1
Q
What is insanity?
A
Not being of sound mind, being mentally deranged and irrational
2
Q
Why does insanity legally remove the responsibility of an act?
A
Because of uncontrollable impulses or delusions
3
Q
What case led to the development of the criminal lunatics act in 1800?
A
James Hadfield assassination attempt of King George III
4
Q
What case in 1843 received a not guilty status because of mental status and served out his life in a mental institute?
A
Daniel McNaughton (shot Edward Drummond in the back)
5
Q
With the McNaughton verdict, what were 3 things they determined?
A
1) defendant must be found to be suffering from a defect of reason/disease of the mind
2) defendant must not know the nature and quality of act he or she is performing
3) defendant must not know what he or she is doing is wrong
6
Q
What were the changes to the insanity legislation with Bill C-30 in 1992?
A
- insanity changed to “not criminally responsible on account of mental disorder” NCRMD
- wording of standard altered
- review boards created
7
Q
What was a further change in insanity legislation brought on by Winko vs. British Columbia in 1999?
A
- Supreme Court stated that defendant who is NCRMD should only be detained if they pose a threat to society
- if no threat to society then they receive absolute discharge
8
Q
Do a high number of defendants use the insanity defense?
A
No
9
Q
What percentage of defendants who raise the insanity defense succeed?
A
25%
10
Q
In Canada, what are the 2 situations that the Crown can raise insanity?
A
1) following guilty verdict
2) if defense states the defendant has a mental illness
11
Q
Does insanity defense require a psychiatric assessment?
A
Yes
12
Q
What consists of 25 variables grouped into 5 topics, and was the first standardized assessment scale for criminal responsibility?
A
Rogers Criminal Responsibility Assessment Scales (R-CRAS)
13
Q
What are the 5 topics in the R-CRAS?
A
1) patient reliability
2) organicity
3) psychopathology
4) cognitive control
5) behavioural control
14
Q
What are 3 dispositions that can be made with defendants found NCRMD?
A
1) absolute discharge
2) conditional discharge
3) psychiatric facility
15
Q
How many days can it take up to for court dispositions to be reviewed by the board?
A
90
16
Q
Who reviews dispositions in Canada?
A
Review board
17
Q
What are 7 components of information for review boards to consider?
A
1) charge info
2) trial transcript
3) criminal history
4) risk assessment
5) clinical history
6) psychological testing
7) hospital’s recommendation
18
Q
What did the doctors deduce with Jeffrey Dahmer’s case?
A
He had a personality disorder but not psychotic or insane
19
Q
Why was it said that Dahmer did not suffer from a mental disease causing him to kill?
A
- careful to kill his victims in a manner that minimized him getting caught
- suggested that he appreciated the wrongfulness of his act and that he could control himself
20
Q
What was Dahmer’s sentence?
A
999 years in prison
21
Q
What are the 4 factors affecting dispositions?
A
1) public safety
2) mental state of defendant
3) reintegration of defendant into society
4) other needs of defendant
22
Q
What were changes to NCRMD with Bill C-54 introduced in 2013?
A
For those who have committed a serious offence and have a high likelihood of reoffending, or if the act was so heinous that the public could be at risk:
If Bill passes, these “high risk” offenders won’t be granted a conditional or absolute discharge
- only a court could lift this “high risk” designation
23
Q
What is automatism?
A
Unconscious, involuntary Behavior; person committing the act is unaware of what they’re doing
24
Q
What happened in the R v. Parks case in 1992?
A
Got up in the night and drove over and stabbed his mother-in-law and almost killed his father-in-law. Then drove himself to police station and turned himself in, stating he was sleep-walking. Form of automatism
25
Does the Canada Criminal Code recognize automatism as a defense?
No
26
What are the two forms of automatism stated by Supreme Court?
1) non-insane
| 2) insane
27
What does the judge need to do to address defenses of automatism?
- judge decides whether evidence exists that behavior was involuntary
- judge decides if condition is a mental disorder (insane automatism) or not a mental disorder (sane automatism)
28
What are defenses of non-insane automatism?
- physical blow
- physical ailments
- hypoglycemia
- carbon monoxide poisoning
- sleepwalking
- involuntary intoxication
- psychological blow from extraordinary external event
29
What are the verdict outcome differs between NCRMD and automatism?
1) NCRMD verdict may result in defendant being sent to mental health facility
2) non-insane automatism results in a not guilty verdict
3) insane automatism results in a NCRMD verdict
30
What was Bill C-72 in 1995?
