1
Q
- Information Governance is about how to manage and share information or data appropriately. This includes information about patients collected electronically. Which of the following is not a principle of information governance in relation to patient records?
a) Used fairly, lawfully, and transparently
b) Used in a way that is adequate, relevant, and limited to only what is necessary
c) Use the maximum necessary personal confidential data, making sure information is relevant and excessive
d) Kept for no longer than is necessary
A
c) Use the maximum necessary personal confidential data, making sure information is relevant and excessive
2
Q
- When a patient attends the dental practice for treatment, they must be given certain information by the dental team before they can decide if they wish to proceed with the treatment plan or not – this is termed valid consent. Which of the following is not necessary for consent to be valid?
a) Agreed in writing
b) Give full information
c) Given voluntarily
d) Detail all costs
A
a) Agreed in writing
3
Q
- Which of these options is the most accurate definition of safeguarding?
a) Safeguarding aims to protect children and vulnerable adults from a wide range of potential harm, and looks at preventative action, not just reaction
b) Safeguarding means investigating any suspicion of abuse
c) Safeguarding stops children and vulnerable adults from being abused or bullied
d) Safeguarding is used to check the backgrounds of people working with children and vulnerable adults in schools and healthcare settings.
A
a) Safeguarding aims to protect children and vulnerable adults from a wide range of potential harm, and looks at preventative action, not just reaction
4
Q
- You have noticed that a vulnerable patient is regularly coming into the practice with unexplained bruises and other injuries that he is attempting to cover up. When asked he says everything is fine. What would you do?
a) Ignore it as you are aware he is very clumsy and so his injuries are certainly related to this
b) Conduct your own enquiry or investigation so that you can find out what has happened
c) Don’t say anything to the patient but make a note to call the patients carer and raise your concerns to them
d) Report your concerns to the designated Safeguarding person in your practice
A
d) Report your concerns to the designated Safeguarding person in your practice
5
Q
- An accident is defined as
a) Any unexpected event that does not result in serious losses or injury
b) Any unexpected event that has caused a long-term illness
c) Any unexpected event that resulted in a death
d) Any unexpected event that causes damage, injury, or harm
A
d) Any unexpected event that causes damage, injury, or harm
6
Q
- You notice that there is water spillage on the floor in the main corridor, but you are on your way to collect an instrument the dentist urgently needs. What is the first thing you would do regarding the water spillage?
a) Start running to collect the instrument as quickly as you can, then return to the spillage to clean it up.
b) Inform all staff and patients in the immediate vicinity that a spillage has occurred
c) Place some paper towels on the floor and leave it for someone else to deal with, as you need to get back to the surgery as quickly as you can
d) Log the spillage and notify the practice manager so they can investigate what happened
A
b) Inform all staff and patients in the immediate vicinity that a spillage has occurred
7
Q
- HTM 07-01 relates specifically to:
a) Decontamination in primary care dental practices
b) Safe water in healthcare premises
c) Management and disposal of healthcare waste
d) Ventilation of healthcare premises
A
c) Management and disposal of healthcare waste
8
Q
- What does RIDDOR stand for?
a) Reducing incidents, diseases, and dangerous occurrences regulations
b) Reporting of injuries, diseases, and dangerous occurrences regulations
c) Reducing injuries, diseases, and dangerous occurrences regulations
d) Reporting of injuries, diseases, and dangerous occurrences report
A
b) Reporting of injuries, diseases, and dangerous occurrences regulations
9
Q
- The fitting and plumbing of washer disinfectors must comply with
a) HTM 07-01
b) Water Supply (Water Fittings) Regulations 1999
c) Health and Safety Act of 1974
d) Pressure Systems Safety Regulations 2000
A
b) Water Supply (Water Fittings) Regulations 1999
10
Q
- What is a pathogen?
a) Total destruction of some micro-organisms
b) The study of disease
c) Something that causes disease
d) Something that does not cause disease
A
c) Something that causes disease
11
Q
- There are many different types of bacteria in the oral cavity. What is the name of the bacteria most likely to be associated with the onset of dental caries?
