 months?
Stable preference for the right or left hand.
98
What is the impact of early training on long-term outcomes for basic skills?
Early training does not have an impact on long-term outcomes for basic skills but may affect more complex motor skills.
99
In middle childhood, which gender becomes superior in flexibility, agility, and balance?
Girls
100
In middle childhood, which gender becomes superior in strength and gross motor skills?
Boys
101
What is the correlation between adipose tissue and motor performance in boys and girls?
There is a correlation between the proportion of adipose tissue and motor performance.
102
At what age does the adolescent growth spurt begin for girls?
Age 11-12
103
At what age does the adolescent growth spurt begin for boys?
Age 13-14
104
By what age do girls typically reach close to full stature?
By age 15
105
By what age do boys typically reach close to full stature?
By age 17
106
What are some negative consequences associated with early maturation in girls?
* Poor self-concept
* Dissatisfaction with physical development
* Low academic achievement
* Drug/alcohol abuse
* Precocious sexual behavior
* Increased risk of depression and eating disorders
107
What are some outcomes for late maturing boys?
* Viewed as immature
* Exhibit more attention-seeking behavior
* Less confident
108
What common vision change occurs around age 40?
Presbyopia (inability to focus on close objects)
109
What percentage of adults aged 75-79 experience hearing deficits that interfere with daily living?
At least 50%
110
What is one of the most consistent findings regarding normal aging?
Normal aging is accompanied by behavioral slowing.
111
What is a key predictor of a child's successful adjustment to chronic illness?
Illness severity, especially the level of functional impairment.
112
What percentage of youth aged 12 to 17 reported using an illicit drug in the past month in 2013?
8.8%
113
What is a good predictor of sexual activity in late adulthood?
Sexual activity in mid-life and earlier
114
What is the term for the state of cognitive balance in Piaget's theory?
Equilibrium
115
What is disequilibrium in the context of Piaget’s theory?
A mismatch between experience and existing schemas, prompting cognitive discomfort.
116
What are the two processes involved in adaptation according to Piaget?
* Assimilation
* Accommodation
117
What is the key achievement of the Sensorimotor Stage?
Object Permanence
118
At what age does the Preoperational Stage occur?
2-7 years
119
What cognitive limitation involves a child's difficulty seeing others' perspectives?
Egocentrism
120
What is the concept of conservation in the Concrete Operational Stage?
Understanding that quantity remains the same despite changes in shape.
121
What is hypothetico-deductive reasoning characteristic of?
Formal Operational Stage
122
What term describes the belief that others are constantly watching and judging in adolescents?
Imaginary Audience
123
What does Vygotsky’s Zone of Proximal Development (ZPD) refer to?
The gap between what a child can do independently and what they can do with guidance.
124
What is scaffolding in Vygotsky’s theory?
Temporary support provided by a more knowledgeable other to help the child master a task.
125
What is the developmental progression of Theory of Mind (ToM) at age 2-3 years?
Begins to understand desires and emotions; uses mental state terms like 'want' or 'feel'.
126
What is a key milestone in Theory of Mind development around age 4-5 years?
Understanding false beliefs.
127
What factors influence the development of Theory of Mind?
* Degree of pretend play
* Level of school adjustment
* Nature of parent-child interactions
* Number of siblings
128
What is the significance of deficits in Theory of Mind in relation to Autism Spectrum Disorder?
Deficits in ToM are central to Autism Spectrum Disorder, often assessed through false-belief tasks.
129
What is Theory of Mind (ToM)?
The ability to understand that others have thoughts, feelings, and perspectives different from one's own.
130
How does pretend play affect the development of Theory of Mind?
Children who engage in more pretend play tend to develop Theory of Mind more effectively.
131
What factors influence the development of Theory of Mind in children?
* Degree of pretend play engagement
* Level of school adjustment
* Nature of parent-child interactions
* Number of siblings
132
What is a key insight from DSM-5-TR regarding Theory of Mind?
Deficits in Theory of Mind are central to Autism Spectrum Disorder.
133
What is the difference between recognition and recall memory?
Recognition involves identifying previously encountered information, while recall involves retrieving it without cues.
134
At what age do children typically begin to use memory strategies like rehearsal and elaboration?
Around age 9 or 10.
135
What is metacognition?
