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Microbiology Flashcards

(183 cards)

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1
Q

dipicolinic acid is found in

A

spores

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2
Q

organisms that don’t gram stain well

A

treponema, leptospira
mycobacteria
mycoplasma, ureaplasma
legionella, rickettsia, chlamydia, bartonella, ehrlichia, anaplasma

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3
Q

alternate to Ziehl-Neelsen stain

A

auramine-rhodamine

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4
Q

PAS stain for this microbe

A

t whipplei

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5
Q

India Ink for this microbe

A

crytococcus neoformans

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6
Q

Bordet-Gengou medium (use, contents)

A

bordetella pertussis. (must be collected with calcium alginate swab). contains charcoal and hoarse blood

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7
Q

tellurite agar use

A

corynebacterium diptheria. positive colonies usually black on these plates

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8
Q

Lowenstein agar use

A

TB

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9
Q

Charcoal yeast extract agar (buffered with cysteine and iron) use

A

Legionella

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10
Q

Obligate intracellulars

A

rickettsia, chlamydia, coxiella

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11
Q

Urease positive organisms

A

Proteus, H. pylori, ureaplasma, Nocardia, cryptococcus, staph epidermidis and saprophyticus, klebsiella

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12
Q

these have IgA protease

A

s pneumo, h flu, neisseria

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13
Q

these have T3SS

A

pseudomonas, salmonella, shigella, e coli (EPEC)

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14
Q

toxins encoded in lysogenic phage

A

GAS erythrogenic toxin, botulinum, cholera, diphtheria, shiga

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15
Q

diphtheria toxin MOA

A

inactivate elongation factor. similar to pseudomonas exotoxin A

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16
Q

pseudomonas aeruginosa exotoxin A MOA

A

inactivate elongation factor. similar to diphtheria toxin

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17
Q

shiga (and shiga-like) toxin MOA

A

inactivate 60S ribosome. SLT is in EHEC/STEC

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18
Q

ETEC LT MOA

A

increases cAMP to increase gut secretion

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19
Q

ETEC ST MOA

A

increases cGMP to decrease gut reabsorption

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20
Q

anthracis edema toxin MOA

A

mimics cAMP. causes black eschar

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21
Q

cholera toxin MOA

A

increases cAMP (via Gs activation) to increase gut secretion

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22
Q

pertussis toxin MOA

A

increases cAMP (via Gi inhibition) to imapir phagocytosis and permit survival of microbe

