1
Q
The location on a bacterial chromosome where DNA replication begins is …, and the binding of … opens up the double helix.
A
oriC and DnaA
2
Q
…. oscillate from pole to pole to prevent the formation of the FtsZ ring until after the chromosome has replicated.
A
MinC and MinD
3
Q
… ensures that the FtsZ ring forms at the correct midcell location.
A
MinE
4
Q
Which enzyme is NOT present in a replisome:
A
a. RNA polymerase
5
Q
The most common first-position amino acid in bacterial proteins is
A
N-formylmethionine (fMet).
6
Q
Enzyme that seals DNA fragments together
A
DNA ligase
7
Q
Contains the two unwound helices
A
Replication fork/replisome
8
Q
Stable, nonessential, double stranded DNA molecules found outside the nucleoid of a cell
A
Plasmid
9
Q
Enzymes that in the unwinding and separating of DNA
A
helicase
10
Q
A change in DNA base sequence
A
Mutation
11
Q
A group of proteins that inhibit or kill other bacterial species
A
Bacteriocins
12
Q
How Is 16S rRNA involved In the translation of proteins?
A
It helps initiate translation by base pairing with the ribosome binding site (RBS) on the mRNA.
13
Q
Which of the following types of RNA function to bring the amino acids to the ribosome for assembly into a polypeptide chain?
A
tRNA
14
Q
Transcription and translation are not coupled in prokaryotes.
A
F
15
Q
Whereas gram-negative bacteria such as the Proteobacteria often use ____ as autoinducers, quorum-sensing gram-positive more commonly use ___ that act as autoinducers:
A
Acyl homoserine lactones/ short peptides
16
Q
When environmental levels of amino acids become limited, synthesis of mRNA, rRNA, and tRNA increases immediately.
A
F
17
Q
Genetic regulation by RNA is widespread in bacteria. One common form of regulation in bacteria is the use of ribonucleic acid (riboswitch) sequences encoded within mRNA. In the figure, indicate where riboswitches are located
A
5′ UTR (untranslated region)
18
Q
Explore the genetic map of E.coli presented in the figure. The genes for utilization of maltose are at various locations across the chromosome but are activated by the same maltose activator protein. This is an example of
A
regulon
19
Q
In trp operon, attenuation decreases gene expression by altering the process of transcription that is already in progress. Efficiency of attenuation is correlated with what elements of trp operon?
A
leader
20
Q
In Bacteria, sensor kinases that respond to extracellular signals transfer this signal to the cytoplasmic machinery by typically phosphorylating the residues
A) histidine
B) serine
C) threonine
D) tyrosine
A
histidine
21
Q
The type of bacterial regulatory system in which several genes and operons are under the coordinated control of the same regulatory proteins is called a/an
A
Two-component regulatory system
22
Q
Pathogenic bacteria such as E.coli O157:H7 and S. aureus have a strong selection pressure to refrain from activating an immune response intil their numbers are great. ______ is thus an effective way these pathogens control production of certain virulence factors.
A
Quorum sensing
23
Q
Caulobacter produce free-swimming ______ cells for dispersal that must differentiate into ______ cells for reproduction.
A
swarmer/stalked
24
Q
In E.coli, RelA produce (p)ppGpp alarmone. What would a complete absence of (p)ppGpp cause?
A
Poor survival of aged culture
25
The type of regulatory system used to coordinate transcription of a gene or set of genes depending on cell numbers is called
Quorum sensing
26
Bactoprenol
a) At is a hydrophobic alcohol that transports peptidoglycan precursors across the
cytoplasmic membrane.
b) It is responsible for forming the peptide cross-links between muramic acid residues
in adjacent glycan chains.
c)It triggers the recruitment of FtsZ and the initiation of the divisome.
d)It supplies the energy necessary for transpeptidation to occur.
molecule that shuttles peptidoglycan monomers through the cytoplamic membrane. a) It is a hydrophobic alcohol that transports peptidoglycan precursors across the cytoplasmic membrane.
27
CheA
molecule of chemotaxis that functions as a sensor kinase
28
MCP
methyl accepting chemotaxis protein - protein in the cytoplasmic membrane that binds to attractants and repellents.
29
Che Y
molecule of chemotaxis that functions as a response regulator
30
Autolysin
molecule that breaks peptidoglycan
31
What type of growth is illustrated in the figure below?
