Lifespan Dev.

Question 1

According to Bronfenbrenner’s (2004) ecological systems theory, available legal and social services are part of the:
A. macrosystem.
B. microsystem.
C. exosystem.
D. mesosystem.

Answer 1

C
Bronfenbrenner’s theory distinguishes between five environmental systems that affect a child’s development: microsystem, mesosystem, exosystem, macrosystem, and chronosystem. The exosystem consists of elements in the environment that the child may not have direct contact with but affect the child’s immediate environment. It includes the parents’ places of work, community services, and government agencies.

Question 2

In general, exposure to a teratogen during prenatal development causes the most serious defects when it occurs during the __________ weeks of development.
A. 3rd through 8th
B. 6th through 12th
C. 10th through 18th
D. 20th through 32nd

Answer 2

A

The effects of prenatal exposure to a teratogen depend on the type and amount of the teratogen and the organ system but, in general, the most severe defects result when exposure occurs during the embryonic period, which extends from the beginning of the third week to the end of the eighth week.

Question 3

One-month-old babies respond with which of the following reflexes when they are startled by a loud noise or sudden movement?
A. Babinski
B. Moro
C. rooting
D. plantar

Answer 3

B
The Moro reflex is also known as the startle reflex and occurs when babies are startled by a loud noise or movement and, in response, throw their heads back, extend their arms and legs, and then curl their arms and legs inward. The Babinski reflex (answer A) occurs when the sole of a baby’s foot is firmly touched and, in response, the baby’s big toe moves backward toward the top of the foot and the other toes fan out. The rooting reflex (answer C) occurs when, in response to having the corner of their mouths touched, babies turn their heads in the direction of the touch. Plantar reflex (answer D) is another name for the Babinski reflex.

Question 4

Research has found that the greatest age-related atrophy in the adult cortex occurs in the:
A. frontal and parietal lobes.
B. frontal and occipital lobes.
C. temporal and parietal lobes.
D. temporal and occipital lobes.

Answer 4

A

Studies investigating age-related changes in the adult brain have found that the greatest decrease in volume occurs in the frontal lobes (especially the prefrontal cortex) and parietal lobes.

Question 5

An infant’s babbling initially includes sounds from all languages but begins to narrow to the sounds of the infant’s native language by about ___ months of age.
A. 4
B. 6
C. 9
D. 12

Answer 5

C
The initial babbling of infants includes sounds of all languages regardless of the language(s) the infant has been exposed to. By about 9 months of age, babbling begins to narrow to the language sounds the infant hears every day.

Question 6

At birth, infants emit three different cries that indicate:
A. hunger, anger, or pain.
B. hunger, discomfort, or boredom.
C. hunger, anger, or frustration.
D. hunger, overstimulation, or fear.

Hide explanation

Answer 6

A
Newborns emit three different cries that have different meanings: a low-pitched rhythmic cry that signals hunger or discomfort; a shrill, less regular cry that signals anger or frustration; and a loud high-pitched cry followed by silence that signals pain.

Question 7

The smallest distinctive units of sound in a language are referred to as:
A. syllables.
B. words.
C. phonemes.
D. morphemes.

Answer 7

C
Phonemes are the smallest distinctive units of sound in a language (e.g., b, d, f, sh), and morphemes are the smallest meaningful units (e.g., un, ed, pre, post).

Question 8

The limits of Vygotsky’s zone of proximal development are defined by:
A. the child’s independent performance and the child’s performance with assistance.
B. the child’s comprehension of language and the child’s production of language.
C. the influence of genetic factors on a child’s cognitive development and the influence of environmental factors.
D. what a child knows about how to perform a task and how the child actually performs when working on the task.

Answer 8

A
As defined by L. S. Vygotsky, the zone of proximal development is “the distance between the [child’s] actual developmental level as determined by independent problem-solving and the level of potential development as determined through problem-solving under adult guidance or in collaboration with more capable peers

Question 9

Piaget’s stage theory of cognitive development views development as being:
A. continuous and active.
B. discontinuous and active.
C. continuous and passive.
D. discontinuous and passive.

Answer 9

B
Piaget’s theory proposes discontinuous stages of cognitive development that are characterized by qualitatively different cognitive processes. His theory also proposes that development is an active process in which children interact with the world to construct their own knowledge.

Question 10

Even though his mother usually corrects him when he calls cats “doggie,” a young child continues to do so until he realizes that the neighbor’s cat is not the same as the family dog. Consequently, he starts calling the cat “kitty,” which is what his mother always says when the cat comes into their yard. Piaget would view this as an example of:
A. horizontal decalage.
B. decentration.
C. assimilation.
D. accommodation.

Answer 10

D
As described by Piaget, accommodation occurs when a person creates a new schema or modifies an existing one to fit (accommodate) new information.

Question 11

Research on the synchrony effect has found that:
A. younger and older adults do better on certain cognitive tasks in the morning than they do in the afternoon.
B. younger and older adults do better on certain cognitive tasks in the afternoon than they do in the morning.
C. older adults do better on certain cognitive tasks in the morning than they do in the afternoon, while the reverse is true for younger adults.
D. older adults do better on certain cognitive tasks in the afternoon than they do in the morning, while the reverse is true for younger adults.