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23
Q

c perfringens alpha toxin MOA

A

phospholipase

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24
Q

gram-positive, aerobic bacilli

A

listeria, bacillus, corynebacterium

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25
gram-positive, sporulating bacteria
bacillus (aerobic), clostridium (anaerobic). both bacilli
26
gram-positive, anaerobic bacilli
clostrdium
27
gram-pos, branching filaments
nocardia (aerobic), actinomyces (anaerobic)
28
gram-pos, acid-fast branching filaments
nocardia
29
gram-pos, aerobic branching filaments
nocardia
30
gram-pos, anaerobic branching filaments
actinomyces
31
gram-pos, catalase-pos cocci
staphyloccus
32
gram-pos, catalase-pos, coagulase-pos cocci
s aureus
33
gram-pos, catalase-pos, coagulase-neg cocci
staph saprophyticus (novobiocin resistant), staph epidermidis (novobiocin sensitive)
34
gram-pos, catalase-pos, coagulase-neg, novobiocin-resistant cocci
saprophyticus
35
gram-pos, catalase-pos, coagulase-neg, novobiocin-sensitive cocci
epidermidis
36
gram-pos, catalase-neg cocci
strep
37
gram-pos, catalase-neg, alpha-hemolytic, optochin sensitive cocci
s pneumo
38
gram-pos, catalase-neg, alpha-hemolytic, optochin resistant cocci
s viridans
39
gram-pos, catalase-neg, alpha-hemolytic, bile soluble cocci
s pneumo
40
gram-pos, catalase-neg, alpha-hemolytic, bile-insoluble cocci
s viridans
41
gram-pos, catalase-neg, beta-hemolytic, bacitracin-sensitive cocci
GAS (pyogenes)
42
gram-pos, catalase-neg, beta-hemolytic, bacitracin-resistant cocci
GBS (agalactiae)
43
gram-pos, catalase-neg, gamma-hemolytic cocci that grow in 6.5% NaCl
Group D (enteroccus != enterobacter) i.e. E faecium, E faecalis
44
gram-pos, catalase-neg, gamma-hemolytic cocci that do NOT grow in 6.5% NaCl
nonenterococcus: s bovis
45
which strep are PYR positive
GAS and enterococcus
46
use this drug to tx tetanus muscle spasms
diazepam
47
C diff A and B toxins
A binds to brush border. B causes cytoskeleton disruption. | Note: these aren't the A and B subunits that mean active and binding for other toxins
48
tx nocardia
sulfonamides
49
tx actinomyces
penicillin
50
gram-neg coccobacilli
h flu, bordetella pertussis, pasteurella, brucella, francisella tularensis
51
gram-neg diplococci
Neisseria and moraxella
52
gram-neg diploccoci that do NOT ferment maltose
n gonorrhoeae and moraxella
53
gram-neg diplococci that ferment maltose
n meningitidis
54
gram-neg, comma-shaped rods
(all oxidase positive): campylobacter, cholerae, h pylori
55
gram-neg, comma-shaped rod, grows in 42C
campy
56
gram-neg, comma-shaped rod, grows in alkaline media
cholerae
57
gram-neg, urease-pos, comma-shaped rod
h pylori
58
gram-neg, lactose fermenting bacilli
fast: klebsiella, e coli, enterobacter slow: citrobacter, serratia
59
gram-neg non-lactose fermenting bacilli
pseudomonas (oxidase-pos), salmonella, proteus, shigella, yersinia
60
gram-neg non-lactose fermenting, oxidase-pos bacilli
pseudomonas (aerobic)
61
gram-neg non-lactose fermenting, oxidase-neg bacilli
H2S + : salmonella, proteus | H2S - : shigella, yersinia
62
gram-neg non-lactose fermenting, oxidase-neg, H2S pos bacilli
salmonella, proteus
63
gram-neg non-lactose fermenting, oxidase-neg, H2S neg bacilli
shigella, yersinia
64
bug causing relapsing fever
borrelia recurrentis
65
bug causing undulating fever
brucella
66
pasteurella multocida causes
cellulitis, osteomyelitis
67
bug causing epidemic typhus
rickettsia prowazekii. can transport human to human
68
bug causing endemic typhus
rickettsia typhi
69
bug causing rocky mountain spotted fever
rickettsia rickettsii. tick vector
70
lab findings in ehrlichiosis
monocytes with morulae MEGA berry
71
lab findings in anaplasma
granulocytes with morulae MEGA berry
72
bacteria that can mimic TB
klebsiella, nocardia
73
treatment for blood-borne trypanosoma brucei
suramin
74
tx for CNS penetration of trypanosoma brucei
melarsoprol
75
Schuffner stippling is a characteristic of this infection
plasmodium vivax/ovale. (red granules in RBCs)
76