Intoxication is not recognized as a defense for violent crimes
31
Do mental health issues occur in defendants who do not receive an unfit finding or NCRMD verdict?
Yes
32
What are 3 things that explain the high rates of mental illness in the justice system?
1) IndicIndividuals with mental illness are likely arrested more often
2) individuals with a mental illness or more likely to get caught
3) individuals with mental illness are more likely to plead guilty
33
What are the two options that police have with dealing with mentally ill offenders?
Mental health system or criminal justice system
34
How do mental illness and violence correlate?
Research suggests links between psychiatric diagnosis and likelihood to perform physical violence. However substance abuse and prior violence also link to the likelihood of committing further violent acts
35
What are the goals with treating mentally ill offenders?
- Symptom reduction
- decreased length of stay in the facility
- no need for readmittance to hospital
- reduce risk of recidivism
36
What is the over arching goal of treating mentally ill offenders?
Reintegration
37
What are three facility treatment options?
1) Psychiatric institutions
2) hospitals
3) assisted housing units
38
What are two key treatment options for psychotic symptoms?
1) Antipsychotic drugs
| 2) behaviour therapy
39
What is the courts objectives with mental health?
1) Divert accused charged with minor to moderately serious criminal offences
2) facilitate a defendant’s fitness to stand trial evaluation
3) ensure treatment for defendant’s mental disorders
4) decrease the likelihood of repeat offences
40
In a Canadian survey done in 2012, what percentage of the general public and the professional group survey report supporting government funding for a mental health court in their community?
General public 80%
| professional group 70%
41
How does initial research suggests the mental health courts can have positive impacts?
1) reducing recidivism
| 2) criminogenic needs
42
Myth or truth: those with mental illness commit the most crime
Myth
43
Myth or truth: all defendants to commit very violent crime use the insanity defence to excuse their behaviour
Myth
44
Myth or truth: those with mental illness and who commit violent crime should never be released from prison
Myth
45
Myth or truth: once someone mentally ill has committed a crime they can never be cured
Myth
46
Myth or truth: if you were mentally ill and kill someone you should go to jail rather than a mental health facility
Myth
47
For an individual to be found guilty, what two elements need to be present?
1) Actus Reus: a wrongful deed
2) mens rea: criminal intent
- must be found beyond a reasonable doubt for a guilty verdict to be reached
48
What are the expectations for fit individual to stand trial?
Expected to understand the charges and proceedings and help in preparing their defence
49
Why would an individual be labelled as unfit to stand trial?
Has an inability to conduct a defence at any stage of the proceedings on account of a mental disorder
50
What was the fitness standard identified in 1836 by R vs. Prichard?
1) Whether the defendant is mute of malice (intentionality)
2) whether the defendant can plead to the indictment
3) whether the defendant has sufficient cognitive capacity to understand proceedings
51
According to the Fitness standard in bill C-30, you are unfit to stand trial if unable to?
1) Understand nature or object of proceedings
2) understand possible consequences of proceedings
3) communicate with counsel
52
With R. v. Taylor in 1992, what were the fitness standard changes?
1) Specified the “best interest rule” was too strict a criterion
2) five day limit for fitness a valuations with provisions, if necessary not to exceed 30 days
3) issue of fitness may be raised in various stages of the proceedings
53
In what province is unfit status the most common?
Ontario
54
Who can assess fitness?
In Canada, only medical practitioners. Psychiatric or forensic experience is not required. Psychologists are excluded from conducting court appointed assessments
55
What instrument is used to test fitness to stand trial?
Fitness Interview Test - Revised (FIT-R)
| Must be able to do those 3 things to stand fit for trial
56
What is the demographic of unfit defendants typically?
Single, unemployed, living alone, older females belonging to a minority group, defendants with a psychotic disorder are 8x more likely to be found unfit
57
When an individual is found unfit to stand trial what happens next?
Proceedings are halted until fit, reassessed within 45 days. Attempt to restore defendant to fitness, most common method is medication
58
What are three reasons that the court can stay proceedings according to Bill C-10 if an individual is unlikely to become fit?
1) Accused is unlikely to ever become fit
2) accused does not pose a significant threat to the public
3) in the interest of the proper administration of justice
59
Is schizophrenia a genetic condition?
Yes, it affects the brain
60
What is the structure of the Canadian court system?
