1
Q
location and function of shh in embryonic limb
A
ZPA in base of limbs, does anteroposterior patterning (radial to ulnar)
2
Q
location and function of wnt-7 in embryonic limb
A
AER, does dorsoventral patterning
3
Q
location and function of FGF in embryonic limb
A
AER, lengthens limb
4
Q
function of Hox genes
A
segmental organization of embryo in craniocaudal direction
5
Q
result of mutation in Hox genes
A
limbs in teh wrong locations
6
Q
at what week does fetal heart beat
A
4
7
Q
at what week do fetal movements begin
A
8
8
Q
at what week do fetal genitalia have male or female characteristics
A
10
9
Q
when is the embryonic period
A
weeks 3-8. period of organogenesis
10
Q
teratogen effect of ACE inhibitors
A
renal damage
11
Q
teratogen effect of antiepileptic drugs
A
neural tube defects, cardiac defects, cleft palate, skeletal abnormalities.
supplement with high dose folate
12
Q
teratogen effect of DES
A
vaginal clear cell adenocarcinoma, congenital mullerian anomalies
13
Q
teratogen effect of isoretinoin and vitamin A excess
A
spontaneous abortions, birth defects
14
Q
teratogen effect of lithium
A
Ebstein abnormality
15
Q
teratogen effect of methimazole
A
aplasia cutis congenita
16
Q
teratogen effect thalidomide (!=thionamide)
A
limb defects
17
Q
teratogen effect wafarin
A
bone deformities, abortion, opthalmologic abnormalities, fetal hemorrhage
18
Q
fetal defects from maternal diabetes
A
caudal regression syndrome, congenital heart defects, neural tube defects, macrosomia
19
Q
most severe form of fetal alcohol syndrome
A
heart-lung fistulas and holoprosencephaly
20
Q
twinning from cleavage of morula stage
A
monochorionic, diamniotic. 4-8 days
21
Q
twinning from cleavage of blastocyst
A
monochorionic, monoamniotic. days 8-12
22
Q
twinning from cleavage of 2-cell stage
A
dichorionic, diamniotic, 0-4 days
23
Q
fetal aortic arch for maxillary artery
A
1st
24
Q
fetal aortic arch for proximal pulmonary arteries and ductus arteriosus
A
6th
25
fetal aortic arch for common carotid and proximal ICA
3rd
26
fetal aortic arch for stapedial artery and hyoid artery
2nd
27
fetal aortic arch for the mature aortic arch and right subclavian artery
4th
28
pharyngeal clefts are part of this layer
ectoderm
29
pharyngeal pouches are part of this layer
endoderm
30
pharyngeal arches are part of this layer
mesoderm
31
external auditory meatus is derived from
1st pharyngeal cleft
32
middle ear cavity, eustachian tube, mastoid air cells are derived from
1st pharyngeal pouch
33
nerves of 1st pharyngeal arch
V2, V3
34
muscles of 2nd pharyngeal arch
facial expression, stapedius, stylohyoid, posterior digastric
35
cartilage of 2nd pharyngeal arch
Reichert cartilage --> stapes, styloid process, lesser horn of hyoid, stylohyoid ligament
36
cartilage of 3rd pharyngeal arch
greater horn of hyoid
37
nerves from 4th and 6th pharyngeal arches
X
4th: superior laryngeal
6th: recurrent laryngeal
38
muscles of 1st pharyngeal arch
muscle of mastication, mylohyoid, anterior digastric, tensor tympani, tensor veli palatine
39
cartilage of 1st pharyngeal arch
maxillary process: maxillay, zygomatic bone
mandibular process: Meckel cartilage, mandible, malleus and incus, sphenomandibular ligament
40
cartilage of 4th and 6th pharyngeal arches
arytenoids, cricoid, corniculate, cuneiform, thyroid
41
muscles of 3rd pharyngeal arch
stylopharyngeus
42
muscles of 4th and 6th pharyngeal arches
4th: pharyngeal constrictors, cricothyroid, levator veli palatine
6th: intrinisc muscles of larynx except for cricothyroid
43
nerve of 2nd pharyngeal arch
VII (7)
44
nerve of 3rd pharyngeal arch
IX (9)
45
Pierre Robin sequence
defect in 1st and 2nd pharyngeal arches. micrognathia, glossoptosis, cleft palate, airway obstruction
46
Treacher Collins syndrome
defect in 1st and 2nd pharyngeal arches. neural crest dysfunction leads to mandibular hypoplasia and facial abnormalities
47
epithelial lining of palatine tonsil is derived from
2nd pharyngeal pouch
48
thymus is derived from
mostly ventral wing of 3rd pharyngeal pouch
49
inferior parathyroids are derived from
dorsal wing of 3rd pharyngeal pouch
50
superior parathyroids are derived from
dorsal wing of 4th pharyngeal pouch
51
parafollicular thyroid cells are dervied from
ventral wing of 4th pharyngeal pouch
52
Mayer-Rokitansky-Kuster-Hauser syndrome
mullerian agenesis in female
53
which cells produce androgens in male
leydig cells
54
which cells produce androgens in female
theca interna cells
55
which cells produce estrogens in female
granulosa cells
56
which cells have fsh receptors in males
sertoli cells
57
which cells have fsh receptors in females
granulosa cells
58
lack of sertoli cells in development of a male leads to
both male and female internal genitalia. sertoli cells produce MIF.