Answer 11

C
The synchrony effect refers to the benefits of matching task demands and the preferred (optimal) time of day, and research has found that the preferred time differs for older and younger adults: Older adults do better on certain cognitive tasks (especially those that involve ignoring distractions or irrelevant information) in the morning, while younger adults often do better on the same tasks in the late afternoon or evening. Apparently, the synchrony effect is due to age-related differences in circadian rhythms and peak times of arousal. See, e.g., C. P. May and L. Hasher, Synchrony effects in inhibitory control over thought and action,

Question 12

Which of the following includes variations in tone, rhythm, volume, and stress that are used to express emotions and modify or clarify the meaning of a verbal communication?
A. syntax
B. paralanguage
C. semantics
D. pragmatics

Answer 12

B
Paralanguage refers to how something is said rather than to what is said. It is often used to modify the meaning of what is said or to express emotion and includes variations in tone, rhythm, volume, and stress.

Question 13

According to Piaget, children begin to be able to observe another child perform a complex action and then imitate that action for the first time on the following day when they’re between ________ months of age.
A. 8 and 12
B. 12 and 18
C. 18 and 24
D. 24 and 30

Answer 13

C
The ability to imitate a complex action after a period of time when the model is no longer present is referred to as deferred imitation. According to Piaget, deferred imitation doesn’t occur until the infant can form enduring mental representations, which happens during the final substage (substage six) of the sensorimotor stage when children are between 18 and 24 months of age.

Question 14

On average, full siblings and other first-degree relatives share _____ of their genetic material.
A. 90%
B. 75%
C. 50%
D. 25%

Answer 14

Answer C is correct. Full siblings, fraternal twins, and other first degree relatives share about 50% of their genetic material, while half siblings share about 25%.

Question 15

As defined by Singer (2005), self-defining memories have all of the following characteristics except:
A. emotional intensity.
B. resistance to change.
C. high levels of repetition.
D. connections to unresolved conflicts.

Answer 15

B
Self-defining memory (SDM) is a component of episodic memory and consists of memories that contribute to the construction and maintenance of one’s personal identity. According to Singer (2005), SDMs have five characteristics: emotional intensity, vividness, high levels of repetition, linkage to similar memories, and connections to enduring concerns or unresolved conflicts.

Question 16

Children usually pass the mirror self-recognition test by _____ months of age, but an exception is children with Down syndrome who usually do not pass the test until they are _____ months of age.
A. 9 to 12; 18 to 24
B. 12 to 18; 24 to 36
C. 18 to 24; 36 to 48
D. 24 to 36; 42 to 48

Answer 16

C

By 18 to 24 months of age, most children pass the mirror self-recognition test. However, children with Down syndrome usually do not pass the test until they are 36 to 48 months of age when their cognitive developmental age is equivalent to the level of younger children who do not have cognitive developmental delays.

Question 17

In terms of age, Freud’s latency stage corresponds to Erikson’s ________ stage.
A. initiative versus guilt
B. industry versus inferiority
C. identity versus role confusion
D. autonomy versus shame and doubt

Answer 17

B
Freud’s latency stage and Erikson’s industry versus inferiority stage both occur when children are between the ages of six and 11.

Question 18

The studies have not provided entirely consistent results, but they have generally found that which of the following Big Five personality traits increase with increasing age during adulthood?
A. conscientiousness and neuroticism
B. neuroticism and extraversion
C. agreeableness and conscientiousness
D. agreeableness and openness to experience

Answer 18

C
McCrae and his colleagues conclude that, “from age 18 to age 30 there are declines in Neuroticism, Extraversion, and Openness to Experience, and increases in Agreeableness and Conscientiousness; after age 30 the same trends are found, although the rate of change seems to decrease

Question 19

For most children, stranger anxiety begins at about _______ months of age.
A. 4
B. 8
C. 12
D. 15

Answer 19

B
The onset of stranger anxiety differs for different children and, as a result, the reported age of onset varies somewhat in the literature. However, most authors report the onset as being between 7 and 9 months or 8 and 10 months.

Question 20

Mildred Parten (1932) categorized children’s play as being:
A. physical or social.
B. nonsocial or social.
C. physical, emotional, or cognitive.
D. constructive, expressive, or dramatic.

Answer 20

B
M. B. Parten distinguished between nonsocial and social play, with each type including three subtypes: Nonsocial play includes unoccupied play, solitary play, and onlooker play, while social play includes parallel play, associative play, and cooperative play [Social participation among pre-school children,

Question 21

According to Bowlby (1980), an infant’s early relationships with caregivers lead to the development of:
A. a categorical self.
B. object permanence.
C. social models.
D. internal working models.

Answer 21

D
Bowlby proposed that an infant’s early attachment relationships lead to the development of internal working models that consist of beliefs about the self, others, and the self in relationship to others and that these models affect future relationships.

Question 22

Which of the following is not a criticism of Kohlberg’s theory of moral development?
A. His theory is biased in terms of culture and gender.
B. His theory places too much emphasis on moral judgment and not enough on moral behavior.
C. Moral development does not end in late childhood as his theory claims.
D. Young children are more advanced in terms of morality than his theory claims.

Answer 22

C
Piaget, not Kohlberg, concluded that moral development ends with the onset of the autonomous stage in late childhood, and this claim has been criticized and challenged by the results of research on moral development during adolescence and adulthood. Answers A, B, and D accurately describe criticisms of Kohlberg’s theory.