- Courts in Canada divided into provincial, federal and military courts
- courts organized into a hierarchy with courts lower in the hierarchy abiding by decisions of courts at higher levels
Supreme Court of Canada is final court of appeal
61
What refers to the disproportionate number of aboriginals in the C.J. System?
Aboriginal overrepresentation
62
What are the statistics for aboriginals in the CJ system versus the Canadian population?
3% of population but 18% of adults admitted into remand
63
Why were aboriginal courts established within the court system?
So that special consideration could be given to background factors of aboriginal offenders. A goal is to reduce aboriginal overrepresentation
64
What courts involve judges with more access to resources and restorative justice that aims to heal those affected by criminal acts?
Aboriginal courts
65
What is defined as the judicial determination of a legal sanction upon a person convicted of an offence?
Sentencing
66
What are some goals of sentencing?
Specific deterrence, general deterrence, denounce unlawful conduct, separate offenders from society, assist in rehabilitating offenders, provide reparations for harm done, promote responsibility in offenders
67
What is the fundamental principle of sentencing?
Sentence must be proportionate to the gravity of the offence and the degree of responsibility of the offender
68
What are some principles that judges have to consider with sentencing?
Consider aggravating and mitigating factors, use comparable sentences for similar offenders committing similar crimes, use alternatives to incarceration if at all possible
69
What are sentencing options in Canada?
Absolute discharge, conditional discharge, restitution, fines and community service, conditional sentence, imprisonment
70
What are some factors affecting sentencing?
Seriousness of offence, harshness of sentence, offender’s degree of responsibility, aggravating and mitigating factors
71
What refers to variations in sentences handed down by different judges for similar offenders committing similar offences?
Sentencing disparity
72
What results from a reliance on extra-legal factors, and can be categorized as systematic factors (how lenient judges believe sentences should be) or unsystematic factors (the mood of the judge on any particular day)?
Unwarranted sentencing disparity
73
How is sentencing disparity typically studied?
Simulation studies and official sentencing statistics
74
Is sentencing disparity evident in Canada?
Yes
75
What is one way of reducing sentencing disparity?
Sentencing guidelines
76
Do the get-tough strategies reduce crime?
Research doesn’t support that
77
What is the effect of punishment for community based sanctions and prison sentences?
Both resulted in increased recidivism rates
78
What are principles of effective correctional intervention?
- need principle
- risk principle
- responsivity principle
79
Do most offenders commit new crimes while on parole?
No
80
What does parole involve?
Conditional release into community, rehabilitation, high degree of community supervision, return to prison if conditions are breached
81
What are the types of parole?
Temporary absence, day parole, full parole, statutory release
82
What are the two principles that the parole board considers when looking at conditional release?
Protection of society most important, and Board only makes decisions that are consistent with that
83
What are the two factors that the parole board considers when looking at conditional release?
The offender will not present undue risk to society before end of sentence, release of offender will contribute to protection of society by facilitating the offender’s return to the community as a law-abiding citizen
84
What are some conditions of parole?
Regular reporting to parole officer, abstain from drugs and alcohol, remain in Canada, obey the law and keep the peace, do not own or possess any weapons
85
When do offenders become eligible for parole?
After serving the first third or first seven years of their sentence
86
What is involved in parole decision making?
Formal hearing takes place between offender and parole board and a formal risk assessment is conducted
87
What is included in the risk assessment?
Statistical measures of risk to reoffend, criminal history, psychological or psychiatric reports, performance on earlier releases, information from victims, institutional behavior, feasibility of release plans
88
Myth or fact: parole reduces sentence time
Myth
89
Myth or fact: parole is automatically granted when inmates become eligible
Myth
90
Myth or fact: parole is granted if remorse is shown
Myth
91
Myth or fact: offenders released on parole frequently reoffend
Myth
92
Myth or fact: victims do not play a role in parole decisions
Myth
93
Are offender let out on statutory release likely to commit further crimes?
No
94
What did PBC indicate about effectiveness of parole with offenders?
Offenders let out on parole are less likely to breach conditions and had higher success rates compared to offenders let out on statutory release
95
What is a risk assessment?
It is viewed as a range, and probabilities change across time. Looks at the interaction among offender characteristics and situation
96
What are the 2 components of a risk assessment?
1) prediction
| 2) management
97
What are the aspects of a risk assessment in civil settings?
Civil commitment, duty to warn, child protection, immigration laws, school and labor regulations
98
What is considered with risk assessment for child protection?
