Synoptic Mock 1 Flashcards by Jazmin Sadat

When gaining valid consent to treatment, which factor is not applicable?
a)) The patient must be over the age of 16
b)) The patient must communicate their choice
c)) The patient must be told the treatment risks
d)) The patient must understand all treatment options available

a)) The patient must be over the age of 16

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Which one of the following would not form part of a practice’s confidentiality policy?
a)) Staff data
b)) Social media posts
c)) Patient attendance audit
d)) Information Governance

b)) Social media posts

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If patients’ contact details were sold for third party marketing, which Government body could be contacted?
a)) Police Force
b)) Social Services
c)) Department of Health
d)) Information Commissioner’s Office

d)) Information Commissioner’s Office

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Which one of the following would be the most concerning initial indicator of a potential safeguarding issue?
a)) Child with a ripped fraenum
b)) Child with a fractured incisor
c)) Child with gross caries
d)) Child with an unkempt appearance

a)) Child with a ripped fraenum

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What is the most important outcome of a ‘near miss’, relating to health and safety?
a)) Additional training for staff
b)) Reported in the accident book
c)) Call the first-aider to assess the hazard
d)) A review of the current risk assessment

d)) A review of the current risk assessment

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What is the first stage in a Health & Safety risk assessment?
a)) Identify the hazards
b)) Respond to an incident
c)) Respond to a near miss
d)) Put control measures in place

a)) Identify the hazards

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Which piece of equipment works under pressure and is governed by pressure vessel regulations? a)) Autoclave
b)) 3-in-1 syringe
c)) Ultra-sonic bath
d)) High-speed handpiece

a)) Autoclave

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What is the purpose of Portable Appliance Testing (PAT)?
a)) To comply with Local Rules
b)) To demonstrate the operator is competent
c)) To demonstrate an electrical appliance is safe
d)) A legal requirement of the Health & Safety Executive

c)) To demonstrate an electrical appliance is safe

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Which one of the following can a dental nurse not be vaccinated against?
a)) Rubella
b)) Hepatitis B
c)) Hepatitis C
d)) Human papillomavirus (HPV)

c)) Hepatitis C

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What does pus primarily consist of?
a)) Dead skin cells
b)) Dead pulp cells
c)) Dead red blood cells
d)) Dead white blood cells

d)) Dead white blood cells

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Which of the following infectious conditions is not generally passed in saliva?
a)) Corona virus
b)) Tuberculosis
c)) Glandular fever
d)) Candida albicans

d)) Candida albicans

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Which Health Technical Memorandum (HTM) considers Decontamination in primary care dental practices?
a)) HTM 01-05
b)) HTM 03-01
c)) HTM 05-01
d)) HTM 07-01

a)) HTM 01-05

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What would be considered appropriate hand hygiene?
a)) Using a nail brush
b)) Using hard bar soap
c)) Using a hot-air hand drier
d)) Using a water-based moisturiser

d)) Using a water-based moisturiser

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A large blood spillage should be managed using
a)) alcohol wipes
b)) chlorhexidine
c)) non-alcohol wipes
d)) sodium hypochlorite

d)) sodium hypochlorite

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Why should a lid/cover be used when an ultra-sonic bath is in operation?
a)) So the fluid is kept warm
b)) To stop the fluid evaporating
c)) To prevent an aerosol escaping
d)) So all instruments are immersed in fluid

c)) To prevent an aerosol escaping

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What is a Bowie-Dick test used to check the validity of?
a)) Ultrasonic bath
b)) Washer-disinfector
c)) B-type (vacuum) autoclave
d)) N-type (non-vacuum) autoclave

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c)) B-type (vacuum) autoclave

Which of the following describes the instrument journey when using a B-type autoclave (vacuum)?
a)) clean – inspect – autoclave – seal in pouch
b)) clean – inspect – seal in pouch – autoclave
c)) inspect – clean – seal in pouch – autoclave
d)) inspect – clean – autoclave – seal in pouch

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b)) clean – inspect – seal in pouch – autoclave

Where are mamelons found on permanent teeth?
a)) Incisal edge
b)) Palatal surface of canine
c)) Lingual cusp of lower premolars
d)) Palatal surface of upper first permanent molar

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a)) Incisal edge

How many roots would a permanent upper second molar usually have?
a)) 1
b)) 2
c)) 3
d)) 4

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c)) 3

What does the enzyme found in saliva break down?
a)) Starch
b)) Fructose
c)) Galactose
d)) Monosaccharides