Question 23

Gorchoff, John, and Helson (2008) studied the marital satisfaction of women over an 18-year period and found that women reported:
A. a decrease in marital satisfaction after their last children left home and that this was due to a decrease in the quality of the time they spent with their husbands.
B. a decrease in marital satisfaction after their last children left home and that this was due to a combination of the increased amount of time that they spent with their husbands and the decreased quality of that time.
C. an increase in marital satisfaction after their last children left home and that this was due to the improved quality of the time that they spent with their husbands.
D. an increase in marital satisfaction after their last children left home and that this was due to the increased amount of time that they spent with their husbands.

Answer 23

C
S. M. Gorchoff, O. P. John, and R. Helson found that the “empty nest” was associated with an increase in marital satisfaction for the women in their study and that the increase was due primarily to an increase in the quality (but not the quantity) of the time they spent with their husbands [Contextualizing change in marital satisfaction during middle age: An 18-year longitudinal study,

Question 24

Research has found that which of the following behaviors of noncustodial fathers has the least impact on the post-divorce outcomes of children?
A. payment of child support
B. feelings of closeness
C. authoritative parenting
D. frequency of contact

Answer 24

D
A meta-analysis of the research by P. R. Amato and J. G. Gilbreth (1999) indicated that frequency of paternal contact with children was least related to child outcomes. In contrast, payment of child support was positively related to children’s academic success and negatively related to externalizing problems, while feelings of closeness and authoritative parenting were both positively related to academic success and negatively related to internalizing and externalizing problems (Nonresident fathers and children’s well-being: A meta-analysis,

Question 25

Lucas-Thompson et al.’s (2010) research on children’s outcomes when their mothers return to work outside the home during the children’s second or third year of life found that, overall, maternal employment during this period: A. is not predictive of later development of significant behavioral or academic achievement problems. B. is predictive of an increased risk for later development of significant behavioral and academic achievement problems. C. is predictive of a reduced risk for later development of significant behavioral and academic achievement problems. D. is predictive of an increased risk for later development of significant behavioral problems but of a reduced risk for later development of significant academic achievement problems.

Answer 25

A Lucas-Thompson and colleagues (2010) found that, overall, children of women who returned to work outside the home during their children’s first 3 years of life (especially during the second or third year) were no more likely to develop significant behavioral or academic achievement problems than were children whose mothers did not return to work.

Question 26

Age is one of the factors that affect a child’s risk for maltreatment, with the risk being greatest for children: A. below 1 year of age. B. 2 to 5 years of age. C. 7 to 10 years of age. D. 11 to 13 years of age.

Answer 26

A Data collected by the National Child Abuse and Neglect Data System (NCANDS) has consistently found that the youngest children are at the greatest risk for maltreatment, with the risk being greatest for children under 1 year of age.

Question 27

Research by Lickel et al. (2014) found that experiencing which of the following self-conscious emotions elicits the greatest motivation to change oneself? A. embarrassment B. shame C. regret D. guilt

Answer 27

Answer B is correct. Feelings of shame and guilt can both motivate a person to change him/herself, but Lickel and his colleagues found that shame was the strongest motivator. They suggest that shame may have a stronger effect because it’s the result of a dispositional appraisal (“I’m a bad person”) while guilt is the result of a behavioral appraisal (“I did a bad thing”), and a dispositional appraisal is more likely to lead to the desire to change oneself.

Question 28

Which of the following is true about the contribution of shared and non-shared environmental factors to personality? A. Non-shared and shared factors have about the same degree of influence on personality. B. Non-shared factors have a stronger influence than shared factors on personality. C. Shared factors have a stronger influence than non-shared factors on personality. D. Non-shared factors have a stronger influence than shared factors during childhood and adolescence, while the opposite is true for adulthood.

Answer 28

Answer B is correct. Contrary to what might be expected, the studies have confirmed that shared environmental factors have little or no influence on personality throughout the lifespan. In contrast, non-shared environmental factors have a substantial influence that increases with increasing age.

Question 29

Samantha, age 16, says that it’s not necessary to use protection when having sex with her boyfriend because “there’s no way I’m going to get pregnant.” According to Elkind (1976), this is an example of which of the following? A. identity moratorium B. magical thinking C. the personal fable D. the self-serving bias

Answer 29

Answer C is correct. Elkind proposed that early formal operational thought is characterized by adolescent egocentrism, and he identified the personal fable as one of its manifestations. As defined by Elkind, the personal fable is the belief that one is unique and not subject to the rules or consequences that apply to other people. An adolescent’s belief that there’s “no way” that having unprotected sex with her boyfriend could lead to pregnancy is an example of the personal fable.

Question 30

Prader-Willi syndrome is most often caused by: A. an extra chromosome 21. B. an extra chromosome 15. C. deletion of a segment on maternal chromosome 21. D. deletion of a segment on paternal chromosome 15.

Answer 30

Answer D is correct. Knowing that Prader-Willi syndrome is due to a chromosomal deletion would have helped you eliminate answers A and B, and knowing that chromosome 21 is most associated with trisomy 21 (Down syndrome) would have helped you eliminate answer C. Prader-Willi syndrome is most often the result of the deletion of a segment on paternal chromosome 15, while Angelman syndrome is usually the result of the deletion of a segment on maternal chromosome 15.

Question 31

Prader-Willi and Angelman syndromes are both caused by: A. two recessive genes. B. a chromosomal deletion. C. a missing sex chromosome. D. an extra sex chromosome.

Answer 31

Answer B is correct. Both of these disorders are due to a chromosomal deletion, which occurs when part of a chromosome is missing. Prader-Willi syndrome is caused by a deletion on paternal chromosome 15, while Angelman syndrome is caused by a deletion on maternal chromosome 15.

