MISC. II (Finished)

Question 1

1. A patient has a very large left-sided bacterial pneumonia. Oxygen level is dangerously low. The body position that would most likely improve the patient’s arterial oxygen pressure is:
   a. Left side lying with the head of the bed in flat position
   b. Prone with the head of the bed in trendelenburg position
   c. Supine with the head of the bed in trendelenburg position
   d. Right side lying with the head of the bed in flat position
   e. NOTA

Answer 1

d. Right side lying with the head of the bed in flat position

When a patient lies on one side, more blood flow goes to the lower lung.

Left sidelying would worsen oxygenation because blood is directed to the diseased lung, where gas exchange is poor.

Question 2

2. Which of the following gastrointestinal sources of pain can refer to the midback and scapular region?
   a. Gall bladder pain
   b. Colon pain
   c. Spleen or diaphragmatic pain
   d. Esophageal pain
   e. Appendix pain

Answer 2

a. Gall bladder pain

Gall bladder pain = (R) shoulder/shoulder blade
Colon pain = Sacrum
Spleen or diaphragmatic pain = (L) shoulder

Question 3

3. A therapist is working on a cardiac care unit in an acute care facility. During examination of a patient recovering from
   a ventricular infarct, patient complains of right upper quadrant pain, bloating and fatigue. Patient also demonstrates dependent edema of the ankles. PT suspects:
   a. Developing pericarditis
   b. Left ventricular failure
   c. Tietze Syndrome
   d. Right Ventricular Failure
   e. Impending MI

Answer 3

d. Right Ventricular Failure

Question 4

4. A patient presents with pain radiating down the posterior hip and thigh as a result of a herniated disc in the lumbar spine. The PT decides to apply mechanical traction. If the patient can not tolerate it, the preferred patient position is:
   a. Prone with pillow under the abdomen
   b. Prone with no pillow
   c. Supine with one knee flexed
   d. Supine with both knees flexed
   e. Side-lying with both knees flexed

Answer 4

a. Prone with pillow under the abdomen (better spine alignment)

Question 5

5. A patient recovering from stroke is taking Coumadin. During rehabilitation, it would be important to watch out for potential adverse reactions including:
   a. Edema
   b. Hematuria
   c. Palpitations
   d. Ecchymosis
   e. Both B & D

Answer 5

e. Both B & D

Question 6

6. A patient with left hemiplegia is able to recognize his wife after she is with him for a while and talks to him, but is unable to recognize the faces of his children when they come to visit. The children are naturally very upset by their father’s behavior. The best explanation for his problem is:
   a. Ideational apraxia
   b. Ideomotor apraxia
   c. Somatoagnosia
   d. Visual agnosia
   e. Anosognosia

Answer 6

d. Visual agnosia (Prosopagnosia)

a. Ideational apraxia – Can’t form the plan; misuses objects.
b. Ideomotor apraxia – Has the plan but can’t execute on command.
c. Somatoagnosia – Can’t recognize own body parts.
d. Visual agnosia – Can’t recognize objects by sight.
e. Anosognosia – Denies or is unaware of their own impairment.

Question 7

7. During an examination, a patient complains of abdominal pain while coughing or with light percussion. The patient also shows referred rebound tenderness. This is most likely indicative of:
   a. Ventral hernia
   b. Peritoneal inflammation
   c. Acute cholecystitis
   d. Inflamed appendix
   e. Cirrhosis

Answer 7

b. Peritoneal inflammation

Ventral hernia – usually presents with a palpable bulge, not rebound tenderness.

Acute cholecystitis – RUQ pain, Murphy sign.

Inflamed appendix – RLQ pain, but question stems generally specify location.

Cirrhosis – chronic condition, not associated with rebound tenderness.

Question 8

8. A patient with pain in the right lateral face and head is found to have limited lateral deviation towards the (L) and has a deflection of the mandible towards the (R) with mouth opening. The likely reason for this is:
   a. Decreased flexibility in the muscles of mastication on the left TMJ
   b. Capsular restriction and interarticular restrictions of the right TMJ
   c. Decreased flexibility in the muscles of mastication on the right TMJ
   d. An anteriorly displaced disc without reduction in the right TMJ
   e. An anteriorly displaced disc with reduction in the right TMA

Answer 8

b. Capsular restriction and interarticular restrictions of the right TMJ

Question 9

9. During an examination of a patient who complains of lower abdominal, flank and costovertebral pain. The origin of pain is most likely the:
   a. Sartorius muscle
   b. Kidney
   c. Hip joint
   d. Sacroiliac joint

Answer 9

b. Kidney

Why:
Flank pain + costovertebral angle tenderness are classic kidney signs (e.g., infection, stones).
Pain may also radiate to the lower abdomen because the ureter shares innervation with lower abdominal structures.

Why not the others:
Sartorius muscle – anterior thigh/medial knee pain.
Hip joint – groin pain, worsens with movement.
Sacroiliac joint – buttock/posterior thigh pain.

Question 10

11. A patient is referred to physical therapy for vestibular rehabilitation. The patient complains of episodic vertigo and nausea. Upon further assessment, patient demonstrates autonomic changes and complains of blurred vision that occur with head movements that typically stop within 30 seconds once the head is static. Based on these findings, the PT determines that the patient is most likely exhibiting signs and symptoms of:
    a. Acute unilateral vestibular dysfunction
    b. Meniere’s Disease
    c. Acoustic neuroma
    d. BPPV
    e. NOTA

Answer 10

d. BPPV

complains of blurred vision that occur with head movements that typically stop within 30 seconds

a. Acute unilateral vestibular dysfunction
Causes continuous, intense vertigo lasting days, not seconds.
Not episodic or position-triggered.

b. Meniere’s Disease
Episodes last 20 minutes to hours, not seconds.
Has hearing loss + tinnitus + aural fullness (not in the case).

c. Acoustic neuroma
Slow onset; progressive unilateral hearing loss, imbalance.
Vertigo is uncommon and not positional.

Question 11

12. After treating a patient for trochanteric bursitis for 1 week, the patient has no resolution of pain and is complaining of problems with gait. After reexamination, the PT finds weakness of quadriceps femoris and altered sensation at the greater trochanter, this is most likely due to:
    a. L4 nerve root compression
    b. L5 nerve root compression
    c. Sacroiliac dysfunction
    d. Degenerative joint disease of the hip
    e. NOTA

Answer 11

a. L4 nerve root compression

Question 12

14. A computer programmer in her second trimester of pregnancy was referred to physical therapy with complaints of tingling and loss of strength in both of her hands. Her symptoms are exacerbated if she is required to use her keyboard at work for longer than 20 minutes. The CONTRAINDICATED physical therapy intervention is:
    a. Icepacks to the carpal tunnel
    b. Placing the wrists in resting splints
    c. Dexamethasone phonophoresis to the carpal tunnel
    d. AOTA
    e. NOTA

Answer 12

c. Dexamethasone phonophoresis to the carpal tunnel

Phonophoresis pushes dexamethasone (a corticosteroid) through the skin using ultrasound.
Steroids can cross the placenta, potentially affecting fetal growth and development.

Question 13

15. A patient with recent trauma presents with restricted movement of the right hand. There is decreased motion at the third right PIP joint. To differentiate as to whether this is joint restriction or some other type of tightness (not joint), which examination procedure should be employed?
    a. Tight retinacular test
    b. Froment’s sign
    c. Egawa’s sign

Answer 13

a. Tight retinacular test

Question 14

16. Therapist hand/ finger placements for PA mobilization techniques to improve down-gliding / closure of T7-T8 facet joints should be located at the:
    a. Spinous process of T6
    b. Spinous process of T8
    c. Transverse process of T8
    d. Transverse process of T7
    e. AOTA

Answer 14

c. Transverse process of T8

The axis of rotation for a given thoracic vertebra lies between:

Above the spinous process (SP)
Below the transverse process (TP)

Effect of PA Force Relative to the Axis

PA force applied BELOW the axis → Extension
PA force applied ABOVE the axis → Flexion

T7–T8 down-glide = FACET CLOSURE = EXTENSION.
To create extension, you apply a PA below the axis → on the TP of the inferior vertebra (T8).

Question 15

17. A patient with a transfemoral amputation and an above-knee prosthesis demonstrates knee instability while standing. The patient’s knee buckles easily when performing weight shifts. The PT suspects the cause of his problem is a:
    a. Tight extension aid
    b. Weak glutes medius
    c. Prosthetic knee set too far anterior to the TKA line
    d. Prosthetic knee set too far posterior to the TKA line
    e. NOTA

Answer 15

c. Prosthetic knee set too far anterior to the TKA line

Reason: GRF passes too far behind the knee → flexion moment → knee instability/buckling.

Question 16

19. A patient with hypothyroidism and poor drug compliance is referred to physical therapy following a fall. During exercises, the PT should be alert for exercise-induced:
    a. Paresthesia of the lower limbs
    b. Elevated cardiac output
    c. Myalgia and weakness
    d. Sinus tachycardia and arrhythmias
    e. Death

Answer 16

c. Myalgia and weakness

In hypothyroidism, the body’s metabolic rate is low because it lacks thyroid hormones (T3/T4). These hormones normally help muscles:

use oxygen efficiently
produce ATP
clear lactic acid
recover during activity

When thyroid hormones are low:

Muscles have very poor energy production → they fatigue quickly.
Lactic acid builds up faster → causing myalgia (muscle pain).
ATP production is slowed → causing weakness, especially proximal muscles.

Question 17

20. A patient presents with decreased motion at the occipitoatlantal joint. The PT wants to use the principles of coupled motions that occur in that area of the spine during manual therapy techniques. In order to improve OA mobility, when the occiput is side bent to the left, the PT should mobilize C1 into:
    a. Rotation to the right
    b. Rotation to the left
    c. Flexion
    d. Extension
    e. NOTA

Answer 17

a. Rotation to the right

Side bending and rotation occur to opposite sides. (Also described as contralateral coupling.)

So:
Occiput side-bends LEFT → Occiput rotates RIGHT relative to C1.
To match that coupled motion, you mobilize C1 in the opposite direction of occipital motion.

Question 18

21. After surgery a patient develops a stiff pelvis and limited pelvic/ lower trunk mobility. The PT elects to use sitting exercises on a therapy ball to correct these impairments. In order to improve lower abdominal control, the ball would have to move:
    a. Backward, producing anterior tilting of the pelvis
    b. Forward, producing posterior tilting of the pelvis
    c. Backward, producing anterior tilting of the pelvis
    d. Forward, producing anterior tilting of the pelvis
    e. AOTA

Answer 18

b. Forward, producing posterior tilting of the pelvis

Question 19

22. Independent community ambulation as the primary means of functional mobility is a realistic functional expectation for a patient with the highest level of complete spinal cord injury (ASIA A) at:
    a. T9-T10
    b. L4-L5
    c. T12-L1
    d. T6-T9
    e. NOTA

Answer 19

b. L4-L5

SO = T2 UP
TA = T3–T11
HA = T12–L2
CA = L3 down

Question 20

23. A home care PT receives a referral to evaluate the fall risk potential of an elderly community dweller with chronic coronary artery disease. The patient has fallen three times in the past 4months, with no history of fall injury except for minor bruising. The patient is currently taking a number of medications, the drug most likely to contribute to dizziness and increased fall risk is:
    a. Albuterol
    b. Nitroglycerin
    c. Colace
    d. Coumadin sodium
    e. AOTA

Answer 20

b. Nitroglycerin

Nitroglycerin causes:

Vasodilation
Sudden drop in blood pressure (orthostatic hypotension)
Lightheadedness / dizziness
Syncope
These effects are very common in older adults and are a major fall risk factor.

Other options:
Albuterol → tremors, not dizziness
Colace → no BP effects, stool softener
Coumadin → bleeding risk, not falls

Question 21

24. To reduce an elderly individual’s chronic forward head posturing in standing and
    sitting the PT should consider stretching exercises to:
    a. Rectus capitis anterior
    b. Middel trapezius and rhomboid
    c. Longus capitis and longus colli
    d. Rectus capitis posterior minor and rectus capitis posterior major
    e. AOTA

Answer 21

d. Rectus capitis posterior minor and rectus capitis posterior major

Question 22

26. An elderly frail resident of an extended care facility has S1 nerve root compression. During a scheduled visit from the PT, the PT recognizes the patient may experience pain in the:
    a. Lowback, front of the thigh to the knee
    b. Medial thigh and leg
    c. Anterior hip, groin or thigh region
    d. Buttock, thigh and posterior leg
    e. Lower abdomen

Answer 22

d. Buttock, thigh and posterior leg

Question 23

27. To increase the step length of a patient with a right transfemoral amputation who is taking an inadequate step with the limb, the PT should:
    a. Provide anterior-directed resistance to the right PSIS during swing
    b. Facilitate the gluteals with tapping over the muscle belly
    c. Provide posterior-directed resistance to the left ASIS during swing
    d. Provide posterior-directed resistance to the right ASIS during stance
    e. AOTA

Answer 23

d. Provide posterior-directed resistance to the right ASIS during stance

Question 24

29. During a gait examination, a patient with a transfemoral prosthesis demonstrates terminal swing impact. Additional examination is needed as the PT suspects the:
    a. Prosthesis has insufficient knee friction
    b. Prosthesis has too little tension in the extension aid
    c. Hip flexors are weak
    d. Prosthesis is externally rotated
    e. NOTA

Answer 24

a. Prosthesis has insufficient knee friction

Reason:
Too little knee friction → knee swings forward too fast → hard, abrupt extension = terminal swing impact.

