MES I Flashcards by Jae 🍀

During swing phase, weak hip flexors causes which of the following gait deviations?
a. Circumduction
b. All of the choices
c. Hip hiking
d. Vaulting

b. All of the choices

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This joint of the digit, if left unstable after a trauma, leads eventually to ulnar deviation of the digit. What is this joint?
a. MCP
b. CMC
c. PIP
d. DIP

a. MCP

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The following are characteristics of static stretch, EXCEPT:
a. Repetitive, progressive
b. Slow, controlled
c. Sustained 30-second hold
d. Early, middle and end-stage rehab

a. Repetitive, progressive

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In major pelvic fractures, emergency fixation should be done as life threatening complications of injury may occur. What is the most common complication?

a. Paralysis
b. Bleeding
c. Malunion
d. Infection

b. Bleeding

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These fractures are more stable than most fractures. This is called

a. Compound
b. Greenstick
c. Impacted
d. Avulsion

c. Impacted

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Severe TBI presents with which of the following characteristics?

a. Initial GCS 13 to 15
b. No focal neurological deficit
c. Negative CT and/or MRI
d. Loss of consciousness, if any, 30 min or more

d. Loss of consciousness, if any, 30 min or more

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The sensory fibers which serve pain and temperature are which fibers?

A. A beta
B. B
C. A alpha
D. C

C. A alpha

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What condition does the patient has if she/he cannot-identify objects in the hand?

a. Anosognosia
c. Aphasia
b. Astereognosis
d. Apraxia

b. Astereognosis

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The following are suggested positioning of joints to prevent contractures, EXCEPT:

a. Knee extension
c. Neutral ankle
b. Shoulder abd, ER
d. Hip extension, ER

d. Hip extension, ER

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Before using plyometric exercises in a therapy program, it is essential to ask which one of the following questions?

a. Is the patient stable enough?
b. Is the patient happy with the exercises?
c. Is the patient light enough to do the exercises?
d. Is the patient willing to do the exercises?

a. Is the patient stable enough?

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Which of the following has the greatest beneficial effects on healing in a patient with multiple pressure ulcers?

a. Low frequency, non-contact ultrasound
b. Electromagnetic therapy
C.Negative pressure wound therapy
d. Photo/laser therapy

a. Low frequency, non-contact ultrasound

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Prevention neural tube defects such as Myelomeningocoele requires intake of which vitamin?

a. Riboflavin
b. Mecobalamin
c. Folic acid
D. Ascorbic acid

c. Folic acid

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The following orthoses are used in DMD for several reasons, EXCEPT:

a. Reduced lumbar lordosis
b. Continuous functional ambulation
C. Stretching of the lower extremity muscles target
d. Prolonged standing

b. Continuous functional ambulation

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A patient with Fascioscapulohumeral dystrophy has affectation of the following muscles: orbicularis oris, zygomaticus, orbicularis oculi. She will have difficulty in the following activities EXCEPT:

a.Frowning when angry
b. Whistling to call her dog
C. Pursing the lips while putting on lipstick
d. Drinking from a straw

a.Frowning when angry

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Lack of awareness, denial of a paretic extremity, or denial of illness is called:

a. Body agnosia
b. Anosognosia
c. Autopagnosia
d. Somatoagnosia

b. Anosognosia

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The level of perceived exertion using the Borg Scale is used during Cardiac Rehabilitation. A score of 13-14 would be exertion which is what for the patient?

a. Somewhat hard
c. Very hard
b. Fairly light
d. Very light

a. Somewhat hard

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A patient presents with severe knee pain, there is note of knee redness, swelling and warmth. Concomitantly, the patient has febrile episodes, What condition does the patient has?

a. Knee OA
b. Infective arthritis
C.torn acl
D. Knee bursitis

b. Infective arthritis

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Your post breast cancer surgery patient is suffering from lymphedema. You are concerned that your patient may develop cellulitis. All of the following may be necessary to help prevent cellulitis, except:

A. Avoidance of venipuncture and blood pressure determination from the affected arm
b. Daily washing and use of emollient skin creams
c. Antifungal cream use should be delayed
D.Skin protectants from burns, cuts and insect bites should be used

c. Antifungal cream use should be delayed

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Upon assessment and evaluation of your patient, you noticed on palpation of the foot that he has tenderness at the articular surface of the talus. You know that this is a common finding in which condition?

a. Deltoid strain
c. Tendonitis
b. Bursitis
d. Osteoarthritis

d. Osteoarthritis

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Successful total ankle replacement surgeries depend on the health of the joint below it.

a. Talonavicular
b. Talofibular
c. Subtalar
d. Talotibial

c. Subtalar

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All of the following are target muscles for preventing and treating pelvic girdle pain during pregnancy, EXCEPT:
a. Hip adductors
b. None of the answers
c. Hip flexors
d. Hip abductors

b. None of the answers

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Patients with a poking chin or forward head posture consists of the following EXCEPT:

a. decreased middle cervical extension
b. increased lower cervical flexion
c. increased cervicothoracic flexion
d. increased upper cervical extension

A. decreased middle cervical extension

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A Breast Cancer patient is referred for Rehab. She is 2 weeks post modified radical mastectomy with lymph node dissection of the right upper extremity. She has edema of the entire right upper extremity, limitation of motion of the shoulder and MMT is Gr 3-/5. Which of the following is contraindicated?

a. use of compression garments for the UE
b. pendulum exercises, ROM and stretching
c. use of hot compress for the right upper extremity
d. strengthening of the rotator cuff, scapular stabilizers

D. strengthening of the rotator cuff, scapular stabilizers

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The Orthotic causes of foot slap are the following. Which one is NOT a cause?

a. Inadequate dorsiflexion assist
b. Inadequate heel lift
c. Inadequate relief of heel pain
d. Inadequate plantarflexion stop

B. Inadequate heel lift
C. Inadequate relief of heel pain

(either of these can be the answer but remember always the rule of boards)

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Which of the following is NOT a core lumbopelvic stabilizing muscle? a. Lumbar multifidus b. Pelvic floor muscles c. Transversus abdominis d. Gluteus minimus

D. Gluteus minimus

Conditions with chronic Alveolar Hypoventilation manageable with Respiratory Muscle Aids include Myopathies, Neuropathies, GBS, Myelopathies, Obesity Hypoventilation, Encephalopathies. The goals of these aids include the following EXСЕРТ: a. Provides functional cough by assisting expiratory musculature b. CPAP (Continuous Positive Airway Pressure) assists ventilation in patients with Primary ventilatory impairment c. Maintains pulmonary compliance, lung growth and chest-wall mobility d. Continuously maintains normal alveolar ventilation by assisting inspiratory musculature

B. CPAP (Continuous Positive Airway Pressure) assists ventilation in patients with Primary ventilatory impairment

242. The greatest amount of flexion in the cervical spine occurs at the level of _____ a. C2-C3 b C4-C5 c. C6-C7 d. C3-C4

b C4-C5

245 In a stroke patient with Global Aphasia, which one of the following is NOT true? a. The region affected includes the frontoparietal lobes b. Nonfluent verbal output c. Associated signs include Right sided weakness, sensory deficits and hemianopsia d. Intact comprehension

d. Intact comprehension

246. The following are classified under the Primary neurodegenerative disorders causing Parkinsonism, EXCEPT: a. Multiple systems atrophy b. Multiple cerebral infarctions c. Progressive supranuclear palsy d. Cortico-basal degeneration

b. Multiple cerebral infarctions

247. This patient can perform isolated components of a task but cannot combine them into a complete activity. He cannot verbally describe the functions of objects or use them appropriately. This is called a. Astereognosis b. Ideational Apraxia c. Ideomotor Apraxia d. Neglect

b. Ideational Apraxia

248.In middle cerebral Artery Syndrome, contralateral hemiparesis involving the upper extremity and face more than the lower extremity involves which area? a. Wernicke's cortical area b. Internal capsule and primary motor complex c. Parietal Lobe d. Broca's Cortical Area

b. Internal capsule and primary motor

249. This is a very good source of calcium among the following a. plain yogurt b. vanilla ice cream c. cheese pizza d. tofu

a. plain yogurt

250.Inpatient therapy for post-partum patients is very important.In post-caesarean section patients, the following should be included EXCEPT: a. pelvic floor and abd exercises b. bed exercises c. respiratory exercises d. delayed mobilization

d. **delayed** mobilization

251. Which of the following is NOT a possible non-musculoskeletal cause of pelvic girdle pain of pregnancy? a. Serum relaxin levels b. Increased hyaluronidase c. Oral contraceptives d. Genetic susceptibility

a. Serum relaxin levels

252. The 34-year-old pregnant patient with severe back pain may have which of the following conditions which is most common? a. Lumbar zygapophysial joint problems b. Coccydynia c. Any of the answers d. Unilateral sacroiliac dysfunction e. Symphysis pubis dysfunction

c. Any of the answers

253.In Pelvic girdle pain of Pregnancy, which muscles are found to be most tight? a. Pubococcygeus b. Piriformis c. Quadratus Lumborum d. Psoas

a. Pubococcygeus

254.In Myelomeningocoele, this level of lesion is most often associated with flaccid lower limbs and frog-leg positioning. What level is this? a. High lumbar b. Thoracic c. Sacral d. Low lumbar

b. Thoracic

255. The 46-year-old patient with a tibial fracture begins to complain of severe pain over the affected limb. He is examined and the limb is found to be pale, pulse is faint to none. He is unable to move the limb and claims to have no sensation of the area. This may be a case of: a. Compartment syndrome b. Pulmonary embolism c. Tetanus d. Infection

