MSN MQF Flashcards by Groot 0136

Mountainous terrain is defined as 500 ft or greater terrain differential in one - half NM or less.
Ref : AFMAN 11-2MC - 130JV3 , Para : 17.5.4

A. True
B. False

A. True

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During tactical low level operations , avoid thunderstorms and cumulonimbus clouds ( CBs ) by ___ NM . Also , avoid gust fronts and winds proceeding rapidly moving thunderstorms.
Ref : AFMAN 11-2MC - 130JV3 , para 5.14.3.3

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

D. 5

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The PIC will operate over congested areas ( e.g. cities , towns , settlements ) or groups of people at an altitude which ensures at least ___ above the highest obstacle within a radius ___ of the aircraft.
Ref : AFMAN 11-202 , Vol 3 Para : 12.3.6

A. 500 ft , 500 ft
B. 1,000 ft , 2,000 ft
C. 1,000 ft , 1 NM
D. 1,000 ft , 3 NM

B. 1,000 ft , 2,000 ft

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The CSO will plot and brief the CARP / HARP location on a drop zone mosaic . At a minimum annotate the mosaic with :
Ref : AFMAN 11-2MC - 130JV3 , Para : 17.16.1.2

A. Load type and weight , chute type , and TTF
B. Ballistic winds , run in course , CARP / HARP location , and escape / racetrack
C. Visual References ( if used ) , 10 - second location , red light , and safety box
D. All of the above

D. All of the above

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When surface winds are unknown ( e.g. , blind drops to unmanned DZs ) , the jumpmaster and supported forces airborne mission commander ( if designated ) will be advised when drop altitude winds exceed knots for personnel drops .
Ref : AFMAN 11-231 , Para : 9.3

A. 20
B. 25
C. 30
D. 50

C. 30

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Aircrews will not make airdrops using parachutes for which AFMAN 11-231 does not list ballistics or MAJCOM / A3V has not approved .
Ref AFMAN 11-2MC - 130JV3 , para : 17.16.2.1

A. True
B. False

A. True

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Minimum usable drop zone time for all airdrops is ___ except when dropping HSLLADS or XCDS - HS , which may be ___.
Ref : AFMAN 11-231 , Para : 4.2.34.1

A. 2 seconds , 3 seconds
B. 2 seconds , 1 second
C. 3 seconds , 2 seconds
D. no minimum specified

C. 3 seconds , 2 seconds

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When computing the minimum DZ size for personnel airdrops at 1,000 feet AGL and below , add ___ yards to the ___ for each additional parachutist when airdropping USSOCOM and AFSPECWAR personnel .
Ref : DAFMAN 13-217 , Para : Table 3.1 , Note 4d

A. 75 , PI
B. 75 , trailing edge
C. 30 , PI
D. 30 , trailing edge

A. 75 , PI

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If power lines are within ___ meters of any DZ boundary ( PI for MFF - only DZS ) coordinate for power to be shut off NLT ___ min prior to TOT . If power cannot be shut off , conduct a risk assessment with the Jumpmaster .
Ref : DAFMAN 13-217 , Para : 3.5.6.1 , 3.5.6.2

A. 500 , 10
B. 700 , 15
C. 800 , 10
D. 1,000 , 15

D. 1,000 , 15

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The surface wind at the DZ is normally measured using an anemometer or other calibrated wind - measuring device . Wind direction is reported in magnetic degrees and wind speed in knots .
Ref : DAFMAN 13-217 , Para : 3.6.1 .

A. True
B. False

A. True

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The surface wind limit for AF training bundles ( SATB ) airdrops is ___ knots .
Ref : DAFMAN 13-217 , Para : Table 3.3

A. No limit
B. 15
C. 25
D. 20

C. 25

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The surface wind limit for AF equipment airdrops is ___ knots .
Ref : DAFMAN 11-2MC - 130JV3 , Para : Table 3.3

A. 13
B. 17
C. 18
D. 25

B. 17

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The surface wind limit for AF HV CDS airdrops is knots .
Ref : DAFMAN 11-2MC - 130JV3 , Para : Table 3.3

A. No limit
B. 17
C. 18
D. 25

A. No limit

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The surface wind limit for all AF airdrops to water DZS is ___ knots .
Ref : DAFMAN 11-2MC - 130JV3 , Para : Table 3.3 and 3.4

A. 13
B. 17
C. 18
D. 25

D. 25

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The surface wind limit for AF MFF land airdrops is ___ knots .
Ref : DAFMAN 11-2MC - 130JV3 , Para : Table 3.4