Question 25

31. A patient has a recent history of strokes (2 in the past 4 months) and demonstrates good return in the right lower extremity. The PT is concentrating on improving balance and independence in gait. Unfortunately, speech recovery is lagging behind motor recovery. The patient demonstrates a severe fluent aphasia. the best strategy to use during physical therapy: a. Have the family present to help interpret during PT sessions b. Demonstrate and gesture to get the idea of the task across c. Utilize verbal cues emphasizing consistency and repetition d. Consult with the speech pathologist to establish a communication board

Answer 25

b. Demonstrate and gesture to get the idea of the task across

Question 26

34. A patient complains of creeping or crawling sensations in both legs resulting in involuntary movements. The PT suspects: a. Vascular claudication b. Peripheral neuropathy c. Neurogenic claudication d. Restless leg syndrome e. Myoclonus

Answer 26

d. Restless leg syndrome

Question 27

35. A patient recovering from cardiac transplantation for end-stage heart failure is referred for exercise training. The patient is receiving immunosuppressive drug therapy. The therapist recognizes that the patient can: a. Do low to moderate- intensity resistance training b. Do aerobic exerciseş 4-6 times a week c. do progressive increase in duration of training from 15-60 minutes per session d. AOТА e. NOТА

Answer 27

d. AOТА **MODIFIED**

Question 28

36. A patient presents with a persistently downwardly rotated and adducted scapula during humeral elevation. This is best treated with the stretching of the: a. Serratus anterior and strengthening of both the levator scapula and lower fibers of the trapezius muscles b. Pectoralis major and strengthening of the rhomboid muscles c. Pectoralis minor and strengthening of trapezius muscle d. Rhomboid muscle and strengthening of serratus anterior muscle e. NOТА

Answer 28

d. Rhomboid muscle and strengthening of serratus anterior muscle

Question 29

37. During an examination of gait, the PT observes lateral pelvic tilt on the side of the swing leg during frontal plane analysis. The PT recognizes this finding functions to: a. Assist the swing leg b. Reduce peak rise of the pelvis c. Reduces the width of the base of support d. Keeps the COG from rising too much e. AOТА

Answer 29

b. Reduce peak rise of the pelvis Lateral pelvic tilt on the swing side (pelvis drops slightly) = Trendelenburg-like but NORMAL amount during gait. Why does normal pelvic drop occur? → To reduce the peak rise of the pelvis and keep the center of gravity (COG) from going too high during gait. Assist the swing leg – forward/backward rotation of pelvis Reduces the width of the base of support – (N) physiologic valgum Keeps the COG from rising too much – knee flexion at midstance

Question 30

38. A patient with confirmed right C6 nerve root compression due to foraminal encroachment complains of pain in the right thumb and index finger. The most effective cervical position to alleviate this radicular pain in weightbearing is: a. Right rotation b. Lower cervical flexion c. Left side bending d. Lower cervical extension e. Right side bending

Answer 30

b. Lower cervical flexion

Question 31

39. Nearly two months ago, a patient noticed left shoulder pain after walking the dog. This pain has progressively worsened. The patient now is unable to move the left uppèr extremity overhead while performing ADLs. An orthopedic surgeon diagnosed the problem as Adhesive Capsulitis. The most effective direction for Glenohumeral mobilization for this patient would be: a. Posterosuperior translatory glides b. Anterosuperior translatory glides c. Posteroinferior translatory glides d. Anteroinferior translatory glides e. Inferior translatory glides

Answer 31

c. Posteroinferior translatory glides

Question 32

40. A retired patient is referred to a cardiac exercise group after a mild MI. from the intake questionnaire; the PT learns the patient has Type I Insulin-Dependent DM, controlled with twice daily insulin injection. In order to minimize the risk of a hypoglycemic event during exercise, the PT should have the patient do the following: a. Exercise daily with 20 minutes duration, twice a day b. Ask patient to at carbohydrate snack before and during prolonged exercise bouts c, Monitor blood glucose levels carefully and frequently throughout the day d. Avoid exercise during periods of peak insulin activity e. AOTА

Answer 32

e. AOTА

Question 33

41. A PT is applying a symmetrical biphasic pulsed current to the vastus medialis to improve patellar tracking during knee extension. The patient complains that the current is uncomfortable. To make the current more tolerable to the patient, yet maintain a goop therapeutic effect, the PT should consider adjusting the: a. Pulse rate b. Current polarity c. Frequency d. pulse width e. current intensity

Answer 33

d. pulse width

Question 34

42. A patient is referred for post mastectomy rehabilitation. During the initial examination, the PT observes pin point round spots on patient's right thigh. The PT should document this finding as a. Papule b. Petechiae c. Benign nevus d. Atypical dysplastic nevus e. wheal

Answer 34

b. Petechiae (pin point round spots)

Question 35

43. A patient with a 10-year history of Multiple Sclerosis demonstrates 3+ extensor tone in both lower extremities. The PT needs to order a wheelchair. It would be best to recommend a(n): a. Electric wheelchair with toe loops b. standard wheelchair with elevating leg rests c. Standard wheelchair with a30 deg reclining back d. Tilt-in-space wheelchair with a pelvic belt e. AOTА

Answer 35

d. Tilt-in-space wheelchair with a pelvic belt

Question 36

44. After an ST-elevated Myocardial Infarction 3 days ago, under what circumstances should a patient be administered an exercise stress test? a. An exercise stress test should not be performed for this patient b. Only a symptom-limited exercise test should performed c. Heart rate equal to 85% age predicted maximum d. Heart rate equal to 70% age predicted maximum e. NOТА

Answer 36

d. Heart rate equal to 70% age predicted maximum “An intensity higher than 70% can extend the zone of necrosis into the zone of injury and/or zone of ischemia. This will delay healing or in the worst case, extend the MI.”

Question 37

45. During an initial interview and examination, a patient with a right CVA is found to haves Somatoagnosia.. The PT correctly identifies that Somatoagnosia means: a. The patient has denial or neglect of the left extremity b. Patient can not recognize his wife c. Patient can not locate buttons in a shirt d. Patient can not point his chin when instructed to e. NOTA

Answer 37

d. Patient can not point his chin when instructed to a. Denial/neglect of limb → that is anosognosia or unilateral neglect, not somatoagnosia. b. Cannot recognize wife → prosopagnosia (face recognition). c. Cannot locate buttons in a shirt → topographical or tactile agnosia, not body schema

Question 38

46. A patient presents with supraspinatus tendinitis. After the initial cryotherapy, the PT decides to apply US. To expose the tendon under the acromion process, the PT should place the shoulder joint in: a. Slight adduction and IR b. Slight abduction and ER c. Slight adduction and ER d. Extension and IR e. Slight abduction and IR

Answer 38

e. Slight abduction and IR (Modified CRASS)

Question 39

A patient is recovering from a left total hip replacement (posterolateral incision, cementless fixation). The most appropriate type of bed-to wheelchair transfer to teach is to have the patient use a: a. Squat-pivot transfer to the (L) b. Stand pivot transfer to the (R ) with some hip extension c. Stand-pivot transfer to the (L) d. Lateral slide transfer to the (L) using a transfer board e. Stand pivot transfer to the(R) with full flexion

Answer 39

b. Stand pivot transfer to the (R ) with some hip extension Contraindication: Excessive hip flexion and adduction past neutral

Question 40

48. A patient with transtibial amputation is learning to walk using a patellar tendon- bearing prosthesis. The PT wants to strengthen the muscles that are maximally active at initial contact to stabilize the knee and counteract the flexion moment: a. Hip flexors b. Back extensors C. Knee flexors d. Knee extensors e. Hip extensors

Answer 40

d. Knee extensors * A – hip flexors are most active in initial swing to midswing * B – back extensors are active throughout the stance phase * C – knee flexors are most active in midswing to terminal swing * E – hip extensors are most active in late swing

Question 41

49. A patient has been referred to physical therapy with a diagnosis of cervicogenic headaches. During the initial examination, the therapist notes clinical findings of droopy eyelid, pinpoint pupil, and lack of sweating on the same side of the face. What condition is the concern of the therapist? a. Bell's Palsy b. Myasthenia Gravis c. Tic Douloureux d. Horner's Syndrome e. Balint's Syndrome

Answer 41

d. Horner's Syndrome

Question 42

51. While examining a patient diagnosed with Achilles tendonitis, a physical therapist notes that the foot and ankle appear to be pronated. Which motions combine to create pronation in a weight bearing foot? a. abduction, dorsiflexion, eversion b. adduction, dorsiflexion, inversion c. abduction, plantar flexion, eversion d. adduction, plantar flexion, eversion

Answer 42

d. adduction, plantar flexion, eversion Supination OKC: PF, adduction, inversion CKC: DF, abduction, inversion Pronation OKC: DF, abduction, eversion CKC: PF, adduction, eversion

Question 43

55. A physical therapist employed in a subacute rehabilitation facility works on community reintegration prior to discharging a 72-year-old patient to their home. Which aspect of gait should be focused on during training to ensure the patient's ability to safely cross the street? a. Step length b. Velocity c. Cadence d. Heel strike

Answer 43

b. Velocity (speed + direction of motion)

Question 44

56. A patient recently admitted to an acute care hospital is referred to physical therapy. The physical therapist documents the following clinical signs: pallor, cyanosis, and cool skin. These clinical signs are MOST consistent with: a. Cor pulmonale b. Anemia c. Hypertension d. Diaphoresis

Answer 44

b. Anemia

Question 45

58. A physical therapist works with a patient in an acute care hospital to treat a painful, slow healing wound on the medial lower leg. The patient's leg is swollen and appears dark red/purple in color with thickened skin. Which of the following conditions MOST likely contributed to this type of wound? a. Diabetes b. Arterial insufficiency c. Venous insufficiency d. Prolonged pressure

Answer 45

c. Venous insufficiency

Question 46

63. A physical therapist attempts to improve a patient's lower extremity strength. Which proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation technique would be the MOST appropriate to achieve the therapist's goals? a. contract-relax b. repeated contractions c. rhythmic stabilization d. hold-relax

Answer 46

b. repeated contractions

Question 47

64. A patient is positioned in supine with the hips flexed to 90 degrees and the knees extended. As the patient slowly lowers her extended leg toward the horizontal, there is an increase in lordosis of the low back. This finding is indicative of weakness of the: a. Hip flexors b. Back extensors c. Hip extensors d. Abdominals

Answer 47

d. Abdominals

Question 48

65. A physical therapist employed in a school setting observes a 10-year-old boy attempt to move from the floor to a standing position. During the activity, the boy has to push on his legs with his hands in order to attain an upright position. This type of finding is MOST commonly associated with: a. Cystic fibrosis b. Down syndrome c. Duchenne muscular dystrophy d. Spinal muscular atrophy

Answer 48

c. Duchenne muscular dystrophy

Question 49

68. A physical therapist conducts an examination on a patient with suspected ulnar nerve palsy. Which finding is MOST consistent with the hypothesized diagnosis? a. Wasting of the hypothenar eminence b. Wrist drop with increased flexion of the wrist c. Increased flexion of the metacarpophalangeal joint d. Proximal interphalangeal joint hyperextension and slight flexion of the distal interphalangeal joint

Answer 49

a. Wasting of the hypothenar eminence

Question 50

70. A patient diagnosed with an incomplete spinal cord lesion presents with muscle paralysis on the ipsilateral side of the lesion and a loss of pain, temperature, and sensitivity on the contralateral side of the lesion. This presentation BEST describes: a. Posterior cord syndrome b. Central cord syndrome c. Anterior cord syndrome d. Brown-sequard's syndrome

Answer 50

d. Brown-sequard's syndrome

Question 51

72. A physical therapist treats a patient with a fractured left hip. The patient is weight bearing as tolerated and uses a large base quad cane for gait activities. Correct use of the quad cane would include: a. Using the quad cane on the left with the longer legs positioned away from the patient b. Using the quad cane on the right with the longer legs positioned away from the patient c. Using the quad cane on the left with the longer legs positioned toward the patient d. Using the quad cane on the right with the longer legs positioned toward the patient

Answer 51

b. Using the quad cane on the right with the longer legs positioned away from the patient

Question 52

73. A 21-year-old female is examined in physical therapy after sustaining a grade l ankle sprain two days ago in a marching band competition. The patient's description of the mechanism of injury is consistent with inversion and plantar flexion. Which of the following ligaments would MOST likely be affected? a. Anterior talofibular ligament b. Calcaneofibular ligament c. Anterior tibiofibular ligament d. Deltoid ligament

Answer 52

a. Anterior talofibular ligament

Question 53

74. A physical therapist examines a patient referred to physical therapy diagnosed with anterior compartment syndrome. The patient presents with an inability to dorsiflex the foot and a mild sensory disturbance between the first and second toes. The nerve MOST likely involved is the: a. deep peroneal nerve b. medial plantar nerve c. tibial nerve d. lateral plantar nerve

Answer 53

a. deep peroneal nerve

Question 54

76. A physical therapist orders a wheelchair for a patient with C4 tetraplegia. Which wheelchair would be the MOST appropriate for the patient? a. manual wheelchair with friction surface handrims b. manual wheelchair with handrim projections c. power wheelchair with sip and puff controls d. power wheelchair with joystick controls

Answer 54

c. power wheelchair with sip and puff controls Manual wheelchair with friction handrims – C7 Manual wheelchair with handrim projections – C5: oblique; C6: vertical Power wheelchair with joystick controls – C5