Question 32

Which of the following is not one of the aspects of temperament identified by Mary Rothbart? A. effortful control B. surgency/extraversion C. regularity/predictability D. negative affectivity

Answer 32

Answer C is correct. To identify the correct answer to this question, you have to know that Rothbart distinguished between three aspects of temperament: Surgency/extraversion and negative affectivity are the two components of reactivity and effortful control is the single component of self-regulation.

Question 33

Researchers using the mirror task have found that most infants begin to recognize themselves in a mirror by about ____ months of age. A. nine B. twelve C. fifteen D. eighteen

Answer 33

Answer D is correct. The mirror task involves putting a mark on an infant’s head before placing the infant in front of a mirror. Infants demonstrate self-recognition when they see the mark in the mirror and touch their own foreheads rather than the forehead of the image in the mirror. For most infants, this occurs when they reach 18 months of age.

Question 34

Kohlberg concluded that: A. there’s no relationship between stage of moral development and behavior because behavior is affected by so many factors. B. there’s a strong relationship between stage of moral development and behavior at all stages. C. the strength of the relationship between stage of moral development and behavior is greatest at the higher stages of development. D. there’s a relationship between stage of moral development and behavior only when the situation is personally meaningful to the individual.

Answer 34

Answer C is correct. Kohlberg proposed that the ability to predict a person’s behavior from his/her stage of moral development is strongest at the higher stages of development.

Question 35

Wills, Yaeger, and Sandy (2003) investigated the relationship between religiosity and substance use among adolescents and found that: A. a high level of religiosity acts as a buffer between exposure to life stress and subsequent alcohol, tobacco, and marijuana use. B. a high level of religiosity acts as a buffer between exposure to life stress and subsequent marijuana and alcohol use but not tobacco use. C. moderate levels of religiosity are associated with the highest risk for alcohol, tobacco, and marijuana use. D. low and high levels of religiosity are both associated with a high risk for alcohol, tobacco, and marijuana use.

Answer 35

Answer A is correct. Research has consistently confirmed that life stress is associated with an increased risk for substance use. Wills, Yaeger, and Sandy extended this research by confirming that religiosity acts as a buffer (mediator) between life stress and substance use: They found that, for adolescents, high religious involvement reduced the impact of life stress on both the initial level of alcohol, tobacco, and marijuana use and the rate of increase in their use over time.

Question 36

Egan and Perry (2001) view gender identity as a multidimensional construct that consists of five components. Which of the following is not one of these components? A. felt similarity with one’s gender group B. felt pressure for gender conformity C. knowledge of gender stability D. knowledge of one’s own gender category

Answer 36

Answer C is correct. The five components of gender identity identified by S. K. Egan and D. G. Perry are knowledge of one’s own gender category, self-perceived gender typicality (similarity), felt contentment with one’s gender, felt pressure for gender conformity, and intergroup bias.

Question 37

By about ____ months of age, children’s babbling narrows to include only sounds and sound combinations that belong to the language they hear every day. A. 5 B. 7 C. 9 D. 14

Answer 37

Answer C is correct. Babbling starts at about 3 to 6 months of age and initially includes sounds from all languages. However, at about 9 months of age, babbling narrows to include only sounds from the infant’s native language.

Question 38

The tendency of genetic make-up to restrict the amount of influence the environment has on a particular characteristic is referred to as: A. canalization. B. maturation. C. individuation. D. adaptation.

Answer 38

Answer A is correct. The tendency for genetic make-up to restrict developmental outcomes regardless of environmental circumstances is referred to as canalization.

Question 39

Which of the following areas of the brain is least well-developed at birth? A. prefrontal cortex B. cerebellum C. hippocampus D. basal ganglia

Answer 39

Answer A is correct. The cerebral cortex is the least developed area of the brain at birth, and it continues to develop, with the prefrontal cortex not reaching maturity until the late teens or early to mid-20s. As long as you remember that the cerebral cortex is the least developed area of the brain at birth and that, of the areas listed in the answers, only the prefrontal cortex is part of the cerebral cortex, you would have been able to identify the correct answer to this question.

Question 40

A child says he doesn’t steal because it’s against the law. Based on this information, you can conclude that this child is in which of Kohlberg’s levels of moral development? A. preconventional B. conventional C. transconventional D. postconventional

Answer 40

Answer B is correct. The second stage of Kohlberg’s conventional level is the law and order orientation stage. During this stage, judgments about the acceptability of a behavior depend on whether or not the behavior violates laws and rules that have been established by legitimate authorities.

Question 41

According to Vygotsky, children’s ______ play provides them with a zone of proximal development. A. parallel B. make-believe C. onlooker D. associative

Answer 41

Answer B is correct. Vygotsky believed that make-believe play is a sociocultural activity that provides children with a zone of proximal development in which they can adopt roles and engage in behaviors associated with those roles that they can’t do in everyday life.

Question 42

As described by Piaget, __________ involves using current schemas to interpret new information. A. equilibration B. adaptation C. assimilation D. accommodation

Answer 42

Answer C is correct. For the exam, you want to be able to recognize descriptions and examples of assimilation and accommodation. As their names suggest, assimilation involves assimilating (incorporating, integrating) new information into current schemas, while accommodation involves accommodating (adjusting, changing) current schemas to fit new information. Note that adaptation (answer B) is not the best answer because it encompasses both assimilation and accommodation.

