1
Q
The location on a bacterial chromosome where DNA replication begins is…., and the binding of….. opens up the double helix.
A
oriC
DnaA
2
Q
Conjugation between an Hfr cell and an F- cell results in an ______ cell and an ________ cell;
conjugation between F+ cell and F- cell results in the recipient becoming _______.
A
e. Hfr/F-/F+ +
2
Q
A strain with a nonfunctional…. protein would generate many mutations because the error-prone SOS system would never be repressed. +
A
LexA
2
Q
Viroids are made ONLY proteins, and prions are made ONLY of nucleic acid.
A
b. False
3
Q
Diphtheria toxin is produced by Corynebacterium diphtheria inhibits eukaryotic protein synthesis and, therefore, causes a severe respiratory disease that typically infects children. What category this exotoxin belongs to?
a. Cytolytic
b. Pathogenic island
c. Superantigen
d. Immunoglobulin
e. AB type
A
e. AB type +
3
Q
Which of these listed below is NOT a major target for antibiotics?
a. Protein translation
b. Cytoskeleton synthesis +
c. Nucleic acid synthesis
d. Peptidoglycan synthesis
A
Cytoskeleton synthesis
3
Q
Varicella-zoster (VZV) establishes a lifelong latent infection can cause which of the following diseases?
a. Rubella
b. Smallpox
c. Chicken pox +
d. Mumps
A
chichken pox
4
Q
Matching
A
The presence of bacteria in the bloodstream - bacteremia
c. Ability of a pathogen to grow in host tissue at densities that inhibit host function - invasiveness
d. Any situation in which a microorganism (not a member of the local flora) - Infection
e. Bloodborne systemic infection that leads to massive inflammation - Septicemia
Relative ability of a pathogen to cause disease - virulence
5
Q
A mutation that results in the premature halting of transcription (and, consequently, protein
translation) of a particular gene is a ______ mutation.
A
nonsense
6
Q
When virologists speak of the H1N1 isotype of the enveloped influenza virus, they are referring to the hemagglutinin and the neuraminidase proteins. These glycoproteins mediate adherence and release from the eukaryotic cell. Which of the following designations would best describe these molecules?
a. Matrix proteins
b. Spike proteins
c. Proteins associated with the genome
d. Envelope proteins
e. Capsid proteins
A
d. Envelope proteins +
7
Q
Which of these listed below is NOT a major target for antibiotics?
a. Protein translation
b. Cytoskeleton synthesis +
c. Nucleic acid synthesis
d. Peptidoglycan synthesis
A
b. Cytoskeleton synthesis +
8
Q
What triggers new outbreaks of influenza after long periods of apparent immunity to the virus?
A
Antigenic shifts in the influenza genome, which generate hybrid viruses with surface
proteins unrecognized by the immune system +
9
Q
A mutant that requires the supplementation of a particular nutrient that the wild-type strain can
normally synthesize on its own is called
a. Auxotroph
b. Prototroph
c. Phenotype
d. Autotroph
e. diauxicotroph
A
a. Auxotroph +
10
Q
Matching
A
Involves viral replication and rupture of the cell - Lytic virus
Genetic transfer process by which free DNA is incorporated into a recipient cell by RecA and
brings about genetic change - transformation
DNA from any portion of the host genome is packaged inside the virion - generalized
transduction
Genetic exchange mediated by a protein bridge to establish cell-to-cell contact - Conjugation
DNA from a specific region of the host chromosome is integrated directly into the virus genome -
specialized transduction
11
Q
Which strategy do viruses with small genomes, such as the MS2 phage, use to make their small genomes more efficient?
A
d. Possessing overlapping genes that encode for multiple proteins +
11
Q
The human body responds to the presence of exotoxins by producing endotoxins.
A
False
12
Q
Healthcare-associated infections are also called
A
c. Nosocomial infections +
13
Q
An F cell is unable to initiate conjugation because it lacks ….
A
[an F factor].
14
Q
Cells exhibiting the ability to donate chromosomal genes are called
a. Generalized transduction fragment
b. High frequency of recombination (Hfr)
c. Specialized transduction fragment
d. Recombination F cell
A
b. high frequency of recombination (Hfr) ✔
15
Q
Organisms causing disease when the immune system is depressed are known as opportunistic
organisms.
A
true
16
Q
Which of the following features are common to transformation, transduction, and conjugation?
A
- unidirectional transfer of genes
- incomplete gene transfer
- homologous recombination
16
Q
The process of conjugation ALWAYS requires cell-to-cell contact (or very close proximity)
A
true
16
Q
The mutagens acridines and ethidium bromide are examples of
A
c. Intercalating agents ✔
17
Q
An Hfr cell …
A
[has a chromosomally integrated F factor].
18
Which one of the following is NOT true of exotoxins?
a. They trigger antibody production
b. No correct answer
c. They are part of cell wall structure
d. They are proteins
e. They are released from live bacterial cells
c. They are part of cell wall structure ✔
18
Prions are infectious particles that cause:
b.-sense RNA to convert to + sense RNA
c. Prps to convert to Prp
d. + sense RNA to convert to-sense RNA
e. Prp to convert to Prpsc
e. Prp to convert to Prpsc
19
In .... only specific bacterial genes are transferred along with most phage
genes.