Question 55

77, A physical therapist administers the Functional Reach Test to a patient rehabilitating from a neurological disorder. Which bony landmark would be the MOST appropriate to utilize when formally measuring the distance the patient reached during each trial? a. distal tip of the 3rd digit b. third metacarpal c. radial styloid process d. ulnar styloid process

Answer 55

b. third metacarpal

Question 56

78. A physical therapist examines a patient diagnosed with patellofemoral syndrome. As part of the examination the therapist elects to measure the patient's Q angle. Which three bony landmarks are used to measure the Q angle? a. Anterior superior Illac spine, superior border of the patella, tibial tubercie b. Anterior superior illac spine, midpoint of the patella, tiblal tubercie C. Anterior superior illac spine, Inferior border of the patella, midpoint of the patella tendon d. Greater trochanter, midpoint of the patella, tiblal tubercle

Answer 56

b. Anterior superior illac spine, midpoint of the patella, tiblal tubercie

Question 57

81. A physical therapist assesses a patient's sensation of light touch in the lower extremities. The therapist documents that the patient has impaired sensation of the entire right leg, yet normal sensation of the left leg. Which injury is MOST likely present? a. compression of a lower extremity peripheral nerve b. compression of a lumbar nerve root c. spinal cord transection d. left hemisphere stroke

Answer 57

d. left hemisphere stroke

Question 58

83. A patient is unable to take in an adequate supply of nutrients by mouth due to the side effects of radiation therapy. As a result, the patient's physician orders the implementation of tube feeding. What type of tube is MOST commonly used for short-term feeding? a. Endobronchial b. Nasogastric c. Endotracheal d. Tracheostomy

Answer 58

b. Nasogastric

Question 59

86. A physical therapist observing a patient complete a leg cur exercise notices two prominent tendons visible on the posterior surface of the patient's left knee. The visible medial and lateral tendons are MOST likely associated with the: a. Semimembranosus and semitendinosus muscles b. semitendinosus and biceps femoris muscles c. popliteus and semitendinosus muscles d. semimembranosus and biceps femoris muscles

Answer 59

b. semitendinosus and biceps femoris muscles

Question 60

89. A physical therapist examines a patient diagnosed with left-sided heart failure. Which finding is NOT typically associated with this condition? a. pulmonary edema b. persistent cough c. dependent edema d. muscular weakness

Answer 60

c. dependent edema

Question 61

92. A physical therapist participates in a community- based screening program designed to identify Individuals with osteoporosis. Which group would have the HIGHEST risk for developing osteoporosis? a. Caucasian females over the age of 60 b. African American females over the age of 60 c. Caucasian females under the age of 40 d. African American females under the age of 40

Answer 61

a. Caucasian females over the age of 60

Question 62

94. A patient diagnosed with ankylosing spondylitis exhibits a forward stooped posture. As part of the patient's care plan the physical therapist selects a number of active exercises that promote improved posture. Which proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation pattern would be the MOST appropriate to achieve the therapist's objective? a. D1 extension b. D1 flexion c. D2 extension d. D2 flexion

Answer 62

d. D2 flexion

Question 63

96. A seven-year-old boy sitting in the physical therapy waiting area suddenly grasps his throat and appears to be in distress. The boy slowly stands, but is obviously unable to breathe. The physical therapist recognizing the signs of an airway obstruction should administer: a. Abdominal thrust b. Chest thrust c. Rescue breathing d. Finger sweep

Answer 63

a. Abdominal thrust

Question 64

103.Osteochondritis dissecans occurs most commonly in: a. Medial femoral condyle b. Lateral femoral condyle c. Capitellum d. Humeral condyle

Answer 64

a. Medial femoral condyle

Question 65

104. The physical therapist is reading the physician's interpretation of an x-ray that was taken of the left humerus of a 7-year-old patient. The physician notes in the report the presence of an incomplete fracture on the convex side of the humerus. Which type of fracture is the physician describing? a. Comminuted b. Avulsion c. Segmental d. Greenstick

Answer 65

d. Greenstick

Question 66

106.A patient has recently undergone an acromioplasty. What is the most important goal in early rehabilitation? a. Regaining muscle strength b. Return of normal ROM c. Return to activities of daily living (ADLs) d. Endurance and functional progression

Answer 66

b. Return of normal ROM

Question 67

109.During a home health visit, the physical therapist observed several items that require modification in the home of an elderly patient. In terms of priority, the environmental hazard that needs the most immediate attention is a. A throw rug b. The cracked toilet seat c. A malfunctioning thermostat d. A cluttered kitchen

Answer 67

a. A throw rug

Question 68

113.What is the normal TMJ arthrokinematics for wide opening? a. Bilateral translation b. Combination of anterior translation occurs first 26 mm then rotation c. Combination of rotation occurs first 26 mm then anterior translation d. Bilateral rotation on-tens

Answer 68

c. Combination of rotation occurs first 26 mm then anterior translation

Question 69

114.A patient starting to use antihypertensive medications must be observed when getting up or leaving a warm therapeutic pool in order to avoid an episode of ____ a. Dysrhythmias b. Skeletal muscle weakness c. Bradycardia d. Orthostatic hypotension

Answer 69

d. Orthostatic hypotension

Question 70

115.Which one of the following conditions is characterized by reduced osteoclastic bone resorption? a. Paget's disease b. Osteopetrosis c. Osteomalacia d. Osteoporosis

Answer 70

b. Osteopetrosis (Marble Bone Disease) Core problem: Osteoclasts cannot resorb bone → bone keeps forming without being broken down Leads to excessively dense but fragile bones

Question 71

116.In most cases, it is considered safe to apply ultrasound over or near implants a. Cemented and plastic implants b. A pacemaker c. Reproductive organs d. Metal screws, plates and implants

Answer 71

d. Metal screws, plates and implants

Question 72

117.The highest level of spinal cord injury at which you would expect a client to become independent in all self care and driving with equipment would be a. C5 b. C6 c. C7 d. C8

Answer 72

b. C6

Question 73

118. At what point of the gait cycle is the center of gravity (COG) the highest? a. Double support b. Terminal swing c. Deceleration d. Midstance

Answer 73

d. Midstance

Question 74

119.In the single leg stance, when the contralateral hip drops because of weakness, it is considered a. A compensated hip varus b. An uncompensated hip varus c. A compensated Trendelenberg d. An uncompensated Trendelenberg

Answer 74

d. An uncompensated Trendelenberg

Question 75

120.To decrease the risk of hypoglycemia in a patient with type 1 insulin-dependent diabetes, which of the following is inappropriate? a. Eat or drink a snack high in carbohydrates 30 minutes before exercise. b. Exercise muscles that have not had an insulin injection recently. c. A carbohydrate snack for each 30 to 45 minutes of exercise. d. Exercise at the peak time of insulin effect.

Answer 75

d. Exercise at the peak time of insulin effect. (should be at least 2-4hrs after)

Question 76

121.A therapist is ordered to fabricate a splint for a 2- month-old infant with congenital hip dislocation. In what position should the hip be placed while in the splint? a. Flexion and adduction b. Flexion and abduction c. Extension and adduction. d. Extension and abduction

Answer 76

b. Flexion and abduction

Question 77

122.A 32-year-old construction worker fell off a ladder, In his effort to prevent the fall, the worker reached for a beam with his right arm. This motion stretched the brachial plexus, resulting in decreased function in the right arm. Full function returned after 2 1/2 weeks. What is the most likely type of injury? a. Neurapraxia b. Axonotmesis c. Neurotmesis d. Nerve root avulsion

Answer 77

a. Neurapraxia

Question 78

123. Radiology reports using the terms, sequestra and involucrum are referring specifically to what diagnosis of concern to a treating physical therapist? a. Bone cancer c. Fracture b. Osteomyelitis d. Spondylolisthesis

Answer 78

b. Osteomyelitis

Question 79

124. A patient asks the therapist to explain the function of his medication verapamil (a calcium antagonist). Which of the following points should be conveyed in the therapist's explanation? a. Verapamil causes decreased contractility of the heart and vasodilation of the coronary arteries. b. Verapamil causes increased contractility of the heart and vasodilation of the coronary arteries. c. Verapamil causes increased contractility of the heart and vasoconstriction of the coronary arteries. d. Verapamil causes decreased contractility of the heart and vasoconstriction of the coronary arteries

Answer 79

Concepts: d. Verapamil causes decreased contractility of the heart and vasoconstriction of the coronary arteries BR: a. Verapamil causes decreased contractility of the heart and **vasodilation** of the coronary arteries.

Question 80

125. Which of the following drugs should angina patients in case of an angina attack? always carry with/on them a. Nitroglycerin patch b. An ACE inhibitor c. Digoxin d. Sublingual nitroglycerin

Answer 80

d. Sublingual nitroglycerin (rapidly absorbed in oral mucosa)

Question 81

126. Considering an injury to the medial collateral ligament (MCL) of the knee, when does the remodeling phase of healing begin? a. First days after injury b. 2 to 3 weeks after injury c. 4 to 6 weeks after injury d. 6 to 8 weeks after injury

Answer 81

d. 6 to 8 weeks after injury (begins 7wks post-op)

Question 82

127.A physical therapist receives an order from the physician to treat a patient using iontophoresis. The order indicates that the purpose of the treatment is to attempt to dissolve a calcium deposit in the area of the Achilles' tendon. When preparing the patient for treatment, the therapist connects the medicated electrode to the negative pole. Which of the following medications is the therapist most likely preparing to administer? a. Dexamethasone c. Hydrocortisone b. Magnesium sulfate d. Acetic acid

Answer 82

d. Acetic acid

Question 83

128.A patient is difficult to arouse and falls asleep without constant stimulation from the therapist. Even when the patient is aroused, he has difficulty interacting with the physical therapist. What would be the BEST description of the patient's level of arousal? a. Obtunded b. Stupor c. Lethargic d. Alert

Answer 83

a. Obtunded

Question 84

129. Which of the following circumstances would normally decrease body temperature in a healthy person? a. Exercising on a treadmill b. Reaching age of 65 years or older c. Pregnancy d. Normal ovulation

Answer 84

b. Reaching age of 65 years or older

Question 85

130.A 63-year-old woman presents to physical therapy with a diagnosis of herpes zoster. The physician informs the physical therapist that the L5 dorsal root is involved and that a transcutaneous electrical neuromuscular stimulation (TENS) unit should be used to help control the pain. Where should the TENS unit electrodes be placed? a. Posterior thigh b. Anterior lateral tibia c. Lateral hip/greater trochanter area d. Anterior thigh e. NOTA

Answer 85

b. Anterior lateral tibia

Question 86

131. You suspect that your patient has a torn rotator cuff. Which three tests would best confirm this diagnosis? a. The belly press test, drop arm test, and lift-off test b. The lift-off test, the anterior apprehension test, and Speed's test c. The drop arm test, crank test, load and shift test d. Internal rotation lag sign, drop arm test, crank test e. NOTA

Answer 86

a. The belly press test, drop arm test, and lift-off test belly press test assesses the subscapularis drop arm test evaluates the supraspinatus tendon lift-off test also tests the subscapularis function

Question 87

132. What is the BEST method for controlling bleeding and should be attempted first? a. Elevation b. Direct pressure c. Trauma dressing d. Tourniquet

Answer 87

b. Direct pressure

Question 88

133. Which of the following is the only appropriate exercise in the third trimester of pregnancy? a. Bridging b. One-legged balance activities c. Quadruped (crawling position) with hip extension d. Bilateral straight leg raise

Answer 88

a. Bridging

Question 89

134. Which of the following tissues absorbs the most amount of an ultrasound beam at 1 MHz? a. Bone b. Skin c. Muscle d. Blood

Answer 89

a. Bone

Question 90

135.A patient is receiving electrical stimulation for muscle strengthening of the left quadricep. One electrode from one lead wire, 4 x 4 inches in size, is placed on the anterior proximal portion of the left quadricep. Each of two other electrodes from one lead wire are 2 x 2 inches in size. One of the electrodes is placed on the inferior medial side of the left quadricep and one on the inferior lateral side of the left quadricep. This is an example of what type of electrode configuration? a. Monopolar b. Bipolar c. Tripolar d. Quadripolar

Answer 90

b. Bipolar

Question 91

136.A physician has ordered a specific type of electrical stimulation that utilizes a frequency of 2500 Hz with a base frequency at 50 Hz to achieve fused tetany. What type of electrical stimulation has the physician ordered? a. Iontophoresis b. Russian stimulation c. Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation d. Intermittent flow configuration

Answer 91

b. Russian stimulation

Question 92

137.Which of the following conditions would contraindicate the use of an intermittent pneumatic compression pump? a. Lymphedema b. Recent joint arthroplasty c. Congestive heart failure d. Venous stasis ulcers e. NOTA

Answer 92

c. Congestive heart failure

Question 93

138.A physical therapist has been asked to determine whether a ramp to enter a local shopping mall meets the minimum accessibility standards required by law. The maximum grade for wheelchair ramps is best identified as for every inch of rise there should be inches of length. a. 3 b. 6 c. 9 d. 12 e. NOTA

Answer 93

d. 12 * Maximum slope for wheelchair ramps is 1:12 * For every 1 inch of vertical rise, there must be 12 inches of horizontal run.