Question 43

In response to the “Heinz dilemma,” some of Kohlberg’s research subjects said Heinz should not steal the drug for his wife because, if he does, he might be sent to jail for stealing. This response is characteristic of Kohlberg’s __________ level of moral development. A. unconventional B. preconventional C. conventional D. postconventional

Answer 43

Answer B is correct. Kohlberg’s theory of moral development distinguishes between three levels – preconventional, conventional, and postconventional – and each level includes two stages. Individuals in the first stage of the preconventional level (punishment and obedience orientation) base their judgments on the negative consequences of an act. Individuals in the second stage of the preconventional level (instrumental hedonism) base their judgments on the positive consequences of an act -- e.g., stealing the drug would be the best thing for Heinz’s wife and his family because his wife won’t die.

Question 44

By about __________ months of age, children use two words to create a simple sentence – for example, “juice gone,” “get toy,” and “big doggie.” A. 12 to 18 B. 18 to 24 C. 24 to 30 D. 30 to 36

Answer 44

Answer B is correct. The use of two words to create a sentence is referred to as telegraphic speech. It begins when a child is between 18 and 24 months of age and usually includes a noun and a verb or a noun and an adjective.

Question 45

Piaget proposed that, during substage 3 (secondary circular reactions) of the sensorimotor stage, an infant: A. repeats enjoyable motor or sensory responses that involve his/her own body. B. repeats behaviors that elicit a response from a person or object. C. deliberately changes a behavior to determine the consequences of doing so. D. coordinates two or more responses to solve a problem.

Answer 45

Answer B is correct. As described by Piaget, the substages of the sensorimotor stage involve different types of circular reactions, which are actions that are performed to repeat an event that first occurred by chance. Substage 3 occurs between four and eight months of age and is characterized by secondary circular reactions, which are goal-directed actions that elicit a response from a person or object. For example, an infant might repeatedly kick the mobile hanging over his crib to make it move.

Question 46

According to some investigators, the acquisition of most aspects of human development have a ________ period. This means that these skills can be acquired most easily during a particular period of time but can be acquired later, although it may be more difficult to do so. A. sensitive B. critical C. relative refractory D. absolute refractory

Answer 46

Answer A is correct. Some authors use the terms critical period and sensitive period interchangeably but others describe them as distinct. For the latter authors, a critical period is a limited period of time during which an individual must be exposed to certain experiences for development to occur, while a sensitive period is a more flexible period of time that’s optimal for development because the individual is most responsive to certain experiences during that period. However, development may still occur when the individual is exposed to relevant experiences outside the boundaries of the sensitive period, but development may be more difficult.

Question 47

People who struggle with pragmatic language often have difficulty: A. combining words into sentences. B. understanding humor and sarcasm. C. asking and answering questions. D. understanding the literal meanings of words and sentences.

Answer 47

Answer B is correct. Pragmatics refers to the understanding and use of verbal and nonverbal language in different social contexts. Among other difficulties, people who struggle with pragmatic language often have trouble understanding idioms, metaphors, humor, sarcasm, and other non-literal language.

Question 48

Code-switching is used by: A. supervisors and employers to exert their authority over supervisees and employees. B. adults when talking to children to emphasize the importance of what they’re telling them. C. politicians to ensure their ardent supporters understand what their actual intentions are. D. bilingual and multilingual speakers to establish solidarity with listeners belonging to their own minority group.

Answer 48

Answer D is correct. Code-switching involves switching from one language to another during a conversation. It’s used by bilingual and multilingual speakers for several reasons, including to compensate for a lack of knowledge of one language, to express their attitudes toward listeners, and to foster rapport or solidarity.

Question 49

As described by Piaget, children in the heteronomous stage of moral reasoning base their judgments about a person’s behavior on which of the following? A. the consequences of the behavior B. the person’s intentions C. what they would have done in the same situation D. their familiarity with the behavior or situation

Answer 49

Answer A is correct. Piaget distinguished between three stages of moral development: premoral, heteronomous, and autonomous. Children in the heteronomous stage base their moral judgments of a person’s behavior on its consequences, while children in the autonomous stage base their moral judgments on the person’s intentions.

Question 50

The earliest time in fetal development when the fetus has a good chance of survival outside the womb is referred to as the age of viability. The age that marks the lower limit of viability is generally considered to be ________ weeks after conception. A. 18 B. 22 C. 26 D. 30

Answer 50

Answer B is correct. The age of viability reported by different authors varies somewhat, but most agree that it’s between 22 and 26 weeks after conception.

Question 51

With regard to language, the smallest unit of meaning is referred to as a: A. word. B. grapheme. C. phoneme. D. morpheme.

Answer 51

Answer D is correct. Morphemes are the smallest meaningful units in a language. For example, in the English language, “inter,” “er,” “ism,” “pre,” and “post” are morphemes.

Question 52

Neo-Piagetian theories of cognitive development are best described as a combination of elements of Piaget’s constructivist theory and: A. sociocultural theory. B. structuralist theories. C. cognitive load theory. D. information processing theories.

Answer 52

Answer D is correct. Neo-Piagetian theories of cognitive development combine elements of Piaget’s theory and information processing theories. For example, like Piaget’s constructivist theory, neo-Piagetian theories identify stages of cognitive development and propose that individuals actively participate in aspects of their own cognitive development. In addition, like information processing theories, they describe changes within each stage as the result of changes in information processing abilities (e.g., increases in processing speed and the capacity of working memory).