a) Lactobacillus
b) Streptococcus
c) Candida albicans
d) Herpes simplex
A
b) Streptococcus
12
Q
- Which of the following mops would be used to clean the clinical area of the dental environment?
a) Blue
b) Yellow
c) Red
d) Green
A
b) Yellow
13
Q
- One of the methods used in the dental workplace to prevent cross-infection is to kill bacteria and fungi, but not spores or some viruses. What is the name given to this method of prevention?
a) Debridement
b) Sterilisation
c) Disinfection
d) Decontamination
A
c) Disinfection
14
Q
- HTM 01-05 states that practices must progress towards achieving best practice. Which of the following is deemed best practice under this HTM?
a) Install a validated washer-disinfector to remove the need for manual washing
b) Before sterilisation, instruments must be free of contaminants and should be inspected under an illuminating magnifying device
c) A dirty to clean zone workflow
d) Practices should audit their decontamination processes quarterly
A
a) Install a validated washer-disinfector to remove the need for manual washing
15
Q
- The principles of sterilisation require
a) Manual cleaning methods
b) Automated cleaning methods
c) Recorded and recommended methods
d) Recorded and validated methods
A
d) Recorded and validated methods
16
Q
- Which of the following is the correct operating temperature and pressure bar for an N type autoclave?
a) Temperature 132 °C is reached and held for 2 minutes at 2.2 bar pressure
b) Temperature 132 °C is reached and held for 3 minutes at 2.2 bar pressure
c) Temperature 134 °C is reached and held for 2 minutes at 2.2 bar pressure
d) Temperature 134 °C is reached and held for 3 minutes at 2.2 bar pressure
A
d) Temperature 134 °C is reached and held for 3 minutes at 2.2 bar pressure
17
Q
- How often should a Time, Steam, and Temperature validation test be completed for a N type autoclave?
a) Daily
b) Weekly
c) Quarterly
d) Yearly
A
a) Daily
18
Q
- Which muscle encircles the mouth?
a) Orbicularis Oculi
b) Orbicularis Oris
c) Masseter
d) Temporalis
A
b) Orbicularis Oris
19
Q
- The additional cusp is located on?
a) Upper right first molar
b) Upper first permanent molars
c) Upper permanent second molar
d) Upper left first molar
A
b) Upper first permanent molars
20
Q
- Which part of the tooth forms the bulk of the tooth?
a) Enamel
b) Cementum
c) Pulp
d) Dentine
A
d) Dentine
21
Q
- What happens during gas exchange in the lungs?
a) Oxygen passes into the blood and carbon dioxide passes out of the blood
b) Oxygen and carbon dioxide pass into the blood stream
c) The diaphragm contracts and moves upwards
d) Carbon dioxide passes into the blood
A
a) Oxygen passes into the blood and carbon dioxide passes out of the blood
22
Q
- What is the first action to take if a patient collapses?
a) Secure their airway
b) Place into the recovery position
c) Check the patients’ medical history
d) Call 999
A
a) Secure their airway
23
Q
- During a medical emergency it is vital to recognise the signs and symptoms present. Which of the following options is most likely to be a sign, rather than a symptom?
a) Pallor
b) Pain
c) Nausea
d) Dizziness
A
a) Pallor
24
Q
- During an asthma attack, the muscles around the airways contract and the airways produce extra mucus, causing the breathing tubes to narrow. Which of the following is not a sign or symptom of an asthma attack?
a) Coughing
b) A tight chest
c) Wheezing
d) Slow breathing
A
d) Slow breathing
25
25. The ALARP principle is based on reducing exposure to ionising radiation. which of the following is the correct meaning of ALARP?
a) As low as reasonably possible
b) As little as reasonably possible
c) As low as reasonably practicable
d) As little as reasonably practicable
c) As low as reasonably practicable
26
26. Which radiograph is likely to detect interproximal caries on posterior teeth?
a) Bitewing
b) Periapical
c) Occlusal
d) OPG
a) Bitewing
27
27. What can be the result of mounting radiographs incorrectly?
a) Loss of film
b) Loss of contrast
c) Wrong treatment
d) Deterioration of image
c) Wrong treatment
28
28. During an upper central incisor pulpectomy, the clinician takes a periapical radiograph to check the anatomical length of the root, but the apex of the tooth is not visible on the radiograph. What grade radiograph is this?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
c) 3
29
29. Which instrument is used to remove Interproximal calculus?
a) Hoe scaler
b) Briault probe
c) Sickle probe
d) Push scaler
d) Push scaler
30
30. Several instruments and equipment are used during the preparation and placement of a composite restoration. Which piece of equipment would be used during polymerisation?