Question 94

139.A 60-year-old woman who has suffered a recent stroke has left-side homonymous hemianopsia. Which of the following statements is true about placement of eating utensils in early rehabilitation? a. The utensils should be placed on the left side of the plate. b. The utensils should be placed on the right side of the plate. c. The utensils should be placed on both sides of the plate. d. The plate and utensils should be placed slightly to the right.

Answer 94

b. The utensils should be placed on the right side of the plate. (only during early rehab)

Question 95

140.A physical therapist is performing a manual muscle test on a patient with reported lower extremity weakness. When examining the patient's ability to plantarflex the foot in a prone position, suspicion arises that the patient is using the tibialis posterior as a substitute for significant gastrocnemius-soleus weakness. The therapist's hypothesis is based on the following observation a. The foot moves into eversion and plantar flexion b. The forefoot moves into plantar flex c. The toes flex as the foot plantar flexes d. The foot moves into inversion and plantar flexion e. NOTA

Answer 95

d. The foot moves into inversion and plantar flexion

Question 96

141. The ulnar collateral ligament of the elbow is injured during which phase of the baseball pitch? a. Acceleration phase b. Early cocking phase c. Late cocking phase d. Deceleration phase e. NOTA

Answer 96

c. Late cocking phase

Question 97

142. During ambulation, a physical therapist notices that the patient is exhibiting genu recurvatum during the stance phase of the gait cycle. Of the choices, the MOST LIKELY cause for the observed gait deviation is a. A tight gluteus maximus b. Tight hip flexors c. A tight gastrocnemius-soleus complex d. Tight ankle dorsiflexors e. NOTA

Answer 97

c. A tight gastrocnemius-soleus complex

Question 98

143. What is the BEST strategy to communicate with a patient diagnosed with Wernicke's aphasia? a. Use a writing board for communication. b. Correct patient errors frequently to assist in his learning strategies. c. Use easier "who/what/when" questions. d. Attend to nonverbal behaviors and the emotional content of the message.

Answer 98

d. Attend to nonverbal behaviors and the emotional content of the message.

Question 99

144. A physical therapist is using a cold pack to decrease inflammation after a therapeutic exercise session. Which of the following areas needs to be monitored most closely during the ice pack application? a. Medial knee b. Lumbar area c. Quadriceps area d. Acromioclavicular joint e. NOTA

Answer 99

e. NOTA Lateral knee (peroneal nerve at the lateral knee) or the radial nerve at the posterolateral elbow

Question 100

145.A therapist is attempting to open the spastic and flexed hand of a patient who has suffered a recent stroke. Which of the following does not inhibit hand opening? a. Apply direct pressure to the thenar eminence. b. Hyperextend the metacarpophalangeal joint. c. Touching the interossei. d. Apply direct pressure to the hypothenar eminence. e. NOTA

Answer 100

e. NOTA

Question 101

146.A patient who suffered a myocardial infarction is participating in an exercise test. The therapist notes ST-segment depression of 1.7 mm on the patient's current rhythm strip. What is the most appropriate course of action? a. Stop the exercise session immediately and send the patient to the emergency room. b. Continue with the exercise session c. Contact the patient's cardiologist about continuing exercise. d. Stop the exercise session to take the patient's heart rate and blood pressure

Answer 101

b. Continue with the exercise session

Question 102

147. What side effect is shared by all benzodiazepine agents? a. Sedation b. Muscle weakness c. Hypertension d. Cross-sensitivity antibiotics with penicillin-derived

Answer 102

a. Sedation

Question 103

148.What is the most likely cause of anterior pelvic tilt during initial contact (heel strike)? a. Tight hamstrings b. Weak abductors c. Weak abdominals d. Back pain

Answer 103

c. Weak abdominals

Question 104

149. The intensity of an infrared or ultraviolet lamp is greatest when the lamp is ____ a. Positioned closer to the patient at a 45 degree angle b. Positioned closer to the patient at a 90 degree angle (perpendicular to skin) c. Positioned further from the patient at a 90 degree angle (perpendicular to skin) d. Radiating the skin through a sheet or thin towel

Answer 104

b. Positioned closer to the patient at a 90 degree angle (perpendicular to skin)

Question 105

150.A 3-year-old male sustains a femur fracture after falling off his bike. He received an open reduction internal fixation (ORIF) yesterday. The MD writes an order for PT examination and treatment. He is cleared to ambulate non-weight bearing (NWB) on the affected extremity. The patient's insurance, however, will only authorize one piece of equipment. What is the most appropriate assistive device for this patient? a. Front wheeled walker b. Axillary crutches c. Posterior walker d. Wheelchair e. NOTA

Answer 105

d. Wheelchair

Question 106

151.A person with some type of blindness denies her condition. What is probably her diagnosis? a. Munchausen's syndrome b. Patrick's syndrome c. Anton's syndrome d. Central achromatopsia

Answer 106

Anton’s syndrome = cortical blindness + denial of blindness (anosognosia). Munchausen’s syndrome – patient fakes illness for attention, not denial. Patrick’s syndrome – not a real medical condition. Central achromatopsia – cannot see colors, but retains vision; no denial.

Question 107

152. Field workers exposed to a plant toxin develop painful fluid filled blisters. Analysis of the blister fluid reveals high concentrations of a peptide. Which of the following is a peptide that causes increased capillary permeability and edema? a. Bradykinin b. Captopril c. Angiotensin II d. Histamine

Answer 107

a. Bradykinin

Question 108

153. Likely causative agent in poisoning/intoxication from improperly canned food a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Clostridium perfringens c. Clostridium botulinum d. Vibrio cholera

Answer 108

c. Clostridium botulinum

Question 109

154. The patient bumped her toe on table which caused excessive extension of the 1st metatarsophalangeal joint. This condition is called: a. Claw foot b. Hallux rigidus c. Turf toe d . Mallet toe

Answer 109

C. Turf Toe

Question 110

155. Medical Procedure to release a tendon from surrounding adhesions a. Tendon Graft b. Tenolysis c. Tendon Repair d. Tendon transfer

Answer 110

B. Tenolysis Tendon Graft= uses donor tendon to replace/reinforce damaged tendon Tendon Repair= suturing torn tendon Tendon Transfer= surgical relocation of tendon

Question 111

156. Ollier's disease: a. A genetic disease in which bones fracture easily often with no obvious cause or minimal injury b. A rare inherited disorder whereby the bones harden, becoming denser. c. A condition that causes benign growths, or enchondromas, to develop in the bone cartilage d . A condition that leads to weakened bone due to lack of vitamin D

Answer 111

c. A condition that causes benign growths, or enchondromas, to develop in the bone cartilage

Question 112

157. Why is Vitamin D essential for children with Rickets? a. Vitamin D increases osteoclastic activity b. Vitamin D is needed for calcium to be absorbed in the GIT, c. Vitamin D helps in formation of collagen d. Vitamin D makes protein for blood clotting and building of bones

Answer 112

b. Vitamin D is needed for calcium to be absorbed in the GIT,

Question 113

158.In doing this test, patient shows nystagmus, light headedness, dizziness, and visual disturbances when fully in supine and head and neck rotation to right or left a. Barre Louie Sign b. DeBoyd Test c. Bakody's Sign d. Static Vertebral Artery Test

Answer 113

d. Static Vertebral Artery Test

Question 114

159. During the opening of a patient's mouth, a palpable and audible click is discovered in the left temporomandibular joint. The physician informs the therapist that the patient has an anteriorly dislocated disk. This click most likely signifies that: a. The condyle is sliding anteriorly to obtain normal relationship with the disk b. The condyle is sliding posteriorly to obtain normal relationship with the disk C. The condyle is sliding anteriorly and losing normal relationship with the disk d. The condyle is sliding posteriorly and losing normal relationship with the disk

Answer 114

a. The condyle is sliding anteriorly to obtain normal relationship with the disk

Question 115

160. Skin changes associated with aging has the greatest effect on wound healing. a. Reduction of sensation b. Decrease elasticity c. Changes in pigmentation d. Decrease epidermal proliferation

Answer 115

b. Decrease elasticity This matters in wound healing because wound contraction—the process where myofibroblasts pull wound edges together—relies on skin elasticity. If the skin is less elastic, contraction becomes: slower, less efficient, incomplete

Question 116

161. The client was told to put his knees on the chair and bent forward to reach the floor. What does this special test measure or indicate? a. Malingering b. Spondylosis c. Spondylisthesis

Answer 116

a. Malingering

Question 117

162. UE Prosthesis in children (in months): a. 6 b. 8 c. 10 d. 12

Answer 117

a. 6

Question 118

164. Nerve affected in wrist slashing/anterior wrist laceration? a. median nerve b. ulnar nerve c. radial nerve d . axillary nerve

Answer 118

a. median nerve

Question 119

165.A patient is difficult to arouse and falls asleep without constant stimulation from the therapist. Even when the patient is aroused, he has difficulty interacting with the physical therapist. What would be the BESTdescription of the patient's level of arousal? a. Stupor b. Lethargic c. Obtunded d. Alert

Answer 119

c. Obtunded

Question 120

166. Bacteriostatic agents: a. inhibit bacterial cell division b. inhibit young bacterial cell growth c. kills bacteria d. always target the cell membrane of bacteria

Answer 120

b. inhibit young bacterial cell growth

Question 121

167.Which of the following is a side effect of carbamazepine? a. Thirst b. Dizziness c. Cleared vision d. Insomnia

Answer 121

b. Dizziness

Question 122

169. This is a surgical procedure used to remove fatty deposits/plaques from the carotid artery. a. Endarterectomy b. Balloon angioplasty c. CABG d . Intra-carotid bypass

Answer 122

a . Endarterectomy

Question 123

170. The discovery of this drug began the era of antibiotics and has been recognized as one of the greatest advances in therapeutic medicine. a. opium b. warfarin c. penicillin d. naloxone

Answer 123

c . penicillin

Question 124

171. All of the folowing are pressure prone areas when sitting in the wheelchair, except: a. Elbow b. Heel c. Scapula d. Ischium

Answer 124

a. Elbow

Question 125

172. What reflex results in increased leg extensor tones when the client bounces on the sole of his feet several times? a. Moro b. Body Righting c. Negative Support Reaction d. Positive Support Reaction

Answer 125

d. Positive Support Reaction

Question 126

173. What branch o f the median nerve is spared in CTS because it does not pass through the carpal tunnel? b. Palmar cutaneous branch a. Motor branch c. Anterior interosseous nerve d. Sensory branch

Answer 126

b. Palmar cutaneous branch

Question 127

174. Contraindication to THR: a. Sepsis/Systemic disease b. Progressive nerve disorder c. Fast degenerative bone disease

Answer 127

a. Sepsis/Systemic disease

Question 128

176.Shoulder-hand syndrome typically occurs how long post-stroke? a. 1-6 years b. 1-2 years c . 1-6 months d. 15-24 months

Answer 128

c . 1-6 months

Question 129

178. "Too many toes" a. pronation b. supination c. excessive DF d. excessive PF

Answer 129

a. pronation

Question 130

179. Patchy, mushy necrosis of tissue debris a. caseation b. liquefaction c. hematogenous spread d. dissolution

Answer 130

b. Liquefaction necrosis → tissue becomes soft, mushy, and liquefied, common in brain infarcts and abscesses. Caseation → cheese-like Hematogenous spread → mode of infection spread Dissolution → not a pathology term for necrosis pattern

Question 131

180. Dupuytren’s contracture involves flexion contractures of the ______ digits of the hand, MP, and proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joints. a. 2nd and 3rd b. 3rd and 4th c. 4th and 5th d. 1st and 2nd

Answer 131

c. 4th and 5th

Question 132

181. An elderly patient suffered a cerebral thrombosis 4 days ago and presents with: decreased pain and temperature on the ipsilateral face nystagmus, vertigo, nausea, dysphagia ipsilateral Horner’s syndrome contralateral loss of pain and temperature of the body The MOST LIKELY site of thrombosis is: a. Anterior cerebral artery b. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery c. Internal carotid artery d. Posterior cerebral artery

Answer 132

b. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery

Question 133

182. The correct sequence for a positive Landau reflex response is: a. First the back extends, then the neck flexes with legs in extension b. First the head, then the back and legs extend c. Simultaneous neck and back in flexion with legs in extension d. First the legs will extend, then neck extension with back flexion

Answer 133

b. First the head, then the back and legs extend This matches the normal Landau reflex, seen at 3–4 months, where the infant in prone suspension shows head extension → trunk extension → hip/leg extension.

Question 134

183. The most common movement disorder is: a. Chorea b. Tremor c. Myoclonus d. Essential tremor

Answer 134

d. Essential tremor (5% of population)

Question 135

184. Orthosis with best cosmesis a. STEN foot b. Seattle c. SAFE foot d. Carbon Copy II

Answer 135

b. Seattle

Question 136

186. Which organ receives the most cardiac output at rest? a. Heart b. Viscera c. Kidney d. Liver

Answer 136

d. Liver The Liver Has High Blood Flow and Low Vascular Resistance. About 1050 ml/min of blood flow from the portal vein into the liver sinusoids and an additional 300 ml/min flow into the sinusoids from the hepatic artery, with the total averaging about 1350 ml/min, which is **27% of the resting cardiac output**.