Thinking about one's own thinking processes.
136
What is the synchrony effect in cognitive performance?
Cognitive performance is optimized when tasks are performed at an individual's preferred time of day.
137
Which age group tends to perform better in the morning according to the synchrony effect?
Older adults.
138
What is childhood (infantile) amnesia?
The inability to recall autobiographical events from the first 2–4 years of life.
139
What causes childhood (infantile) amnesia?
* Immature development of the hippocampus and prefrontal cortex
* Limited language skills
* Underdeveloped self-concept
140
What is the reminiscence bump?
The ability of adults to recall autobiographical events more vividly that occurred between the ages of 10-30.
141
What are some reasons for the reminiscence bump?
* Larger proportion of novel experiences
* Efficient encoding of information
* Development of personal identity
142
What is retention function in memory?
Greater recall of recent events occurring within the last 20 years.
143
What is a common pattern of memory recall over time?
People are more likely to remember recent events compared to those from the past.
144
What cognitive decline is most pronounced among older adults?
Recent long-term memory shows the greatest age-related decline.
145
How does age affect working memory?
Working memory becomes less efficient with age.
146
What is the typical effect of age on semantic memory?
Semantic memory remains stable or improves into late adulthood.
147
What aspect of memory is more vulnerable to age-related decline?
Episodic memory.
148
Describe a clinical vignette example of a 70-year-old's memory patterns.
* Strong recall for events from their 20s (reminiscence bump)
* Limited recall from early childhood (infantile amnesia)
* Mild difficulty recalling recent appointments (retention function decline)
149
What is Chomsky’s Nativist Theory of Language Development?
Language is innate and humans are biologically pre-wired to acquire language through a built-in mechanism called the Language Acquisition Device (LAD)
## Footnote
This theory opposes behaviorist views that language is learned solely through reinforcement and imitation.
150
Define Universal Grammar.
All languages share a deep structural foundation.
151
What does the Poverty of the Stimulus refer to?
Children acquire complex grammar despite limited input.
152
What is the Critical Period Hypothesis?
There’s an optimal window for language acquisition, typically before puberty.
153
Give an example of a child applying a grammatical rule.
A 3-year-old says, 'I goed to the park,' applying a rule despite never hearing the incorrect form.
154
What is the foundational theory behind the Behaviorist Approach of Language Development?
Rooted in B.F. Skinner’s operant conditioning model.
155
How is language learned according to the Behaviorist Approach?
Through environmental interaction via imitation, reinforcement, and conditioning.
156
What is Imitation in the context of language development?
Children mimic the speech they hear from caregivers and others.
157
Provide an example of reinforcement in language learning.
A child says 'milk,' and the caregiver responds with praise and gives milk.
158
Define Conditioning in language development.
Children learn to associate sounds with objects, actions, or needs through repeated pairings.
159
What is the Interactionists Theory of Language Development?
An integrative framework that bridges biological predispositions with social experience.
160
How does language emerge according to Interactionists?
Through the dynamic interplay between a child’s biological capacity and their social environment.
161
What role does caregiver responsiveness play in language development?
It involves expansion (correcting utterances) and extension (adding new information).
162
What is Semantic Bootstrapping?
Children use word meaning to infer grammatical categories.
163
What is Syntactic Bootstrapping?
Children use sentence structure to infer word meaning.
164
Define Prosodic Bootstrapping.
Children use intonation, rhythm, and stress patterns to identify sentence boundaries and grammatical units.
165
What is Morphological Bootstrapping?
Children use word parts (morphemes) to infer meaning and grammatical roles.
166
What does Chomsky’s Transformational Grammar propose?
Language is governed by innate mental structures, and sentences are generated through transformational rules.
167
What is Deep Structure in language?
It represents the underlying meaning of a sentence.
168
Define Surface Structure.
The actual spoken or written form of a sentence.
169
What characterizes Phonemes?
The smallest units of sound that distinguish meaning.
170
What are Morphemes?
The smallest units of meaning in a language.
171
What are the stages of language acquisition?
Crying, cooing and babbling, echolalia and expressive jargon, first words, telegraphic speech, vocabulary growth, grammatically correct sentences, metalinguistic awareness.
172
What is Underextension in language development?
Using a word too narrowly.
173
Define Overextension.