Question 53

Kohlberg described moral development as depending on which of the following? A. level of cognitive development B. level of social perspective-taking C. level of cognitive development and level of social perspective-taking D. neither level of cognitive development nor level of social perspective-taking

Answer 53

Answer C is correct. Kohlberg concluded that the stages of moral development are related to a person’s levels of cognitive development and social perspective-taking.

Question 54

Which of the following types of Down Syndrome can be due to an error that occurs during cell division or to heredity? A. translocation trisomy 21 B. mosaic trisomy 21 C. standard trisomy 21 D. all of the above

Question 55

An interviewee would be classified as ________ using the Adult Attachment Interview (AAI) when she describes early relationships with her parents in very positive terms but is unable to give examples that support her evaluation. A. autonomous B. dismissing C. preoccupied D. disorganized

Answer 55

Answer B is correct. The AAI is used to assess an adult’s early attachment experiences and classifies interviewees as autonomous, dismissing, or preoccupied. Individuals are classified as dismissing when they provide positive descriptions of their early relationships with their parents, but their descriptions are not supported or are contradicted by their actual memories.

Question 56

Which of the following types of Down Syndrome can be due to an error that occurs during cell division or to heredity? A. translocation trisomy 21 B. mosaic trisomy 21 C. standard trisomy 21 D. all of the above

Answer 56

Answer A is correct. Unlike mosaic and standard trisomy 21, which are both caused by an error during cell division, translocation trisomy 21 can be caused by an error during cell division or heredity.

Question 57

Research has confirmed that undernutrition during prenatal development alters the function and structure of organ systems, which predisposes offspring to cardiovascular disease and type 2 diabetes in adulthood. This finding illustrates which of the following? A. fetal programming B. reaction range C. dynamic systems theory D. ecological theory

Answer 57

Answer A is correct. The research described in this question was conducted by Barker and his colleagues. It led to the development of Barker’s fetal origins hypothesis which is also known as fetal programming.

Question 58

Data collected by Danese and Tan (2014) indicated that which of the following may mediate the relationship between childhood maltreatment and adult obesity? A. socioeconomic status B. alcohol intake C. physical activity D. depression

Answer 58

Answer D is correct. Knowing that depression was identified as a mediating variable in the Danese and Tan study would have enabled you to identify the correct answer to this question. (It is not mentioned in the content summary, but Denese and Tan also looked at socioeconomic status, alcohol intake, and physical activity as potential mediators but found that they did not affect the relationship between childhood maltreatment and adult obesity.)

Question 59

A frequently cited meta-analysis of the research by Lucas-Thompson and colleagues (2010) found that a mother’s return to work during the first 3 years of her child’s life: A. has significant negative effects on a child’s later behavior and academic achievement regardless of family structure and income. B. has significant positive effects on a child’s later behavior and academic achievement regardless of family structure and income. C. does not have significant effects on a child’s later behavior and academic achievement, although outcomes are affected somewhat by the family structure and income. D. does not have significant effects on a child’s later behavior and academic achievement, and outcomes are not affected by the family structure or income.

Answer 59

Answer C is correct. Lucas-Thompson and colleagues (2010) found that children of women who returned to work during their children’s first 3 years of life (especially during the second or third year) were no more likely to develop significant behavioral or academic achievement problems than were children whose mothers stayed at home. However, the outcomes differed somewhat, depending on the family structure and income.

Question 60

In their longitudinal study of the effects of overcontrolling (“helicopter”) parenting, Perry and colleagues (2018) found that children’s levels of __________ at age 5 were mediators that linked overcontrolling parenting during toddlerhood to poor emotional, social, and academic functioning at 10 years of age. A. behavioral restraint and social reticence B. emotion regulation and inhibitory control C. negative affectivity and aggression D. self-awareness and empathy

Answer 60

Answer B is correct. Studies have linked helicopter parenting to a number of negative outcomes for children, and some studies have identified mediators that explain this link. For example, Perry and colleagues found that overcontrolling parenting during toddlerhood was predictive of poor emotional and behavioral self-regulation (as measured by emotion regulation and inhibitory control) at age 5 which, in turn, was predictive of emotional, social, and academic problems at age 10.

Question 61

As described by Erikson, the positive outcome (“virtue”) of the ego integrity versus despair stage of psychosocial development is which of the following? A. wisdom B. purpose C. care D. will

Answer 61

Answer A is correct. Erikson identified eight key virtues that correspond to his eight stages of psychosocial development. These are, in order, hope, will, purpose, competence, fidelity, love, care, and wisdom. Ego integrity versus despair is Erikson’s last stage and its virtue is wisdom.

Question 62

Bronfenbrenner’s (2004) bioecological theory distinguishes between five environmental systems that impact individual development. According to this theory, the __________ consists of the interactions between elements of the microsystem. A. macrosystem B. mesosystem C. exosystem D. chronosystem

Answer 62

Answer B is correct. Bronfenbrenner’s bioecological theory distinguishes between five environmental systems: microsystem, mesosystem, exosystem, macrosystem, and chronosystem. The microsystem consists of elements in a child’s immediate environment, including the child’s family, school, and peers, and the mesosystem consists of interactions between those elements (e.g., between the child’s family and school).