Question 137

187. Most abundant extracellular cation a. Sodium b. Potassium c. Proteins d. Bicarbonate e. Chloride

Answer 137

a. Sodium

Question 138

188. An emergent condition classically presenting with pleuritic pain and mediastinal shift: a. Lung abscess b. Lung tumor c. Pneumothorax d. Endometriosis

Answer 138

c. Pneumothorax

Question 139

189. Blue or purple skin discoloration that occurs as a result of rupture of blood vessels under the skin: a. Ecchymosis b. Purpura c. Petechiae

Answer 139

c. Petechiae

Question 140

190. Most common structural kyphosis in adolescents and adults a. Pott’s disease b. Scoliosis c. Scheuermann d. Sacroiliitis

Answer 140

c. Scheuermann

Question 141

191. A therapist receives a referral for a client who is one week status post head injury. In the client's medical record it notes that the client demonstrates decorticate posturing. This type of posturing is characterized by: a. Upper extremity extension and lower extremity flexion b. Upper extremity flexion and lower extremity flexion c. Upper extremity extension and lower extremity extension d. Upper extremity flexion and lower extremity extension

Answer 141

d. Upper extremity flexion and lower extremity extension

Question 142

193. Used for patients with excessive foot pronation a. Metatarsal pad b. Rocker bottom c. Thomas heel d. Cushion heel

Answer 142

c. Thomas heel

Question 143

194. Teenage girl becomes embarrassed in front of her friends due to her weight. She develops fear of eating large quantities of food, affects functionality and ability to eat out with friends, and develops severe weight loss. a. Body dysmorphic disorder b. Anorexia nervosa c. Avoidant disorder d. Bulimia nervosa

Answer 143

b. Anorexia nervosa

Question 144

195. Prothrombin time delay/lack, normal clotting time, normal bleeding time, lack of clotting factor IX/Christmas factor a . Hemophilia A b . Hemophilia B

Answer 144

b . Hemophilia B * CF 8 = AHF A * CF 9 = AHF B / Christmas factor * CF 11 = AHF C * CF 12 = AHF D / Hageman factor

Question 145

196. The nature of the training experience dictates the nature of the plasticity. a. Specificity b. Salience matters c. Use it or lose it d. Intensity matters

Answer 145

a. Specificity

Question 146

197. Your male patient has gout flare-ups after eating purine-rich foods in a party. What drug is taken to avoid resurgence of symptoms of gout as prophylaxis? a. Glucocorticoids b. Low-dose colchicine c. Allopurinol d. NSAIDs

Answer 146

b. Low-dose colchicine

Question 147

198. A child developed polyarthritis which was preceded by a sore throat and fever. Lab results reveal that the patient is positive for anti-streptolysin O. a. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis b. Rheumatic fever c. Dermatomyositis d. Rheumatoid arthritis

Answer 147

b. Rheumatic fever

Question 148

200. Does not have subcutaneous nodules: a. Dermatomyositis b. Gout c. Rheumatoid arthritis d. Systemic lupus erythematosus

Answer 148

b. Gout

Question 149

201. True about cortisol: a. Highest at night, lowest in morning b. Highest in morning, lowest at night c. Same throughout the day d. Peaks in the afternoon and lowest at night

Answer 149

b. Highest in morning, lowest at night Peak: 6-8am Lowest: midnight to 3am

Question 150

202. “Free association” a. Sigmund Freud b. Carl Jung c. Alfred Adler d. Erik Erikson

Answer 150

a. Sigmund Freud

Question 151

203. A drug was introduced/administered to the bone marrow via syringe/injection. What procedure is this? a. Intramuscular b. Interosseous c. Intravenous

Answer 151

b. Interosseous

Question 152

204. You are trying to facilitate extensor activity of wrist and fingers by simultaneously abducting the paretic arm. What do you call this associated reaction? a. Raimiste’s b. Souques’ c. Homolateral synkinesis d. Motor irradiation

Answer 152

b. Souques’

Question 153

205. Drugs for tuberculosis, except: a. Rifampicin b. Isoniazid c. Pyrazinamide d. Clindamycin

Answer 153

d. Clindamycin

Question 154

206. Thrombocytopenia test a. WBC b. Platelet count c. RBC d. Thyroxine (T4) test

Answer 154

b. Platelet count

Question 155

207. A 70-year-old woman obeys commands but cannot repeat phrases and cannot write. Where is the lesion? a. Dominant inferior frontal gyrus b. Dominant middle frontal gyrus c. Dominant superior frontal gyrus d. Dominant superior temporal gyrus

Answer 155

a. Dominant inferior frontal gyrus (or third frontal convolution)

Question 156

208. Anomic aphasia is most likely to occur with a lesion in which region? a. Frontal operculum b. Angular gyrus c. Inferior temporal gyrus d. Supplementary motor area

Answer 156

b. Angular gyrus

Question 157

209. Cutting which structure causes blindness in the temporal fields of the left and right eyes? a. Optic nerve b. Optic chiasm c. Optic tract d. Geniculocalcarine tract

Answer 157

b. Optic chiasm

Question 158

210. What is the most common type of hip fracture among the elderly? a. Intracapsular b. Intertrochanteric c. Subtrochanteric d. NOTA

Answer 158

b. Intertrochanteric

Question 159

211. In strength and movement analysis, the therapist is looking for problems of contractile tissue, which consists of muscles, their tendons, attachments (e.g., bone), and the nervous tissue supplying the contractile tissue. If movement is strong and pain free, this suggests that there is a. No lesion of the contractile unit b.Local lesion of the muscle or tendon (maybe muscle or tendon injury) c. Neurological lesion d. Overexercise/fatigue

Answer 159

a. No lesion of the contractile unit

Question 160

214. What is the correct of sequence of bone healing after a fracture? a.Hematoma, soft callus, hard callus, remodelling b. Hematoma, hard callus, soft callus, remodelling c. Hard callus, soft callus, Hematoma, remodelling d.Soft callus, Hematoma, hard callus, remodelling

Answer 160

a.Hematoma, soft callus, hard callus, remodelling

Question 161

215. Cozen's test: a.Tennis elbow b.Golfer's elbow c. De Quervain's Disease d. Flexor Digitorum Profundus rupture

Answer 161

a.Tennis elbow

Question 162

217.In Glasgow Coma Scale, what level would you classify a decerebrate response? a. 2 b.1 c. 4 d. 3

Answer 162

a. 2

Question 163

219. What lobe is affected in Gerstmann's Syndrome? a.Frontal b. Temporal c. Parietal d. Occipital

Answer 163

c. Parietal

Question 164

220.A female patient presents with facial weakness, difficulty closing the eyes, difficulty swallowing & fatigue. After administration of 2-mg dose followed by a 8-mg dose of Tensilon, improvement begins in 1 minute. What is the most likely condition? a. Lambert-Eaton Myasthenic Syndrome b. Myasthenia Gravis c. Botulism d. MS

Answer 164

b. Myasthenia Gravis

Question 165

222.A 67-year-old man has a stroke. One week later, he experiences sudden and uncontrolled flailing, ballistic movements of his limbs. Which part of the man's brain is most likely to have been damaged by the stroke? A.Globus pallidus b. Lateral hypothalamus C. Red nucleus D.Subthalamic nucleus E.Ventrobasal complex of thalamus

Answer 165

D.Subthalamic nucleus

Question 166

223. Ashworth Scale Score 2 a. Slight increase in muscle tone, catch and release b. Considerable increase in muscle tone, passive ROM difficult c. Marked increase in muscle tone through most of ROM, but limb is easily moved d. Limb rigid in flexion or extension

Answer 166

c. Marked increase in muscle tone through most of ROM, but limb is easily moved

Question 167

224. The most common location for an interdigital (Morton's) neuroma is between which of the following metatarsal heads a.1st and 2nd b. 2nd and 3rd c. 3rd and 4th d. 4th and 5th

Answer 167

c. 3rd and 4th (narrow inderdigital space, thickest interdigital nerve)

Question 168

225. Which of the following correctly describes Legg-Calve Perthes Disease a.Idiopathic avascular necrosis of the femoral head b.Usually bilateral in involvement: c. Secondary to increased weight d.Strain on the growth plate

Answer 168

a.Idiopathic avascular necrosis of the femoral head

Question 169

227.Fingers affected in Dupuytrens contracture a.2nd and 3rd b.3rd and 4th c.4th and 5th d. 1st and 2nd

Answer 169

c.4th and 5th

Question 170

228. Upon examination of your patient with quadriceps contusion, you note deep bruising, pain, swelling, and discoloration. Active knee ROM is 45°. You classify his injury as: a. Mild b. Moderate c. Severe d. Malingering

Answer 170

b. Moderate

Question 171

229. The following are true with regard to the Sprengel's Deformity, except: a. Decreased ROM in abduction b. Fully developed scapula c. Ascended scapula d. NOTA

Answer 171

b. **Fully** developed scapula

Question 172

230.On the palpation of the knee, tenderness at the tibial tubercle in children and adolescents, which may also show enlargement of the tibial tubercle prominence, may be associated with ? a.Osteochondritis dissecans b. Osgood Schlatter's disease c. Chondromalacia patella d. Patellofemoral dysfunction

Answer 172

b. Osgood Schlatter's disease

Question 173

231. An organism refers to a living thing that has an organized structure, can react to stimuli, reproduce, grow, adapt, and maintain homeostasis. What is the smallest organism? a. Fungi b. Virus C.Bacteria d.Parasite

Answer 173

b. Virus

Question 174

232. You are given a 25-year-old athlete patient who had a history of impaired consciousness. Upon assessment, you noted that the patient has impaired coordination & distracted-poor concentration. Based on your observation, patient maybe in the state of: a.Concussion b.Delirium C.Confabulation d.Dementia

Answer 174

a.Concussion

Question 175

234. True about Meningocele: a. Protrusion of meninges and involvement of spinal cord b. Protrusion of meninges and CSF without involvement of functional neural elements c. Characterized by variable displacement of cerebellar tissue into the spinal canal, accompanied by caudal dislocation of the lower brain stem and fourth ventricle d. It is the dilation of the central canal of the spinal cord

Answer 175

b. Protrusion of meninges and CSF without involvement of functional neural elements * Myel/o = spinal cord or bone marrow * Meningo/meninx = meninges * Cele = swelling/tumor/hernia of a body part

Question 176

236. The BEST strategy for managing poor transfer of learning is through a. explaining similarities and differences simply & clearly b. setting realistic and achievable goals c. providing clear and concrete procedures d. ignoring emotional outburst

Answer 176

c. providing clear and concrete procedures

Question 177

237. The patient is instructed to flex the head onto the chest. The patient then raises the extended leg actively by flexing the hip until pain is felt. When the patient flexed the knee on the same side, the pain disappeared, this is indicative of ___ A. meningeal irritation, nerve root involvement & dural irritation B. cervical radiculopathy C. malingering D. Spondylosis

Answer 177

A. meningeal irritation, nerve root involvement & dural irritation

Question 178

238. This eye disorder manifests in patients with MS when both eyes are turned to one side and the opposite eye fails to adduct and presents with nystagmus: a.Scotoma b. Optic Neuritis C.Marcus Gunn Pupil d.Internuclear Ophthalmoplegia

Answer 178

d.Internuclear Ophthalmoplegia

Question 179

239. An individual with a body mass index of 34kg/m is referred to an outpatient exercise program. The therapist in charge of the program recognizes this patient is at increased risk for: A.Hypothermia during exercise B.Hyperthermia before exercise C.Hypothermia before exercise D.Hyperthermia during exercise

Answer 179

D.Hyperthermia during exercise Fat = Insulator Insulator: material/object that resists or prevents the flow of electricity, heat, or sound.

Question 180

240.A patient with a body mass index (BMI) of 37 is referred to therapy for exercise conditioning. What are additional clinical manifestations associated with the BMI that this patient might exhibit? a.Hyperpnea and hyperpituitarism b.Hypertension and hyperinsulinism c.Hormone-related cancer d. Hypolipoproteinemia and hypotension

Answer 180

b.Hypertension and hyperinsulinism

Question 181

241. Prevention of neural tube defects such as myelomeningocele requires intake of this vitamin a. Ascorbic acid b. Mecobalamin c. Folic acid d. Riboflavin

Answer 181

c. Folic acid

Question 182

243. A female patient with SLE expressed her concern to a therapist. She reported dryness of the vagina making her uncomfortable during sexual intercourse. As a therapist you know that this is: a. Xerostomia b. Atrophic Vaginitis c. Balanitis d. Malar rash

Answer 182

b. Atrophic Vaginitis

Question 183

244. A patient presents with severe knee pain, there is note of knee redness, swelling and warmth. Concomitantly, the patient has febrile episodes. What condition does the patient has? a. Knee bursitis b. Knee OA c. Infective arthritis d. Torn ACL

Answer 183

c. Infective arthritis

Question 184

245. What is a bacteriostatic agent? a. Refers to drugs that typically kill or destroy bacteria b. Drug such as erythromycin exhibit bactericidal activity at lower doses but are bacteriostatic at higher doses c. An agent that suppresses or inhibits the growth and proliferation of bacteria d. Always targets the cell membrane of the bacteria

Answer 184

d. Always targets the cell membrane of the bacteria

Question 185

246. Correct about pharmacokinetics: a. This process starts when the drug is distributed and eventually eliminated from the body b. Levodopa passes through the blood-brain barrier c. All methods of drug administration that do not use the gastrointestinal tract are termed enteral d. Drugs given parenterally are usually subject to first-pass inactivation in the liver

Answer 185

**b. Levodopa passes through the blood-brain barrier** a. This process starts when the drug is distributed and eventually eliminated from the body  i. (ADME) Absorption > Distribution > Metabolism > Elimination c. All methods of drug administration that do not use the gastrointestinal tract are termed enteral  i. Enteral: drugs that use the GIT (mouth/stomach/intestines) d. Drugs given parenterally are usually subject to first-pass inactivation in the liver  i. Parenteral: IV, IM, Subcutaneous

Question 186

247.Mutations in this gene are present in a majority of familial cases of early-onset Alzheimer's disease a. APP b. A12 c. AA d. AA1

Answer 186

a. APP

Question 187

248.A 32-year-old man reports 1 week of feeling unusually irritable. During this time, he has increased energy and activity, sleeps less, and finds it difficult to sit still. He also is more talkative than usual and is easily distractible, to the point of finding it difficult to complete his work assignments. A physical examination and laboratory workup are negative for any medical cause of his symptoms and he takes no medications. What diagnosis best fits this clinical picture? a. Manic episode. b. Hypomanic episode. c. Bipolar I disorder, with mixed features. d. Major depressive episode. e. Cyclothymic disorder

Answer 187

a. Manic episode.