Using a word too broadly.
174
What does Overregularization imply?
Applying grammatical rules too broadly.
175
What gender differences have been observed in language development?
An earlier word spurt in girls during the first year of life, which disappears by age 5.
176
When is second-language acquisition most effective?
When it begins in childhood.
177
What is Bilingual Education?
Teaching non-English-speaking children in their native language and gradually teaching them English.
178
Define Code Switching.
The practice of alternating between two or more languages, dialects, or language styles within a single conversation.
179
What is Inter-sentential Code Switching?
Switching occurs between sentences.
180
Define Intra-sentential Code Switching.
Switching occurs within a sentence.
181
What is Situational Code Switching?
Switching based on context or audience.
182
Define Metaphorical Code Switching.
Switching to convey identity, emotion, or solidarity.
183
What is code switching?
The practice of alternating between languages or dialects in conversation
## Footnote
Often used to convey identity, emotion, or solidarity.
184
What is the relevance of code switching in DSM-5-TR?
Essential for culturally competent assessment, differential diagnosis, and therapeutic rapport
## Footnote
Helps avoid misinterpretation of code switching as disorganized speech.
185
Define temperament.
Biologically based individual differences in emotional reactivity, self-regulation, and behavioral style.
186
What is behavioral inhibition according to Kagan (1989)?
A biologically rooted tendency to react with fear or withdrawal in unfamiliar situations.
187
List the nine basic temperament qualities identified by Thomas & Chess.
* Activity Level
* Rhythmicity
* Approach/Withdrawal
* Adaptability
* Intensity of Reaction
* Threshold of Responsiveness
* Quality of Mood
* Distractibility
* Attention Span/Persistence
188
What are the three baby temperament categories identified by Thomas & Chess?
* Easy (Resilient) Children
* Difficult (Undercontrolled) Children
* Slow-to-Warm-Up (Overcontrolled) Children
189
What does the Goodness-of-Fit Model propose?
Optimal development occurs when there is a match between a child’s temperament and the demands of their environment.
190
What are the five stages of Freud’s Psychosexual Theory of Personality Development?
* Oral Stage
* Anal Stage
* Phallic Stage
* Latency Stage
* Genital Stage
191
What is the outcome of Erikson's stage 'Basic Trust vs. Mistrust'?
Secure attachment vs. fear.
192
What are the four parenting styles identified by Baumrind?
* Authoritative
* Authoritarian
* Permissive
* Neglectful/Uninvolved
193
What is the impact of parental depression on children?
Can lead to attachment insecurity, internalizing disorders, and behavioral problems.
194
What are the three stages of self-awareness according to Stipek (1990)?
* Physical Self-Recognition
* Self-Description
* Emotional Responses to Wrongdoing
195
What is the difference between sex and gender?
Sex is biological traits; gender encompasses identity and expression.
196
What is the outcome of Erikson's stage 'Identity vs. Role Confusion'?
Stable identity vs. confusion.
197
What is the clinical significance of the Goodness-of-Fit Model?
Supports individualized interventions emphasizing behavioral problems from mismatched expectations.
198
Fill in the blank: Temperament lays the foundation for _______.
[personality development]
199
True or False: The Goodness-of-Fit Model suggests poor fit can lead to behavioral problems.
True.
200
What does the term 'self-awareness' refer to?
Understanding that one is separate from others.
201
What are the key findings of the study by Damian & Roberts (2015) on family structure?
Birth order and family size have a 'miniscule relation' to personality traits.
202
What is intersex or differences in sexual development (DSD)?
A term that refers to variations in physical sex characteristics that do not fit typical binary notions of male or female bodies.
203
What are the two components of gender as a multidimensional construct?
* Gender identity
* Gender expression
204
Define gender identity.
A person’s internal sense of self (e.g., man, woman, nonbinary).
205
Define gender expression.
How one signals gender through behavior, appearance, voice, and social roles.
206
What factors shape gender beyond biology?
Cultural norms, social status, and individual characteristics.
207
List the Western culture gender identities.
* Man/male
* Woman/female
* Nonbinary
* Gender Fluid
* Two-Spirit
* Transgender
* Cis gender
208
What is the Psychodynamic Theory of Gender Identity?
A theory emphasizing early childhood experiences, especially within the family, as central to gender identity development.