A. 13
B. 17
C. 18
D. 25

C. 18

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During personnel drops the surface wind limit for AF static line airdrops ( land ) is ___ kts .
Ref : DAFMAN 13-217 , Para : Table 3.4

A. 25
B. 13
C. 22
D. 18

B. 13

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When an off DZ airdrop has been confirmed or suspected , the aircrew involved will not attempt another drop for the remainder of the mission . In the case of an off DZ drop involving injury or death to personnel , the mission will be terminated and the aircraft will land as soon as possible .
Ref : DAFMAN 13-217 , Para : 3.15 . Warning

A. True
B. False

A. True

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DZ / LZ surveys become obsolete ___ years after the date surveyed and must be resurveyed prior to use .
Ref : DAFMAN 13-217 , Para : 3.16 , NOTE

A. 4
B. 3
C.5
D. 2

C.5

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During HAAR , tankers and receivers will begin monitoring designated radio frequencies and will have electronic RV equipment operating no less than ___ minutes prior to ARCT .
Ref : ATP - 3.3.4.2 , Apr 19 Para : 3.49

A. 5
B. 10
C. 30
D. 60

B. 10

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HAAR / TAAR contacts will not be conducted when radio communication capability between the tanker and receiver ( s ) is lost except during emergency fuel situation or contingency operations .
Ref : ATP - 3.3.4.2 , Apr 19 Para : 3.49 CAUTION & Para : 4.41 NOTE

A. True
B. False

A. True

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Radio Silent HAAR / TAAR may be conducted for tactical training and operational missions provided ___:
Ref : ATP - 3.3.4.2 , Apr 19 Para : 3.56 & Para : 4.48

A. The HAAR / TAAR pre - rendezvous briefing requirements will be covered in the pre - mission briefing .
B. Radio equipment on both aircraft must be operative and aircrews on both aircraft must monitor the same frequency and GUARD ( 243.0 MHZ ) during all AAR procedures
C. The rendezvous requirements and altimeter setting are all briefed prior to the mission .
D. All of the above
E. A and C

D. All of the above

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Minimum visibility for a visual rendezvous is ___ NM . Minimum visibility for electronic rendezvous is ___ NM .
Ref : ATP - 3.3.4.2 , Apr 19 Para : 3.5.b. & Para : 4.5.b.

A. 1 , 3
B. 3 , 1
C. 5 , 1
D. 1 , 5

B. 3 , 1

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During HAAR , the tanker is within 3 nm of receiver prior to assuming formation lead . If visual contact is not established but electronic contact is maintained , the tanker will maintain current altitude and continue join- up . At 1 nm electronic contact , if visual contact is not established , the tanker will :
Ref : ATP - 3.3.4.2 , Apr 19 Para : 3.41.a ( 1 ) ( b )

A. Immediately call “ CONTACT LOST “ ; establish a minimum 500 ft vertical separation ; turn 45 degrees right of track heading ; after 30 sec , maneuver for another rendezvous or proceed as briefed
B. Turn 45 degrees right of track heading ; lower flaps to air refueling configuration ( as required ) ; slow to refueling airspeed ; call “ NO VISUAL CONTACT “ ; after 30 sec , turn left and resume track heading
C. Immediately call “ LOST VISUAL “ ; establish a minimum 500 ft vertical separation ; turn all lights to bright ; slow to refueling airspee

B. Turn 45 degrees right of track heading ; lower flaps to air refueling configuration ( as required ) ; slow to refueling airspeed ; call “ NO VISUAL CONTACT “ ; after 30 sec , turn left and resume track heading

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Aeronautical charts do not depict man-made obstacles less than ___ feet AGL or a change in terrain until it exceeds the chart contour interval.
Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.5.5 Warning

A. 500
B. 300
C. 200
D. 100

C. 200

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25. For KC-135 AAR, with two pumps running, fuel transfer to the MC-130J should be planned at ____ PPM. Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2 (D) US SRD, Sep 21 Para: Appendix 8A Pg: 8-2 A. 2000 B. 3000 C. 3800 D. 5000

C. 3800

26. For KC-10 AAR, with two pumps running, fuel transfer to the MC-130J should be planned at ___ PPM. Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2 (D) US SRD, Sep 21 Para: Appendix 8B Pg: 8-6 A. 2000 B. 3000 C. 3800 D. 5000

B. 3000

27. For KC-46 AAR, fuel transfer to the MC-130J should be planned at ______ PPM. Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2 (D) US SRD, Sep 21 Para: Appendix 8C Pg: 8-8 A. 2500 B. 3000 C. 3500 D. 3800