a. Compartment syndrome

256.On examination of a male elderly patient with ankle pain, to pain particularly under the malleolus that increases when you do resisted ankle inversion. What is the possible problem of the patient? a. Ankle Osteoarthritis b. Medial collateral ligament sprain c. Posterior tibialis tendonitis d. Lengthened medial ligaments

c. Posterior tibialis tendonitis

257.A 40-year-old basketball player landing off balance on one leg, has sudden giving way and severe pain of his knee. There is note of a palpable defect at the site of the proximal patellar pole. He has sustained what injury? a. Hip adductor tear b. Quadriceps contusion c. Rectus femoris rupture d. Quadriceps strain

c. Rectus femoris rupture

258. A patient is referred for therapy 24 hours after a total knee replacement. What exercise would be the most appropriate to begin treatment? a. Straight leg raises b. Short arc quads exs c. Standing leg curls d. Quadriceps setting e. Short arc quads setting

d. Quadriceps setting

259.On palpation of the knee, tenderness over the femoral condyle may indicate the presence of: a. Patellofemoral dysfunction b. Patellar tendonitis c. Chondromalacia patella d. Osteochondritis dissecans

d. Osteochondritis dissecans

260.On palpation of the ankle and foot, tenderness on the mid posterior aspect of the calcaneus may be indicative of what pathology? a. Calcaneal spur b. Calcaneal bursitis c. Plantar fasciitis d. Calcaneal fracture

b. Calcaneal bursitis

261.As you are walking fast during a rainy day, you twist your foot and your ankle goes into excessive inversion. You go home with difficulty in walking and note bruising and swelling below your lateral malleolus. What did you sustain? a. Deltoid ligament sprain b. None of the answers are correct c. Pseudo Jefferson's fracture d. Lateral ligament sprain

d. Lateral ligament sprain

262. A 19-year-old male football player had injury to the anterior aspect of his leg and complains of severe pain over the area of injury. On PE, noted is the loss of muscle function and presence of foot drop. Passive stretching of the ankle dorsiflexors is very painful. The skin is red, glossy, warm and tender. What would be the appropriate treatment of this injury on the field? a. Application of a rigid splint b. Application of cold c. Application of heat and kneading massage d. Application of a pressure dressing

b. Application of cold

263.On examination of the foot, you note that on squeezing the medial and lateral sides of the forefoot together, the patient feels exquisite pain and tenderness under the metatarsal heads. What is this pathology which is inflammation of the area around the third and fourth digital nerves? a. Tarsal tunnel syndrome b. Metatarsal spur c. Metatarsalgia d. Morton's neuroma

d. Morton's neuroma

264. The following treatments are helpful for plantar fasciitis during the initial stages. Which should be done in the subacute and more chronic stages? a. stretching of the Achilles tendon and plantar fascia b. icing and deep massage c. cortisone injection d. Taping

c. cortisone injection

265. The following can predispose to dislocation of the patella, except: a. Genu valgum b. External tibial torsion c. Tight vastus medialis d. Shallow patellar groove on the femur

c. Tight vastus medialis

266.A patient diagnosed with Adhesive Capsulitis Stage 3 was referred to you for treatment. She has decreased ROM of the shoulder with severely restricted glenohumeral joint motions, She probably has had the symptoms for the past: a. 1-3 mos b. 9-12 mos c. 3-6 weeks d. 6-7 days

b. 9-12 mos

267 A aeatment which may not be necessary during the initial stages of plantar fasciitis is: icing and deep massage cortisone injection stretching of the Achilles tendon and plantar fasciitis is: a. icing and deep massage b. cortisone injection c. taping d. strechimg of the achilles tendon and plantar fascia

b. cortisone injection

268.On examination of a male obese patient with foot pain, the pain is mostly felt on the plantar aspect of the heel on walking, and on toe extension. What is this? a. Plantar fasciitis b. Foot OA c. Pes planus d. Pes cavus

a. Plantar fasciitis

269.On examination of a patient with shoulder pain, you notice decreased ROM particularly on passive internal and external rotation, as well as abduction. What pathology will you consider? a. Adhesive capsulitis b. Impingement syndrome c. Ruptured rotator cuff d. Ruptured biceps brachii

a. Adhesive capsulitis

270.In sports, PRICEM, the principles of soft tissue injury management, stands for Protection, Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation. What does the M stand for? a. Medications b. Mastery c. Mobilization d. Manipulation

c. Mobilization

271. In Neuroplasticity, failure to drive specific brain functions can lead to functional degeneration. This principle is called: a. Use it or lose it b. Transference c. Use it and improve it d. Specificity

a. Use it or lose it

272. Plasticity in response to one training experience can enhance the acquisition of similar behaviours. This is the Principle of Experience-dependent Neuroplasticity. a. Specificity b. Transference c. Interference d. Use it and improve it

b. Transference

273. The MS patient referred to you for treatment presents with mainly the following visual impairments: poor visual acuity, photophobia and occasional diplopia. The following may help her a lot EXCEPT: a. use of an eye patch b. use of sunglasses c. large-print reading materials d. keeping her eyes closed

d. keeping her eyes closed

274. Older females with a family history of breast cancer are common risk factors for the development of cancer of the breast. Other risk factors include the following EXCEPT: a. Lack of physical activity b. Excess alcohol consumption c. Postmenopausal obesity d. Low fat diet

d. Low fat diet

275. The 57y.o. female post Breast Cancer surgery patient has developing lymphedema of the affected arm. Which of the following would be the best to help the patient? a. Compression garments b. Manual Lymphatic Drainage c. Dynamic exercises d. Any of the answers

d. Any of the answers

276. Your father who is obese and a chronic smoker should exercise to decrease his risk of developing atherosclerosis. Which of the following is true about the effects of exercise on cardiovascular disease? a. Decreased VO2 Max b. Increased Heart rate response to submaximal exercise c. Decreased blood pressure response to submaximal exercise d. Increased myocardial oxygen demand for a given workload

c. Decreased blood pressure response to submaximal exercise

277. A 91/M patient on home care therapy once a week has episodes of sudden BP drops during sitting exercise. To prevent orthostasis, which of following may be done? a. use of compression stockings b. regular exercise c. All d. physical maneuvers like ankle pumps e. increase intake of salt and water

c. All

278. Increased peripheral arterial pressure contributes to increased afterload and pathological hypertrophy of the left ventricle. This occurs in: a. Hypertension b. Pericarditis c. Cardiomyopathy d. Coronary artery disease

a. Hypertension

279. Your fracture inpatient is noted to have Deep Vein Thrombosis seen on Vascular studies. What drug should you make sure the patient is being given as to ensure safety of therapy? a. Antibiotics b. Antihypertensives c. Anticoagulants d. Steroids

c. Anticoagulants

280. Your father who is obese and a chronic smoker should exercise to decrease his risk of developing atherosclerosis. Which of the following is TRUE about the effects of exercise on cardiovascular disease? a. decreased blood pressure response to submaximal exercise b. increased heart rate response to submaximal exercise c. increased myocardial oxygen demand for a given workload d. decreased VO2 max

a. decreased blood pressure response to submaximal exercise

281. The 57-year-old female patient you are assigned to is diagnosed to have Stage III Breast Cancer. You know that this comprises the following EXCEPT: a. Lymph nodes in armpit are affected b. cancer has spread to other parts of the body c. No evidence of spread beyond the armpit d. Tumor of any size

b. cancer has spread to other parts of the body

282. Your 25-year-old T2 level sci patient, after missing 1 week of Physical Therapy and confined to the bed due to a flu, complains to you of warm, reddish swelling of both lower legs. You immediately inform the attending physician that this is possibly a case of: a. Deep Venous Thrombosis b. Tibial Fracture c. Heterotopic ossification d. Diabetic foot

a. Deep Venous Thrombosis

283. Patient B (without risk factors) is 70 years old. The computed Training heart rate (beats per minute), using Age-adjusted predicted maximum heart rate formula, would be: a. 90-112 b.150 c. 90 d. 150-290

a. 90-112 MHR: 220-70=150 THR: 60-75% (150) 150 x 0.6=90 ; 150 x 0.75=112.5 =90-112

284. Cardiac Exercise Prescription for Hypertensive patients should include the following components. Which one is NOT included? a. Duration: 45-55 minutes b. Frequency: 3-5 times a week c. Intensity: 50-75% maximum HR d. Type: Lower resistance/ higher repetitions

a. Duration: 45-55 minutes (only 20-30 mins if there is HTN)

285. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) is a commonly used medication for insomnia for patients with chronic pain. Its mechanism of action is: a. serotonin receptor antagonist b. enhances inhibitory GABA action c. antihistamine d. serotonin reuptake inhibition

c. antihistamine

286. Methotrexate is a drug classified as: a. Disease-Modifying Anti-Rheumatic Drugs (DMARDs) b. Steroid c. Biologic Response Modifiers d. NSAIDS

a. Disease-Modifying Anti-Rheumatic Drugs (DMARDs)

287.In Cardiac rehabilitation, using age-adjusted predicted maximum heart rate formula, what should the training heart rate of a patient, low risk and uncomplicated case, who is 70 years of age? a. 80-90 beats per minute b. 90-120 beats per minute c. 90-112 beats per minute d. 100-112 beats per minute

c. 90-112 beats per minute MHR: 220-70=150 THR: 60-75% (150) 150 x 0.6=90 ; 150 x 0.75=112.5 =90-112