a) Air turbine handpiece
b) Curing light
c) Amalgamator
d) Air rota handpiece
b) Curing light
31
31. Following the placement of a composite restoration the dentist asks you to select the equipment needed to check the patient’s bite. From the options below what would you select?
a) Articulating paper and bayonet forceps
b) Articulating paper and Mathieu needle holders
c) Articulating paper and spencer wells
d) Articulating paper and miller forceps
d) Articulating paper and miller forceps
32
32. Why is gingival retraction cord used during crown preparation?
a) To decrease impression material setting time
b) To ensure clear margins for impressions
c) To facilitate shade matching
d) To facilitate bite registration
b) To ensure clear margins for impressions
33
33. Which fixed prosthesis is the most suitable as an alternative to a filling in a posterior tooth?
a) A bridge
b) A denture
c) A veneer
d) An inlay
d) An inlay
34
34. What is an advantage of an immediate denture?
a) You receive immediate dentures on the same day as your extraction
b) An immediate denture may not fit as well as one made after your gums have healed
c) An immediate denture is more retentive than a fully constructed denture
d) Not being able to see how the dentures would look before they are fitted
a) You receive immediate dentures on the same day as your extraction
35
35. During denture construction for an edentulous patient, the dentist uses a Willis bite gauge. What is the purpose of this piece of equipment?
a) To identify high spots on the denture
b) To record the desired face height of the patient
c) To produce a more accurate impression
d) To adjust the denture after it has been fitted
b) To record the desired face height of the patient
36
36. During a denture construction your dentist asks you to prepare and mix irreversible hydrocolloid material. According to manufacturer’s instructions what temperature should the water be for mixing this material?
a) Ice cold
b) Room temperature
c) Hot
d) Boiling
b) Room temperature
37
37. What is the name given to an inflamed pulp?
a) Pulpectomy
b) Pericoronitis
c) Pulpitis
d) Periodontitis
c) Pulpitis
38
38. An Apicectomy procedure is?
a) The perforation of the apex
b) Placing a dressing at the tip of the apex
c) The sealing of the apex
d) The removal of the tip of the apex
d) The removal of the tip of the apex
39
39. During a pulpectomy procedure the clinician will use several hand operated instruments, which of the following is used to shape and enlarge the canals?
a) Reamers
b) Finger spreader
c) Barbed broach
d) Gates Glidden
a) Reamers
40
40. During a surgical procedure the dentist raises the mucoperiosteal flap, what is the name of the instrument used to achieve this?
a) Bone rongeurs
b) Periodontal hoe
c) Couplands chisel
d) Periosteal elevator
d) Periosteal elevator
41
41. If a patient has pain 3 days after a tooth has been extracted, what could be the cause of this?
a) Osteitis
b) Oroantral fistula
c) Primary haemorrhage
d) Reactionary haemorrhage
a) Osteitis
42
42. During an extraction of an upper third molar, which forceps would be selected?
a) Upper root forceps
b) Cowhorn forceps
c) Upper bayonet forceps
d) Upper pre-molar forceps
c) Upper bayonet forceps
43
43. Which of the following conditions is associated with periodontal disease and poor wound healing?
a) Diabetes
b) Angina
c) Bulimia
d) Asthma
a) Diabetes
44
44. Which oral condition is managed by the use of Acyclovir?
a) Periodontitis
b) Herpes Simplex
c) Denture Stomatitis
d) Pulpitis
b) Herpes Simplex
45
45. Children between 3 and 6 years old and advised to brush their teeth twice a day with toothpaste containing how much fluoride?
a) 1PPM
b) 10PPM
c) 100PPM
d) 1000PM
d) 1000PM
DN Mock
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