Question 188

249. Which of the following is more common in men with bipolar I disorder than in women with the disorder a. Rapid cycling. b. Alcohol abuse. c. Eating disorders. d. Anxiety disorders. e. Mixed-state symptoms.

Answer 188

b. Alcohol abuse. Women: eating and anxiety disorders

Question 189

250.A 45-year-old man with classic features of schizophrenia has always experienced co-occurring symptoms of depression-including feeling "down in the dumps," having a poor appetite, feeling hopeless, and suffering from insomnia-during his episodes of active psychosis. These depressive symptoms occurred only during his psychotic episodes and only during the 2-year period when the patient was experiencing active symptoms of schizophrenia, After his psychotic episodes were successfully controlled by medication, no further symptoms of depression were present. The patient has never met full criteria for major depressive disorder at any time. What is the appropriate DSM-5 diagnosis? a, Schizophrenia. b. Schizoaffective disorder and Persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia). c. Schizophrenia and persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia), d. Unspecified schizophrenia spectrum and other psychotic disorder.

Answer 189

a, Schizophrenia.

Question 190

251.Schizophrenia is thought to be caused in part by excessive production and release of which neurotransmitter agent? a. Norepinephrine b. Serotonin C. Acetylcholine d. Substance P e. Dopamine

Answer 190

e. Dopamine

Question 191

252. A 65-year-old woman reports being housebound despite feeling physically healthy. Several years ago, she fell while shopping; although she sustained no injuries, the situation was so upsetting that she became extremely nervous when she had to leave her house unaccompanied. Because she has no children and few friends whom she can ask to accompany her, she is very distressed that she has few opportunities to venture outside her home. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. Specific phobia, situational type. b. Social anxiety disorder (social phobia). c. Posttraumatic stress disorder. d. Agoraphobia. e. Adjustment disorder.

Answer 191

d. Agoraphobia.

Question 192

253. A 63-year-old woman has been saving financial documents and records for many years, placing papers in piles throughout her apartment to the point where it has become unsafe. She acknowledges that the piles are a concern; however, she says that the papers include important documents, and she is afraid to throw them away. She recalls several instances in 1 of which her taxes were audited and she needed certain documents to avoid a penalty. She is concerned because her landlord is threatening to evict her unless she removes the piles of papers. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. Obsessive-compulsive disorder. b. Hoarding disorder. c. Delusional disorder. d. Non-pathological collecting behavior. e. Dementia (major neurocognitive disorder).

Answer 192

a. Obsessive-compulsive disorder.

Question 193

254. A patient living in an apartment has a behavioral pattern of accumulating unnecessary items. He was asked by the landlord to leave because the person is unable to get rid of those items even though they may create hazardous situations such as risk of fire in the apartment a. Hoarding disorder b. Kleptomania c. Obsessional jealousy d. Rumination Disorder. e. A&C

Answer 193

a. Hoarding disorder

Question 194

255. A 19-year-old woman is referred to a psychiatrist by her internist after she admits to him that she recurrently pulls hair from her eyebrows to the point that she has scarring and there is little or no eyebrow hair left. She states that her natural eyebrows are "bushy" and "repulsive" and that she "looks like a caveman." A photograph of the woman before she began pulling her eyebrow hair shows a normal-looking teenager. What is the most appropriate diagnosis? a. Trichotillomania (hair-pulling disorder). b. Delusional disorder, somatic type. c. Body dysmorphic disorder. d. Normal age-appropriate appearance concerns. e. Obsessive-compulsive disorder

Answer 194

c. Body dysmorphic disorder.

Question 195

256. A 25-year-old man is referred to a psychiatrist by his primary care doctor after mentioning to the doctor that he routinely spends a lot of time pulling out facial hair with tweezers, even after carefully shaving. On evaluation, he admits to frequent pulling of his facial hair, consuming a significant amount of time; he explains that he becomes anxious when looking at himself because his moustache, hairline, and sideburns are asymmetrical. He pulls out hairs in an effort to make them more symmetrical but is rarely satisfied with the results. He finds this very upsetting but cannot resist the urge to try and "fix" his facial hair. What is the most appropriate diagnosis? a. Trichotillomania (hair-pulling disorder). b. Body dysmorphic disorder (BDD). c. Delusional disorder, somatic type. d. Normal age-appropriate appearance concerns. e. Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD).

Answer 195

e. Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD).

Question 196

257. The most common hallucination in patients with schizophrenia: a. Visual b. Auditory c. Tactile d. Olfactory

Answer 196

b. Auditory

Question 197

258. Which of the following statements is not true about psychotropic medication? a. Imipramine was the first tricyclic antidepressant to be discovered b. Thorazine signaled the beginning of modern psychopharmacology for antipsychotic medication c. Prozac is relatively safe drug for treating schizophrenia. d. Ritalin is effective in treating attention deficit disorder

Answer 197

c. Prozac is relatively safe drug for treating **schizophrenia (anxiety and depression)**

Question 198

259.Which of the following substances, when abused, is most likely to cause symptoms mimicking obsessive-compulsive disorder? a. Heroin. b. Cocaine. c. Alprazolam. d. Marijuana. e. Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD).

Answer 198

b. Cocaine.

Question 199

260. A group of non-progressive, permanent disorders that causes limitation of activity by affecting the developing motor control circuit. These nonprogressive disturbances result from insults during fetal development or in the infant's brain. a. Niemann-Pick disease b. Rett syndrome c. Primary dystonia d. Cerebral Palsy

Answer 199

d. Cerebral Palsy

Question 200

261. Most common type of Cerebral palsy a. Spastic b. Athetoid c. Ataxic d. AOТА

Answer 200

a. Spastic

Question 201

262. Cerebral palsy is characterized by a disturbance or insult to the developing fetal or infant brain. Children with periventricular leukomalacia typically have: a. Spastic diparesis b. Spastic hemiplegia c. Spastic quadriplegia d. Spastic monoplegia

Answer 201

a. Spastic diparesis Periventricular leukomalacia (PVL) damages the fibers controlling lower extremity movement the most → leading to spastic diparesis (spastic diplegia), the classic CP presentation in premature infants.

Question 202

263. On plain film X-ray, a black or dark gray lesion within a normally white region such as a cortical bone would be termed a region of? a. Density. b. Opacity. c. Sclerosis. d. Lucency.

Answer 202

d. Lucency.

Question 203

264. Radiology reports using the terms "sequestra" and "involucrum" are referring specifically to what diagnosis of concern to a treating therapist? a. Bone cancer. b. Osteomyelitis. c. Fracture. d. Spondylolisthesis.

Answer 203

b. Osteomyelitis.

Question 204

265. You are examining a child with a fractured distal femur. The fracture begins at the medial aspect of the distal diaphyseal region, progresses distal laterally through the metaphysic, epiphyseal plate, and epiphyseal regions, exiting into the knee joint surface. This would be classified as a Salter-Harris type fracture? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

Answer 204

d. 4

Question 205

266. Which of the following layers of the epidermis is responsible for the constant renewal of epidermal cells? a. S. germinativum. b. S. granulosum. c.S. lucidum. d. S. corneum.

Answer 205

a. S. germinativum (Basale)

Question 206

267. Which type of burn is painful and blanches with pressure? a. Superficial burn. b. Partial thickness burn. c. Deep thickness burn. d. Full thickness burn.

Answer 206

b. Partial thickness burn.

Question 207

268. According to the AMERICAN BURN BOARD CLASSIFICATION, this injury is considered as moderate if? a. Partial thickness burn involving the anorectal area. b. More than 25 percent BSA partial thickness. c. 2 percent to 10 percent BSA full thickness. d. Inhalation injury is involved.

Answer 207

c. 2 percent to 10 percent BSA full thickness.

Question 208

269. Which of the following is the most commonly used and considered accurate in estimating the extent of burn size in children a. Rule of 9s. b. Modified Lund and Browder. c. Use of the palm of the patient's hand. d. None of the above.

Answer 208

b. Modified Lund and Browder.

Question 209

270. The most common direction of disc protrusion causing neurological involvement in the lumbar area? a. Posterior. b. Posterolateral c. Lateral. d. Anterolateral

Answer 209

b. Posterolateral

Question 210

271. True about posterior longitudinal ligament: a. It is absent in lumbar region b. It is narrowed in lumbar region c. It is absent in thoracic region d. It is narrowed in thoracic region

Answer 210

b. It is narrowed in lumbar region

Question 211

272. Patients radiology examination reveals curvature of the spine in the anteroposterior direction in which the convexity is directed posteriorly. This best describes which part of the following condition? a. Scoliosis. b. Kyphosis. c. Scheuermans disease. d. Pectus excavatum.

Answer 211

b. Kyphosis.

Question 212

273. Which of the following terms describes the deformity of the neck that causes rotation and tilting of the head in the opposite direction? a.Scoliosis. b.Cervical spondylosis. c. Web neck. d.Torticollis,

Answer 212

d.Torticollis,

Question 213

274. Scoliosis with more than 100 degrees angle is an example of a lung disease? a.Obstructive b.Restrictive c.Infectious d.Parenchymal

Answer 213

b.Restrictive

Question 214

275. Fibrogelatinous pulp in the disc is called? a. Annulus fibrosus. b. Annulus pulposus. c. Nucleus fibrosus. d. Nucleus pulposus.

Answer 214

a. Annulus fibrosus.

Question 215

276. Inflammation at sites of insertion of tendons or ligaments into bone a. Tenosynovitis b. Enthesitis c. Tenovaginitis d. Arthritis

Answer 215

b. Enthesitis

Question 216

277. Palmar and plantar grasp are reflexes first seen at what age? a. 8-9 mos b. Birth c. 2 mos d. 3 mos

Answer 216

b. Birth

Question 217

278. Depth of burn with intact blisters, moist weeping especially if punctured. Area is also sensitive to changes in temperature or exposure to air currents. a. Epidermal b. Full Thickness c. Deep Partial d. Superficial Partial

Answer 217

d. Superficial Partial

Question 218

279. Patient had loss of appetite after encountering a motor vehicular accident. What cranial nerve is most likely affected? a. CN 1 b. CN 8 c. CN 2 d. CN 5

Answer 218

a. CN 1

Question 219

280. Dsyphagia a. VI, VII b. XI, XII c. IX, X d. II, IlI

Answer 219

c. IX, X

Question 220

281.A T10 SCI patient with amenorrhea asks a therapist when will her period return. As a medical professional you know that mense that it may: a. last up to 12 months b. last up to 4 months c. never return d. last up to 8 months

Answer 220

b. last up to 4 months

Question 221

282. You are given a stroke patient with good comprehension and repetition but has non-fluent speech. What aphasia is being described? a. Broca's b. Transcortical motor c. Wernicke's d. Transcortical sensory

Answer 221

b. Transcortical motor

Question 222

283. Broca's aphasia, except: a. Motor b. Expressive c. Posterior d. NOTA

Answer 222

c. Posterior

Question 223

284. True regarding the oculomotor nerve? a. It carries sensory fibers from the retina. b. It contains preganglionic sympathetic fibers. c. It is responsible for eye movement. d.All of these.

Answer 223

c. It is responsible for eye movement.