[specialized transduction]
20
Among the microbial toxins able to destroy blood cells are hemolysins and leukocidins.
true
21
A mutant strain of an organism having a nutritional requirement for growth is called
auxotroph
22
Flaccid paralysis is associated with
botulism
23
The Epstein-Barr virus is the cause of infectious mononucleosis.
true
24
A patient in which there is proliferation and spread of large numbers of bacterial cells in the
blood would be diagnosed with ...
septicemia
24
When damaged or single-stranded DNA activates the RecA protein, the RecA protein stimulates the cleavage of LexA. This results in
b. derepression of the SOS system. ✔
25
A frameshift mutation can be caused by insertion or deletion of base pairs.
true
26
Which one of the following skin diseases is NOT caused by Streptococcus pyogenes?
e. Gas gangrene
27
_______ refers to the ability of a microorganism to gain entry to the host's tissues and bring
about a physiological or anatomical change, resulting in altered health and leading to disease.
Pathogenicity
28
This group of viruses cause mild respiratory infections in humans. The unconventional dsDNA genome replication mechanism where no lagging strand exists and employs a 5' end terminal protein is a hallmark of which group of viruses?
a. coronaviruses
b. adenoviruses
c. herpes viruses
d. herpesviruses
e. pox viruses
b. adenoviruses✔
29
Which viral replication pathway is associated with latent infections?
a. Endogenous retroviruses
b. Lytic
c. no correct answer
d. Most RNA viral replication
e. Lysogenic✔
e. Lysogenic
30
The mutagens acridines and ethidium bromide are examples of
c. Intercalation agents
31
Neuraminidase and hemagglutinin spikes are both present on the envelope of the virus that
causes:
influenza
32
Cells exhibiting the ability to donate chromosomal genes are called ---------- strains
a. Generalized transduction fragment
b. High frequency of recombination (Hfr)
c. Specialized transduction fragment
d. Recombination F cell
High frequency of recombination (Hfr)
33
3. Which one of the following is NOT true about RNA genomes?
c) RNA polymerases do not have a proofreading ability
33
1. Which of the following is the correct abbreviation for a mutation in a gene that
synthesizes one of the enzymes involved in tryptophan production?
d) trpC1
34
2. Which one of the following is a mutagenic effect of the alkylating agents?
b) Adds methyl groups to nucleotide G
35
4. Which one of the following is NOT true SOS system?
a) Induced to work in case of large-scale DNA damage
b) SOS repairs DNA without a template just to allow cells to survive
c) Involves synthesis of DNA polymerase V
d) 6) 7) capsule. TRUE
Normally activated by Lex A proteins
d) Normally activated by Lex A proteins
36
5. In Bacteria, the SOS system is essential for survival and initiates a number of DNA
repair processes, all of which are error-free
false
37
6. What was the virulence factor of bacteria in Griffith experiment?
capsule
38
13. Which one of the following is NOT associated with generalized transduction?
a. Associated most likely with lytic cycle
b. Associated with temperate phages and lysogeny
c. Any previous host gene can be introduced into a transductant genome
d. Transducting defective particle is formed
e. Any fragment of host genome can be packaged into a phage instead of viral
genome
b) Associated with temperate phages and lysogeny
39
Which one of the following is NOT true about F plasmid?
a) called fertility plasmid
b) contains genes that regulate DNA replication
c) contains transposable elements for plasmid to integrate into the host
chromosome
d) contains tro genes that encode transfer functions
e) contains a promoter that allows for gene expression
e) contains a promoter that allows for gene expression
40
15. Once a bacterial cell acquires a conjugative plasmid, then it will result in the inability
of another plasmid to be established in this cell.
true
41
16. The outcome for the gene transfer from Hfr bacterial strain to another bacterial cell
is that both cells become Hfr+ cells
false
42
17 After a host gene transferred from Hfr bacterial strain to another bacterial cell, it is
incorporated into new host genome by using insertion sequences (IS)
false
43
18.Removing tro region from the F plasmid most likely will affect the function of this plasmid in the one of the following ways.
a) Plasmid will not be able to replicate
b) Direction of transfer will not be anymore defined
c) Synthesis of sex pilus wil be interrupted
d) Ability to get incorporated into host genome will be lost
e) None of the above
c) Synthesis of sex pilus wil be interrupted
44
19. F [F-prime ] plasmids are F plasmids containing chromosomal genes.
true
45
20. Which of the following is most similar to lysogeny?
a) Hfr state of the bacteria
b) F+ state of the bacteria
c) F- state of the bacteria
d) F’ state of the bacteria
a) Hfr state of the bacteria
46
22. Plasmodesmata allows for spread of infectious molecules in animal cells
false
46
21. Merodiploid stain carries two copies of a particular chromosomal segment (usually
one copy on chromosome, other on plasmid or phage
true
47
Influenza virus is an enveloped, pleomorphic (non-uniform), budding virus with segmented genome (separate pieces]. When two different Influenza viruses Infect the same cell, their segmented genomes can undergo reassortment which will result in ...