what are nematodes? name them and mode of contact
round worms ingested: enterobius, ascaris, toxocara, trichinella cutaneous: strongy, ancylostoma, necator bites: loa loa, onchocerca volvulus, wuchereria bancrofti, brugia
77
what are trematodes? name them and mode of contact
flukes shisto - contact clonorchis - ingestion
78
what are cestodes? name them and mode of contact
tapeworms. all ingestion | fish (diphyllobothrium latum), beef (taenia saginatum), pork (t solium), dog (echinococcus granulosus)
79
life cycle for enterobius vermicularis
fecal-oral
80
life cycle for ascaris lumbricoides
fecal-soil-oral + lung
81
life cycle for toxocara canis/cati
pet feces-human mouth
82
life cycle trichinella spiralis
carnivore meat-human mouth
83
life cycle trichuris trichuria (whipworm)
fecal-soil-oral
84
life cycle ancylostoma and necator (hook worms)
fecal-soil-skin + lung
85
life cycle strongy
fecal-soil-skin + lung
86
life cycle schistosoma
waste-water-snail-skin
87
life cycle clonorchis sinensis
from undercooked fish, up biliary tract
88
human role in fish tapeworm life cycle
definitive
89
human role in beef tapeworm life cycle
definitive
90
human role in dog tapeworm life cycle
intermediate
91
human role in pork tapeworm lifecycle
both definitive and intermediate
92
DNA viruses
hepadena, herpes, adeno, pox, parvo, papilloma, polyoma
93
the only ssDNA virus
parvovirus
94
circular DNA virus(es)
papilloma, polyoma, hepadena viruses
95
DNA virus(es) that replicate(s) in cytoplasm
poxvirus
96
RNA virus(es) that replicate(s) in nucleus
flu and retroviruses
97
the only dsRNA virus
reovirdae
98
positive-stranded RNA viruses
retrovirus, togavirus, flavivirus, coronavirus, hepevirus, calcivirus, picornavirus ("I went to a Retro Toga party where I drank Flavored Corona and ate Hippie California Pickles")
99
naked viruses
papilloma, adeno, parvo, polyoma, calici, picorna, reoviridae, hepevirus
100
HBV is a ____ virus
DNA hepadenavirus
101
HAV is a ___ virus
RNA picornavirus
102
HCV is a ___ virus
RNA flavivirus
103
HDV is a ___ virus
RNA deltavirus
104
HEV is a ___ virus
RNA hepevirus
105
JC and BK are viruses are ___ viruses
polyoma
106
receptor used by CMV
integrins (heparan sulfate)
107
receptor used by EBV
CD21
108
receptor used by rhinovirus
ICAM1
109
receptor used by rabies
nicotinic AChR
110
reoviruses medical importance
coltivirus (colorado fever), rotavirus (#1 cause fatal diarrhea in children)
111
picornaviruses medical importance
polio, echovirus, rhino, coxsackie, HAV | "PERCH"
112
hepevirus medical importance
HEV
113
caliciviruses medical importance
norovirus
114
flavivirus medical importance
HCV, yellow fever, Dengue, St. Louis encephalitis, West Nile virus
115
togavirus medical importance
Rubella, Eastern equine encephalitis, Western equine
116
retroviruses medical importance
HTLV, HIV
117
coronaviruses medical importance
cold, SARS, MERS
118
orthomyxovirus medical importance
flu
119
paramyxovirus medical importance
parainfluenza, RSV, Measles, mumps
120
rhabdovirus medical importance
rabies
121
filovirus medical importance
ebola
122
arenavirus medical importance
LCMV (lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus), lassa fever (spread by rodents)
123
bunyavirus medical importance
california encephalitis, sandfly/rift valley fevers, crimean-congo hemorrhagic fever, hantavirus (hemorrhagic fever, pneumonia)
124
deltavirus medical importance
HDV
125
negative-stranded RNA viruses
arena, bunya, paramyxo, orthomyxo, filo, rhabdo | "always bring polymerase or fail replicaiton"
126
segmented viruses
all are RNA. bunya, orthomyxo, arena, reo | "BOAR"
127
councilman bodies are found in
liver biopsy in yellow fever infection and HAV
128
what is 3rd disease
rubella/german measles/3-day measles. recall lymphadenopathy + 3C's before rash
129
forchheimer sign and disease
petichiae on palate and uvula, rubella/german measles
130
what is 5th disease
erythema infectiosum/slapped cheek
131
what causes 5th disease
(slapped cheek), parvovirus B19
132
what is 6th disease
roseola/exanthem subitum
133