At approximately what time would you expect the catabolite activator protein (cAMP - repressor protein) to bind to the lac operon
Catabolite repression - using best carbon source first, and only when it ends up switching to other carbon source (Diauxic growth)
- when there is no glucose, so between 4-5.5 hours
32
How does SeqA prevent DnaA-ATP from binding to the oriC regions immediately after chromosome replication initiates?
Hemimethylated oriC sequences can be strongly bound by SeqA +
33
During occurs cell division of S. mutants, peptidoglycan biosynthesis occurs _____, and in E.coli, it ____
In the growing center/throughout the cell walls
34
Which one of the following is not an example of genetic recombination?
b. Binary fission✔
35
Supercoiling is important for DNA structure, becaus
c) It condenses the DNA so that it can fit inside the cell
36
An isolate of a mutant bacterium appears to grow more slowly slowly that the wild-type population from which it was isolated. Further studies showed that the slower growth was due to a markedly reduced DNA polymerase 3 activity. From this information, one would expect that this organism would also be deficient in the activity of DNA
DNA proofreading (3′→5′ exonuclease) activity.
37
Ultraviolet (UV) light-treated bacteria would have increased DNA damage in the form of
b) Pyrimidine dimer formation
38
Which of the following DNA-sequence elements are involved in the transcription of genes in prokaryotes?
a) Pribnow box
39
Which of the following is true about DNA replication?
a) Requires a type of RNA polymerase
40
Which of the following proteins is observed exclusively in association with prokaryotic DNA replication?
a) DNA polymerase 1
41
The energy needed to polymerize DNA is supplied by
The hydrolysis of the prosphate bonds of the deoxynucleoside trophopshates that are being added to the new DNA
chain
42
Which of the following is involved in proofreading during DNA replication?
b) 3’ to 5’ exonuclease activity of DNA polymerase
43
Which of the following DNA regions is recognized by RNA polymerase during transcription?
promoter
44
You have isolated a piece of DNA that you believe contains an interesting gene using a mix of RNA polymerase and ribonucleotides, and you perform in vitro transcription. However, even though all your controls work, no mRNA is created from your DNA fragment. Working backward, you note that your DNA preparation removed approximately 250 base pairs from the 5’ end of the gene. The most likely explanation is that during DNA preparation.
promoter was removed
45
An agent that would work well as an antibiotic against prokaryotic infection might target
a) The 50S large ribosomal subunit
b) The 60S large ribosomal subunit
c) The 40S small ribosomal subunit
d) Mitochondria
e) None of these
50S large ribosomal subunit
46
A new antibiotic is able to bind the rho (p) factor associated with some transcription processes. As a result this antibiotic would affect
a) Initiation of transcription
b) Elongation of transcription
c) Binding of the RNA polymerase
d) Termination of all transcription
e) Termination of some transcription
Termination of some transcription
47
One consequence of the lack of introns in bacterial genes is that
a) Exons are eliminated during transcription
b) A 5’ cap and poly (A) tail can be added immediately
c) Bacterial proteins are very short and not subject to mutation
d) Translation before transcription is complete because prokaryotes do not have a nucleus
e) TATA DNA sequence is not recognized for transcription
d) Translation before transcription is complete because prokaryotes do not have a nucleus
48
The codon for phenylalanine is UUU. which of the following codons also most likely encodes for phenylalanine?
UUC
49
During initiation of translation in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes the ____ binds before the --
a) Large ribosomal subunut; small ribosomal subunit
b) Small ribosomal subunit; large ribosomal subunit
c) Large ribosomal subunit; tRNA
d) Open reading frame and small ribosomal subunit
e) Both ribosomal subunits bind to the transcript at the same time
b) Small ribosomal subunit; large ribosomal subunit
50
DNA replication always proceeds in only one direction because the ____ of the incoming nucleotide is attached to the free ___ of the growing DNA strand
a) 5’-phosphate/ 3’-hydroxyl
51
You are studying a protein in Salmonella typhimurium that you believe is a toxin. Whenever you attempt to purify the protein from lysed cell cultures, you two forms of the proteins. One form is smaller than the other and missing 15 amino acids from the N-terminus compared to the larger form. This leads you to hypothesize that
c) The protein is secreted and folds outside of the cell
52
Many pharmaceutical drugs specifically inhibit transciption in Bacteria but not archaea or eukarya. Why would drugs that inhibit transciption only affect bacteria and not archaea even though they are both prokaryotes?