a) antigenic drift
b) antigenic shift
c) loss of neuraminidase.
d) loss of hemagglutinin.
b) antigenic shift
48
24. Polio, or poliomyelitis, is a crippling and potentially deadly infectious disease. It is caused by the poliovirus. The virus spreads from person to person and can invade an infected person's brain and spinal cord, causing paralysis (can't move parts of the body). This viral genome can be directly used for translation and therefore has which one of the following genomes?
a) dsRNA
b) negative ssRNA
c) positive ssRNA
d) Retroviruses
c) positive ssRNA
49
25. Unusually shaped viruses, such as lemon-shaped and spindle-shaped, have recently been discovered in
a) Archaeo.
50
26. Which one of the following is NOT true about Viroids?
a) they are smallest viruses
b) Only on viroid that may infect animal cells is known
c) Represented by small, circular, ssRNA
d) Infect only plants
e) Do not have a protein component
a) they are smallest viruses
51
27. Which one of the following is NOT true about Prions?
a) Prions lack nucleotide sequences
b) The gene for the prion is present in normal host cells
c) PrPC is native, not infectious form
d) PrPSC is Infectious, misfolded form
e) Prions accumulate in skeletal muscle cells and cause loss of coordination
e) Prions accumulate in skeletal muscle cells and cause loss of coordination
52
28. What is the purpose of synthesizing a negative strand RNA in positive stranded ssRNA viruses?
D) to serve as the complementary template sequence in genome amplification of the positive strand
53
29. Blocking polyomavirus SV40's ability to integrate its genome into host cells would
A) avoid cancer development caused by the virus.
B) increase the rate of transformation.
C) increase the latent period of SV40.
D) switch SV40 into a lytic life cycle which would be especially harmful to the host cells
A) avoid cancer development caused by the virus.
54
30. The pH in the stomach ranges between 1-2 and therefore very acidic. Stomach microbiota contains only one species of bacteria which H. Pylori
false
55
31. Following antibiotic therapy, patients are often administered ____________ to facilitate re-colonizaton of normal microbiota in the intestines.
a) fluoride
b) iron
c) probiotics
d) antivirals
probiotics
56
32. Common prebiotics include (better check this)
e) None of these.
57
Clostridium difficile infections most often occur
a. following antibiotic treatment
b. following a fecal transplant
c. following a dietary change
d. following the use of a new probiotic
a. following antibiotic treatment
58
34. Which one of the following is True about tetanus toxin (tetanospasmin) ?
a) Interferes with release of acetylcholine from the presynaptic neuron
b) Binds to acethylcholine receptors and does not allow acethylcholine to bind to its
receptors
c) The acion of botulinum toxin results in skeletal muscle not being able to contract-
flasid paralysis
d)Allows for release of excessive amount of acethylcholine
e) Blocks synthesis of acethylcholine in neurones
d)Allows for release of excessive amount of acethylcholine
59
35. Staphylococcal alpha-toxin (leucocidine) has a destructive effect on the host cells in one of the following ways:
a) Targets and digests phospholipids of the plasma membrane
b) Inserts pores in the plasma membrane
c) Digest extracellular matrix
d) Forms fibrin layer around the staphylococci
e) Interrupts synthesis of proteins in the host cell
b) Inserts pores in the plasma membrane
60
36. Which of the following is NOT true about endotoxin?
a) Synthesis encoded by chromosomal genes
b) Lipid A part of the lipopolysaccharide is toxic
c) O-specific polysaccharide is toxic
d) Induces synthesis of endogenous pyrogens
e) Released by the bacterial cells only when they are destroyed
c) O-specific polysaccharide is toxic
61
37. Which of the following is TRUE about research on the human microbiome and good understanding of human microbiomediversity?
a)Advanced nucleic acid sequencing techniques and specifically sequencing of
16SrRNA
b) Sequencing R-plasmids were needed before a good understanding of human
microbiome diversity
c) Culture-dependent techniques fully elucidated microbial diversity of human
microbiome
d) Culture-dependent techniques are completely unimportant in studying its microbial
diversity.
e) Sequencing bacteriophages genome were absolutely necessary for understanding of
human microbiome diversity
a)Advanced nucleic acid sequencing techniques and specifically sequencing of 16SrRNA
62
38. The most heavily colonized by bacteria part of the gastro-intestinal tract is the_____,
containing 10^11-10^12 bacterial cells per gram.
c) large intestine
63
39. Propionibacterium species most likely to be found associated with:
a) Gastrointestinal tract
b) Teeth and gums
c) Skin
d) Lungs
e) Genital tract
skin
64
40. Which one of the following is TRUE about the CRISPR system in regards to its role for protection of bacteria from viruses.
a) We can compare it to adaptive (acquired) immune response in humans
b) We can compare it to innate immune response in humans
c) We cannot compare the CRISPR system to any of immune responses
a) We can compare it to adaptive (acquired) immune response in humans
65
41. In the biology laboratory it's important to make many copies of nucleic acids. Either DNA or RNA may be a template for the amplification process to make many copies of DNA molecules. If you wanted to use RNA molecule as a template to make DNA from RNA what enzyme would you use for this purpose?