Question 63

Data collected by Bouchard and McGue (1981) indicate that the median correlation coefficient for IQ scores is lowest for which of the following? A. biological parent and child living apart B. adopted siblings living together C. biological siblings living apart D. half-siblings living together

Answer 63

Answer A is correct. The median correlation coefficients for IQ scores reported by Bouchard and McGue are .22 for biological parent and child living apart, .31 for adopted siblings living together, .24 for biological siblings living apart, and .35 for half-siblings living together. Note that an implication of this data is that nature (genetics) contributes somewhat less than nurture (environment) to IQ scores: For example, the correlation coefficient is higher for adopted siblings living together than for biological siblings living apart.

Question 64

Which of the following is not included in Rowe and Kahn’s (1987) three-component model of successful aging? A. high cognitive and physical functioning B. positive self-perception of aging C. low risk for disease and disability D. active engagement with life

Answer 64

Answer B is correct. Positive self-perception of aging is identified by some researchers as a contributor to successful aging but is not one of the factors included in Rowe and Kahn’s three-component model.

Question 65

____________ syndrome affects males, is due to the presence of an extra X chromosome, and causes a number of physical abnormalities. A. Prader-Willi B. Angelman C. Klinefelter D. Turner

Answer 65

Answer C is correct. The symptoms of Klinefelter syndrome vary, but most males with an extra X chromosome have undeveloped testes, breast enlargement, long limbs with a short trunk, less facial and body hair, and a low testosterone level.

Question 66

The symptoms of fetal alcohol syndrome: A. are lifelong and irreversible. B. gradually decrease in severity during childhood and adolescence. C. are largely reversible with the provision of early psychosocial interventions. D. are largely reversible with the provision of adequate nutrition following birth.

Answer 66

Answer A is correct. Fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) is the most severe form of fetal alcohol spectrum disorder (FASD). Its symptoms are lifelong and irreversible and include a wide range of physical abnormalities, cognitive deficits, and behavioral problems.

Question 67

The brain continues to develop into late adolescence or early to mid-adulthood, with the __________ being the last area to fully develop. A. basal ganglia B. amygdala C. somatosensory cortex D. prefrontal cortex

Answer 67

Answer D is correct. The prefrontal cortex is responsible for impulse control, planning, decision-making, and other higher-order cognitive functions. It’s the last area of the brain to become fully functional and continues to develop into the early or mid-20s.

Question 68

The 2015 National Survey on Drug Use and Health (SAMHSA, 2016) found that the largest percentage of respondents ages 12 to 17 used which the following in the previous month? A. tobacco B. cocaine C. alcohol D. marijuana

Answer 68

Answer C is correct. Consistent with prior surveys, the 2015 National Survey on Drug Use and Health found that the largest percentage of adolescents said they used alcohol during the previous month. However, the percentage was somewhat lower than in previous years: In 2015, 9.6 percent of adolescents said they used alcohol in the past month, while 11.5 and 11.6 percent said they did so in 2014 and 2013, respectively.

Question 69

The development of depth perception in infancy involves becoming sensitive to three types of information in a predictable order, with __________ information being the first type that infants are sensitive to. A. interposition B. kinetic C. binocular D. pictorial

Answer 69

Answer B is correct. In their study on the development of depth perception, A. Yonas and C. E. Granrud found that infants respond to kinetic cues at one to three months of age, binocular cues at three to five months, and pictorial cues at five to seven months (The development of sensitivity to kinetic, binocular, and pictorial depth information in human infants,

Question 70

By about __________ months of age, children use two words to create a simple sentence – for example, “juice gone,” “get toy,” and “big doggie.” A. 12 to 18 B. 18 to 24 C. 24 to 30 D. 30 to 36

Answer 70

Answer B is correct. The use of two words to create a sentence is referred to as telegraphic speech. It begins when a child is between 18 and 24 months of age and usually includes a noun and a verb or a noun and an adjective.

Question 71

Studies have consistently found that, when adults 70 years of age and older are asked to recall events from their past, they exhibit a “reminiscence bump” which is a spike in the number of memories for events that occurred between the ages of: A. 5 to 15. B. 15 to 25. C. 25 to 35. D. 30 to 40.

Answer 71

Answer B is correct. When older adults are asked to recall events from their past, the largest number of recalled events are from the recent past. However, there’s also a “reminiscence bump” which is a spike in memory for events that occurred in mid-adolescence to early adulthood (from about ages 15 to 25

Question 72

Soon after a young child learns that the family pet is a “doggie,” he starts calling cats and all other furry four-legged animals “doggie.” According to Piaget, this is an example of which of the following? A. assimilation B. equilibration C. accommodation D. horizontal decalage

Answer 72

A is correct. Piaget proposed that the construction of knowledge involves adaptation, which consists of two processes – assimilation and accommodation. Assimilation occurs when children apply their existing schemes (cognitive structures) to new experiences, while accommodation occurs when children modify their existing schemes to better fit new experiences. Applying the word “doggie” to all furry four-legged animals is an example of assimilation.

Question 73

Samantha, age 16, says that it’s not necessary to use protection when having sex with her boyfriend because “there’s no way I’m going to get pregnant.” According to Elkind (1976), this is an example of which of the following? A. identity moratorium B. magical thinking C. the personal fable D. the self-serving bias

Answer 73

Answer C is correct. Elkind proposed that early formal operational thought is characterized by adolescent egocentrism, and he identified the personal fable as one of its manifestations. As defined by Elkind, the personal fable is the belief that one is unique and not subject to the rules or consequences that apply to other people. An adolescent’s belief that there’s “no way” that having unprotected sex with her boyfriend could lead to pregnancy is an example of the personal fable.