Note: external genitalia will only be male
59
role of testosterone in male development
stimulates wolffian (mesonephros) to form internal male genitalia (except prostate)
60
role of DHT in male development
forms external genitalia and prostate
61
prostate is derived from
urogenital sinus
62
lymphatic drainage of uterus, superior bladder,
external iliac nodes
63
lymphatic drainage of prostate, cervix, corpus cavernosum, proximal vagina
internal iliac nodes
64
lymphatic drainage of distal vagina, vulva, scrotum, distal anus
superficial inguinal nodes
65
lymphatic drainage of glans penis
deep inguinal nodes
66
what ligament connects cervix to side wall of pelvis
cardinal ligament. also contains uterine vessels
67
which cell in males produces androgen-binding protein to maintain local levels of testosterone
sertoli cells
68
which cell in males converts testosterone to estrogen
sertoli cells
69
primary oocyte is arrested in ____ until ____
prophase I until ovulation
70
secondary oocyte is arrested in _____ until _____
metaphase II until fertilization
71
what is Mittelschmerz
pain with ovulation
72
what are hCG levels in Down, Edward, and Patau syndromes
increased in Down syndrome (21)
Decreased in Edward (18) and Patau (13)
73
what does APGAR stand for
appearance, pulse, grimace, activity, respiration
74
threshold for low birth weight
less than 2500g
75
tanner stage for mound on mound breast contour
IV
76
gonadotropin/hormone levels in Klinefelter
high for FSH, LH, estrogen (but low testosterone vs. androgen insensitivity)
77
gonadotropin/hormone levels in Turner
low estrogen, high FSH/LH
78
gonadotropin/hormone levels in androgen insensitivity
increased LH, estrogen and testosterone (vs. Klinefelter)
79
egg and sperm in complete hydatidiform mole
enucleated egg and a single sperm. subsequently duplicates paternal DNA
80
chromosome number in complete hydatidiform mole
46
81
chromosome number in partial hydatidiform mole
69
82
what does HELLP syndrome stand for
hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, low platelets
83
anti-hypertensives to use in pregnancy
hydralazine, alpha-methyldopa, labetalol, nifedipine
84
Meigs syndrome
ovarian fibromas, ascities, hydrothorax. pulling sensation on groin
85
thecoma: benign or malignant?
benign
86
granulosa cell tumor: benign or malignant?
malignant
87
what are Call-Exner bodies
granulosa cells (in a granulosa cell tumor) that arranged haphazardly around collections of eosinophilic fluid, resembling primordial follicles
88
treatment of endometritis
gentamicin + clindamycin +/- ampicillin
89
location and appaerance of Bowen disease
leukoplakia on penile shaft
90
location of erythroplasia of Queryat
glans erythroplakia
91
marker in seminoma
increased placental ALP
92
marker in yolk sac tumor
increased AFP
93
maker in choriocarcinoma
increased hCG
94
marker in embryonal carcinoma
increased hCG
95
Reinke crystals are found in
Leydig tumors
96
clomiphene MOA
antagonist at estrogen receptors, eliminates pituitary feedback inhibition
97
name 3 aromatase inhibitors
anastrazole, letrozole, exemestane
98
class of drugs: norethindrone
progestin. also drugs that end in gestrel, gestrol, or progresteron
99
use ulipristal and MOA
anti-progestin, emergency contraception
100
MOA mifepristone
antiprogestine used for abortion
101
beta-2 agonists used to relax uterus
terbutaline, ritodrine
102
MOA danazol
partial androgen agonist, and has been shown to increase C1 esterase inhibitor.
Used in endometriosis and hereditary angioedema
103
selective alpha 1 antagonist for prostate, and specific subtype
tamsulosin. selective for alpha 1 A,D (vs. 1B in vessels)
104
which PDE5 inhibitor is used for BPH
tadalafil
105
which drugs are mostly likely to cause cyanopsia
PDE5 inhibitors
First Aid
flashcards
Decks in class (18)
# Cards
-
Immunology51
-
Pathology33
-
Behavioral Science53
-
Pharmacology142
-
Biochem: molecular/cellular bio, genetics73
-
Biochem: nutrition and metabolism144
-
Microbiology183
-
Anatomy108
-
Cardiovascular99
-
Respiratory47
-
Renal69
-
Gastrointestinal69
-
Endocrine73
-
Reproductive105
-
Neurology230
-
Psychiatry81
-
Hematology and Oncology89
-
Musculoskeletal128