A) RNA-dependent DNA polymerase.
66
42. Which one of the following viruses cannot be found on a healthy human:
d) All of these
67
43. In designing a drug to inhibit poxvirus, the compound should localize in the host's____ to be most effective
c) cytoplasm
68
44. Which one of the following is NOT true about protospacer adjacent motifs (PAM)?
a) Very short nucleic acid sequences
b) Part of foreign nucleic acid sequences
c) Associated with segments of prokaryotic DNA
d) Allows for cleavage of the nucleic acid sequences
e) Targets for Cas proteins
c) Associated with segments of prokaryotic DNA
69
45. Penicillin’s mode of action targets
the bacterial cell wall.
70
47. A gram-negative bacteria present in the GI tract that upon entry to the urinary tract may cause infections and the formation of stones
. Proteus mirabilis
71
) Which of the following is the correct abbreviation for a mutation in a gene that
synthesizes one of the enzymes involved in tryptophan production?
Ans: trpC1
72
2) Which one of the following is NOT correct about the UV light?
e) It is type of ionizing radiation
73
3) Replica plating will be most likely used for screening to identify
Ans: Nutritionally defective mutants
74
3) Replica plating will be most likely used for screening to identify
Nutritionally defective mutants
74
After the gene transferred from Hfr bacterial strain to another bacteruial cell, it is incorporated into new host genome by using insertion sequence (IS)
FALSE
74
Rough colonies of bacteria in the Griffith experiment where those that did not have a capsule.
true
75
7) Which of the following is NOT true about conjugation?
Conjugation is a bidirectional process where nucleic acid (DNA or RNA are
transferred between the two cells)
75
The thermal death time is the time needed to reduce viability of microbial
population tenfold in a particular culture at a certain temperature.
False
76
The outcome for the gene transfer from Hfr bacterial strain to another bacteria cell that both cells become Hfr+ cells
FALSE
76
High efficiency natural competency is rare among bacteria
TRUE
76
Which one of the Folowing is not TRUE about the CRISPR system?
Repair DNA and increase DNA damage tolerance during times of stress
76
Removing tra region from the F plasmid most likely will affect fuction of this plasmid in the one of the following ways:
a) Plasmid will not be able to replicate
b) Direction of transfer will not be anymore defined
c) Synthesis of sex pilus wil be interrupted
d) Ability to get incorporated into host genome will be lost
e) None of the above
Ans: Synthesis of sex will be interrupted
76
The name of scientist who initially observed transposition in plants and received a Nobel prize for this discovery is one of the following
Barbara McClintock
76
13. Which one of the following is NOT associated with generalized transduction?
a) Associated most likely with lytic cycle
b) Associated with temperate phages and lysogeny; Happens to prophage
c) Any previous host gene can be introduced into a transductant genome
d) Transducting defective particle is formed
e) Any fragment of host genome can be packaged into a phage instead of viral
genomeWhich of the following is Not associate with generalized transduction?
b) Associated with temperate phages and lysogeny; Happens to prophage
76
What objective would be best to use a Sothern blot rather a Northern blot?
a. Determine if a gene is present in a genome.
b. Discover gene function
c. Identity regulatory gene protein interactions.
d. Quantify expression profiles of a gene.
Determine if a gene is present in a genome
76
…terologous gene expression means that the gene is
Expressed in different host
76
Which one of the following is NOT associated with synthesis of aminoacids?
a) Pyruvate
b) Chorismate
c) Alpha-ketoglutarade
d) Oxaloacetate
e) Inosinic acid
Inosinic acid
77
Synthesis of fatty acids requires one of the following:
Malonyl-ACP
78
Which one of the following is NOT associated with aerobic chemolithotrophs?
a) Electron donors: nitrate, ferric iron, sulfate, carbonate
b) Electron transport chain
c) ATP synthases
d) Electron acceptor O2
e) Organic molecules
Organic molecules
79
Peptone is component of the media to grow bacteria most likely contain:
Mixture of polypeptides
80
42) With the respect to nitrogen utilization, relatively few bacteria can use NH3 whereas many more can make use of N2
false
81
45) Which of the following is not an immunoglobin ?
b) igC
82
46) which of the following is a novel antimicrobial target for platensimycin, an antibiotic derived from soil bacteria?
Destruction of lipid bipsynthsis
83
all of the following complement proteins are directly involved in formation of a pore in the pathogen’s membrane except :
C3b
84
individuals with allergies often mount antibody responses to non-infectious
environmental antigens. Examples are peanut allergies, allergies to house dust mites, and allergic responses to bee stings. The symptoms of these different allergic responses can vary greatly, and can include skin rashes or hives, swelling of the throat and difficulty breathing, to gastrointestinal symptoms such as cramps, diarrhea or
vomiting. Which of the following antibodies most likely is involved?
igE
85
when an individual is bitten by insects or animals (snakes) that release venom ? (toxic protein),
preferred treatment
provide preformed antibodies against venom protein
86
Reverse transcription PCR (RT-PCR) uses the following enzyme for nucleic acid sequence
RNA-dependent DNA polymerase.
