1
Q
when a bacteria grows around another bacteria due to its growth factors is called what?
A
sattelitism
2
Q
what two bacteria display satilitism?
A
staph aureus and haemophilus influenza
3
Q
when drawing blood cx what is the blood to broth ratio?
A
1:10
4
Q
what is X factor?
A
X is factor 10 which is Hemin
5
Q
what is V factor?
A
V factor is 5 which is nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD)
6
Q
X and V factors are used on which media plates?
A
CHOC
7
Q
which species uses X and V factors?
A
haemophilus
8
Q
what is the broth called in a blood cx bottle?
A
SPS(sodium polyanetholsulfonate)
9
Q
what does the resin beads do in a blood cult bottle?
A
absorbs antibiotics and inactivates complement activity
10
Q
SPS in blood cult bottle inactivates which type of WBC?
A
neutrophils
11
Q
what are the three types of hemolysis ?
A
beta alpha and gamma
12
Q
what media plate best displays hemolysis?
A
BAP(SBA)
13
Q
staph aureus gram stain morphology ?
A
GPC in clusters
14
Q
what test differentiates staph aureus from other staph?
A
coagulase test
15
Q
what is the hemolysis for staph aureus ?
A
beta hemolytic
16
Q
staph epi key test ?
A
novobiocin susceptible
17
Q
staph sapro key test?
A
novobiocin resistant
18
Q
micrococcus key test?
A
modified oxidase/bacitracin pos-susceptible (bright yellow colonies)
19
Q
staph is catalase pos or neg?
A
pos
20
Q
strep pyo hemolysis?
A
beta hemolytic
21
Q
key test for strep pyo?
A
bacitracin/PYR pos (A-disc pos)
22
Q
strep agalactae (Group B strep) key test?
A
CAMP test pos / Hippurate pos
23
Q
strep pneumonia gram stain appearance ?
A
lancet shape gram pos diplococci
24
Q
strep pneumonia key test?
A
Optochin/ P-disc pos
25
6.5% NaCl pos /PYR pos, Bile Esculin pos, what spp?
enterococcus
26
enterococcus gram stain morph?
GPC in pairs and chains
27
two main GPC ?
Staph and Strep sp
28
Fastidious Gram neg diplococci sp?
Neisseria and moraxella
29
how to differentiate Neisseria sp?
carbohydrate fermentation
30
what carb does N. gonorrhea ferment?
glucose only
31
what carb does N. meningitis ferment?
glucose and maltose
32
carb fermentation for Moraxella
negative for all sugars
33
what does Moraxella exhibit on a media plate
hockey puck colonies
34
strep sp that is resistant to 6.5% NaCl/ PYR?
Group D
35
what major disease does N. gonorrhea cause?
Gonorrhea
36
what major disease does N. meningitis cause?
meningitis
37
what major disease does Moraxella cause?
resp infection/ otitis media
38
where is staph epi found on the body ?
skin
39
staph sapro is a common cause of what?
UTI in sexually active females
40
Staph aureus is found where on the body?
in the nose
41
special test of staph aureus is what?
MRSA
42
micrococcus is found where on the body?
skin and mucus membranes of nose and throat
43
two sp that cause contamination of blood cultures
staph epi and Micrococcus
44
common disease caused by Group D and viridins strep?
endocarditis
45
common disease that enterococcus usually causes
UTI
46
enrichment broth for Group B strep (Strep agalactiae )
THIO
47
primary plate, differential for hemolysis
BAP
48
Modified Thayer Martin (MTM) is a selective CHOC media for which type of sp?
Neisseria
49
moraxella will grow on which two plates well?
BAP and CHOC
50
Fastidious gram neg cocobacilli / bacilli that require X and V factor for growth?
haemophilus influenza
51
Haemophilus influenza will satellitie around staph aureus on which media plate?
BAP
52
Haemophilus influenza is naturally found on which part of the body and causes no harm?
nose and throat
53
fastidious gram negative bacilli/ coccobacili that is found in the nose and throat ?
haemophilus influenza
54
what are the 3 major pathogens of the enterics?
salmonella shigella and yersinia
55
what are the 4 common characteristics of the enterics group?
cat pos, oxidase neg(except pleaseimonas), ferments glucose, nitrate pos, and GNR
56
which enterics are indole pos?
morganella, providencia, edwardsiella, kleb oxy, proteus vulgaris, e.coli, and citrobacter koseri
57
which enterics are H2S pos?
salmonella, proteus, edwardsiella, and citrobacter
58
which enterics are urease pos?
proteus mirabilis & vulgaris, morganella, providencia, klebsiella
59
which enterics are non motile at 35 degrees C?
klebsiella, shigella and yersinia- (only at 22C)
60
is there a specific media for E.coli?