Risk of abuse is considered by government protection agency when deciding whether to temporarily remove child from home or permanently terminate rights.
99
What is considered with security at schools?
Alienate students, increase distrust and misbehaviour, disrupt school environment by interfering with learning
100
What are the 2 types of threat assessments?
Salem-Keizer
| Virginia
101
What is a team of people that come together to assess the risk of an individual and situation?
Threat Assessment Team
102
What is the teacher expectancy effect?
Cycle of behavior in which a teacher transmits an expectation about a student and they believe it, it influences their Behavior. Self-Fulfilling Prophecy
103
What are 4 things that are affected by what a teacher thinks about a student?
1) overall climate the teacher creates for the student
2) input the student gets
3) response opportunities the teacher allows the student
4) the kind of feedback the former gives
104
Is it human nature to have a need to belong and be accepted?
Yes
105
What happens when humans feel they don’t belong?
Lower grades, psych problems, drop out, drug and sex abuse
106
What major decision points are risk assessments conducted at?
1) Pretrial
2) sentencing
3) release
107
What is the percentage of people in a given population who commit a criminal act?
Base rate
108
What base rate increases false positive decisions?
Low base rates
109
What can cause variation in a base rate?
Group being studied, what is being predicted, length of follow up monitoring period
110
What were early civil rights cases involving accuracy of mental health professionals in predicting risk?
Baxstrom v. Herald and Dixon v. Attorney general of the commonwealth of Pennsylvania
111
What were 2 commonalities in the baxstrom and Dixon cases?
Base rate for violence low
| False positive rate high
112
What are 3 weaknesses of research with risk assessments?
Limited number of risk factors studied, how criterion variable is measured (criminal records), how criterion variable is defined (engaged in violence or not
113
What are judgement errors and biases with risk assessments?
Heuristics, illusory correlation, ignore base rates, reliance on salient or unique cases, overconfidence in judgements
114
What are components of unstructured clinical judgement?
Decisions characterized by professional discretion and lack of guidelines, subjective, no specific risk factors, no rules about how risk decisions should be made
115
Who practiced unstructured clinical judgement and was expelled from professional association for claiming 100% accuracy in predicting violence?
Dr. James Grigson
116
Which doctor is nicknamed Dr. Death or the hanging shrink?
James Grigson
117
What assessment determines risk needs management scale, and is a multidisciplinary approach?
Offender intake assessment
118
What is the statistical information recidivism?
Looks at many factors in the criminals life
119
What is the term for decision based on risk factors that are selected and combined based on empirical or statistical associations?
Actuarial Prediction
120
Why kind of risk factors do most actuarial risk instruments include?
Static (demographics like age and gender, criminal history and childhood history)
121
Which does evidence favor more, actuarial assessment or unstructured clinical judgement?
Actuarial
122
What is structured professional judgement?
Decisions guided by predetermined list of risk factors derived from research literature
123
What is the definition of risk factor?
Measurable feature of an individual that predicts the Behavior of interest
124
What is a static risk factor?
Factors that cannot be changed (historical)
125
What is a dynamic risk factor?
Factors that can be changed and fluctuate over time
126
What are 4 important risk factors?
1) historical
2) clinical
3) dispositional
4) contextual
127
What are examples of dispositional risk factors?
Demographics (age and gender) and personality characteristics
128
What type of risk factors include past antisocial behavior, age of onset of antisocial Behavior and childhood history of maltreatment?
Historical
129
What type of risk factor includes substance abuse and mental disorders?
Clinical
130
What type of risk factors include lack of social support, access to weapons and access to victims?
Contextual
131
What assessment tool has the greatest accuracy predicting risk?
No assessment tool is better than the others
132
What are some other components that go into why risk factors are linked to violence?
Environmental triggers, cognitive appraisal, and coping and response mechanisms
133
What factors mitigate or reduce the likelihood of negative outcomes?
Protective factors
134
What factor may explain why some people with many risk factors do not become violent or criminal?
Protective
135
What factor includes pro social involvement, strong social supports, positive social orientation and intelligence?
Protective
136
What is a reason that the validity of the assessment may be reduced when put into practice?
The decision makers do not use the entire instrument
137
What is the process of ceasing to engage in criminal behavior?
Desistance
138
What are factors relating to desistance?
Age, employment, marital relationships
139
What is another term for psychopathy according to DSM?
Antisocial personality disorder
140
Who coined the term moral insanity in 1837?