87
Heterologous gene expression means that the gene is
Expressed in a different host
88
Vitrome is the presence of al viruses in the environment
false
89
Cells that have Insertional inactivation* of the lac2 gene are
blue
white
yellow
fluorescent green
white
90
Electroporation can be used to introduce circular pieces of dsDNA into cells that are not naturally competent, such as gram negative bacteria and some species of Archaea. This process Improves transformation and competence of bacterial cells by increasing the expression of competence specific proteins in bacterial cells
false
91
The Ti plasmid is best suited for genetically manipulating
plants
92
The principle behind nucleic acid probe design is that the probe itself must contain
a. a key complementary part of the target gene sequence of interest
b. all of the nucleotide sequence of the gene of interest to conclusively identify the gene
c. an antibody to specifically bind to the gene of interest
d. at least three separate complementary regions of the gene of interest.
a key complementary part of the target gene sequence of interest
93
You have discovered a new bacterial strain that causes urinary tract infections. Closely related
bacterial species cannot cause infections. You compare the strains and find that your new strain
has structures composed of protein external to its cell wall. Which of the following is false about
these structures?
These structure allow this bacteria be pathogenic
They all in attachment of bacterial cells to surfaces and tissues
These structure may have twitching motility, which can help cells invade the body
All of the is true
94
What is the most important advantage of Pfu polymerase over Tag polymerase?
Unlike Taq polymerase, Plu polymerase has proofreading activity.
95
Infants born with the immunodeficiency disease-X-linked agammaglobulinemia (XLA) have a
block in B cell development, and fail to produce mature B cells. As a result, these infant; lack the ability to produce antibodies. After birth, babies with XLA first begin to show symptoms of
recurrent and persistent extracellular bacterial infections due to common environmental prathogens when they are 4-6 month of age. The reason these infants are healthy for the first 4-
6 month after birth is because:
Newborn infants have high circulating levels of maternal IgG by passive immunization
96
MHC I proteins are found
on all nucleated cells
97
The process by which antibodies block interactions between pathogen,or their products and host cells is termed
attenuation
Complement
interference
neutralization
None of these
neutralization
98
What cells are antigen presenting cells
Dendritic cells
99
Which of the following is a likely target for a toll like receptor (TLR)
ch of the following is a likely target for a toll like receptor (TLR)
a. flagellin
b. interferon
c. CD4 receptor
d. Insulin
e. none of these
flagellin
100
The cells express ________ protein coreceptor
cd4
101
Natural killer cells lake Tc cells use _____ and granzymes to kill their targets without prior
exposure or contact with the foreign cells
perforin
102
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
Innate immunity, T cell and B cells
103
Which of the following would be the best target to treating fungi infections?
a. transpeptidase
b. Nucleic acids
c. RNA polymerase
d. Ergosterol
e. Protein synthesis
Ergosterol
104
The most common way antimicrobial drug resistance is acquired is by
a. heterologous gene expression
b. reverse transcription
c. horizontal gene transfer
d. gene splicing
c. horizontal gene transfer
105
Some antibiotics interrupt the protein synthesis in bacterial cells. Which one of the following Is NOT true about the effects of these antibiotics?
a. Bacterial ribosomes are targeted
b. There is no effect on human ribosomes
c. There are ribosomes that have similar to bacterial chromosomes in mitochondria of
eukaryotic cells therefore certain precautions in regulating of dose is required
d. Both 30S and 50S are targeted
e. These antibiotics is very narrow spectrum of action
e. These antibiotics is very narrow spectrum of action
106
Which antibiotic interferes with normal development and formation of bones and teeth by interfering with Ca++ metabolism?
a. Tetracycline
b. Maccolids
c. Aminoglycosides
d. penicillins
e. quinolons
Tetracycline
107
Which one of the following is NOT true about anti-HIV drug Zidovudin (AZT)?
a. Blocks cDNA synthesis by directly binding to reverse transcriptase
b. Nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors
c. Blocks cDNA synthesis
d. Thymidine analog
e. It is modified so that it is dideoty 3’OHWhich one of the following is NOT true about anti-HIV drug Zidovudin (AZT)?
a. Blocks cDNA synthesis by directly binding to reverse transcriptase
108
The name given to cytokines that recruit cells to move towards area of inflammation is _______
chemokines
108
Which of the following is a cause of drug-specific resistance in disease-causing organisms?
a. inappropriate hygiene
b. nosocomial Infection
c. poor Immunity
d. Indiscriminate nonmedical use of antimicrobial
d. Indiscriminate nonmedical use of antimicrobial
109
Lymphatic system brings lymph from the tissues and lymphatic vessels directly to the venous
system first and then into arterial circulation.
true
110
Which of the following statements regarding neutrophils is FALSE?