288. Complete disruption of nerve continuity is a consequence of this nerve pathology according to Seddon: a. Neuropraxia b. Axonotmesis and neuropraxia c. Axonotmesis d. Neurotmesis

d. Neurotmesis (+) axon, endoneurium, perineurium & epineurium damage

289. Quadriparesis with ability to just move the eye up and down or blink a. Locked-in syndrome b. Millard-Gubler syndrome c. Medial Medullary syndrome d. Basilar artery occlusion syndrome

a. Locked-in syndrome

290. Cubital Tunnel Syndrome presents with pain or paresthesias over digits 4 and 5. The structure affected would be the: a. median nerve b. radial nerve c. flexor carpi ulnaris d. ulnar nerve

d. ulnar nerve

291. Attention deficits affect the following areas of the brain. Which one is NOT affected? a. limbic system b. frontal regions c. cerebellar area d. reticular formation

c. cerebellar area

292. As a PT/or in Sports Med, you were assigned to a Marathon. Basic knowledge of Exercise-associated collapse and their differentials should be clear to you in case of an emergency which may include all EXCEPT one of the following: a. Cardiac arrest b. Hypoglycemia c. Hyperglycemia d. Heat stroke d. Heat stroke

c. Hyperglycemia

293. Affectation of both the third convolution and posterior portion of the superior temporal gyrus, in a Middle Cerebral Artery Syndrome will present with: a. Fluent aphasia b. Broca's aphasia c. Global aphasia d. Agnosia

c. Global aphasia

294. Quadriparesis with ability to just move the eye up and down or blink is called: a. Medial Medullary syndrome b. Basilar artery occlusion syndrome c. Millard-Gubler syndrome d. Locked-in syndrome

d. Locked-in syndrome

295. The disease entity characterized by both UMN and LMN signs is: a. Multiple Sclerosis b. Parkinsons disease c. Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis d. Spinal Muscular Atrophy

c. Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis

296. SCI Patient E: Biceps 5/5, hands good grip; hip flexors 5/5, knee extensors 5/5, ankle plantarflexors 3/5, sensory intact except over the buttocks. Injury? a. L1 b. L5 c. S2 d. T12

b. L5

297. On examination of the ankle, to differentiate between the three bands of the lateral ligament, certain positions and movements of the ankle are done. To strain the anterior band, what movement/s should be done? a. plantarflexion and inversion b. dorsiflexion and inversion c. inversion only d. eversion only

a. plantarflexion and inversion

298. Your home care patient of more than 10 years is a 65/M SCI T6 level complete; wheelchair dependent. You know that aside from regular ROM exercises, maintenance of conditioning and function, other areas need to be checked as well. You remind him about the need to have which of the following organ systems checked? a. Neurologic b. pulmonary and cardiac c. skin and bones d. bowel and bladder e. all of the organ systems

d. bowel and bladder (S2-S4 is affected)

299.In Vertebrobasilar Artery Stroke, the following signs and symptoms, which are found on the same side of the lesion, are seen in a specific syndrome: Nystagmus, vertigo, cerebellar ataxia, decreased pain and temperature sensation of the face. What is the name of this syndrome? a. Locked-in Syndrome b.Medial Medullary Syndrome c. Lateral Medullary Syndrome d. Horner's Syndrome

c. Lateral Medullary Syndrome

300. The bladder management which would be best for an L1 SCI patient is a. Suprapubic catheter b. Independent Intermittent Catheterization Program c. Total Assist for ICP d. Indwelling foley catheter

b. Independent Intermittent Catheterization Program

244. Your Multiple Sclerosis patient has the following eye/visual symptom: incomplete eye adduction on the affected side and nystagmus of the opposite abducting eye with gaze to one side. This is called: a. Scotoma b. Optic Neuritis c. Marcus Gunn Pupil d. Internuclear Ophthalmoplegia

d. Internuclear Ophthalmoplegia (affectation of the Medial Longitudinal Fasciculus)

243. Spasticity declines, movement combinations are mastered during this Brunnstrom Stage of Stroke Recovery a. Stage 4 b. Stage 5 c. None of the choices d. Stage 3

a. Stage 4

241.In MCP joint arthroplasties, in the long term, functional aims are achieved by which of the following therapy techniques? a. Strengthening exercises b. Joint protection techniques c. Any of the answers are correct d. Pinch re-education

c. Any of the answers are correct

What is the splint that may be used in stable fractures of the phalanges, which fixes the injured finger to the adjacent finger and gives support while allowing some movement? a. Buddy strap b. Finger Spica c. Gutter d. Cock-up

A. Buddy strap

The Mechanism in the Development of Cor Pulmonale in COPD begins with which of the following? a. Hуроxic pulmonary vasoconstriction b. Polycythemia c. Right heart failure d. Ventilation/perfusion abnormality e. Renal hypoxia

D. Ventilation/perfusion abnormality

Your 6-year-old nephew has Asthma. His mother asks you what are the early warning signs of an attack of severe asthma. You mention which of the following? a. Increase in exercise tolerancе b. Decrease in bronchodilator use c. Decrease in symptoms d. Sleep disturbance

D. Sleep disturbance

Medical Treatment of COPD should include the following. Which one is NOT avital part of the treatment? a. Avoidance of allergens b. Oxygen therapy c. Control bronchospasm d. Control infections

A. Avoidance of allergens

During swing, an adequate dorsiflexion assist and plantarflexions stop would help eliminate a. All of the choices b. Vaulting c. Circumduction d. Hip hiking

A. All of the choices

This neuromuscular facilitation technique facilitates postural extensors and stabilizing responses (cocontraction) as well as enhances joint awareness. This is a. Joint traction b. Resistance c. Joint approximation d. Quick stretch

C. Joint approximation

The type of Idiopathic Scoliosis that typically does not spontaneously resolve is_. a. Adolescent onset b. Juvenile onset c. Infantile onset d. Adult onset

B. Juvenile onset

Which of the following would be the end-stage of Cor Pulmonale and Congestive Heart failure in COPD? a. Pulmonary hypertension b. Left Ventricular failure с. Нуроxia d. Increase in systemic blood pressure

B. Left Ventricular failure

Poor recruitment and decreased strength of the following muscles have been shown to be of great importance in the occurrence of pelvic girdle pain in pregnancy. These muscles are: a. Hip adductors and flexors b. Hip flexors and extensors c. Hip internal and external rotators d. Hip abductors and extensors

A. Hip adductors and flexors

Which of the following is NOT a treatment benefit of Bridging exercises? a. Hyperextends the shoulders b. increase lower extremity control c. hip stabilizers strengthening d. improve lower trunk control

A. Hyperextends the shoulders

Patients with a poking chin or forward head posture is a result of them following EXCЕРТ: a. overactivity of the SCMs b. weakness of the deep cervical flexors c. overactivity of the levator scapulae d. overactivity of the deep cervical flexors

D. overactivity of the deep cervical flexors

On examination of a patient with low back pain, you note that the pelvis is tilted anteriorly. This may be a problem; thus, you need to check on which of the following muscles to correct the anterior tilted pelvis? a. Transversus Abdominis b. Quadriceps femoris c. Erector spinae d. Quadratus lumborum

A. Transversus Abdominis

The 46-year-old male fracture patient with RSD/CRPS will benefit most from which therapeutic exercise? a. Isometrics b. All of the answers c. Isotonic exercise d. ROM exercises

B. All of the answers

There are several factors influencing the rate of healing in the stages of Remodeling and repair of injured tissue. Which of the following would be the least important of these factors? a. Severity of trauma b. Tissue innervation c. Nutrition d. Temperature

B. Tissue innervation (it should be TISSUE VASCULARITY)

Your 96 y.o. female patient sustained a pubic ramus fracture due to severe osteoporosis. She complains of severe pain especially on walking. This may be due to a muscle pulling on the area of the fracture. What muscle is this? a. Hip external rotators b. Hip-adductors c. Hip abductors d. Hip internal rotators

B. Hip-adductors

Fracture of the radius with subluxation of the lower end of the ulna is called a. Bennett b. Galeazzi c. Bankart d. Monteggia

B. Galeazzi

In Fracture healing, which one of the following is NOT included? a. Hematoma b. None of the answers c. Remodeling d. Callus formation

B. None of the answers

In major pelvic fractures, what are the other organs which are the most commonly prone to injury? a. Vaginal canal and Uterus b. Bladder and Urethra c. Rectum and Colon d. Reproductive organs

B. Bladder and Urethra

In fractures of the knee, what are the most common complications arising from injury to this area? a. All of the answers are correct b. Osteoarthritis c. Hemarthrosis d. Genu valgum

A. All of the answers are correct

The 36-year-old Male patient with femoral fracture and pelvic fractures suddenly goes into hypotension, tachycardia, confusion and then stupor. This is an emergency situation due to hypovolemia or loss of blood found in long bone and pelvic fractures. This is called: a. Tetanus b. Shock c. Compartment syndrome d. Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome

B. Shock

TRUE of Stress Fracture of the Metatarsal bone: a. Usually involves the fourth and fifth metatarsal bones b. Temporary exhaustion of the musculotendinous support of the foot с. Result from repeated stresses associated with walking d. Onset of pain and tenderness precedes the xray changes by 1-2 weeks

C. Result from repeated stresses associated with walking

The 26-year-old with distal radial and ulnar fractures, is referred for ROM exercises. What movement/s should be focused on during therapy, to prevent permanent forearm tightness and contracture which is common in this type of fracture: a. Wrist dorsi and palmar flexion b. Flexion and extension c. Pronation and supination d. Wrist radial and ulnar deviation