- Archaea and eukarya have similar RNA polymerases that are different than bacterial RNA polymerases
53
Which of the following is not correct regarding DNA and RNA synthesis?
b) Both processes require an RNA primer to begin
54
GTP mostly provides energy for one of the following
translation
55
Transcription of chaperones is greatly accelerated when a cell is stressed by
excessive heat
56
In bacteria, a chromosome can be distinguished from a plasmid, because a chromosome is a genetic element that
encodes for housekeeping genes
57
23. You experimentally change the DNA sequence directly upstream of a start codon of an operon in E. coli to investigate the function of this region of DNA. Analysis reveals that after the change the same amount of mRNA is made from the operon, but there are very few proteins
made from the operon. What is the most likely function of the DNA sequence that you changed?
a) The DNA sequence likely functions as a ribosome binding site
b) The DNA sequence likely functions as a promoter
c) The DNA sequence likely functions as a termination sequence
d) The DNA sequence likely functions as in transcriptional regulation
a) The DNA sequence likely functions as a ribosome binding site
58
All types bacteria must undergo the same model of division process that yields two equivalent cells which is called binary fission
F
59
Sessile growth pimples that microorganisms have suspended lifestyle (grow in suspension), for example, organisms that inhabit the water column of a lake
F
60
During a growth curve of bacterial cell when would you expect to see the increase in transcription of housekeeping genes?
c) Late log to early stationary phase
61
Release factors of translation recognize the codon:
c) UGA (Stop (termination) codons — UAA, UAG, and UGA)
62
The initial amino acid N-formylmethionine incorporated into a nascanet peptide during
b) Prokaryotic translation
63
49. Bacteria have evolved sophisticated mechanisms to transport proteins across membranes. These different mechanisms rely on specialized machineries, known as secretion systems. Which one of the following is NOT true about type III secretion system?
a) Used by Gram-negative bacteria
b) Used mostly by pathogenic bacteria
c) Transports molecules directly into eukaryotic host cells
d) Requires help of the Sec system or TAT secretory system
e)The entire structure has been termed the "injectisome"
f)Injected proteins often aid in pathogen infection and host invasion.
d) Requires help of the Sec system or TAT secretory system
64
50. Bacteria are exposed to different types of stress in their growth conditions. They have developed appropriate responses, modulated by the re-modeling of protein complexes and by phosphorylation dependent signal transduction systems, to adapt and to survive in a variety range of nature. Which one of the following is NOT true about heat shock proteins (HSP)?
c)GroEL and GroES are stress-induced proteins that unfold RNA molecules
65
Which of the following is not a structural motif of DNA-binding proteins associated with transcript Regulation?
A) sequence contains tandem tryptophan
B) helix-turn-helix
C) zinc finger
D) leucine zipper
E) helix-loop-helix.
F) all of these are structural motifs of DNA-binding proteins
A) sequence contains tandem tryptophan
66
Genes that are expressed only when needed are
inducible
67
You are studying a biochemical pathway. Preliminary results suggest that this pathway is subject to end product repression pathway. This pathway is therefore most likely to be
anabolic
68
Small molecules that bind directly to mRNAs and effect transcription or translation are binding to regions of the mRNA known a
riboswitches
69
Protein phosphorylation, uridylylation, adenylylation and also processes of protein folding and proteolytic cleavage are all examples of
E) post-translational control of gene expression and activity.
70
When more than one operon is under the control of a single regulatory protein, the operons are collectively called a(n)
regulon
71
Which of the following is an example of translational regulation?
A) protein degradation
B) DNA splicing
C) protein folding
D) mRNA degradation
E) DNA methylation
mRNA degradation
72
A lac I- mutant would
E) not metabolize lactose.+
73
The chromosome of a bacterial cell possesses the following genotype with regard to the lac operon: I-O+Z+Y-A -. This bacterial cell would
A) make B-galactosidase in the presence of lactose.
B) make B-galactosidase independently of lactose.
C) make B-galactosidase and galactoside permease in the presence of lactose.
D) make transacetylase in the presence of lactose.
E) make no lac gene products.
B) make B-galactosidase independently of lactose.
74
What occurs when an inducer is added to an environment containing an organism with a metabolic pathway controlled by a repressor?