209
During which stage does gender identity form according to Psychodynamic Theory?
Phallic stage (ages 3–6).
210
What is the Oedipus/Electra complex?
A psychological conflict occurring during the phallic stage, where children identify with the same-sex parent.
211
What is the Cognitive Development Theory proposed by Kohlberg?
A theory suggesting that children actively construct gender identity through cognitive maturation.
212
What are the three stages of gender identity development according to Kohlberg?
* Gender Identity (2–3 yrs)
* Gender Stability (4 yrs)
* Gender Constancy (6–7 yrs)
213
What does Gender Identity mean in Kohlberg's theory?
Recognizes self and others as male or female.
214
At what age do children understand that gender is stable over time?
4 years.
215
What is the Social Learning Theory of Gender Identity?
A theory emphasizing modeling, reinforcement, and environmental cues in learning gender roles.
216
How do children learn gender roles according to Social Learning Theory?
By observing others, especially parents and media figures.
217
What role does reinforcement play in gender role socialization?
Gender-conforming actions are rewarded, while non-conforming ones may be discouraged.
218
What did Smith & Lloyd’s study show about adult behavior towards infants?
Adults treated infants differently based on perceived gender.
219
What is an example of behavior reinforcement in gender expression?
A girl sees her mother applying makeup and imitates the behavior, receiving praise.
220
True or False: Social learning theory helps explain gender role socialization.
True.
221
Fill in the blank: According to Social Learning Theory, children learn gender roles by _______.
[observing others].
222
What is Gender Schema Theory?
Children develop cognitive frameworks about gender expectations and apply them to their behavior.
## Footnote
Proposed by Sandra Bem in 1981.
223
How do schemas influence children according to Gender Schema Theory?
Schemas influence attention, memory, and behavior.
## Footnote
Children internalize cultural definitions of gender.
224
What is an example of Gender Schema Theory in practice?
A child assumes a nurse must be a woman due to their schema linking caregiving with femininity.
## Footnote
This highlights the application of gender schemas in real situations.
225
What is the Multidimensional Model of Gender Identity?
It views gender identity as a complex, multidimensional construct beyond binary categorization.
## Footnote
Developed by Egan & Perry in 2001.
226
What are the key dimensions of the Multidimensional Model of Gender Identity?
* Membership Knowledge
* Gender Compatibility
* Gender Contentedness
* Pressure to Conform
* Intergroup Bias
## Footnote
These dimensions help to understand gender identity experiences.
227
What does Gender Contentedness refer to?
Satisfaction with one’s gender.
## Footnote
It is one of the dimensions in the Multidimensional Model of Gender Identity.
228
What is androgyny in the context of gender identity?
Integration of both masculine and feminine traits within a single individual.
## Footnote
It is associated with psychological resilience and social competence.
229
What are the psychological benefits associated with androgyny?
* Higher self-esteem
* Greater emotional expressiveness
* Increased social skills
* Flexibility in behavioral repertoire
* Enhanced psychological well-being
## Footnote
Research shows these benefits for both males and females.
230
What does Expansionist Theory suggest about adult roles?
Engaging in multiple adult roles enhances psychological well-being rather than causing role strain.
## Footnote
This theory empowers individuals, especially women, who face restrictive gender roles.
231
What resources do multiple adult roles provide according to Expansionist Theory?
* Social support
* Self-efficacy
* Identity enrichment
## Footnote
These resources contribute to overall life satisfaction.
232
What does research indicate about racial recognition in infants?
Infants as young as 6 months may exhibit awareness of racial differences.
## Footnote
Children can label people by racial group by ages 3-4.
233
What were the key findings of the Doll Study by Kenneth and Mamie Clark?
* Majority of Black children preferred white dolls
* Attributed positive traits to white dolls
* Identified Black dolls as 'bad'
## Footnote
This study highlighted the psychological impact of segregation.
234
How did the Doll Study influence the Supreme Court's decision in Brown vs. Board of Education?
It provided psychological evidence that segregation led to internalized racism and feelings of inferiority among Black children.
## Footnote
This was the first use of psychological evidence in a Supreme Court ruling.
235
What is an identity crisis according to Erik Erikson?
A developmental turning point where individuals integrate past experiences, current roles, and future aspirations into a coherent sense of self.