Prichard
141
Who described psychopathy as manie sans delire in the 19th century?
Pinel
142
Who discovered that individuals commit inexplicable crimes but did not share traits of insane patients?
Pinel
143
Who coined the term sociopath in 1930?
Partridge
144
What was sociopath renamed to in the 1st edition of DSM?
Sociopathic personality disturbance
145
In DSM-111 what was sociopathic personality disturbance renamed to?
Antisocial personality disorder
146
What is the idea of psychopathy derived from Hervey Cleckley?
Lack of emotion
interpersonal characteristics = arrogant, grandiose and callous
Affectively = short-tempered, unable to form strong emotional bonds
Behaviorally = impulsive, irresponsible
147
What is a personality disorder defined by a collection of interpersonal, affective and Behavioral characteristics including manipulation, lack of remorse or empathy, impulsivity and antisocial Behavior?
Psychopathy
148
What describes people who have problems with or refuse to adapt to society due to poor o parenting and other environmental factors?
Sociopath
149
What disorder is similar to sociopaths but predisposed to a temperament that makes them difficult to socialize with?
Psychopath
150
What disorder is different from psychopaths, placing more emphasis on antisocial behaviours?
Antisocial
151
Which features of psychopathy are APD symptoms related to?
Behavioral
152
Who developed the psychopathy checklist-revised?
Robert Hare at UBC
153
Why was the Psychopathy checklist-revised designed?
To make Cleckley’s concept operational and quantifiable
154
Which psychopathy tool is a 20-item checklist divided between 2 factors?
Psychopathy checklist-revised
155
What are 2 common evaluator biases with the psychopathy checklist-revised?
Halo effect and nice guy or bad guy effect
156
What is an issue with the psychopathy checklist-revised?
It requires judgement of the individuals characteristics displayed, it can be subjective
157
What psychopathy tool consists of a 2 factor model with a score ranging from 0-40?
PCL-R assessment
158
What are the 2 factors involved in the PCL-R assessment?
1) interpersonal/emotional
2) Behavioral
+ independent items
159
What is the estimated prevalence of psychopathy in society?
.6-1%
160
What are some commonalities among psychopaths?
Male, incarceration, drug dependence
161
Do psychopaths show conscience?
No
162
What are some advantages with self-report measures?
Measure attitudes and behaviours that aren’t easily observed, easy to administer and inexpensive, do not require inter-rater reliability, can detect faking
163
What are some challenges with self-report measures?
Psychopaths lie, manipulate and malinger, may not have sufficient insight into own traits, don’t experience certain emotions resulting in difficulty reporting in those emotions
164
What is a personality disorder characterized by a history of behaviours in which the rights of others are violated?
Antisocial personality disorder
165
What are some adult symptoms of antisocial personality disorder?
Engaging in criminal activity, risk-taking, being deceitful, having little guilt for one’s behaviours
166
What disorder can most psychopaths offenders be classified as having?
APD
167
Are most offenders diagnosed with APD psychopaths?
No
168
What percentage of adult offenders in prison are diagnosed with APD?
80%
169
What percentage of offenders in prison are diagnosed with psychopathy?
10-25%
170
What is the theory behind psychopaths failing to use contextual cues that are peripheral to a dominant response set to modulate their Behavior?
Response modulation deficit theory
171
What theory states that psychopaths are unable to learn how to avoid punishment?
No not really according to response modulation deficit theory
172
Should psychopaths qualify for NCRMD?
There are no special considerations and often receive harsher treatments. They consistently have mens rea (guilty mind) and lack emotional systems that prevent people from committing crime
173
What is the ratio of psychopaths in society to the portion of crime committed?
Low percentage of population but behind large amount of crime
174
What are some key characteristics about the criminality of psychopaths?
They start criminal careers younger, persist longer and commit a greater variety of crime, engage in more violent crime, likely to reoffend, don’t commit homocide more often than non-psychopathic killers
175
What is psychopathic violence likely to be like?
Predatory, instrumental, callous, calculated, not reactive in nature, targeted at strangers
176
Are all psychopaths violent offenders?
No
177
What percentage of corporate professionals met criteria for psychopathy in one study?
5%
178
What characteristics do psychopathic professionals usually have?
Poor management skills and performance appraisals, better creativity, stronger communication skills, less likely to be team players
179
What did one study find were some commonalities between women in relationships with psychopaths?