Question 224

285. Damaged ventral and lateral areas of the spinal cord may result in______ deficits a. Perceptual b. Sensory c. Both motor and sensory d. Motor

Answer 224

c. Both motor and sensory

Question 225

286.A patient with psoriatic arthritis presents with shortened index finger compared to the other digits. It is also noted to have transverse folds of the skin. Pulling of the said finger during examination lengthens the digit. What is the possible cause of this? a. Dactylitis b. Arthritis mutilans c. Auspitz sign d. Inverted T sign

Answer 225

b. Arthritis mutilans

Question 226

287.Osteoarthritis a. Systemic disease b. Inflammatory disease c. Wear & Tear d. AOTA

Answer 226

c. Wear & Tear

Question 227

288. Diagnostic Criteria for Hand Osteoarthritis include which of the following? a. all of the choices b. presence of Heberden's nodes c. Age > 40 years old d. Joint space narrowing in any finger joint e. Family history of nodes

Answer 227

a. all of the choices

Question 228

289. True of Ankylosing spondylitis, except: a. Synovitis and inflammation of the enthesis b. With reactive HLA-D27 antigen c. With definitive radiographic sacroilitis d. Common in adult males with usual complaints of morning LBP e. None of these

Answer 228

b. With reactive HLA-D27 antigen (HLA B27)

Question 229

291. According to the Revised Criteria of the American Rheumatism Association for positive Rheumatoid Arthritis, joint swelling should be present for at least: a. 6 weeks b. 3 weeks c. 12 weeks d. 6 months

Answer 229

a. 6 weeks

Question 230

292. The most commonly affected joint in gouty arthritis is: a. 1st PIP b. 1st MCP c. 1st DIP d. 1st MTP

Answer 230

d. 1st MTP

Question 231

293. Characteristics of Felty's syndrome include the following: a. Leukocytosis, Splenomegaly, thrombocytopenia b. Leukopenia, Splenomegaly, Thrombocytosis c. Leukopenia, Splenomegaly, thrombocytopenia d. Leukocytosis, Splenomegaly, Thrombocytosis

Answer 231

c. Leukopenia, Splenomegaly, thrombocytopenia

Question 232

294.A patient who is currently being treated for low back pain arrives for therapy complaining of pain across the middle of the right chest and back. When the therapist inspects the skin, clustered vesicles are apparent in a linear arc. The surrounding skin is hypersensitive. What is the MOST likely diagnosis? a. Herpes simplex infection b. Psoriasis c. Dermatitis d. Herpes zoster infection

Answer 232

d. Herpes zoster infection (Shingles)

Question 233

297.A patient is referred for physical therapy with a diagnosis of degenerative joint disease (DJD) affecting C2 and C3. The patient complains of pain and stiffness in the cervical region and transient dizziness with some cervical motions. What is the BEST initial examination procedure? a. Vertebral artery test b. Adson's maneuver c. Lhermitte's test d. Oppenheim's test

Answer 233

a. Vertebral artery test

Question 234

298.If the forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) test is negative for airway obstruction in 99% of individuals without lung disease, then the measurement of FEV1 is: a. Sensitive b. Specific c. Reliable d. Valid

Answer 234

b. Specific

Question 235

295.A PT should be alert to recognize the signs and symptoms associated with the onset of aspiration pneumonia. Which patient diagnosis is the MOST susceptible to develop this from of pneumonia? a. A circumferential burn of the thorax associated with significant pain b. Severe scoliosis with compression of internal organs, including the lungs c. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) with dysphagia and diminished gag reflex d. A complete spinal cord lesion at T2 with diminished coughing ability and forced vital capacity (FVC)

Answer 235

c. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) with dysphagia and diminished gag reflex Aspiration pneumonia is a lung infection caused by inhaling food, drink, vomit, or saliva into the lungs.

Question 236

296.A patient is being examined for impairments after stroke. When tested for two-point discrimination on the right hand, the patient is unable to tell whether the therapist is touching with one or two points. The therapist determines that there is impaired function in the: a. Spinotectal tract and somatosensory cortex b. Lateral spinothalamic tract and somatosensory cortex c. Dorsal column/lemniscal pathways and somatosensory cortex d. Anterior spinothalamic tract and thalamus

Answer 236

c. Dorsal column/lemniscal pathways and somatosensory cortex

Question 237

300.A physical therapist employed in an acute care hospital reviews the medical record of a patient diagnosed with congestive heart failure. The therapist would like to implement a formal exercise program but is concerned about the patient's exercise tolerance. Which condition is MOST responsible for the patient's limited exercise tolerance? a. Diminished lung volumes b. Arterial oxygen desaturation c. Insufficient stroke volume during ventricular systole d. Excessive rise in blood pressure

Answer 237

c. Insufficient stroke volume during ventricular systole

Question 238

299.A physical therapist participates in a formal gait analysis using three-dimensional analysis software for a 11-year-old child with cerebral palsy. Which piece of objective data would LEAST likely be obtained through this process? a. Decreased swing phase b. Decreased walking velocity c. Decreased quadriceps strength d. Decreased knee extension range of motion

Answer 238

c. Decreased quadriceps strength

Question 239

290. What is the hallmark of spondyloarthropathies? a. Asymmetric arthritis b. Fusion of joints c. Enthesopathy d. Inflammation of thoracic spine e. Sacroilitis

Answer 239

e. Sacroilitis

Question 240

242. A lesion in the cerebellum may cause which type of tone? a. Rigidity b. Hypertonia c. Hypotonia d. Spasticity

Answer 240

c. Hypotonia

Question 241

235. Persons learn by observing the behavior of others. What theory of learning is described? a. Social cognitive b. Dynamic systems c. Behaviorism d.Developmental

Answer 241

a. Social Cognitive Theory (Bandura) = learning through observation, imitation, and modeling.

Question 242

233. Patients with spina bifida are lacking which of the following thus usually given to pregnant women to avoid such condition? a.Cyanocobalamine b.Folic acid c.Vitamin B d.Vitamin D

Answer 242

b.Folic acid

Question 243

226. True about slipped capital femoral epiphysis: a.This is considered as avascular necrosis in children b. This is also known as Chandler's disease. c.Common in tall and obese males. d.Positive sagging rope sign..

Answer 243

c.Common in tall and obese males.

Question 244

221. Which of the following is/are a negative features of an upper motor neuron syndrome a. Paresis b. Paralysis c. Fatigue d. AOTA

Answer 244

d. AOTA

Question 245

218. Gerstman's syndrome which is lesion in the dominant parietal lobe, present the following symptoms, EXCEPT a. Agraphia b. Acalculia c. Apraxia d. R-L confusion

Answer 245

c. Apraxia

Question 246

216. The 28-year-old male patient came into the clinic with a referral from the orthopedic service. His diagnosis is a Monteggia fracture. What is this fracture? a.Fracture of the ulna with ulnar subluxation b.Fracture of the ulnar with radial head subluxation c.Fracture of the radius with radial head subluxation d.Fracture of the radius with subluxation of the ulna

Answer 246

b.Fracture of the ulnar with radial head subluxation

Question 247

213.In strength and movement analysis, the therapist is looking for problems of contractile tissue, which consists of muscles, their tendons, attachments (e.g., bone), and the nervous tissue supplying the contractile tissue. If movement is weak and painful, this suggests that there is most likely: A.No lesion of the contractile unit b. Local lesion of the muscle or tendon (maybe muscle or tendon injury) C.Neurological lesion or muscle & tendon rupture D.Overexercise/fatigue E. Severe lesion (may be complete avulsion or fracture)

Answer 247

E. Severe lesion (may be complete avulsion or fracture)

Question 248

212.In strength and movement analysis, the therapist is looking for problems of contractile tissue, which consists of muscles, their tendons, attachments (e.g., bone), and the nervous tissue supplying the contractile tissue. If movement is strong and painful, this suggests that there is most likely: A.No lesion of the contractile unit b. Local lesion (maybe 1st & 2nd degree muscle or tendon injury) C.Neurological lesion D.Overexercise/fatigue e. Severe lesion (may be complete avulsion or fracture)

Answer 248

b. Local lesion (maybe 1st & 2nd degree muscle or tendon injury)

Question 249

199. Rheumatoid arthritis: Limited in ability to perform usual self-care, vocational, and avocational activities a. Class I b. Class II c. Class III d. Class IV

Answer 249

d. Class IV

Question 250

192. Gross Motor Function Classification System level that requires a wheelchair for household mobility is: a. Level I b. Level II c. Level III d. Level IV e. Level V

Answer 250

d. Level IV

Question 251

185. Which finding should you expect when assessing a child with a positive Galeazzi sign? a. Raised iliac crest b. Pelvic downward tilt on weight bearing c. Knees are flexed to 90 degrees, one knee higher d. Involved leg flexed to 90 degrees, audible click with external rotation

Answer 251

c. Knees are flexed to 90 degrees, one knee higher

Question 252

177.A person with PTSD is unable to remember a traumatic event or has no memory of the event for a few hours to a few days. What kind of dissociative amnesia is this? a. selective b. localized c. generalized d. systematized

Answer 252

b. localized Reason: Localized amnesia = inability to recall a specific period of time (hours–days) surrounding a traumatic event.

Question 253

175. CRPS can be caused by the following, except: a. CVA b. MI c. Major surgery d. PNI e. NOTA

Answer 253

e. NOTA

Question 254

168. Antiobiotics that inhibit cell wall synthesis a. Beta-lactam antibiotics b. Aminoglycosides c. Erythromycin d. Tetracyclines

Answer 254

a. Beta-lactam antibiotics

Question 255

163. Tiny purple spots of bleeding under the skin or in the mucous membranes. a. ecchymosis b. purpura c. petechiae

Answer 255

c. petechiae

Question 256

112.Excessive femoral anteversion in children may result in all of the following EXCEPT I. Increased hip internal rotation ROM II. Reduced hip abductor moment III. Decreased external rotation range of motion IV. Increased external rotation range of motion ROM V. Toeing in during gait a. I and III b. II and IV c. I, II, III, IV d. AOTA e. NOTA

Answer 256

e. NOTA

Question 257

111.Which is the LEAST likely cause of dementia in the elderly? a. Depression b. Stroke c. Alzheimer's disease d. Cerebrovascular accident

Answer 257

a. Depression

Question 258

110.In terminal swing phase of gait, what muscles of the foot and ankle are active? a. Gastrocnemius b. Tibialis posterior c. Flexor halluces longus d. AOTA e. NOTA

Answer 258

e. NOTA **Dorsiflexors are active to keep the foot clear of the ground**

Question 259

108.The term that refers to the process of providing information to individuals to assist them in the decision-making process about their own health care is a. Informed consent b. Beneficence c. Fidelity d. Autonomy

Answer 259

a. Informed consent Beneficence – duty to do good Fidelity – duty for trustworthiness Autonomy – duty to maximize the individual’s right to decide for his or her health care

Question 260

107.Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to initiation of an outpatient cardiac rehabilitation program? a. Asthma b. Obesity c. Third degree heart block d. Patient currently on dialysis 3 days a week because of renal failure e. NOTA

Answer 260

c. Third degree heart block

Question 261

105.A child presents to physical therapy with a diagnosis of right Sever's disease. What joint should be the focus of the therapist's examination? a. Right knee joint b. Right ankle joint c. Right hip joint d. Right wrist joint

Answer 261

b. Right ankle joint

Question 262

102.During the opening of a patient's mouth, a palpable and audible click is discovered discovered in the in the left temporomandibular joint. The physician informs the therapist that the patient has an anteriorly dislocated disk. This click most likely signifies that a. The condyle is sliding posteriorly to obtain normal relationship with the disk b. The condyle is sliding anteriorly and losing normal relationship with the disk c. The condyle is sliding anteriorly to obtain normal relationship with the disk d. The condyle is sliding posteriorly and losing normal relationship with the disk

Answer 262

c. The condyle is sliding anteriorly to obtain normal relationship with the disk

Question 263

101.During a treatment session, the PT simulates the need for the client to walk up stairs to a kitchen with a painful/weak right leg. The patient should instructed to move the a. Left leg up to the next step with the cane b. Right leg up to the next step with the cane c. Right leg up and then his left leg/cane d. Left leg up and then his right leg/cane

Answer 263

d. Left leg up and then his right leg/cane

Question 264

100.A physical therapist elects to use mechanical lumbar traction for a patient rehabilitating from a back injury. The therapeutic goals of the session include decreasing the patient's muscle spasm. The MOST appropriate force based on the stated objective would be: a. 10% of body weight c. 15% of body weight c. 25% of body weight d. 50% of body weight

Answer 264

c. 25% of body weight

Question 265

99. A physical therapist examines the reflex status of a patient. The therapist should use which technique to assess the patient's superficial reflexes? a. Brushing the skin with a light, feathery object b. Passive joint range of motion c. Stroking the skin with a non-cutting, but pointed object d. Tapping over a muscle tendon

Answer 265

a. Brushing the skin with a light, feathery object

Question 266

98. A physical therapist treats a patient with right medial epicondylitis. When positioning the patient's ulnohumeral joint in the loose packed position, the therapist should allow for: a. Full extension b. 70 degrees flexion, 10 degrees supination c. 70 degrees flexion, 35 degrees supination d. Full extension, full supination

Answer 266

b. 70 degrees flexion, 10 degrees supination

Question 267

97. A patient diagnosed with patellofemoral syndrome discusses his past medical history with a physical therapist. The patient reports having anterior ruciate ligament reconstruction surgery on his right knee two years ago, however, the therapist is not able to identify a scar over the anterior surface of the right knee. Assuming the surgeon utilized an autograft for the reconstruction, which of the following would be the MOST likely graft site? a. Semitendinosus and semimembranosus b. Semitendinosus and gracilis c. Semimembranosus and gracilis d. Semitendinosus and biceps femoris

Answer 267

c. Semimembranosus and gracilis

Question 268

95. A physical therapist reviews the medical record of a patient diagnosed with peripheral arterial disease prior to initiating treatment. Which objective finding would MOST severely limit the patient's ability to participate in an ambulation exercise program? a. Signs of resting claudication b. Decreased peripheral pulses c. Cool skin d. Blood pressure of 165/90 mm Hg

Answer 268

a. Signs of resting claudication

Question 269

93. A physical therapist uses the Six-Minute Walk Test as a means of quantifying functional status in a patient with heart disease. During testing the patient expresses to the physical therapist that they need to rest. The MOST appropriate physical therapist action is to: a. allow the patient to rest, however, stop the elapsed time during the rest period b. allow the patient to rest, however, allow the elapsed time to continue c. allow the patient to rest, however, discontinue the test d. offer encouragement to the patient in order to avoid or delay the rest period

Answer 269

b. allow the patient to rest, however, allow the elapsed time to continue

Question 270

91. A physical therapist inspects a patient's wound prior to applying a dressing. When documenting the findings in the medical record, the therapist classifies the exudate from the wound as serous. Based on the documentation, the MOST likely color of the exudate is: a. Clear b. Pink. c. Red d. Yellow