a. Neutrophils are phagocytic
b. Neutrophils enter infected tissues by extravasation
c. Neutrophil first cells to be recruited to the site of infection
d. They are polymorphonuclear leukocytes
e. They are agranulocytes
e. They are agranulocytes
111
Opportunistic infections are those caused by organisms that are the most virulent
false
112
Which of the following does not accurately describe complement system components?
a. They are soluble proteins
b. made by the spleen
c. located an extracellular fluids, blood, lymph
d. some function as proteases once activated
e. activated by a cascade of enzymatic reactions
b. made by the spleen
113
Enhanced phagocytosis of antibody-sensitized cells is known as
opsonization
114
The inflammatory cytokines IL-1, IL-6, nd TNF-a
a. Opsonizing agents that coot foreign cells
b. responsible for decreasing vascular permeability in inflammation
c. capable of producing systemic fever by stimulating the release of prostaglandins in the brain
d. part of the classical pathway of complement activation
c. capable of producing systemic fever by stimulating the release of prostaglandins in the brain
115
The rapid increase in adaptive immunity after a second antigen exposure is due to
a. immune memory
b. Specificity
c. tolerance
d. difintry
a. immune memory
116
NFkB is a key transcription factor in the signaling pathway that is important for synthesis of Ab
toxins by bacterial cells?
false
116
Clostridium difficile infections most often occur
a. following antibiotic treatment
b. following a fecal transplant
c. following a dietary change
d. following the use of a new probiotic
a. following antibiotic treatment
117
If the infection of the host was caused by Gram negative bacteria, then which one of the
following antibiotics will you least likely to use?
Penicillins
118
Which part of the chemical structure of penicillin if modified will make penicillin to loose its ability
to kill microorganisms?
Part B
119
Which one of the following is NOT true about izoniazid?
a. Growth factor analog
b. Similar in structure with vitamin B3 (nicotinamide)
c. Inhibits mycolic acid synthesis
d. Disrupts the integrity of cell wall in M Tuberculosis
e. Disrupts the integrity of cell well in S.aureus
Disrupts the integrity of cell well in S.aureus
120
Which one of the following is NOT true about Sulfa drugs (sulfonamides)?
one of the following is NOT true about Sulfa drugs (sulfonamides)?
a. They are growth factor analogs
b. Similar in structure with PABA
c. Inhibits folic acid synthesis
d. One of the side effects is that they disrupt synthesis of folic acid In human
e. Have been In use since 1930
One of the side effects is that they disrupt synthesis of folic acid In human
121
Thymus it a primary lymphoid organ where maturation of the B cells of the immune system
takes Place
false
122
One of the central Questions in immunology is how the immune system is able to recognise the invading microbes and discriminate between potentially dangerous microorganisms and non dangerous materials in the host or the environment. The cells of the innate immune system use innate immune receptors to recognize microbes. Various PRRs (pathogen recognition receptors) are part of some cells of the innate immune system. Which one of the following is NOt a PRR?
Receptor for complement protein
Receptor for flagellin
Receptor for peptidoglycan
Receptor for lipopolysaccharides
Receptor for viral nucleic
Receptor for complement protein
123
Select from the answers choices provided below one that does Not describe the outcome of complement proteins activation
Promoting inflammatiOn
Opsonization
membrane stabilization
all of these are effects of complement activation
membrane stabilization
124
Mammalian cells express Toll-like receptors that are important to bacteria to adhere and colonize the host
false
125
In order to destroy pathogens, neutrophils use temporary rise in oxygen consumption and toxic
oxygen species production which takes place in the phagosome of the phagocyte cell
true
126
BCG vaccine is valuable to clinical medicine because it is prepared from the Mycobacterium bovis strain that was attenuated and therefore, it is ___________.
a. Virulence induced
b. No correct answer
c. Nosocomial
d. Beta-hemolytic
e. Virulence reduced
e. Virulence reduced
127
32) Improperly functioning acyl carrier proteins (ACPs) would likely result in
Death for bacterium due to poor liquid
128
34. Which of the following is not associated with the prokaryotic ABC transport system?
a) A substrate-binding protein
b) A membrane-integrated transporter
c) An ATP-hydrolyzing protein
d) System has low substrate affinity
e) Helps microorganisms survive in low nutrient environments
f) Moves nutrients into the cell is against a concentration gradient
System has low substrate affinity
129
43. With respect to nitrogen utilization, relatively few bacteria can use NH3 whereas many can
make use of N2
false
129
35. In e.coli lac permease is associated with all except one of the following
a) Simple transporter that transports lactose
b) Uses energy to transport nutrients
c) Co-transports each nutrient molecule into the cell with a H+ ion
d) Requires energy-rich compound such as phosphoenolpyruvate
e) This transporter is a symporter
Requires energy-rich compound such as phosphoenolpyruvate
130
9. Which one of the following is NOT true about conjugation in bacteria?
a) This is a bidirectional process.
b) Requires cell-cell contact
c) Can be called mating of two bacterial cells or mating pair formation
d) Special conjugative plasmids are required for DNIA transfer.
e) Donor and recipient cells must be Involved
This is a bidirectional process.