C. Pronation and supination

The Colle's fracture of your 66-year-old female patient-is noted by the orthopedic surgeon to have overlapping of the fragments which has led to a shortening. This is called: a. None of the answers b. Malunion c. Non-union d. delayed union

B. Malunion

In fractures of the foot, what are the movements of the foot which the therapist should concentrate on, so as to regain normal function of the foot in gait? a. Adduction and Abduction b. Inversion and Eversion c. Pronation and Supination d. Dorsiflexion and Plantarflexion

B. Inversion and Eversion

Most important vitamins that play vital roles in bone formation and remodeling include Vitamins: a. B, D b. A, B, С c. A, D, E, K d. A, C, D

D. A,C,D

210. This pelvic bone when fractured or dislocated renders the pelvis more unstable and a more complicated injury. What is this pelvic bone? a. Iliac b. Pubic c. Sacrum d. Ischium

a. Iliac

209.In complex tibial fractures, traumatic osteoarthritis is anticipated to happen. What should be done to maintain articular cartilage nutrition? a. Continuous passive motion b. Diathermy and Ultrasound c. Early weight bearing d. Aggressive stretching

a. Continuous passive motion

208. At 3 weeks post tibial plateau fracture, the patient is referred for early ROM exercises. You know that the fracture is intra-articular. Thus, you know the following statements are correct EXCEPT for one. This is: a. Fractures within a joint may have the synovial fluid constantly washing away the callus formation, thus the delayed healing b. Fractures involving the articular predispose the joint to osteoarthritis due to the possibility of cartilage death with immobilization. c. Fractures involving the articular predispose the joint to osteoarthritis cartilage thus, mobilization is delayed. d. All of the statements are correct.

c. Fractures involving the articular predispose the joint to osteoarthritis cartilage thus, mobilization is delayed.

207. The patient is diagnosed with a Tri-malleolar fracture. What are the components of this fracture? a. Medial malleolus, Lateral malleolus and Posterior tibial malleolus b. Medial malleolus, Lateral malleolus and Anterior fibular malleolus c. Medial malleolus, Lateral malleolus and Anterior tibial malleolus d. Medial malleolus, Lateral malleolus and Posterior fibular malleolus

a. Medial malleolus, Lateral malleolus and Posterior tibial malleolus

206. The optimal splinting position of the hand includes which one of the following? a. MCP joints in neutral, IP joints in 90 degrees flexion b. MCP joints in extension, IP joints in extension c. MCP joints in 90 degrees flexion, IP joints in neutral d. MCP joints in flexion, IP joints in flexion

c. MCP joints in 90 degrees flexion, IP joints in neutral

205.In Impingement syndromes of the shoulder, repetitive overhead activities cause a painful arc of movement. What is the range of this painful arc of shoulder motion? a. 0-90 degrees of abduction b. 0-45 degrees of external rotation c. 45-90 degrees of internal rotation d. 90-130 degrees of abduction

d. 90-130 degrees of abduction

204.A patient is 4 weeks post medial meniscectomy with limitation of knee flexion range of motion. Which mobilization technique would be the most beneficial to increase knee flexion ROM? a. Posterior glide of the tibia b. Anterior glide of the tibia c. Superior glide of the tibia d. Anterior glide of the head of the fibula

a. Posterior glide of the tibia

203.What is necessary during the gait cycle for the 1st MTP Joint? a. 25-40 degrees PF b. 60-75 degrees DF c. 60-75 degrees PF d. 25-40 degrees DF

b. 60-75 degrees DF

202. Medial Epicondylitis may occur in golfers. Which of the following instructions should be advised to prevent this from occurring? a. improve trunk rotation b. lessen trunk rotation c. use a smaller and tight grip d. strike the ground with more force

a. improve trunk rotation

201. There are some contraindications to stretching. Which may not be common but is still considered a contraindication? a. Patient refusal b. Chronic joint limitations c. Recent stable fractures d. Subacute soft tissue injuries

a. Patient refusal

200.On palpation of the hip, if you are suspecting a hamstring strain, where is the area where you will concentrate your palpation? a. Iliac crests b. PSIS c. Popliteal fossa d. Ischial tuberosity

d. Ischial tuberosity

199.A universal cuff is applicable in the following complete SCI levels, helping in movements and ADLs. Which level would the cuff be inapplicable? a. C5 b. C6 c. C4 d. C7

c. C4

198. Fluent spontaneousspeech is found in this type of aphasia a. Transcortical motor b. Wernicke c. Broca d. Global

b. Wernicke

197. Which maneuver would best assess for weakness in S1 radiculopathy? a. Bending forward b. Squatting and arising c. Toe walking d. Walking on heels

c. Toe walking

196. Occlusion of the Superior Cerebellar artery, a branch of the Basilar artery has the following symptoms. Which one is NOT a symptom? a. Horner's syndrome b. Global aphasia c. Ataxia of limbs and gait d. Dizziness, nausea and vomiting

b. Global aphasia

195, Damage to the frontal lobe can lead to the following behavioral issues EXCEPT: a. Deafness b. Disinhibition c. Reduced motivation d. Agitation

a. Deafness

194.In a stroke patient presenting with visual disturbances, memory disturbances, contralateral sensory loss and homonymous field defects, which artery is most likely affected? a. Posterior cerebral b. Anterior cerebral c. Vertebrobasilar d. Middle cerebral

a. Posterior cerebral

193.A 50-year-old stroke patient with a lesion in the left. posterior superior temporal region has fluent verbal output, impaired repetition and comprehension. Which type of aphasia does he have? a. Conduction b. Broca's c. Wernicke's d. Global

c. Wernicke's

192. SCI patient A: deficits are 0/5 both Biceps and the entire UEx; 0/5 both LEx; Sensory 50% over neck area only. What is the injury? a. C4 b. C8 c. C6 d. Jefferson fracture (atlas)

d. Jefferson fracture (atlas)

191. Your stroke patient has beginning extensor synergy of the lower extremity. Which of the following is NOT part of this synergy? a. Ankle plantarflexion b. Hip abduction c. Ankle inversion d. Hip adduction

b. Hip abduction

190. Spasticity declines, movement combinations are mastered during which Brunnstrom Stage of Stroke recovery? a. Stage 5 b. Stage 3 c. Stage 4 d. None of the choices

c. Stage 4

189. The MS patient referred to you for treatment presents with mainly the following visual impairments: poor visual acuity, photophobia and occasional diplopia. Which of the following is LEAST likely to help? a. Keeping her eyes closed b. Use of an eye patch C. Use of sunglasses d. Large-print reading materials

a. Keeping her eyes closed

188. The Tardieu Scale is a true measure of spasticity. What is the score if there is no resistance throughout the passive movement? a. 2 b. 3 c. 0 d. 1

c. 0

187. This patient can perform isolated components of a task but cannot combine them into a complete activity. He cannot verbally describe the functions of objects or use them appropriately. This is called a. Astereognosis b. Ideational Apraxia c. Ideomotor Apraxia d. Neglect

b. Ideational Apraxia

186. This group of commonly prescribed NSAIDS inhibits prostaglandin synthesis and release. An example which may be used for Arthritis is Aspirin, This group of medications are called a. Oxicam derivatives b. Salicylate derivatives c. Cyclooxygenase-2 inhibitors d. Acetic acid derivatives

b. Salicylate derivatives

185. Your COPD patient taking SALBUTAMOL, a short-acting beta 2 agonist for bronchodilation, may present with symptoms which are adverse effects of the drug. The symptom which is LEAST likely to occur is a. Tremors b. Palpitations c. Nervousness d. Bradycardia

d. Bradycardia

184. Which of the following is NOT a contraindication to intraarticular steroidal injection? a. Steroidal allergy b. Presence of infection c. Diabetes mellitus d. Previous failure to respond

c. Diabetes mellitus

183. Steroids used for chronic pulmonary disease has this action a. Blocks allergic reaction b. Prevents inflammatory response c. Reduces inflammatory response d. Bronchodilation

c. Reduces inflammatory response

182. Which of the following is usually NOT done initially for the management of post-mastectomy lymphedema of the upper extremity? a. Surgical debulking b. Exercise c. Manual lymph drainage/massage d. Compression stockings

a. Surgical debulking

181. Which of the following is allowable in patients on inpatient cardiac rehabilitation program? a. Systolic BP increase > 20 mmHg b. Perceived exertion >13/20 c. Heart rate increase >20 d. Systolic BP decreased >10 mmHg

c. Heart rate increase >20

180. Using the Eunctional Classes of patients with Heart disease, which class has a maximum of 3 METS as permissible workload? a. Class IV b. Class II c. Class I d. Class III

D. Class III

179. A myocardical infarction patient is prescribed the wenger early mobilization program. Step 1 includes which of the following? a. Minimal resistance exercises b. Active assistive ROM; chair sitting c. Legs dangling at side of the bed d. Passive ROM; self-feeding; active ankle pumps

D. Passive ROM; self-feeding; active ankle pumps

178. Cardiac exercise prescription for Older Adults should Include the following components. Which one is NOT included? a. Intensity: RPE Borg 11-14 b. Time: 20-30 minutes c. Type: endurance training d. Frequency: 6-7 sessions a week

D. Frequency: 6-7 sessions a week

177.The drugs used as anti-TB include which one of the following? a. Clindamycin b. Erythromycin c. Streptomycin d. Azithromycin

C. Streptomycin

176. Psychosocial benefits of exercise in chronic heart disease patients include most importantly which of the following? a. Resumption of sex life b. Return to work c. Improved well being d. Improved sleep