Answer 270

a. Clear Pink – serosanguineous. Serous fluid + small amounts of blood Red – sanguineous. Primarily blood Yellow – purulent. Pus + dead cells

Question 271

90. A patient two days status post arthrotomy of the knee completes a quadriceps setting exercise while lying supine on a mat table. During the exercise the patient begins to experience severe pain. The MOST appropriate physical therapist action is: a. have the patient perform the exercise in sidelying b. have the patient flex the knee prior to initiating the exercise c. place a pillow under the ankle d. discontinue the exercise

Answer 271

d. discontinue the exercise

Question 272

88. A physical therapist instructs a patient to close her eyes and hold out her hand. The therapist places a series of different weights in the patient's hand one at a time. The patient is then asked to identify the comparative weight of the objects. This method of sensory testing is used to examine: a. Barognosis b. Graphesthesia c. recognition of texture d. stereognosis

Answer 272

a. Barognosis

Question 273

B7. A physical therapist administers ultrasound over a patient's anterior thigh. After one minute of treatment. the patient reports feeling a slight burning sensation under the soundhead. The therapist's MOST appropriate action is to: a. explain to the patient that what she feels is not out of the ordinary when using ultrasound b. temporarily discontinue treatment and examine the amount of coupling agent utilized c. the amount of coupling agent utilized discontinue treatment and contact the referring physician d. continue with treatment utilizing the current parameters

Answer 273

b. temporarily discontinue treatment and examine the amount of coupling agent utilized

Question 274

85. A physical therapist treats a female patient with multiple sclerosis for impaired balance and coordination. The patient reports that since being diagnosed four years ago, her symptoms have gradually gotten worse without any plateau or lessening in severity. Which terminology would MOST accurately describe the patient's disease course? a. relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis b. primary-progressive multiple sclerosis c. secondary-progressive multiple sclerosis d. progressive-relapsing multiple sclerosis

Answer 274

b. primary-progressive multiple sclerosis

Question 275

84. A physical therapist reviews the results of a pulmonary function test for a 58-year-old male patient recently admitted to the hospital. The therapist notes that the patient's total lung capacity is significantly increased when compared to established norms. Which medical condition would MOST likely produce this type of result? a. chronic bronchitis b. emphysema c. spinal cord injury d. pulmonary fibrosis

Answer 275

b. emphysema

Question 276

82. A physical therapist examines several superficial reflexes on a patient diagnosed with an upper motor neuron lesion. When assessing the cremasteric reflex the MOST appropriate stimulus is: a. stroke the skin beneath the costal margins and above the inguinal ligament b. stroke the skin of the superior and medial thigh c. prick the skin of the perianal region d. prick the skin of the glans penis

Answer 276

b. stroke the skin of the superior and medial thigh

Question 277

80. A patient has weakness of the quadriceps secondary to a femoral nerve Injury. When examining the patient's gait from heel strike to foot flat, the physical therapist would MOST likely observe the patient compensate for their injury by: a. using excessive dorsiflexion b. leaning the trunk forward c. using excessive knee flexion d. vaulting on the contralateral limb

Answer 277

b. leaning the trunk forward

Question 278

79. A physical therapist instructs a patient to make a fist. The patient can make a fist, but is unable to flex the distal phalanx of the ring finger. This clinical finding can BEST be explained by: a. a ruptured flexor carpi radialis tendon b. a ruptured flexor digitorum superficialis tendon c. a ruptured flexor digitorum profundus tendon d. a ruptured extensor digitorum communis tendon

Answer 278

c. a ruptured flexor digitorum profundus tendon

Question 279

75. A physical therapist attempts to select an appropriate intervention to treat a patient with a 10 degree limitation in knee extension. Which of the following mobilization techniques would be indicated? a. Lateral glide of the patella b. Caudal glide of the patella c. Posterior glide of the tibia d. Anterior glide of the tibia

Answer 279

d. Anterior glide of the tibia

Question 280

71. A physical therapist treats a patient with a diagnosis of gouty arthritis. This medical condition would be MOST likely to produce subjective reports of pain affecting the: a. Hip b. Knee c. Ankle d. Toe

Answer 280

d. Toe

Question 281

69. A patient with right hemiplegia is observed during gait training. The patient performs side stepping towards the hemiplegic side. The physical therapist may expect the patient to compensate for weakened abductors by: a. Hip hiking of the unaffected side b. Lateral trunk flexion towards the affected side c. Lateral trunk flexion towards the unaffected side d. Hip extension of the affected side

Answer 281

c. Lateral trunk flexion towards the unaffected side

Question 282

67. A physical therapist attempts to identify an appropriately sized wheelchair for a patient recently referred to a rehabilitation hospital. The physical therapist determines that the patient's hip width in sitting and the measurement from the back of the buttocks to the popliteal space are each 16 inches. Given these measurements, which of the following wheelchair specifications would BEST fit this patient? a. Seat width 16 inches, seat depth 14 inches b. Seat width 18 inches, seat depth 18 inches c. Seat width 16 inches, seat depth 18 inches d. Seat width 18 inches, seat depth 14 inches

Answer 282

d. Seat width 18 inches, seat depth 14 inches

Question 283

66. A physical therapist assesses a patient with significant biceps brachii weakness and suspects there may be underlying neurological damage that is causing the weakness. Damage to which portion of the brachial plexus would MOST likely explain this finding? a. Lateral cord b. Posterior cord c. Medial cord d. Anterior cord

Answer 283

a. Lateral cord

Question 284

62. A 42-year-old female is admitted to a rehabilitation hospital after sustaining a stroke. During the examination the physical therapist identifies significant sensory deficits in the anterolateral spinothalamic system. Which sensation would be MOST affected? a. Barognosis b. Kinesthesia c. Graphesthesia d. Temperature

Answer 284

d. Temperature Lateral spinothalamic tract carries pain and temperature. Anterior spinothalamic tract carries crude touch and pressure.

Question 285

61. A patient two weeks status post transtibial amputation is instructed by his physician to remain at rest for two days after contracting bronchitis. The MOST appropriate position for the patient in bed is: a. supine with a pillow under the patient's knees b. supine with a pillow under the patient's thigh and knees c. supine with the legs extended d. sidelying in the fetal position

Answer 285

c. supine with the legs extended

Question 286

60. A patient exercising in the physical therapy gym informs the physical therapist that he is experiencing chest pain. After resting for 20 minutes the patient's condition is unchanged, however, he insists it is something that he can work through. The MOST appropriate therapist action is: a. Allow the patient to resume exercise and continue to monitor the patient's condition b. Reduce the intensity of the exercise and continue to monitor the patient's condition c. Discontinue the treatment session and encourage the patient to make an appointment with his physician d. Discontinue the treatment session and call an ambulance

Answer 286

d. Discontinue the treatment session and call an ambulance

Question 287

59. A physical therapist attempts to select an assistive device for a patient rehabilitating from a traumatic brain injury. The patient is occasionally impulsive, however, has fair standing balance and good upper and lower extremity strength. Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate assistive device? a. Cane b. Axillary crutches c. Lofstrand crutches d. walker

Answer 287

d. walker

Question 288

57. A patient presents to the emergency room with multiple burns on their upper extremity and chest. The wounds all appear dry, but vary in size and are poorly defined. Examination reveals significant irregularity in the patient's cardiac rhythm. What was the MOST likely source of the patient's injury? a. Friction burn b. Chemical burn c. Electrical burn d. Radiation burn

Answer 288

c. Electrical burn

Question 289

54. A 66-year-old female is referred to physical therapy with rheumatoid arthritis. During the examination the physical therapist notes flexion at the distal interphalangeal joints and hyperextension of the proximal interphalangeal joints. This deformity is MOST representative of: a. Boutonniere deformity b. Mallet finger c. Swan neck deformity d. Ulnar drift

Answer 289

c. Swan neck deformity

Question 290

53. A Physical therapist completes a cranial nerve assessment on a patient with a suspected neurological injury by using-a tongue depressor. Which cranial nerves are MOST commonly assessed with this type of equipment? 1. VII 2. VIII 3.IX 4.X 5.XI a. 1.3 b. 3,4 c. 4,5 d. 1, 2

Answer 290

b. 3,4

Question 291

A physical therapist treats an infant diagnosed with torticollis with marked lateral flexion of the neck to the left. As part of the infant's plan of care the therapist performs passive stretching activities to improve the patient's range of motion. The MOST appropriate stretch for the patient is: a. lateral flexion to the right and rotation to the right b. lateral flexion to the left and rotation to the left c. lateral flexion to the right and rotation to the left d. lateral flexion to the left and rotation to the right

Answer 291

c. lateral flexion to the right and rotation to the left

Question 292

50. A patient presents with weakness in the right lower leg 3 weeks after a motor vehicle accident. The patient complains of spontaneous twitching in the muscles of the lower leg. The therapist visually inspects both limbs and determines that muscle bulk is reduced on the involved right limb. Girth measures confirm a 1- inch difference in the circumference of the right leg measured 4inches below the patella. Deep tendon reflexes and tone are diminished, Based on the signs and symptoms, the therapist concludes that the patient is exhibiting: a. Brainstem dysfunction affecting extrapyramidal pathways b. Pyramidal dysfunctions in the medulla c. Guillain-Barre Syndrome d. Poliomyelitis e. Peripheral nerve Injury

Answer 292

e. Peripheral nerve Injury

Question 293

33. Manual glide of talus posteriorly within the ankle joint mortise can be used as a technique to increase: a. Distal tibiofibular joint extensibility b. Talocalcaneal pronation c. Proximal tibiofibular joint extensibility d. Talocalcaneal supination e. Tibiotalar dorsiflexion motion

Answer 293

e. Tibiotalar dorsiflexion motion Posterior glide of the talus = increases dorsiflexion. This is one of the most fundamental convex–concave applications in the ankle: Talus is convex Tibia/fibula mortise is concave To improve dorsiflexion, you glide the talus posteriorly

Question 294

32. An elderly patient is being treated for depression following the death of her husband. She is currently taking trycyclic antidepressants and monoamine oxidase inhibitors. Expected adverse reactions form this drug combination include: a. Hypertension, tachycardia & convulsions b. Hyper alertness, dyspnea, dryness of mouth c. Hypotension, blurred vision, lethargy d. Arrhythmias hypotension, blurred vision e. NOТА

Answer 294

a. Hypertension, tachycardia & convulsions TCAs + MAOIs = excess norepinephrine + serotonin → Severe hypertension Rapid heart rate CNS overstimulation → Seizures/convulsions This drug combo is rarely allowed because of this risk. Options C and D describe typical individual TCA side effects, but not the reaction from the combination.

Question 295

30. A comparison of the effects of exercise in water, on land or combined on the rehabilitation outcome of patients with intra-articular AC reconstruction revealed that leess joint effusion was noted after 8 weeks in the water group an appropriate statistical test to compare the girth measurements of the three groups is: a. ANOVA b. T test c. Spearman rho d. Analysis of covariance e. Chi square

Answer 295

a. ANOVA T-test → only compares 2 groups Spearman rho → correlation test, not group comparison ANCOVA → used when controlling for covariates (not mentioned here) Chi-square → for categorical data, not continuous girth measurements

Question 296

28. The therapist tests a pateint's hearing by holding a vibrating tuning fork on the vertex of the head. the patient is asked which ear the sound is heard louder. This is known as: a. Rinne's test b. Schwabach c. Weber's d. Caloric e. Hallpike-Dix

Answer 296

c. Weber's

Question 297

25. A patient was burned over 40% of the body in an industrial accident, and has full-thickness burns over the anterior trunk and neck and superficial partial-thickness burns over the shoulders. The procedures of greatest benefit to stabilize this patient out of positions of common deformity include: a. A CTLSO used during all upright activities b. Soft cervical collar with an intrinsic plus hand splint c. Plastic cervical orthosis ad axillary splints utilizing airplane position d. Splints utilizing a flexed position for the shoulders and body jacket for the trunk e. NOTA

Answer 297

c. Plastic cervical orthosis ad axillary splints utilizing airplane position

Question 298

18. The amount of opening between the teeth that is required for normal everyday activity: a. 65-74 mm b. 50-64 mm c. 25-44 mm d. 15-24 mm e. 50-44 mm

Answer 298

c. 25-44 mm

Question 299

13. A patient is experiencing sensory changes secondary to left CVA. Upon testing, patient complains of pain on right hand with the application of cotton. This can be best documented as " Patient is experiencing": a. Abarognosis b. Analgesia c. Allodynia d. Allesthesia e. Anesthesia

Answer 299

c. Allodynia Quick differentiation Abarognosis – inability to gauge weight Analgesia – loss of pain sensation Allesthesia – sensory stimulus to one side is felt on the opposite side Anesthesia – loss of sensation

Question 300

10. A frail elderly individual is referred to physical therapy for a fall risk assessment following a fall in the home. The patient's timed up and go score is 16 seconds. Based on the results, the therapist determines: a. Patient's fall risk is High based on abnormal score b. Patient's fall risk is Low based on a mildly abnormal score c. Patient's fall risk is Moderate based on a mildly abnormal score d. Patient's TUG score is normal for a frail elderly e. Patient's fall risk is Moderate based on poor sensory adaptation responses

Answer 300

d. Patient's TUG score is normal for a frail elderly (N) Frail elderly: 11–20 seconds If >30 seconds = high fall risk