SMAC (E.coli 0157)
61
is there a specific media for klebsiella sp?
MAC
62
specific media for shigella and salmonella sp?
S.S and HE and XLD
63
oxidase pos GNR that is a nonfermenter and is found in moist enviroments
P. aeruiginosa
64
oxidase pos NLF GNR that has a new shoe or grape like smell
P. aeruiginosa
65
what sp has a blue green metallic sheen and is speading on BAP?
P. aeruiginosa
66
P. aeruiginosa looks like what on MAC?
NLF
67
Aerobic GPR that is beta hemolytic on BAP and commonly found in soil and food and can cause food poisoning
B. cerus
68
how to tell B. cerus from listeria monocytogens ?
B. cerus in box car shaped and Listeria is short cocobacili shaped on gram stain
69
listeria is motile at room temp and looks like what in the motility media?
umbrella formation
70
wet prep motility of listeria
tumbling motility
71
major disease of listeria
food poisoning
72
What is KOH used for?
Dissolves keratin to visualize fungal elements.
73
What is Lactophenol Cotton Blue used for?
staining mold structures
74
Candida albicans key test?
germ tube test
75
Cryptococcus key stain?
India ink—shows capsule.
76
Dimorphic fungi definition?
Mold at 25°C, yeast at 37°C.
77
Two common AFB stains?
Kinyoun and Ziehl-Neelsen.
78
Color of AFB?
Bright red rods on blue background
79
Three types of AFB media?
solid base media, egg base media, and liquid media
80
what are the two common contaminates of blood cultures
staph epi and cornybacterium
81
Partial Acid-Fast
Branching Gram Positive Bacilli
Is an Obligate Anaerobe
Stains weakly Acid-Fast
Found in Bronchial Washings
nocardia
82
Colony count for 0.001 mL(1ul) loop?
colonies x1000
83
What makes a sputum acceptable?
Few epithelial cells, many WBCs.
84
Large Gram-positive oval budding cells.
yeast
85
TSI sugars?
glucose, lactose, sucrose
86
Beta-lactamase enzyme is resistant to what antibiotic
penicillin
87
colony count for 0.01 mL(10ul) loop?
colony x 100
88
what are the autoclave settings?
121.6°C, 15 psi, 15 minutes.
89
What AFB is common infection in advanced AIDS patients
MAC (Mycobacterium avium complex).
90
what is a coag pos staph
staph aureus
91
What does MTB produce an excess of?
niacin
92
4 AFB that make up the M_TB complex
1.M. tuberculosis
2. M. bovis
3. M. bovis
4. M. africanum
93
3 descriptions for growth on AFB media based on pigment
Non Photochromogens, Photochromogens, Scotochromogens
94
What AFB is in the PPD skin test?
M. bovis BCG (Bacille Calmette-Guerin) (TB skin test)
95
What AFB is non-culturable?
Mycobacterium leprae
96
Branching Gram Positive Bacilli, Is an Obligate Anaerobe, Stains weakly Acid-Fast, Found in Bronchial Washings
nocardia
97
nfection of C.albicans
of the mouth usually in infants and the
immunocompromised
thrush
98
fungi called valley fever also called San Joaquin Valley fever that is found in dry
parts of the United States
in Arizona, California, Nevada, New Mexico, Texas, Utah, and northern Mexico
Coccidioides immitis
99
Fungi spread by (Pigeons) in their droppings.
● Usually Respiratory Infection seen in Bone Marrow
Histoplasmosis (Histoplasma capsulatum)
100
delicate hyphae with a cluster (“flowerette”)
of conidia (spores) at the end of a narrow stalk, also called rose gardeners disease
Sporothrix schenckii
101
Second most isolated fungus after Candida spp, The most frequent cause of disease in the bone marrow transplant recipient; resemble Hands (palm with fingers)
Aspergillus
102
Flask shaped Phialides that produce chains of round conidia-fruiting structures.
penicillium
103
This organism may produce streptolysin "O" or "S" and the M protein is its main virulence factor.
strep pyo
104
Scalded skin syndrome is attributed to infection with
staph aureus
105
Staphylococcus saprophyticus is best differentiated from Staphylococcus epidermidis by resistance to
novobiocin
106
This organism is more virulent than Staphylococcus aureus and can mimic Staphylococcus aureus infections.