C. Improved well being

175. Your 69-year-old aunt with severe degenerative OA of both knees, is hypertensive and has heart disease. She also has a history of peptic ulcer and has been taking Paracetamol for pain relief but still has pain. Other drugs allowable for her include which one? a. Topical capsaicin b. Opioid analgesics c. All of the answers d. Intraarticular steroid

C. All of the answers

174. In sports, PRICEM (the principles of soft tissue injury management) stands for Protection, Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation. What does the M stand for? a. Medications b. Mastery c. Mobilization d. Manipulation

C. Mobilization

173.The most debilitating symptom of multiple sclerosis a. Fatigue b. Pain c. Tremor d. Spasticity

a. Fatigue

172. Which of the following is NOT an Intrinsic risk factor which predispose to the development of pressure ulcers? a. Anemia b. Muscle atrophy c. Smoking and substance abuse d. Impaired nutritional status

C. Smoking and substance abuse

171. The time for upper limb prosthetic. fitting for successful prosthetic restoration a. 8-12 mos b. 1-3 mos c. 2-3 weeks d. 4-6 mos

D. 4-6 mos

170. On Xray, a fluid level is noted on the right lung. This is a case of a. Cystic fibrosis b. COPD c. Asthma d. Pleural effusion

D. Pleural effusion

169. In what position should the patient with low back pain first perform the pelvic tilt exercise? a. Sitting b. Standing c. Lying prone on a firm surface d. Lying supine on a firm surface

D. Lying supine on a firm surface

168. How much of the total flexion of the lumbar spine occur between L5 and the sacrum? a. 55% b. 95% c. 75% d. 35%

C. 75%

167. Treatment in the early stages of COPD include which of the following? a. Swimming b. Jogging in place c. Expiratory muscle training d. Increased/maintain exercise tolerance

D. Increased/maintain exercise tolerance

166. When examining a pregnant patient with back pain, aside from the thoracolumbar spine, one must make sure which of the following structures are examined? a. Symphysis pubis b. Sacroiliac joint с. Соссух d. Any of the answers

D. Any of the answers

165. Your home care patient has already developed a grade III sacral pressure ulcer inspite of having a foam pressure relief mattress. The relatives are planning to buy another one. A good choice to buy which would be fairly cost effective and with a fair pressure relief would be a mattress with this material a. Viscoelastic foam b. Gel c. Floatation (air or water) d. Foam

A. Viscoelastic foam

164. Pre-prosthetic stage of the Rehab management of amputees include the following. Which does NOT belong to the pre-prosthetic stage? a. Residual limb preparation b. Fitness or cardiovascular exercises c. Psychological assessments d. Exercises for ambulation

C. Psychological assessments

163. Projected functional outcome at 1 year post SCI in terms of bed mobility. Which level would be independent? a. C7 b. T1 c. C5 d. C3

B. T1

162.A 42-year-old female patient complains of pain on deep- breaths, cough which is dry, fever and a sudden sharp feeling over the tip of the shoulder. The internist gives her antibiotics and analgesics for the pain. She is told to rest for 1-2 weeks. However, during the recovery stage, she is referred for therapy. This is a case of a. Bronchiectasis b. Pleuritis/pleurisy c. Asthma d. COPD

B. Pleuritis/pleurisy

161.Improving humidification to the airways of the lung mucus clearance. This is called a. Incentive spirometry b. Mini-tracheostomy c. CPAP d. Nebulization

D. Nebulization

160. Surgical stabilization is needed if the spine is deemed unstable. This means at least how many columns are unstable? a. 0 b. 2 c. 1 d. 3

B. 2

159.What is NOT typical of obstructive lung disease? a. Increased forced expiratory volume b. Decreased functional residual capacity c. Decreased total lung capacity d. Decreased residual volume

A. Increased forced expiratory volume

158. In a patient with cervical spondylosis with myelopathy, which of the following may NOT be present? a. Babinski's sign b. Hyperreflexia c. Weakness in a segmental distribution d. Weakness at and below the involved levels

C. Weakness in a segmental distribution

157. In cases of pleuritis/pleurisy which is recovering, the following may be done by therapist for the patient. Which may NOT be needed? a. Trunk bending exercises b. Chest clapping exercises c. Deep breathing exercises d. Thoracic expansion exercises

B. Chest clapping exercise

156. In this type of herniated nucleous pulposus, the patient may or may not have low back pain. What is this type? a. Posterolateral b. Foraminal c. Central d. Posterior

B. Foraminal

155. What exercises focus on repetitive task oriented practice? a. Rood techniques b. Bobath techniques c. Brunnstrom techniques d. Robot-aided therapeutic exercises

D. Robot-aided therapeutic exercises

154. This level of amputation allows the highest level of functional recovery in the majority of cases of upper limb amputation. What level is this? a. Long transradial. b. Elbow disarticulation c. Transhumeral d. Short transradial

A. Long transradial

153. Most common direction of herniated nucleus pulposus in the lumbar region is a. Posterolateral b. Posterior c. Central d. Foraminal

A. Posterolateral

152. The posterior muscles used in cervicothoracic stabilization include the following, EXCEPT: a. Levator scapulae b. Obliquus capitis inferior c. Rectus capitis posterior major d. Scalene muscles

D. Scalene muscles

151.Burns which are whitish, leathery and has no sensation are burns. a. Deep partial thickness b. Superficial partial thickness c. Full thickness d. Minor

C. Full Thickness

150. The 55-year-old male lower limb amputee is referred on Day 2 post amputation. The program you make for him include the following. Which one will NOT be part of your program yet? a. Edema control b. Ambulation c. Sitting balance and tolerance exercises d. Range of motion exercises

b. Ambulation

149. The 40-year-old female patient who sustained a tibial condyle fracture of the knee has a dark swelling of the affected knee. You advise the patient to elevate the extremity when lying or sitting. After 1 week, the swelling does not decrease. You may need to refer her back to the Orthopedic surgeon asap. What is the most likely cause of the knee swelling? a. Hemarthrosis b. Fracture c. Sprain d. Synovitis

a. Hemarthrosis

148.In knee joint arthroplasties, what is the optimum range for knee flexion? a. 0-75 degrees b. 0-45 degrees c. 0-90 degrees d. 0-120 degrees

c. 0-90 degrees

147.A patient with De Quervain's Tenosynovitis has involvement of the following structures. Which structure is NOT involved? a. Tendon sheath b. Abductor pollicis longus c. Extensor pollicis brevis d. Opponens pollicis

d. Opponens pollicis

146. One of the following parameters is not an essential component in the Eccentric strengthening of Achilles tendinitis: a. Speed b. Length c. Load d. Agility

d. Agility

145.On palpation of the hip, tenderness over the greater trochanter may point to what hip pathology? a. Hip osteoarthritis b. Sartorius strain c. Gluteal strain d. Trochanteric bursitis

d. Trochanteric bursitis

144. A 40-year-old obese diabetic patient came to the clinic complaining of 6 weeks painful numbness over the lateral aspect of the right thigh. No weakness is noted. Advice may be given to help relieve the symptom. Which is least likely to help? a. Weight loss b. Stretching exercises c. Avoidance of tight clothing d. Pain medications and creams

b. Stretching exercises

143. Which of the following is Bicipital tendonitis LEAST frequently involved? a. Anterior laxity of the humerus b. AC joint sprain c. Rotator cuff pathology d. Posterior laxity of the humerus

d. Posterior laxity of the humerus

142.On palpation of the ankle, tenderness localized over and just proximal to the malleolus is often found in what injury? a. Fracture b. Sprain c. Dislocation d. Strain

a. Fracture

141.Impingement Syndromes of the shoulder affect the following structures. Which of these is NOT commonly affected? a. Bursae b. Superior aspect of the rotator cuff c. Biceps tendon d. Coracoclavicular joint

d. Coracoclavicular joint

140. What is the most common indication for joint arthroplasties? a. All of the answers are correct b. RA c. Fractures d. OA

a. All of the answers are correct

139. Lateral epicondylitis may be prevented with corrective strategies for tennis players. Which of the following should be advised? a. Flexible and lightweight frame b. Use the largest comfortable grip c. Use of a softer ball d. All of the answers are correct

d. All of the answers are correct

138. The 20-year-old athlete friend of yours has pain on the inside of the knee and he says it hurts when he is doing sideways movements. This may be because of ____________. a. Torn medial collateral ligament b. Torn medial meniscus c. Torn anterior cruciate ligament d. Torn lateral collateral ligament

a. Torn medial collateral ligament

137.A male patient complains of anterior knee pain especially on going down the stairs. You note that the ROM is full but with pain at end-range. The patella is noted to have a reduced medial glide. There is also some VMO atrophy and iliotibial band tightness. Which would NOT be included in the exercise program for the patient? a. VMO squats b. ITB stretching c. Gluteal setting d. Patellar taping

c. Gluteal setting

136. The 55-year-old male parkinsons disease patient of yours asks you about the symptoms which are not movement-related, that a patient like him could have. Which one of the following is a common non-motor symptom of Parkinson's a. Dementia b. Pain c. Incontinence d. Sleep disorders e. All of the answers are correct

e. All of the answers are correct

135. Characterized by a steady deterioration in disease from onset but with occasional acute attacks. This type of MS a. Relapsing-remitting b. Secondary-progressive c. Progressive-relapsing d. Primary-progressive

c. Progressive-relapsing

134. Frontotemporal dementia is associated with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis. Symptoms include with one of the following? a. Loss of short term memory and emotional lability b. Loss of abstract reasoning and long term memory c. Loss of mathematical ability and judgment d. Loss of insight and emotional blunting