what causes 6th disease
HHV 6 (sometimes 7)
134
which morbilliform disease has high fevers that can cause seizures
roseola (6th). disappears before onset of rash
135
what are nagayama spots, and which disease
red papules on soft palate and uvula. roseola
136
hepatocyte sweling, monocyte infiltration, and councilman bodies found on liver biopsy of this hepatitis virus
HAV
137
granular eosinophilic ground glass found on liver biopsy of this virus
HBV (and HDV)
138
lymphoid aggregates with focal areas of macrovesicular steatosis found on liver biopsy of this virus
HCV
139
patchy necrosis found on liver biopsy of this virus
HEV
140
microbe in food poisoning from reheated meat
c perfringens
141
microbe in food poisoning from contaminated sea food
v parahaemolyticus and v vulnificus. can also cause wound infections
142
organisms not covered by cephalosporins
listeria, atypicals (chlamydia and mycoplasma), MRSA (except ceftaroline), enterococci
143
which cephalosporins cover pseudomonas
3rd and 4th gen
144
indication for monobactams
aerobic gram negatives only e.g. pseudomonas
145
AE vanco
nephro, oto, thrombophlebitis
146
AE aminoglycosides
nephro, oto, neuromuscular blockade, teratogen
147
AE tetracyclines
discoloration of teeth, inhibits bone growth, photosensitivity
148
antibiotic that cannot be taken with milk, antacids, or iron
tetracyclines
149
clindamycin indication
anaerobic infections above diaphragm
150
metranidazole indication
anaerobic infections below diaphragm
151
AE linezolid
bone marrow suppresion, peripheral neuropathy, serotonin syndrome
152
AE macrolides
GI motility, arrhythmias (long QT), acute cholestatic hepatitis, rash, eosinophilia ("MACRO")
153
AE sulfonamides
hemolysis with G6PD, nephro (tubulointerstitial nephritis), photosensitivity, kernicterus in infants
154
AE dapsone
G6PD def. hemolysis
155
AE TMP
treats marrow poorly. can alleviate with folinic acid
156
AE FQs
tendonitis/rupture, bad for cartilage in children, may prolong QT
157
do not give this drug with antacids (iron and milk are okay)
FQs
158
AE metronidazole
disulfiram-like reaction
159
AE cephalosporins
disulfiram-like rxn, vit k def, increases nephrotox of aminoglycosides
160
drugs to use for MRSA
vanco > linezolid, dapto, ceftaroline
161
drugs to use for VRE
linezolid, dapto, streptogrammins
162
KatG encodes the bacterial peroxidase to convert this drug to active metabolite
INH
163
AE: INH
hepatotoxicity, P450 inhibition, drug-induced lupus, B6 deficiency
164
AE pyrazinamide
hyperuricemia, hepatotoxicity
165
AE ethambutol
``` optic neuropathy (red-green color blindess) ("EYEthambutol") ```
166
HIV prophylaxis for PCP and toxo
TMP-SMX
167
HIV prophylaxis for MAC
clarithromycin or axithromycin
168
testosterone synthesis inhibition is a side effect of this class of antimicrobials
azoles, especially ketoconazole
169
terbinafine MOA
inhibits squalene epoxidase
170
griseofulvin MOA
interfere with microtubule formation
171
tx for t cruzi
nifurtimox
172
tx leishmania
sodium stibogluconate
173
anti-mite/louse therapy
permethrin (Na blockade), malathion (AChE inhibitor), lindane (blocks GABA)
174
drugs that need to be activated by viral enzymes
acyclovir/famciclovir/valacyclovir by viral thymidine kinase ganciclovir by CMV viral kinase
175
viral DNA polymerase inhibitors (not guanosine analogs)
cidofovir, foscarnet
176
MOA fibavirin
inhibits guanine nucleotide synthesis (blocks IMP dehydrogenase). used for RSV and HCV
177
AE NRTIs
bone marrow suppression, peripheral neuropathy, lactic acidosis (except tenofivir) anemia - ZDV/AZT pancreatitis - didanosine
178
AE NNRTIs
rash and hepatotoxicity | vivid dreams - efavirenz
179
AE protease inhibitors
lipodystrophy
180
drugs used in HCV therapy and MOA
ribavirin - inhibits IMP dehydrogenase Sofosbuvir - inhibits RNA-dependent RNA polymerase Simeprevir - HCV protease inhibitor (AE photosensitivity)
181
AE of ribavirin
hemolytic anemia, severe teratogen
182
what is 2nd disease
scarlet fever
183
what is first disease
measles
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