131
10. Which one of the following is Not true about competence in transformation?
High efficiency natural competency b very common among bacteria
132
11. the abbreviation (CRISPR) in (CRISPR) system stands for clustered regularly
interspaced short pathogenic repeats
False (Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats)
133
12. Which one of the following is NOT true about insertion sequences [IS]?
a) Discrete segments of DNA that move as a unit from one location to another
within the other DNA molecules
b) Can be found in all three domains of life, and also in many viruses and plasmids.
c) Carry gene encoding transposase
d) Various types of IS and several copies of the same IS can be present in the
bacterial chromosome
e) Genes Included inside IS include antibiotic resistance genes
Can be found in all three domains of life, and also in many viruses and plasmids.
134
48. Which of the following is NOT true about antibiotics?
Can be produced by fungi
Can be produced by bacteria.
Can be produced synthetically
Can be produced by viruses
all of the above is true
Can be produced by viruses
135
41. Penicillins are antibacterial agents that possess active beta-lactam ring. This antibiotic most likely will target one of the following structure/molecules/activities in
bacteria:
a) LPS layer
b) Ribosomal activity
c)Synthesis of nucleotides
d)Transpeptidase activity
e) DNA replication
d)Transpeptidase activity
136
27. Acidity frequently used for food preservation (e.g.: pickling) so that most of microorganisms
are destroyed. This is based on one of the following
a) Acidity targets most of the microorganisms because they are acidophilic
b) Acidity targets most of the microorganisms because they are neutrophilic
c) d) Acidity targets most of the microorganisms because they are halophilic
Acidity does not any effect on any microorganisms
b) Acidity targets most of the microorganisms because they are neutrophilic
137
16. Although bacteria lack an immune system, they do possess several weapons against the viral attack. Bacteria can destroy viral genome through the activity of restriction endonucleases that will target genomes of which of
the following viruses?
1)-ds DNA
b)ss DNA
c)da RNA
d)sa RNA
e) a) and c) choices are correct
1)-ds DNA
138
33. Which one of the following is Not true about Clostridium difficile infections?
a) Occurs following antibiotic treatment.
b) Fecal transplant helps cure the disease caused by this bacteria
c) Infects gastrointestinal tract
d) Multiplies when there is a suppression of the normal microbiota
e) All of these are true
e) All of these are true
139
Which of the following antibiotics inhibits RNA synthesis?
a. Penicillin
b. erythromycin
c. Rifampin
d. azithromycin
Rifampin
140
Which of the following prevents supercoiling of bacterial DNA?
a. Macrolides
b. quinolones
c. Penicillin
d. cephalosporins
quinolones
141
Which one of the following is not an example of genetic recombination?
a. Transduction
b. Binary fission
c. No correct answer
d. Transformation
e. Conjugation
b. Binary fission
142
______ refers to the multiplication of a microbe in a host which, in the process, produces inflammation in the affected tissue.
a. Transcription
b. Fertilization
c. Fermentation
d. Infection
d. Infection
143
Adhesins can be found on
a. plasmids
b. cells at the portal of entry
C. DNA
d. viruses
e.bacterial pili and capsules
e.bacterial pili and capsules
144
The diphtheria toxin is the result of a:
a. lysogenic infection of a bacterium ✔
b. cancer
c. productive infection of a bacterium
d. phage therapy
a. lysogenic infection of a bacterium ✔
145
Compare and contrast the replication cycles of bacteriophages T4 and lambda, including the
consequences of infection
Bacteriophage T4 has a feature called a circular permutation, which means that the set of
genes is the same in all of the phages, but the order in which they are located is different. Its
genome is replicated as units, which then undergo recombination of these genome copies
resulting in a long concatemer. This long sequence is then cleaved by endonuclease to produce
T4 genomes with different termini. The end result is the package of the genome and thee release
of virions by lysis.
Bacteriophage lambda, on the other hand, forms a circular genome upon entering the host
cell by cyclization. If it enters the lytic cycle, the genome is replicated by rolling circle replication
and then the genome is cut at the cos sites. Then it is packed and virions releases by lysis. But if
it enters the lysogenic cycle, the DNA integrates into the host chromosome.
146
Quinolones like ciprofloxacin inhibit DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV and thus
a. Cause a shortage of peptidoglycan precursors that weakens the cell wall, leading to lysis
b. Result in the ribosome misreading mRNAs
c. Interfere with unwinding of DNA during replication
d. Lead to pore formation and depolarization of the cell membrane
c. Interfere with unwinding of DNA during replication
147
Which of the following is NOT true about efflux pumps?
a. Efflux pump genes are upregulated in biofilms
b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa encodes several multidrug efflux pumps
c. The AcrAB-ToIC system of Escherichia coli contributes to multidrug resistance
d. They function to import antibiotics into cells
d. They function to import antibiotics into cells
148
Bacteriophage lambda is an example of having a prophage replication cycle, which replicates
a. Independently of its host while the lytic genes are expressed
b. Along with its host while the lytic genes are not expressed
c. Along with its host while the lytic genes are expressed
d. Independently of its host while the lytic genes are not expressed
b. Along with its host while the lytic genes are not expressed
149
Endotoxins are generally less toxic than exotoxins. What cell structure components may serve
as an endotoxin structure in Gram negative Bacteria?