staph lugdenesis
107
Bacteria in the 'HACEK' group are know to cause this type of infection:
endocarditis
108
Which of the following tests will rapidly differentiate micrococci from staphylococci?
modified oxidase test
109
This GPC is Catalase negative, BE + and grows in 6.5% NaCl:
enterococcus
110
What is the color of sputum from a patient with Streptococcus pneumoniae?
rust
111
alpha hemolysis, umbolnate colonies which strep?
viridian's strep
112
wide zone of beta hemolysis which strep?
strep pyo
113
narrow zone of beta hemolysis which strep?
strep agalactiae
114
alpha hemolysis umbilicate colonies which strep?
strep pneumo
115
Gram positive lancet-shaped diplococci found on a gram stain is distinctive for which organism?
strep pneumonia
116
Neisseria species can be found as normal flora in these two areas of the human body?
urogenital tract and resp tract
117
These are heat stable toxins produced by S. aureus causing food poisoning:
enterotoxins
118
This is the drug of choice in treating Beta Hemolytic Streptococcus infections.
penicillin
119
Strep pneumonia's main virulence factor:
capsule
120
This organism is known to produce a biofilm to adhere to prosthetics
staph epi
121
Neisseria species are know as fastidious bacteria. What do they require for in vitro growth?
increased CO2
122
This bacteria requires Factor V only; nonhemolytic and is considered normal flora in the URT and oral cavity
H. parainfluenza
123
This bacteria can be found as normal flora in the oral cavity but can cause opportunistic cases of endocarditis; gram stains as a small GNR and in vitro has be known to have a faint 'bleach-like' odor.
Eikenella
124
This bacteria causes rapid onset of food poisoning (4-6 hours post ingestion):
staph aureus
125
NVS; GPC chains; hard to grow
abiotrophia
126
Which Haemophilus species
used to be the most common cause neonatal meningitis, but now is less common because of
the Hib vaccine?
H, influenza
127
this bacteria is known for causing pink eye
H. aegyptius
128
two primary pathogens of Neisseria ?
meningitis and ghonrrhea
129
Positive identification of Salmonella typhi involves identifying what antigen?
Vi antigen
130
Bacillary dysentery caused by this organism is marked by penetration of intestinal epithelial cells following attachment of the organisms to mucosal surfaces, local inflammation, shedding of the intestinal lining ad formation of ulcers that follow the epithelial penetration. What is this organism?
shigella
131
flageller antigen; motility, and is heat labile
H antigen
132
Capsular antigen and is heat labile
K antigen
133
Somatic antigen on cell wall heat stabile
O antigen
134
135
This stool culture shows growth of a Non-lactose fermenter on MAC. The gram stain shows short, plump gram-negative rods with bipolar staining resembling 'safety pins'.
Yersinia entercolitica
136
this organism is found in contaminated beef hamburgers and cattle reservoir
E.coli
137
this organism is found in poultry, reptiles, milk products, and petting zoos
Salmonella
138
found in pigs, puppy feces, contaminated milk products, which organism?
Yersinia entercolitica
139
found in fleas on rats, prairie dogs and squirrels what organism?
Y. pestis
140
Edward sold cold popsicles is for H2S pos which spp is H2S pos?
edwardsiella, salmonella, citrobacter, proteus
141
When trying to differentiate between Pseudomonas and Shigella, what is the first biochemical test you should perform?
oxidase
142
This organism's best virulence factor is its capsule and is a common cause of ventilator-associated pneumonia
Kleb pnuemo
143
Gram negative bacteria are known to produce endotoxins; what is the toxin that Salmonella produces as its virulence factor causing gastroenteritis?
enterotoxin
144
A 4-year-old girl has been sick for 3 weeks. Initially she had flulike symptoms, and for the last 2 weeks, she has had up to 30 series of deep coughs such that when she tries to catch her breath, she makes a whooping sound. The child's parents' religious beliefs preclude vaccination. Which of the following bacteria is the likely cause of this infection?
Bordetella pertussis
145
Which of the following risk factors is associated with Brucella infection?
unpasteurized milk
146
A butcher with a laceration on his hand presents with chills, sweats and fatigue over the past 6 weeks. He reports a 20- pound weight loss and a fever that comes and goes in an undulating pattern. Which of the following infections is most likely?
Brucella abortus
147
Which bacterial species is part of animal flora and is transmitted to humans during close animal contact, including bites?