A) The inducer combines with the repressor and activates the pathway.+
75
Cyclic AMP is synthesized from ATP by an enzyme called which is involved in
A) adenylate cyclase / catabolite repression
B) adenylate cyclase / transcriptional activation
C) cAMP receptor protein (CRP) synthase / catabolite repression
D) cAMP receptor protein (CRP) synthase / transcriptional activation
A) adenylate cyclase / catabolite repression
76
The lac operon is an example of ____ control in which the presence of an______ is required for transcription to occur
B) negative / inducer
77
Effector molecules
→ A) are associated with the induction of enzyme synthesis. B) are associated with the repression of enzyme synthesis. C) induce conformational changes of DNA-binding proteins D) are often small organic molecules. E) All of these are true.
78
When arginine is added to a culture already growing exponentially in a medium without arginine, what occurs?
B) Growth continues, but the production of enzymes required for the synthesis of arginine ceases
79
The majority of many important human viral diseases are caused by
DERNA viruses.
ds RNA viruses.
ss DNA viruses.
ds DNA viruses.
ss DNA viruses
80
Although bacteria lack an immune system, they do possess several weapons against the viral attack. Bacteria can destroy viral genome through the activity of restriction endonucleases that will target genomes of which of the following viruses?
1)-ds DNA
b)ss DNA
c)da RNA
d)sa RNA
e) a) and c) choices are correct
- ds DNA
81
The genome of E.coli was sequenced and the entire genome of lambda phage was found as a part of E.coli genome. All the following can be said about the life cycle of this virus except one.
e)Cro repressor is accumulated+
82
During a growth curve of Aliivibrio fischeri, when would you expect to see the strongest bioluminescence?
C) late log to early stationary phase
83
Which of the following proteins is most active in divisome complexes?
FtsZ
84
A bacterium that lacks the mreB gene will have a
coccoid
85
There are four basic stages to biofilm formation. Which of the following is the correct order of these stages?
A)attachment, colonization, development, dispersal
86
Which of the following activities is a result of cyclic di-guanosine monophosphate synthesis? A) transition from planktonic to sessile growth during biofilm formation B) reduction in activity of flagellar motor C) biosynthesis of extracellular matrix during biofilm formation
D) All of these answer choices activities are a result of cyclic di-guanosine monophosphate synthesis.
87
Bacteria from the genus Caulobacter are used to model cellular differentiation in eukaryotes. The abundance ofCtrA, DnaA, and GerA separately control activity of other genes necessary for differentiation in Caulobacter. Thus, these three proteins can be classified as
D) transcriptional regulators.
88
A bacterium that either partially or fully catabolizes an acyl-homoserine lactone will likely disrupt
Quorum sensing
89
The major shape-determining factor in Bacteria is the protein
MreB
90
Proteins MinC, MinD, and MinE interact to
A) help guide FtsZ to the cell midpoint.
91
The curved-rod shape typical of Caulobacter is due to the protein(s)
c) >crescentin and MreB.
92
Penicillins are antibacterial agents that possess active beta-lactam ring. This antibiotic most likely will target one of the following structure/molecules/activities in bacteria:
a) LPS layer
b) Ribosomal activity
c)Synthesis of nucleotides
d)Transpeptidase activity
e) DNA replication
d)Transpeptidase activity+
93
Phosphorylation of regulates which direction a flagellum rotates, thus controlling whether an organism runs or tumbles.
CheY
94
Most common way of acquiring resistance to antibiotics by bacteria is chromosomal mutations
F
95
In Bacteria, sensor kinases that respond to extracellular signals transfer this signal to the cytoplasmic machinery
histidine
96
Which of the following is NOT true about antibiotics?
can be produced by viruses
97
GinD, an enzyme that participates in nitrogen metabolism in bacteria. This enzyme possesses adenyltransferase activity and is responsible for AMP removal from glutamine synthase in response to the absence of glutamine.
F
98
hich one will be the enzyme responsible for synthesis of cell wall in E.coli?
FtsI
99
In order to activate genes associated with lactose metabolism, the levels of cAMP must be high enough in a bacterial cell?
T
100
Which of the following is NOT true about Transposable elements?
Ans: Can be found in all three domains of life, many viruses, but not present in plasmids
101
Which of the following is NOT true about F plasmid?