a. No correct answer
b. Lipoteichoic acid
c. Cytoplasmic membrane
d. Lipopolysaccharide
e. porin
d. Lipopolysaccharide
150
During penetration of an Escherichi coli cell by T4 bacteriophage
a. T4 lysozyme facilitates membrane fusion, allowing the phage to enter the cell
b. The envelope fuses with the cell membrane, allowing the phage nucleocapsid to enter the cell
c. T4 lysozyme makes pore in the cell wall, the tail sheath contracts, and the phage DNA is injected into the cell
d. Integrase makes a pore in the cell wall, the tail sheath contracts, and the phage DNA is injected into the cell.
c. T4 lysozyme makes pore in the cell wall, the tail sheath contracts, and the phage DNA is injected into the cell
151
The main criterion for differentiation between Staphylococcus spp. And Streptococcus spp. Is the catalase test, where Staphylococci are catalase positive, whereas Streptococci are catalase negative.
True
152
14, Which one of the following is NOT true about F plasmid?
a) called fertility plasmid
b) contains genes that regulate DNA replication
c) contains transposable elements for plasmid to integrate into the host
chromosome
d) e) contains tro genes that encode transfer functions
contains a promoter that allows for gene expression
all true
153
15. Once a bacterial cell acquires a conjugative plasmid, then it will result in the inability of another plasmid to be established in this cell.
false
154
7. Prototroph has an additional nutritional requirement for growth.
false
155
Under what conditions might the protein not be affected much by a missense mutation?
If the amino acid has similar properties as the wild type amino acid (+ charged → + charged)
156
26. The T4 bacteriophage viruses are not able to infect Gram-positive bacteria because
this bacteria don't possess a
a) teichoic acid outer membrane.
b)pili
c)Lipopolysaccharide outer membrane.
d) flagella.
e) cilia
c)Lipopolysaccharide outer membrane.
157
25. Which structure binds to specific receptors on the surface of a bacterial cell in T4
phage?
a)Head proteins
b)Collar proteins
c)tail pins proteins
d) endplate proteins
e) tail fibers proteins
e) tail fibers proteins
158
27. The latent phase in the viral growth curve and the lag phase of the bacterial growth
curve are equivalent a represent the time it takes for the virus or bacterium to adapt to
the culture conditions and begin growing.
true
159
28. What would be the consequence of deleting the late T4 genes?
A) The T4 genome would not be copied.
B)T4 mRNA would not be produced.
C) T4 capsid proteins would not be made.
D)ATP would not be produced and the T4 genome would not be packaged into the
capsid.
C) T4 capsid proteins would not be made.
160
29. The genome of E.coli was sequenced and the entire genome of lambda phage was
found as a part of E.coli genome. All the following can be said about the life cycle of this virus except one.
a) This virus is temperate
b) Transcription of viral genes did not take place
c) Replicates with host genome
d)Virus can be called a prophage
e)Cro repressor is accumulated
f) The cell that hosts |bis virus is called lysogen
e)Cro repressor is accumulated
161
30. In the animal virus infection outcome which one is a persistent infection?
a) release of virions from host cell by budding does not result in cell lysis, infected cell
remains alive and continues to produce virus
b) lysis of host cell
c)conversion of normal cell into tumor cell
d) Diral DNA exists in host genome and virions are not produced; host cell is unharmed
unless/until virulence is triggered
e) none of these
a) release of virions from host cell by budding does not result in cell lysis, infected cell
162
35. Which of the following activities is a result of cyclic di-guanosine monophosphate
synthesis?
A) transition from planktonic to sessile growth during biofilm formation
B) reduction in activity of flagellar motor
C) biosynthesis of extracellular matrix during biofilm formation
D) All of these answer choices activities are a result of cyclic di-guanosine
monophosphate synthesis.
D) All of these answer choices activities are a result of cyclic di-guanosine
monophosphate synthesis.
163
36. Bacteria from the genus Caulobacter are used to model cellular differentiation in
eukaryotes. The abundance ofCtrA, DnaA, and GerA separately control activity of other
genes necessary for differentiation in Caulobacter. Thus, these three proteins can be
classified as
A) activating sensors.
B) heterologous regulators.
C) differentiating regulons.
D) transcriptional regulators.
D) transcriptional regulators.
164
37. A bacterium that either partially or fully catabolizes an acyl-homoserine lactone will
likely disrupt
A) attenuation.
B) chemotaxis.
C) endospore formation.
D) Quorum sensing
D) Quorum sensing
165
40. The curved-rod shape typical of Caulobacter is due to the protein(s)
a) crescentin.
b) MreB.
c) >crescentin and MreB.
d) neither crescentin nor MreB.
c) >crescentin and MreB.
BIOL 305
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