d. Loss of insight and emotional blunting

133. Patients with this deficit may display difficulty following instructions that require distinguishing body parts and may be unable to imitate movements of the therapist. a. Somatoagnosia b. Body agnosia c. Any of the choices d. Autopagnosia

c. Any of the choices

132. Left hemispheric strokes present with the following EXCEPT: a. Difficulty processing visual cues b. Difficulty processing verbal cues c. Difficulty with expression of positive emotions d. Apraxia

a. Difficulty processing visual cues

131. An exercise program for a myopathic patient may include which of the following? a. Squatting exs b. Weight lifting c. Swimming d. Push-ups

c. Swimming

130. Spatial attention is a component process needed for mobility. Its role in mobility is a. Necessary for awareness of both sides of space b. Necessary for turning plans into action l C. Necessary for using previous experience of routes and locations d. Necessary for environmental navigation

a. Necessary for awareness of both sides of space

129. In neuropsychological rehabilitation, restoration of the lost ability or recognizing the lost ability by incorporating intact or spared functions is called _______. a. Task substitution b. Cognitive remediation c. Task reorganization d. Compensatory strategies

b. Cognitive remediation

128. Interactions among which of the following systems, contribute to pain? a. Immune, endocrine and autonomic nervous systems b. Immune system and endocrine system c. Endocrine system and autonomic nervous system d. Autonomic nervous system and immune system

a. Immune, endocrine and autonomic nervous systems

127. The most common features of acute subarachnoid hemorrhage include: a. Headache and stiff neck b. Loss of consciousness c. Double vision d. Dizziness and vomiting

a. Headache and stiff neck

126. Orthoses are used in DMD for several reasons. Which one of the following may NOT be what orthoses are used for in Duchenne muscular dystrophy patients? a. Reduced lumbar lordosis b. Continuous functional ambulation c. Stretching of the lower extremity muscles d. Prolonged standing

b. Continuous functional ambulation

125. Standing uses _____ METS a. 3-5 b. 2-2.5 c. 0.5-1 d. 1.5-2

d. 1.5-2

124. Stair climbing requires this much METS a. 2-3 b. 0-1 c. 5-6 d. 8-9

c. 5-6

123. There are different ways to progress exercise. Which one of the following is NOT one of them? a. Increasing the length of the lever b. Changing the speed of the exercise c. Moving the starting position d. Decreasing resistance

d. Decreasing resistance

122. The sensory fibers which serve pain and temperature are the fibers a. alpha b. B c. A-beta d. C

d. C

121. Palmar and plantar grasp are reflexes first seen at what age? a. 8-9 mos b. Birth c. 2 mos d. 3 mos

b. Birth

120. Though evidence remains inconclusive, the use of this group of medications is suggested to interfere with fracture healing, thus it is used sparingly in post fracture patients. This is the a. Supplements c. Steroids b. Antibiotics d. NSAIDs

d. NSAIDs

119.In the Fracture OPD clinic, one of the athlete patients demonstrated how he got his injury: during basketball, as he was dropping down to the ground from a high jump to catch the ball, he heard a loud snap and felt his knee give way. This may explain the fracture which he sustained which is ____________ fracture. a. Spiral c. Transverse b. Crush d. Avulsion

d. Avulsion

118. Prevention of neural tube defects such as myelomeningocele requires intake of this vitamin a. Ascorbic acid b. Mecobalamin c. Folic acid d. Riboflavin

c. Folic acid

117. What are the principles of fixation in fracture healing? These are the following, EXCEPT: a. A small amount of movement at a fracture site may actually encourage fracture healing b. Rigid fixation may lessen the stimulus for callus formation c. Adequate fixation prevents impairment of the blood supply necessary for fracture healing d. Any amount of movement is not allowed to maintain fracture fixation

d. Any amount of movement is not allowed to maintain fracture fixation

116. The 15-year-old male patient who sustained a calcaneal fracture of both feet after jumping off a 10-foot-high fence is also complaining of severe back pain. What is the other fracture which may accompany his fracture? a. Spine fracture b. Knee fracture c. Pelvic fracture d. Scapula fracture

a. Spine fracture

115. Tarsometatarsal disarticulation is also called: a Boyd b. Syme c. Lisfranc d. Chopart

c. Lisfranc

114. Bones of the upper limb unite earlier than that of the lower limb due to their size. The average time of healing for the bones of the upper limb is weeks. a. 1-6 b. 9-24 c. 12-18 d. 3-12

d. 3-12

113. The 50-year-old female patient presented with an R-U fracture (fracture of both the radius and ulna). ROM exercises are very important since this forearm movement may be affected, which may lead to difficult hand function. Which forearm movements are these? a. Wrist DF and PF c. Flexion-extension b. Pronation-supination d. Radial and ulnar deviation

b. Pronation-supination

112. A 30-year-old sustained a trimalleolar fracture of the ankle. The forces involved in this type of fracture abduction/lateral rotation include force and a. Flexion b. Extension c. Adduction d. Plantarflexion

c. Adduction

111. The 16-year-old patient sustained a supracondylar fracture of the humerus. In the Rehabilitation and care of this patient over the next few weeks, you will need to watch out for several complications of this fracture, mainly the following EXCEPT: a. All of the answers are correct b. Volkmann's contracture c. Myositis ossificans d. Cubitus valgus

a. All of the answers are correct

110. The 76-year-old female patient sustained a hip fracture after a fall from her bed. X-rays show a femoral neck fracture, and is advised surgery to avoid a complication common to this area. What is this complication? a. Avascular necrosis b. Malunion c. Osteomyelitis d. Delayed union

a. Avascular necrosis

109. The 86-year-old female patient with an impacted fracture of the surgical neck of the humerus did not undergo surgery of the fracture. The fracture is managed conservatively with a sling. What may be the most important reason why these fractures need not be operated on? a. Lack of good alignment does not affect union of the fracture b. The impaction causes stability of the fracture c. Early ROM may not be done in a post-operative shoulder d. Surgery in the elderly may be very high-risk

b. The impaction causes stability of the fracture

108. The main causes of delayed union in a fracture are the Following EXCEPT a. Poor blood supply in the area b. Presence of infection c. Use of internal fixation d. Bone gap is too wide e. All of the answers are correct

e. All of the answers are correct

107. The 50-year-old male patient sustained a patellar fracture after a motor vehicular accident. What is the precaution after internal fixation surgery of the patella? a. No range of motion b. No quads setting c. Non-weight bearing d. No straight leg raising

a. No range of motion

106.A 42-year-old female patient is asking why her clavicular fracture has a deformity which on xray shows a displacement of the outer and middle thirds of the bone. You explain to her that there is a muscle in the area which can pull the clavicle and cause displacement of the fracture. What is this muscle? a. Sternocleidomastoid b. Deltoids c. Upper trapezius d. Scalenus anticus

a. Sternocleidomastoid

105. A dynamic stretch has the following characteristics, EXCEPT for one. Which is NOT included? a. Repetitive, progressive b. Faster, high velocity c. Slow, prolonged d. End-stage rehab

c. Slow, prolonged

104. During early stance, the most likely anatomical cause when the entire foot contacts the ground is: a. Heel pain b. Weak quadriceps c. Weak ankle dorsiflexors d. Poor balance

d. Poor balance

103. The biceps muscle gets its innervation from which part of the Brachial plexus? a. Middie trunk b. Medial cord c. Posterior cord d. Lateral cord

d. Lateral cord

102. On gait analysis of a patient with severe peroneal neuropathy, which of the following will probably NOT occur? a. Decreased step length b. Increased hip and knee flexion during swing c. Decreased hip flexion before foot or heel strike d. Increased step cadence

d. Increased step cadence

101. A new patient referred for PT is complaining of inability to reach his back pocket for his wallet, comb his hair, or reach above shoulder level. He may have joint contracture affecting which of the following movements a. Shoulder extension, adduction, internal rotation b. Shoulder flexion, abduction, external rotation c. Shoulder flexion, abduction, internal rotation d. Shoulder flexion, adduction, internal rotation

b. Shoulder flexion, abduction, external rotation

100. Impaired pain and temperature sense involves which central tract? a. Spinothalamic b. Corticobulbar c. Corticospinal d. Spinocerebellar

a. Spinothalamic

99. What type of aphasia presents with Fluent spontaneous speech? a. Transcortical motor b. Wernicke c. Broca d. Global

b. Wernicke

98. Parietal lobe affectation may show lack of ability to process, learn, and remember information. Which of the following is afflicted? a. Emotions b. All of the answers c. Memory d. Attention

b. All of the answers

97. What area of the brain is affected with Wernicke's aphasia? a. Superior temporal gyrus b None C. Both areas d. Third frontal convolution

a. Superior temporal gyrus

96. A 47 y.o female SCI patient sustained with severe whiplash injury in a train accident. P.E. preserved motor-both upper and lower extremities; sensory- intact pain and temperature but with loss of proprioception of both lower extremities. Ambulation-poor balance. What incomplete SCI syndrome is this? a. Posterior cord b. Anterior cord c. Cauda equina d. Brown-Sequard

a. Posterior cord

95. All of the following describes a stroke patient with Global Aphasia, EXCEPT: a. Associated signs include right-sided weakness, sensory deficits and hemianopsia b. Intact comprehension c. Non-fluent verbal output d. The region affected includes the frontotemporoparietal lobes

b. Intact comprehension

94. In Middle Cebrebral Artery syndrome, contralateral hemiparesis involving the upper extremity and face more than the lower extremity concerns a. Wernicke's cortical area b. Broca's cortical area c. Parietal lobe d. Internal capsule and primary motor cortex