Pasteurella
148
Strict Aerobe, Fastidious: Requires cysteine for growth
FRANCISELLA
149
gram negative cocobacilli fastidious organism that doesn't grow on MAC
francisella
150
The medium or media of choice used to recover Legionella is:
BCYE
151
betalactamase pos
francisella
152
This organism looks like tiny faintly staining gram-negative coccobacilli, appear 'dust-like' on blood agar plate and is the Most Commonly Reported Laboratory Associated Bacterial Infection:
Brucella
153
The primary reservoir for F. tularensis is
rabbits
154
A milder form of Leigionnaires's Disease is known as:
pontiac fever
155
Can be misidentified as: Haemophilus influenzae or Actinobacillus spp. by automated ID systems
▪ Infective Dose: 10 colony forming units
▪ Biosafety Level 3 agent
Francisella
156
How is pertussis spread?
respiratory droplets
157
How is Bordetella pertussis infection prevented?
vaccination
158
Tularemia, characterized by glandular, ulceroglandular, oculoglandular, oropharyngeal, systemic, and pneumonic presentations is caused by which of the following species?
Francisella
159
B. pertussis colonies growing on Bordet-Gengou Potato agar yields what colonial morphologic appearances?
mercury droplet colonies
160
Because of its longer shelf life, the transport medium of choice for Bordetella spp. is:
Regan Lowe agar
161
Whooping cough is a highly contagious, acute infection of the upper respiratory tract cased by the
bordetella
162
Individuals considered at greatest risk for contracting brucellosis are:
dairy farmers
163
The animal reservoir for Brucella melitensis is
sheep or goats
164
P. aeruginosa can be differentiated from other Pseudomonas species based on it's ability to do the following
Growth at 42C & pyocyanin production
165
this organism produces a blue green metallic sheen on BAP caused by the production of pyocyanin
P. ariginoasa
166
Which nonfermenter is considered by government agencies to be a potential bioterrorist agent?
Burkholderia
167
Most common cause Bacterial Gastroenteritis Worldwide, associated with Guillain-Barre syndrome (GBS)
Campylobacter jejuni
168
A gram stain of a touch prep from a Gastric biopsy shows slender, spiral gram-negative bacilli. The biopsy tested strongly Urease positive. The most likely pathogen is
H. pylori
169
What organism causes Melioidosis?
Burkholdaria pseudomallei
170
what organism causes nosocomial pneumonia in patients with CF (Cystic Fibrosis) and CGD (Chronic granulomatous disease)
Burkholdaria Cepacia
171
What is the causative agent of Glanders disease?
Burkholdaria mallei
172
Which occupation would hold highest risk of Glanders disease?
Veterinarian
173
Campylobacter jejuni subsp. jejuni grows best at what conditions?
42°C under microaerobic conditions
174
Members of the genus ______, which are gram-negative coccobacilli may initially appear as gram-positive cocci in smears made from blood culture bottles.
Acinetobacter
175
Infection of the gastric mucosa leading to Type B gastritis or peptic ulcers is most commonly associated with_____.
h. pylori
176
What organism is associated with pneumonia in patients with cystic fibrosis or chronic granulomatous disease (CGD)?
Burkholderia cepacia
177
What is the name of the organism that is strongly associated with gastric, peptic, and duodenal ulcers as well as GI carcinoma?
H. pylori
178
What organism may play a role in Guillain-Barre syndrome(GBS)?
campy
179
How are helicobacter pylori presumptively identified?
a rapid urease test done on a gastric biopsy
180
Which biochemical test will differentiate nonfermenters from Enterobacteriaceae? (except plesiomonas
oxidase
181
A Salt-requiring organism is called_____.
Halophilic
182
This Gram-negative bacillus is predominantly found in wound infections & cellulitis from people working in contaminated water. (Elevated cases were found after the flood waters of hurricane Katrina 2005)
Aeromonas
183
A positive string test can be included in the presumptive identification of _______.
Vibrio cholera
184
Colonies growing on modified cefsulodin-irgasan-novobiocin (CIN) agar appear to be either Aeromonas spp. or Yersinia enterocolitica. Which test should be performed to differentiate between these two organisms?
oxidase
185
Medicinal leeches are being utilized again as treatment for venous congestion, but they should be used with caution because they have ______ present in their gut.
aeromonas
186
A selective and differential media used to isolate Vibrio spp. from specimens containing mixed flora is
thiosulfate citrate bile salts sucrose (TCBS)
187
Which of the following is a curved, gram-negative rod that grows on TBCS agar?
vibrio
188
What does TCBS agar contain that Vibrio species requires for growth?
high salt content
189
What is the name of the organism that has the Kanagawa Hemolysin as a virulence factor?