## Footnote
Coined by Erikson, it typically occurs in Stage 5: Identity vs. Role Confusion.
236
What are Marcia’s Four Identity Statuses?
* Identity Diffusion
* Identity Foreclosure
* Identity Moratorium
* Identity Achievement
## Footnote
These statuses are based on exploration and commitment.
237
What is 'Storm and Stress' in adolescence?
A concept describing adolescence as a period of emotional upheaval, conflict, and risk-taking.
## Footnote
Coined by G. Stanley Hall in 1904.
238
What are key features of 'Storm and Stress'?
* Conflict with parents
* Mood disruptions
* Risk behaviors
## Footnote
Not all adolescents experience this, but it is more likely during this life stage.
239
What is Gilligan’s Relational Crisis?
A challenge to male-centric models of moral development, proposing that girls experience a relational crisis in adolescence.
## Footnote
This crisis involves balancing authenticity with relational expectations.
240
What do adolescent girls experience during Gilligan’s Relational Crisis?
A 'loss of voice' and realization that women's opinions are not highly valued, potentially leading to decreased academic success and self-esteem.
## Footnote
This can increase vulnerability to psychological problems.
241
What is the primary focus of moral reasoning according to Gilligan?
Care, empathy, and connection, rather than just justice.
242
What are the primary tasks for helpers of adolescent girls according to Gilligan?
To help maintain a 'healthy resistance to disconnection'.
243
What is the Five-Factor Model (FFM) proposed by McCrae & Costa?
A model of personality traits defined as Openness, Conscientiousness, Extraversion, Agreeableness, Neuroticism (OCEAN).
244
What did Roberts, Walton, & Viechtbauer (2006) find about personality traits?
Personality matures over time, with greatest changes occurring during young adulthood.
245
What are the key changes in personality traits during adulthood?
* Increases in conscientiousness
* Increases in emotional stability
* Greater social adaptability
* Decreases in neuroticism.
246
What is nonfunctionality in children's understanding of death?
Death involves the cessation of all life-defining functions, such as breathing and brain activity.
247
What does irreversibility mean in the context of children's understanding of death?
Death is permanent and cannot be undone.
248
What does universality mean in children's understanding of death?
All living things eventually die.
249
At what age do most children understand that death is universal, irreversible, and involves cessation of biological functioning?
Around age 10.
250
When is anxiety about death generally greatest among adults?
In middle age.
251
List the stages of grief according to Kubler-Ross (1969).
* Denial
* Anger
* Bargaining
* Depression
* Acceptance.
252
What is Harlow’s Contact Comfort?
The idea that comfort and emotional security are central to attachment formation, as shown in his monkey studies.
253
What is Bowlby’s Internal Working Model?
A mental template formed from early attachment experiences that influences future relationships.
254
What are the signs of attachment in infants?
* Social referencing
* Separation anxiety
* Stranger anxiety.
255
What are Ainsworth’s four patterns of attachment?
* Secure
* Avoidant
* Ambivalent/Resistant
* Disorganized.
256
What does secure attachment lead to according to Bowlby?
Expectations of trust and responsiveness in relationships.
257
What is the impact of prolonged separation from caregivers?
Can disrupt attachment and emotional development, leading to issues like Reactive Attachment Disorder.
258
What are the classifications in the Adult Attachment Interview (AAI)?
* Autonomous
* Dismissing
* Preoccupied.
259
What are primary (basic) emotions?
* Joy
* Sadness
* Anger
* Fear
* Surprise
* Disgust
* Interest.
260
What are self-conscious emotions?
* Shame
* Guilt
* Embarrassment
* Pride
* Envy.
261
What is empathy?
The ability to understand and respond to others’ emotional states through vicarious experiencing.
262
What are two types of aggressive behavior noted in preschool years?
* Instrumental Aggression
* Hostile Aggression.
263
What is instrumental aggression?
Goal-directed behavior used to obtain a desired object or outcome, often lacking emotional arousal.
264
What is hostile aggression?
Aggression driven by anger or intent to harm, emerging later in development.
265
What is the Coercive Family Interaction Model?
A model explaining how aggressive behavior is reinforced through coercive cycles within family systems.
266
What is the Oregon Model of Parent Management Training (PMTO)?