Ans: contains a promoter that allows for gene expression
102
In E.coli lac permease is associated with all except one of the following:
Ans: Requires energy-rich compound such as phophoenol pyruvate
103
The genes encoding green fluorescent protein GFP and B-galactosidase are typically used in cloning as transcription regulator global control genes promoter sequences
reporter genes
104
When SpoOA is highly phosphorylated
endospore formation is initiated
105
During a growth curve of Aliivibrio fischeri, when would you expect to see the strongest bio...
late log to early stationary phase
Which type of regulator(s) specifically binds to
106
Considering the catabolite repression mechanism, which observation would make you suspect it IS occurring?
Relatively low intracellular cyclic AMP levels
107
What are the primary regulator units that control endospore formation?
a. allosteric proteins
b. antisense RNAs
c. riboswitches
d. sigma factors
sigma factors
108
Which of the following prevents supercoiling of bacterial DNA?
quinolones
109
Which of the following antibiotics inhibits RNA synthesis?
rifampin
110
develop gut microbiota and for the immune system not being able to recognize pathogenic bacteria as foreign
F
111
Beta lactam ring allows to target B (1.4)-glycosidic bond m the cell wall of bacterial cells and interfere with Integrity of the peptidoglycan
F
112
In the figure shown below, binding of a specific ligand alters the secondary structure of the riboswitch domain preventing
translation
113
Endospore formation in Bacillussubtilis is triggered by unfavourable conditions (starvation, desiccation, or growth inhibitory temperatures). A cell of B.subtilis monitors its environment through a set of sensor kinases. Therefore,... controls expression of several sporulation genes, sporulation occurs when it is highly phosphorylated
Spo0A
114
Because of its prominent position in cellular chemistry, glucose 6-phosphate has many possible fates. SgrS RNA in E.coli is expressed to avoid accumulation of glucose 6-phosphate by base pairing with ptsG mRNA. Why glucose 6-phosphate is important in being removed from the cell?
High levels of glucose 6-phosphate within the cell can block the glycolytic pathway+
115
Explore the genetic map of E.coli presented in the figure. The genes for utilization of maltose are at various locations across the chromosome but are activated by the same altose activator protein. This is an example of
regulon
116
Quinolones like ciprofloxacin inhibit DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV and thus
Interfere with unwinding of DNA during replication +
117
Which of these listed below is NOT a major target for antibiotics?
a. Protein translation
b. Cytoskeleton synthesis +
c. Nucleic acid synthesis
d. Peptidoglycan synthesis
b. Cytoskeleton synthesis +
118
Which of the following is NOT true about efflux pumps?
a. Efflux pump genes are upregulated in biofilms
b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa encodes several multidrug efflux pumps
c. The AcrAB-ToIC system of Escherichia coli contributes to multidrug resistance
d. They function to import antibiotics into cells
They function to import antibiotics into cells +
119
DNA replication always proceeds in only one direction because the ... of the incoming nucleotide is attached to the free ... of the growing DNA strand.
5-phosphate/3-hydroxyl
120
which of the following is not true about endospores?
b) Lysozyme sensitive
121
3. With respect to nitrogen utilization, relatively few bacteria can use NH3 whereas many can make use of N2
F
122
All of the following is associated with five-carbon sugars metabolism except:
a) Biosynthesis of DNA and RNA
b) Pentose phosphate pathway
c) Activated glucose uridine diphosphoglucose (UDPG)
d) Generation of NADPH and ribilose-5 phosphate
e) glucose-6-phosphate
c) Activated glucose uridine diphosphoglucose (UDPG)
123
Which one of the following is NOT true about RNA genomes?
c) RNA polymerases do not have a proofreading ability
124
The cells express ________ protein coreceptor
CD4
125
Bacteria such as Streptococcus pneumonia grow best in the presence of 5% carbon dioxide or Neisseria gonorrhoeae require blood and several amino acids as nutritional requirements. What is the general term used to call such types of microorganisms?
Fastidious
126
What makes eukaryotic transcripts easier to isolate than bacterial transcripts
a. eukaryotic transcripts are not methylated but their genes are often methylated
b. Larger transcript size in eukaryotes enables easy sue-selection methods
c. mRNA is polyadenylated in eukaryotes
d. Transcripts are the most abundant RNAs eukaryotes
mRNA is polyadenylated in eukaryotes
127
Which type of regulator(s) specifically binds to operator regions of DNA?
repressors
128
38. The major shape-determining factor in Bacteria is the protein
MreB
129
BIOL 305
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