V.parahemolyticus
190
A patient is brought to the emergency room department with a severe case of gastroenteritis. The patient experienced gastrointestinal upset after eating raw oysters. What organism can be the culprit of this patient's condition?
V. parahaemolyticus
191
Which Vibrio species is known as the Lactose-positive vibrio?
V. vulnificus
192
Vibrio Cholerae grows what color colonies on TCBS?
yellow
193
What is the specimen transport media used for stools?
Cairy Blair media
194
Which organism is associated with profuse watery diarrhea (known as 'rice water stools') leading to dramatic fluid loss and hypotension?
V. cholera
195
this sp can be confused with group b strep bc of its small zone of beta hemolysis on BAP and CAMP test pos but it is cat pos
listeria mono
196
this sp is cold loving grows at high salt concentrations and is motile at room temp
listeria mono
197
this aerobic GPR non spore former causes food poisoning and meningitis in neonates and can be passed from mother to fetus in utero or at birth
listeria mono
198
aerobic GPR that causes irregular staining, resembling Chinese letters on a gram stain
Corynebacterium diptheriae
199
organism that is a pathogen that causes dysentery bloody stools with mucus
shigella sonniei
200
pathogen that causes food poisoning, enteric fever, and septicemia
salmonella
201
clear green colonies on a HE plate would be indicative of what enteric organism?
shigella
202
green colonies with black centers growing on an HE plate would be indicative of which organism?
Salmonella
203
orange colonies with black centers growing on a HE plate would be indicative of which organism?
edwardsiella tarda
204
red colonies on a CIN plate are indicative of which organism?
Yersinia
205
colonies with a red pigment on SMAC is indicative of which organism?
Serratia
206
which enteric spp are indole pos?
edwardsiella, providiencia, morganella, kleb Oxy, proteus vulgaris, e.coli, citrobacter koseri
207
which enteric spp are H2S pos?
edwardsiella, salmonella, citrobacter, proteus
208
how to distinguish aeromonas from yersinia
oxidase test
209
anaerobic spore forming GPR used in botox, has a potent neurotoxin, and is associated with floppy baby syndrome
Clostridium botulinum
210
aerobic spore forming GPR that causes a double zone of beta hemolysis on BAP, reverse camp test pos, can cause gas gangrene, gram stain morphology is box car shaped
clostridium perfringens
211
this anaerobic spore forming GPR causes tetanus, its gram stain morph looks like a tennis racket due to its spores at the ends, its neurotoxin causes rigid paralysis, tDaP vaccine is associated with this organism
clostridium tetani
212
this anaerobic spore forming GPR causes antibiotic associated diarrhea, nosocomial infections, and a foul odor
clostridium difficile
213
non spore forming GPR that is a common contaminant of blood cultures due to it being normal skin flora, it also causes acne
Cutibacterium (formerly
Propionibacterium)
214
non spore forming GPR associated with IUD's, gram stain is short branching rods, and on media it has a molar tooth appearance which also can contain sulfur granules
Actinomyces
215
this anaerobic non spore forming GPR is known as the friendly bacteria, it is part of the normal vaginal flora, and is used as probiotics
lactobacillus
216
non spore forming GNR most commonly isolated of all anaerobes capsule is main virulence factor, mostly found in abcesses and grey black growth on BBE agar
Bacteroides fragilis
217
NONSPORE-FORMING GNR Normal flora of mouth, Opportunistic pathogens
No Growth on LKV agar, Sensitive to Vancomycin so it won’t grow
● Growth on Blood agar; Brick red fluorescence on blood
agar under UV light
Porphyromonas spp
218
NONSPORE-FORMING GNR
● Normal flora of mouth, URT, GI, and GU tracts
● Often cause infections of the respiratory tract
● Growth on LKV and AnaBAP (Blood agar)
● Resistant to Vancomycin and Kanomycin so, it
will grow!
● Brick red fluorescence on blood agar under UV light
Prevotella spp
219
NONSPORE-FORMING GNR
● Normal flora of mouth, URT, GI, and GU tracts
● Head, neck, and respiratory tract infections
● Long, thin, tapered GNR, “fusiform”
● All except F.nucleatum can grown on LKV
●F.necrophorum is lipase POS
Fusobacterium spp
220
What is the most common anaerobic bacteria isolated from infectious processes of soft tissue and anaerobic bacteremia?
bacteroids fragilis
221
Micro 2
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