d. Internal capsule and primary motor cortex

93. The following statements are True of Posterior Cruciate ligament (PCL), except: a. PCL deficient knees create increased pressure on the posterior menisci b. Its course is inferior, posterior and lateral in direction c. Primary function is to restrain posterior tibial subluxation d. The ligament is looser in extension and tighter in flexion

b. Its course is inferior, posterior and lateral in direction

92. A patient with symphysis pubis dysfunction with pain, special observation should be paid to which of the following? a. All of the answers b. Overactive abductors c. Underactive adductors d. Poor spinal stabilizing muscles

d. Poor spinal stabilizing muscles

91. A 23-year-old postpartum patient is complaining of irritating pain over the mid pubic area. The pain is felt especially when she steps down from a stair or curb. What is the cause of this pain? a. Urinary tract infection b. None of the answers c. Vaginal tear d. Symphysis pubis dysfunction

d. Symphysis pubis dysfunction

90. Which of the following patients may be necessary for Postnatal or postpartum rehabilitation? a. All of the answers b. Cesarean section c. Incontinence d. Perineal trauma

a. All of the answers

Which of the following advocates may best help prevent or manage pregnancy-related back pain? a. Plan your diet b. Rest when needed c. All of the above d. Avoid activities that aggravate the pain

c. All of the above

What feedback system is employed to motivate patients to take a deep breath and generate sustained maximal inspiration, thereby opening up atelectatic areas of the lung? a. Mini-tracheostomy b. Nebulization c. Incentive spirometry d. CPAP or IPPB

c . Incentive spirometry

A patient with a transfemoral amputation who ambulates with circumduction of the prosthesis during swing might have several potential causes. a. Prosthesis too short b. Weak hip flexors c. Weak hip abductors d. Inadequate suspension

b. Weak hip flexors

For a transtibial amputee, insufficient knee flexion during stance can be caused by any of the following, except: a. Excessive dorsiflexion at the prosthetic ankle b. Excessive plantarflexion at the prosthetic ankle c. Sock discomfort d. Poor hip and knee control

a. Excessive dorsiflexion at the prosthetic ankle

84. FEV1/FVC < 70%; FEV1 <30% predicted or FEV1 <50% predicted plus chronic respiratory failure a. Mild COPD b. Very severe COPD c. Moderate COPD d. Severe COPD

d. Severe COPD

83. The 56-year-old male patient in the pulmonary ward is recovering from a pneumonectomy. He asks you for advice on the best sleeping position. You advise him that the positions that are not allowed are: a. Supine b. Lying on the operated side c. Prone b. Lying on the unoperated side

b. Lying on the unoperated side

82. In a grade 2 pressure ulcer SCI patient, the description is as follows: a. Partial thickness loss of skin, which may appear as blisters with erythema. b. Non-blanchable erythema that does not resolve within 30 minutes; the epidermis remains intact. c. Complete destruction of the dermis into subcutaneous tissue. d. Deep tissue destruction extends through subcutaneous tissue to fascia, muscle, bone, and joint.

a. Partial thickness loss of skin, which may appear as blisters with erythema.

81: This improves the lung volume and reduces the work of breathing. This is ______ a. Incentive spirometry b. Mini-tracheostomy c. Intermittent positive pressure breathing d. Continuous positive airways pressure

c. Intermittent positive pressure breathing

Out of the following options, which one is NOT an airway disease that can cause acute alveolar hypoventilation or respiratory failure? a. Chronic bronchitis b. ALS c. Cystic fibrosis d. Acute asthma

b. ALS

79 . What is the most important exercise for those wearing spinal braces? a . Quadriceps setting b . Gluteal setting c . Abdominal setting d . Deep breathing exercises

d . Deep breathing exercises

A 20-year-old male burn patient has the following areas affected: the entire face, the groin area, the upper half of the anterior trunk, and the lower half of the posterior trunk, as well as both lower extremities. Using the Rule of Nines, what is the estimated percentage of the body surface burned? a. 60% b. 69% c. 78% d. 64%

a. 60%

77. SCI patient C has a biceps strength of 5/5, a fair grip, and intact sensation from the nipple level up. Considering these factors, which orthosis would be suitable? a. Head cervical orthosis b. Halo vest c. Thoracolumbosacral orthosis d. Cervicothoracic orthosis

c. Thoracolumbosacral orthosis

76. After inserting a thoracostomy tube to drain the pleural effusion of your patient, which of the following activities would NOT be permitted? a. Deep breathing exercises b. Proper bed positioning c. Trunk flexibility exercises d. Walking to improve exercise tolerance

d. Walking to improve exercise tolerance

75. What characterizes stage 2 of Brunnstrom’s stages of motor recovery in stroke? a. The patient starts selectively activating muscles outside the flexor and extensor synergies. b. There is no activation of the limb. c. Isolated movements are performed smoothly and well-coordinatedly. d. Spasticity appears, and weak basic flexor-and extensor synergies are present.

d. Spasticity appears, and weak basic flexor-and extensor synergies are present.

The ventilatory function of an individual with restrictive lung disease would involve a. decrease in tidal volume (TLC) b. increase in vital capacity (VC) c. increase in residual volume (RV) d. increase in functional residual capacity (FRC).

a. decrease in tidal volume (TLC)

73. The X-ray of an 11-year-old female gymnast reveals a “scottie dogs,” which represents a fracture of the pars interarticularis of the lumbar spine. Therefore, this exercise should be avoided with her. a. Trunk lateral flexion c. Trunk hyperextension b. Trunk flexion d. Trunk rotation

c. Trunk hyperextension

72. During gait training exercises, what position would you avoid to prevent droplet infection in the patient you are treating, who has active pulmonary tuberculosis? a. Diagonal to the patient b. Behind the patient c. In front of the patient d. Beside the patient

b. Behind the patient

71. From which value upwards to 100%, which would be considered within normal limits for oxygen saturation? a .85% b. 95% c. 98% d. 90%

b. 95%

What type of therapy employs spiral and diagonal movement components instead of the conventional movements in cardinal planes of motion, with the objective of promoting movement patterns that hold greater functional significance than the traditional technique of strengthening individual muscle groups? a. Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation b. Brunnstrom approach c. Bobath approach d. Sensorimotor approach

a . Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation

69. The most comfortable position for someone with a herniated disc in the low back is: a. Standing b. Lying prone with a pillow under the head c. Lying supine with support under the knees d. Sitting

c. Lying supine with support under the knees

The 28-year-old female SLE patient has been experiencing pain, tenderness, and warmth in the greater trochanter of her hip for the past three weeks. Considering her condition, which is SLE, what is the most likely pathology? a. Trochanteric bursitis b. Hip osteoarthritis c. Hamstring strain d. Iliopsoas tightness

a. Trochanteric bursitis

The ______ muscle is the only active structure which will need to be protected in the early postoperative period after undergoing total shoulder arthroplasty deltopectoral approach. a. Teres major b. Deltoids c. Pectoralis d. Subscapularis

d. Subscapularis

A 21-year-old male football player sustained an injury to the anterior aspect of the leg and complains of severe pain in the affected area. Upon physical examination, stretching of the ankle dorsiflexors is extremely painful. The skin in the injured area appears red, glossy, warm, and tender. The most probable diagnosis is: a. Contusion of the peroneal nerve b. Rupture of the plantaris tendon c. Anterior compartment syndrome d. Fracture of the fibula

c. Anterior compartment syndrome

A patient diagnosed with Adhesive Capsulitis stage 3 was referred to you for treatment. She has decreased range of motion (ROM) in her shoulder, with severely restricted glenohumeral joint motions. She likely has had the symptoms for the past how many months? a. 3-6 weeks b. 1-3 months c. 6-7 days d. 9-12 months

d. 9-12 months

Which tendon injury is classified as acute inflammation superimposed on chronic tendinitis? a. Tendonitis b. Paratenonitis with tendinosis c. Tenosynovitis d. Tendinosis

b. Paratenonitis with tendinosis

Upon evaluation, your 18-year-old athletic male patient complains of pain behind his kneecap that worsens when he descends the stairs. Considering the symptoms, which pathology do you think is most likely? a. Chondromalacia patella b. Patellar bursitis c. Patellar tendonitis d. Torn meniscus

a. Chondromalacia patella

Which of the following pieces of advice would be most beneficial for a 60-year-old patient who has undergone total hip arthroplasty (THA)? a. Avoid overbending the hip upwards towards the body. b. Avoid crossing the leg over the midline. c. Avoid twisting in both sitting and standing positions. d. Any or all of the above.

d. Any or all of the above.