Question 74

Piaget attributed children’s ability to engage in deferred imitation and make-believe play to: A. the process of accommodation. B. the process of equilibration. C. the use of mental operations. D. the ability to create mental representations.

Answer 74

Answer D is correct. Piaget attributed deferred imitation and make-believe play to the ability to create mental representations, which emerges during the final substage of the sensorimotor period at about 18 months of age. Note, however, that subsequent research found that children engage in deferred imitation and other behaviors that depend on mental representations prior to this age.

Question 75

Bem’s (1981) gender schema theory incorporates elements of which of the following to explain how children learn about gender roles and acquire a gender identity? A. cognitive developmental theory and social learning theory B. cognitive developmental theory and psychodynamic theory C. behavioral learning theory and biological theory D. behavioral learning theory and psychodynamic theory

Answer 75

Answer A is correct. Bem’s gender schema theory combines elements of cognitive developmental theory and social learning theory to explain how children learn about gender roles and acquire a gender identity. According to this theory, children acquire information about gender from the social environment, which they encode and process to derive cognitive schemas that they use to understand and evaluate themselves and others.

Question 76

Erik Erikson (1978) identified a positive outcome (“virtue”) for each of his eight stages of psychosocial development. Which of the following does not accurately match a stage with its positive outcome? A. generativity vs. stagnation: care B. autonomy vs. shame and doubt: purpose C. industry vs. inferiority: competence D. basic trust vs. mistrust: hope

Answer 76

Answer B is correct. Erikson identified will (initiative and self-determination) as the positive outcome of the autonomy vs. shame stage of psychosocial development.

Question 77

Carstensen’s (1992) socioemotional selectivity theory proposes that, as we get older: A. emotionally meaningful and knowledge-related goals both become more important. B. emotionally meaningful goals become more important and knowledge-related goals become less important. C. emotionally meaningful goals become less important and knowledge-related goals become more important. D. emotionally meaningful and knowledge-related goals both become less important.

Answer 77

Answer B is correct. Carstensen’s socioemotional selectivity theory proposes that our goals change as our future time becomes more limited. It distinguishes between two types of goals – knowledge-related and emotionally meaningful – and proposes that, as we get older, we place less importance on knowledge-related goals and more importance on emotionally meaningful goals. In terms of social relationships, this means that younger people prefer relationships that fulfill their knowledge-related goals, while older people prefer relationships that fulfill their emotionally meaningful goals.

Question 78

Based on her observations of children 2-1/2 to 4 years of age, Mildred Parten (1932) derived six types of social participation that differ in terms of level of social complexity. Of these six types, she identified which of the following as the most socially complex? A. parallel play B. mastery play C. cooperative play D. associative play

Answer 78

Answer C is correct. Parten concluded that the six types of social participation emerge sequentially and progress from least to most complex in terms of social interaction and cooperation: unoccupied behavior, solitary play, onlooker behavior, parallel play, associative play, and cooperative play.

Question 79

In Ainsworth’s (Ainsworth et al., 1978) “strange situation,” an infant with an ____________ attachment pattern is indifferent to his/her mother and may act as though she’s not present, shows little or no distress when she leaves, and ignores her when she returns. Mothers of children with this attachment pattern are often ____________. A. avoidant; rejecting/unresponsive or intrusive/overstimulating B. avoidant; moody/depressed and inconsistent C. ambivalent; rejecting/unresponsive or intrusive/overstimulating D. ambivalent; moody/depressed and inconsistent

Answer 79

Answer A is correct. Ainsworth and her colleagues distinguished between two types of insecure attachment patterns: avoidant and ambivalent (which is also referred to as resistant). The infant behaviors described in this question are characteristic of children with the avoidant pattern, and parents of children with this pattern are often either rejecting and unresponsive or intrusive and overstimulating.

Question 80

In response to the “Heinz dilemma,” some of Kohlberg’s research subjects said it was wrong for Heinz to steal a drug to try to save his dying wife because Heinz would get caught and sent to jail. This response is characteristic of Kohlberg’s __________ level of moral development. A. unconventional B. preconventional C. conventional D. postconventional

Answer 80

Answer B is correct. Kohlberg’s theory of moral development distinguishes between three levels – preconventional, conventional, and postconventional – and each level includes two stages. Individuals in the first stage of the preconventional level (punishment and obedience orientation) base their judgments on the consequences of the act. A person in this stage would say that Heinz should not steal the drug because of the negative consequences of doing so.

Question 81

At the beginning of the school year, a researcher tells a first-grade teacher that a test had been administered to all students in kindergarten and the results indicated that five of her 22 students – Bob G., Liang C., Ellen A., Isadore R., and Lucia V. – will show significant gains in academic achievement this year. Even though the five children were actually randomly selected, all showed significant gains in academic skills by the end of the school year. Which of the following best explains these results? A. the Hawthorne effect B. the Rosenthal effect C. the positive halo effect D. the confirmation bias

Answer 81

Answer B is correct. This question describes a study that’s similar to the study conducted by Rosenthal and Jacobson (1968) who found that teachers’ expectations for students identified as academic “spurters” (but who were actually randomly chosen) had a positive effect on the students’ IQ scores and grades. This effect is known by several names including the Rosenthal effect, the Pygmalion effect, and the self-fulfilling prophecy effect.