- talked into being victims
- lied to
- economically, emotionally and psychologically abused
- victims of multiple infidelities
- isolated
- had mistreated children
180
Do psychopaths engage in more violent offences or sexual offences?
Violent offences
181
What kind of sex offenders have the lowest psychopathy scores?
Child molesters
182
What are some emotional differences between psychopathic sexual offenders and non psychopathic rapists?
Psychopathic - vindictive and opportunistic
| Non-psychopathic - anxious prior to rape
183
What parts of the brain are involved in murder?
Prefrontal cortex, amygdala
184
What part of Donte Page’s brain wasn’t working properly that may have caused him to commit murder?
Prefrontal cortex
185
Where in the brain did Jim Fallon find that murderers had damage to?
Orbital cortex, interior part of the temporal lobe
186
What is the major violence gene called?
MAOA gene
187
Why did Jim Fallon say that men are more likely to be aggressive?
They get the MAOA gene in the X chromosome from their mother, and in women there are 2 X chromosomes so it is diluted
188
What does this MAOA gene do to your development?
It results in too much serotonin, so you become desensitized to it
189
If you have the MAOA gene and you see a lot of violence, what results?
It kind of activates the gene
190
What is the affective theory of psychopathy?
Psychopaths have a deficit in the experience of certain critical emotions that guide prosocial Behavior
191
What did one study focusing on the affective theory of psychopathy find about emotional words?
Psychopaths did not identify emotional words faster than neutral words
192
What did a study showing psychopaths different pictures on slides find?
Their startle-elicited blinks didn’t differ in magnitude across pleasant, unpleasant and neutral slides
193
What is the amygdala dysfunction theory?
Explains affective deficits seen in psychopaths
194
What are two theories that explains affective deficits in psychopaths?
Amygdala dysfunction and attention deficit
195
What are some lifespan trajectories of psychopaths?
Biological (genetics, neuroanatomy)
Environmental (family life)
Evolutionary (balancing selection, deleterious mutations)
196
What are some genetic factors of psychopathy?
Callous-unemotional characteristics and antisocial behaviours have a heritable component
Blood type A+ has association to factor one components on PCLR
Low activity of enzyme mono amine oxidase A (Bruner syndrome)
197
What are some neuroanatomy factors to psychopathy?
Phineas Gage case showed that the prefrontal cortex plays part in mediating psychopathic Behaviors - damage leads to pseudo psychopathy
Amygdala is responsible for processing emotions so damage there can result in psychopathy
Abnormalities of the paralimbic system is responsible for the foundation of psychopathy
198
What are factors in psychopathy associated with family background?
Attachment style, childhood physical abuse, parental alcoholism, chronic stress, inter generational cycle of crime, physical or sexual abuse can cause child to turn off emotions
199
What are evolutionary perspectives on psychopathy?
Male psychopaths adopt alternative, reproductively viable strategy to pass on their genes through manipulation
200
What is the idea of balancing selection?
Traits selected in because they offer a fitness advantage
201
What is the idea of deleterious mutations?
Dysfunction as a result of mutation
202
What is the link between psychopathy and crime?
Lack of empathy and poor behavioural controls may result in predatory violence. Offenders with psychopathic features commit more crime, a greater variety of crime and are more violent during their crime
203
Who are some famous criminal psychopaths?
Jeffrey Dahmer and Clifford Olson
204
What is the term for individuals who possess characteristics of psychopathy but do well in community?
Corporate psychopaths
205
Where do psychopaths that do well in society typically gravitate to?
Politics, corporate and military
206
What separates a psychopath from a typical person?
Psychopaths have no emotion
207
Do young people show signs of psychopathy?
Yes
208
Do psychopathic traits in youth reliably predict adult psychopathy?
Yes
209
What disorder are youth displaying psychopathic tendencies usually labelled with?
Conduct disorder
210
Is psychopathy applicable across both genders?
Yes, however more males than females
211
What were the results of treatment programs for psychopaths?
It made the psychopaths worse. They were able to understand emotions better so they could manipulate more easily, but still no emotions
212
What was the outcome for treatment of psychopathy in youth?
Intensive treatment lowers rates of recidivism
213
What were some statistics of recidivism rates after psychopathic treatment?
Untreated non-psychopaths = 39%
Treated non psychopaths = 22%
Untreated psychopaths = 55%
Treated psychopaths = 77%
214
What was found with psychopathic sex offenders who stayed in treatment?
Showed positive gains and less likely to reoffend
Forensic Psych
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