Your 63-year-old patient complains of shoulder pain associated with reduced range of motion, particularly during abduction, external rotation, and internal rotation. Based on this information, what is the most likely pathology of your patient’s shoulder? a. Rotator cuff tear b. Impingement syndrome c. Ruptured biceps brachii d. Frozen shoulder

d. Frozen shoulder

60. You are suspecting that your patient may have developed Volkmann's ischemic contracture, 5 months after having his elbow fractured. Owing to its close proximity to the fracture site, one of the most serious complications that can occur after supracondylar fracture is damage to which structure? a. Median nerve B. Radial artery c. Brachial artery D. Ulnar nerve

c. Brachial artery

57. The major bursae are located next to the tendons near the large joints, such as in the shoulders, elbows, hips, and knees. Repetitive motion, sudden injury, or infection may cause development of bursitis. What is the most commonly damaged bursa in the knee? a. Medial bursa b. Lateral bursa c. Deep infrapatellar bursa d. Prepatellar bursa

d. Prepatellar bursa

54. The following rheumatic diseases require routine steroids, EXCEPT: a. Rheumatoid arthritis b. SLE c. Dermatomyositis-Polymyositis d. Gouty Arthritis

d. Gouty Arthritis

53. In osteoarthritis of the thumb CMC joint, this splinting position is best: a. Thumb-palmar abd; MCP-extended b. Thumb-palmar add; MCP-extended c. Thumb-palmar abd; MCP-30 deg flexion d. Thumb-palmar add; MCP-30 deg flexion

c. Thumb-palmar abd; MCP-30 deg flexion

51. A patient with a torn meniscus of the knee, would present with what type of end feel on ROM of the knee? a. Springy block c. capsular feel b.Empty feel d. bony block

a. Springy block

47. What sensory stimulation technique facilitates muscle and can elicit protection/flexor responses? A. Light touch - brisk, quick stretching B. Maintained posture C. Slow, repetitive stretching d. Slow vestibular stimulation

A. Light touch - brisk, quick stretching

45. What electrophysical agent uses low frequency electrical stimulation of muscle and nerve tissues without the associated pain which may be encountered with low frequency stimulation? a. Interferential therapy b. TENS C. ES d. Microcurrent therapy

a. Interferential therapy

44. What type of muscle contraction is performed either with gravity or a controlled release of a load or resistance and the muscle contracts from shortened position to a longer position? a. Isotonic c. Concentric b. Eccentric d. Isometric

b. Eccentric

39. Left Hemispheric Strokes present with the following EXCEPT: a.Difficulty with expression of positive emotions b. Difficulty processing verbal cues c. Apraxia d. Difficulty processing visual cues

d. Difficulty processing visual cues

38. Chemical denervation used in chronic pain is an example of what interventional procedure? a. Nerve block b. Joint block C. Ablative technique D. Trigger point injection

C. Ablative technique

This is contraindicated for persons with moderate and severe TBI a. Hyperventilation b. Hypertonic saline c. Craniectomy D. Corticosteroids

D. Corticosteroids

34. What artery is most likely affected in a stroke patient that presents with speech difficulties, with neglect of the contralateral side and hemiplegia? a. right middle cerebral artery b. anterior cerebral artery c. left middle cerebral artery d. posterior cerebral artery

C.left middle cerebral artery

33. Which occupational activity will promote endurance if done continuously? a. Driving b. Auto repair c. Cleaning windows d. Riding the lawn mower

c. Cleaning windows

32. A TBI patient is in a heightened stage of activity. Behavior is bizarre and non-purposeful and is unable to cooperate directly with treatment efforts. Confabulation may present. Verbalizations are incoherent and inappropriate. This is the Rancho Los Amigos Level of: a. Generalized response b. Confused-inappropriate c. Confused-agitated d. Confused-appropriate

c. Confused-agitated

31. This motor neuron disease involves the lower motor neurons. Males are affected more than females. Weakness, muscle wasting, fasciculations, weight loss are the main features of this disease, along with mental deterioration and dementia. What is this disease? a.Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis b. Progressive bulbar palsy c. Primary lateral sclerosis d. Progressive muscular atrophy

d. Progressive muscular atrophy

29. You are examining a patient with posterior cerebral artery stroke who has left sided hemiplegia and oculomotor nerve palsy or weber's syndrome. Which exact part of the brain is affected? a. Midbrain b. Medulla c. Cerebellum d. Pons

a. Midbrain

28. Which is the most appropriate assistive device to use to a 76-year-old female post total hip replacement with partial weight bearing on the operated leg. a. Single tip cane b. Quad cane c. Walker d. Crutches

c. Walker

27. The following are causes of increased mechano-sensitivity of tissue, EXCEPT? a. Decreased neural tissue mobility b. Mechanical interface dysfunction c. Inflammation of the innervated tissue d. All of the answers are correct

d. All of the answers are correct

26. What are the techniques that you could use as a therapist to help your 57-year-old auntie through her Menopause? a. Breathing techniques b. acupuncture c. Exercises d. All or any of the answers

d. All or any of the answers

25. You are trying to teach Rosa some pelvic floor musculature strengthening and training exercises. She is currently experiencing stress urinary incontinence. Which of the following instructions may be of help? a. Squeeze tightly inside your vagina b. Lift and squeeze c. Any of the answers d. Imagine stopping yourself from urinating

c. Any of the answers

24. This test checks for impingement of the supraspinatus tendon. To perform this test, the arm is abducted to 90 degrees and internally rotated. a Hawkins' b. Drop arm c. Neer's d. Painful arc

a Hawkins'

23. The following are ABSOLUTE contraindications to cardiac rehabilitation exercises, EXCEPT: a. Uncompensated heart failure b. Uncontrolled diabetes c. Unstable angina d. Productive cough

d. Productive cough

22. Which of the following actions of steroids are used for chronic pulmonary disease? a. Bronchodilation b. Prevents inflammatory response c. Reduces inflammatory response d. Blocks allergic reaction

c. Reduces inflammatory response

21. A post coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) patient, who's on maintenance phase of a Cardiac Rehab program, a moderate intensity program will have a target heart rate of a. 60-70% of maximal heart rate b. 80-90% of maximal heart rate c. 50-60% of maximal heart rate d. 70-80% of maximal heart rate

a. 60-70% of maximal heart rate

20. Indifference, cognitive slowness, "pseudo-depression" are manifestations of which neurobehavioral syndrome? a. Temporolimbic syndrome b. Anosodiaphoria c. Anosognosia d. Dorsolateral convexity frontal syndrome

d. Dorsolateral convexity frontal syndrome

19. There is a slight limitation of physical activity however the patient is still comfortable at rest, but ordinary physical activity results in fatigue, palpitation and dyspnea. This is the New York association stage of heart failure: a. Class IV (Severe) b. Class lI (mild) c. Class III (moderate) d. Class I (mild)

b. Class lI (mild)

18. Strong opiates may be used for chronic pain patients with a. Cancer, neurogenic, nociceptive pain b. Central neurogenic pain c. Peripheral neurogenic pain d. Cancer pain

a. Cancer, neurogenic, nociceptive pain

17. While exercising on the ergometer, an amazing therapist thinks of the cardiovascular effects of exercise an your body which include which one of the following? a. Increased VO2 max b. Decreased peripheral oxygen extraction c. Decreased heart rate and hypertension d. Decreased maximal cardiac output

a. Increased VO2 max

16. Functional class II of patients with heart disease has a maximum workload of ________ a. 4.5 METS b. 1.5 METS c. 3.0 METS d. 6.5 METS

a. 4.5

15. Your patient, (low risk, no complications), has resting heart rate = 65 beats per minute (BPM). During an exercise test, a maximum heart rate of 160 bpm is achieved. Which 50-70% of heart rate reserve (HRR) being set as the intensity of training, the training heart rate (bpm) is? a. 113-121 b. 120-155 c. 155-220 d. 12-131

a. 113-121

14. What is the recommended daily calcium intake for this life stage of 19 to 50-year-old? a. 800 grams/day b. 1,000 grams/day c. 500 grams/day d. 1,300 grams/day

b. 1,000 grams/day

13. A 66-year-old had a history of fall on an outstretched arm and sustained fracture of the distal radius with dorsal angulation. What type of fracture is this? a. Colles fracture b. Smith fracture c. Greenstick fracture d. Monteggia fracture

a. Colles fracture

12. Fracture of the ulna with radial head subluxation is called fracture. a. Bankart b. Galeazzi c. Monteggia d. Hutchinson

c. Monteggia

11. The 67-year-old male patient came in with a diagnosis of avulsion fracture of the anterior iliac spine of the pelvis. What muscle might have give rise to this fracture? a. Iliopsoas b. Vastus medialis c. Tensor fascia lata d. Rectus femoris

d. Rectus femoris

10. The 15-year-old male patient who sustained a calcaneal fracture of both feet, after jumping off a 10-foot-high fence, underwent surgery by open reduction and internal fixation. He is then referred for Rehabilitation. What is the most significant movement (s) of the foot which should be recovered? a. Inversion and eversion b. Abduction and adduction c. Dorsiflexion and plantarflexion d. Pronation and supination

a. Inversion and eversion

9. An older friend of yours with a pelvic fracture on 3 mos complete bed rest is noted to have anxious and depressed moods, decreased attention and time awareness and even coordination is affected when eating his meals. These may be due to what neurological or emotional effect of prolonged bedrest and deconditioning? a. Lack of social interaction b. Sensory deprivation c. Compression neuropathy d. Sleep disturbance

a. Lack of social interaction

8. A 27-year-old male patient with an elbow fracture undergoing rehabilitation for the past 2 weeks has new-onset pain, hematoma and swelling of the elbow, with note of increased limitation of motion of the elbow joint. He is diagnosed to have a possible case of myositis ossificans. What immediate treatment should be done? a. Rest the elbow in a sling b. Aggressive ROM and stretching c. Icing and bandaging d. Heat, CPM and massage

a. Rest the elbow in a sling

6. The 15-year-old female patient came into the clinic with a referral from the orthopedic service. Her diagnosis is a Monteggia fracture. What does this comprise? a. Fracture of the ulna with ulnar subluxation b. Fracture of the ulnar with radial head subluxation c. Fracture of the radius with radial head subluxation d. Fracture of the radius with subluxation of the ulna

b. Fracture of the ulnar with radial head subluxation

2. The suprascapular nerve innervates which muscle? a. Triceps b. Biceps c. Deltoid d. Infraspinatus

d. Infraspinatus

MES I Flashcards

(300 cards)