An evidence-based intervention aimed at reducing child aggression and antisocial behavior.
267
What are the key factors in social-cognitive factors in aggression?
* Aggressive scripts
* Positive outcome expectancy
* Self-efficacy for aggression.
268
What is hostile attribution bias?
The tendency to interpret ambiguous social cues as hostile, common in aggressive children.
269
What are Piaget's two major stages of moral reasoning?
* Heteronomous Morality
* Autonomous Morality.
270
What is heteronomous morality?
Rules are seen as fixed and imposed by authority; morality is judged by consequences.
271
What is autonomous morality?
Rules are viewed as negotiable; morality considers intentions, fairness, and reciprocity.
272
What is the Heinz Dilemma?
A moral dilemma scenario used to assess moral reasoning.
273
What is the primary focus of Kohlberg's Theory of Moral Development?
A six-stage model of moral reasoning grouped into three levels
## Footnote
Each stage reflects a qualitatively different way of reasoning about moral dilemmas.
274
What is the Heinz Dilemma?
A scenario where Heinz steals a drug to save his dying wife
## Footnote
The dilemma raises questions about moral reasoning.
275
What are the stages of Level 1: Preconventional Morality?
* Stage 1: Obedience and Punishment
* Stage 2: Instrumental (Hedonism) Relativism
## Footnote
Focus on avoiding punishment and self-interest.
276
What is Stage 1 of Kohlberg's model?
Obedience and Punishment — Avoid punishment
## Footnote
Example: 'Don’t hit because you’ll get in trouble.'
277
What is Stage 2 of Kohlberg's model?
Instrumental (Hedonism) Relativism — Self-interest and reciprocity
## Footnote
Example: 'You help me, I’ll help you.'
278
What are the stages of Level 2: Conventional Morality?
* Stage 3: Good Boy/Good Girl Orientation
* Stage 4: Law and Order Orientation
## Footnote
Focus on social approval and upholding laws.
279
What is Stage 3 of Kohlberg's model?
Good Boy/Good Girl Orientation — Social approval
## Footnote
Example: 'Be nice so others like you.'
280
What is Stage 4 of Kohlberg's model?
Law and Order Orientation — Upholding laws and authority
## Footnote
Example: 'Follow rules to maintain order.'
281
What are the stages of Level 3: Postconventional Morality?
* Stage 5: Social Contract
* Stage 6: Universal Ethical Principles
## Footnote
Focus on flexible laws based on human rights and internal moral codes.
282
What is Stage 5 of Kohlberg's model?
Social Contract — Laws are flexible and based on human rights
## Footnote
Example: 'Laws should serve justice.'
283
What is Stage 6 of Kohlberg's model?
Universal Ethical Principles — Internal moral code
## Footnote
Example: 'I act based on principles of equality and dignity.'
284
How does Gilligan's Theory of Moral Development differ from Kohlberg's?
Critiques Kohlberg's justice-based model for overlooking care-based reasoning
## Footnote
Emphasizes relational and contextual ethics.
285
What key concepts are included in Gilligan's model?
* Responsibility
* Empathy
* Contextual ethics
## Footnote
Highlights a 'morality of care'.
286
What are the stages of Gilligan’s Model?
* Level 1: Orientation to Individual Survival
* Level 2: Goodness as Self-Sacrifice
* Level 3: Morality of Nonviolence
## Footnote
Focus on self-interest to balancing care for self and others.
287
What is the transition from Level 1 in Gilligan's model?
From selfishness to responsibility
## Footnote
Represents interconnectedness to others.
288
What is the transition from Level 2 in Gilligan's model?
From Goodness to Truth
## Footnote
Balances responsibility to self and others.
289
What does Gilligan's theory support?
Gender-sensitive formulations and highlights relational ethics
## Footnote
Important for therapy and supervision.
290
True or False: Gilligan's research indicates that moral reasoning is the same for all genders.
False
## Footnote
Gilligan argues that females often approach moral decisions through care and empathy.
291
Fill in the blank: Delays or rigidity in moral reasoning may be relevant in _______.
[personality disorders, conduct problems, or cognitive impairments]
292
What example illustrates Gilligan's care-based reasoning?
A woman stays with a sick relative out of empathy and relational commitment
## Footnote
Reflects moral decisions based on relationships.
EPPP
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