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a)) Starch

What is an upper chamber of the heart called?
a)) Aorta
b)) Atrium
c)) Ventricle
d)) Vena cava

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b)) Atrium

How should Automated External Defibrillator (AED) pads be dealt with after use?
a)) Dispose of them
b)) Disinfect them
c)) Sterilise them
d)) Wash them

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a)) Dispose of them

How should an emergency drugs kit should be stored?
a)) In a locked cupboard in each surgery
b)) In an unlocked cupboard in each surgery
c)) In a locked cupboard in a central location
d)) In an unlocked cupboard in a central location

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d)) In an unlocked cupboard in a central location

Standing up too quickly from a supine position can lead to which medical emergency?
a)) Stroke
b)) Angina
c)) Faint – Syncope
d)) Epilepsy

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c)) Faint – Syncope

25. During radiographic procedures, Local Rules must be followed by a)) the patient b)) the Legal Person c)) the IR(ME)R Operator d)) the Radiation Protection Advisor

c)) the IR(ME)R Operator

26. Which of the following can be diagnosed using a bitewing radiograph? a)) Root shape b)) Gingival recession c)) Periapical infection d)) Periodontal bone loss

d)) Periodontal bone loss

27. Which one of the following will cause blurring of a radiographic image? a)) Patient moving during exposure b)) Collimator tube not at right angles to teeth c)) Collimator tube not parallel to horizontal plane d)) Patient not biting on film/sensor holder appropriately

a)) Patient moving during exposure

28. What is a step-wedge test used to determine? a)) The quality of the fixer solution b)) The quality of the developer solution c)) The suitability of the X-ray film before use d)) The suitability of the X-ray film before use

b)) The quality of the developer solution

29. What is the clinical reason for removing supra-gingival calculus from teeth? a)) It collects food b)) It collects plaque c)) It shows as a stain d)) It is visible when smiling

b)) It collects plaque

30. Which combination of hand piece and bur is commonly used to remove softened dentine? a)) Slow-speed handpiece / rosehead bur b)) High-speed handpiece / rosehead bur c)) High-speed handpiece / diamond cylinder bur d)) Slow-speed handpiece / diamond cylinder bur

a)) Slow-speed handpiece / rosehead bur

31. Which lining material may be used to reduce the amount of composite required for a large deep restoration? a)) Glass ionomer b)) Zinc Phosphate c)) Calcium Hydroxide d)) Zinc oxide and eugenol

a)) Glass ionomer

32. Which shape of bur would a clinician select to prepare a tooth for a veneer? a)) Pear-shaped b)) Long tapered c)) Inverted cone d)) Cross-cut cylinder

b)) Long tapered

33. Which piece of advice is not appropriate to a patient with a temporary fixed prosthesis? a)) Avoid brushing around that area b)) Avoid directly biting on hard foods c)) It will readily stain with food and drink d)) The shade may be different to your natural teeth

a)) Avoid brushing around that area

34. Which one of the following is generally not required during a full/full denture bite stage? a)) Shade guide b)) Willis bite gauge c)) Articulating paper d)) Fox’s occlusal plane guide

c)) Articulating paper

35. A patient has only an upper left central incisor missing in the upper arch. All of the remaining teeth have periodontal disease, and varying amounts of mobility. Which is the most appropriate way to fill the space? a)) Single tooth dental implant b)) Upper partial acrylic denture c)) Upper partial immediate denture d)) Upper partial cobalt-chrome denture

b)) Upper partial acrylic denture

36. What is the main reason why an elastomer is used for a fixed prosthesis working arch impression? a)) It does not create air bubbles b)) It does not distort during storage c)) It is less likely to cause the patient to gag d)) It records the fine detail of the preparation

d)) It records the fine detail of the preparation

37. A patient has a re-occurring periapical infection. When is it most likely an apicectomy would be carried out? a)) On a root-filled lower premolar tooth b)) On an anterior tooth with a post-crown c)) On an anterior tooth with a jacket-crown d)) On a root-filled lower second molar tooth

b)) On an anterior tooth with a post-crown

38. Which one of the following instruments is commonly used in the obturation process? a)) An apex locator b)) A barbed broach c)) A finger spreader d)) A Gates-Glidden drill

c)) A finger spreader

39. Sclerosis of a root canal could result in a)) a periapical abscess b)) difficulty when extracting the tooth c)) a tooth very sensitive to hot and cold d)) difficulty to gain access for endodontic treatment

d)) difficulty to gain access for endodontic treatment

Synoptic Mock 1 Flashcards

(39 cards)