A. 2500

28. During HAAR, if both visual and electronic contact are lost after your aircraft is within 3 NM of the receiver. Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, Apr 19 Para: 3.41.a.1.a. A. Immediately call " CONTACT LOST", establish a minimum 500 ft vertical seperation (if able or conditions permit), turn 45 degrees right of track heading, and after 30 seconds maneuver for another RV or proceed as briefed. B. Turn right 30 degrees, call "NO VISUAL CONTACT", climb to MSA C. Call "BREAKAWAY" and climb to MSA, give heading and MSA to helicopter D. None of the above

A. Immediately call " CONTACT LOST", establish a minimum 500 ft vertical seperation (if able or conditions permit), turn 45 degrees right of track heading, and after 30 seconds maneuver for another RV or proceed as briefed.

29. When performing multiple equipment airdrops across the same DZ, ____ airdrop checklists will be accomplished. Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.16.4.5 A. the 10 minute and subsequent B. slowdown and subsequent C. the one minute D. all

D. all

30. When performing multiple airdrops across the same DZ, when airdrop parameters or airfraft configuration changes are made btween drops, _______________. Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.16.4.5 A. resume at the 6 minute advisory B. all checklists will be accomplished C. remain in the release point checklist until the final pass D. none of the above

B. all checklists will be accomplished

31. When performing multiple personnel airdrops across the same DZ, checklists _________ assuming no airdrop parameters or airfraft configuration changes are made from the previous drop. Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.16.4.5 A. may resume at the 6 minute advisory B. will all be accomplished C. resume at the 1 minute warning D. none of the above

A. may resume at the 6 minute advisory

32. Maximum fuel transfer rate for HAAR/TAAR using transfer pumps is approximately _____________ for a single receiver. Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2 (D) US SRD, Sep 21 Para: 7.12.3. A. 500 lb/min (75 gpm) B. 500-1000 lb/min C. 1020 lb/min (150 gpm) D. 3800 lb/min (550 gpm)

C. 1020 lb/min (150 gpm)

33. Maximum fuel transfer rate for HAAR/TAAR using pod boost pumps, for recievers capable of accepting this flow rate, is approximately _____________. Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2 (D) US SRD, Sep 21 Para: 7.12.3. A. 500 lb/min (75 gpm) B. 2040 lb/min (300 gpm) C. 1020 lb/min (150 gpm) D. 3800 lb/min (550 gpm)

B. 2040 lb/min (300 gpm)

34. During HAAR/TAAR, both receivers and tankers should plan to arrive at the ARCP on time; however, if a deviation is required, receivers should arrive ______ (no more than 1 min) and tankers should arrive at the ARCP __________ (no more than 1 min). Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, Apr 19 Para: 3.6.b & Para: 4.6.b A. early / late B. late / early

A. early / late

35. During HAAR, prior to the tanker assuming formation lead, if the tanker is within 1 nm of the receiver(s) and loses visual contact, it will immediately: Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, Apr 19 Para: 3.41.a.2.a A. Establish a minimum of 500 ft vertical seperation (if able or conditions permit), turn 45 degrees right of track heading, after 30 sec maneuver for another RV or proceed as briefed B. Turn 45 degrees right of track heading, lower flaps to air refueling configuration (as required), slow to refueling airspeed, call: "NO VISUAL CONTACT," after 30 sec turn left and resume track heading C. Maintain electronic contact and a position 1 to 2 nm behind receivers until visual contact is re-established D. Both B and C

A. Establish a minimum of 500 ft vertical seperation (if able or conditions permit), turn 45 degrees right of track heading, after 30 sec maneuver for another RV or proceed as briefed

36. During AAR strategic tanker(s) and heavy receiver(s) should communicate as soon as possible (in no case later than_________) to update ETAs. Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2 (D) US SRD, Sep 21 Para: 8E.9.2.1.8. A. 10 minutes prior to the rendezvous control time. B. 15 minutes prior to the rendezvous control time. C. 30 minutes prior to the RV Entry Point. D. 15 minutes prior to the RV Entry Point.

B. 15 minutes prior to the rendezvous control time.

37. A receiver call to "Toboggan" is a request for the tanker to: Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, Apr 19 Para: 1.11 A. Start a slow descent maintaining air refueling airspeed. The rate of descent is between 300 and 500 ft per min and this should be used unless tanker or receiver requests otherwise. B. Start a shallow 500 fpm climb to MSA C. Allow for additional fuel off load D. Start a slow descent maintaining air refueling airspeed (500 FPM rate of descent unless otherwise requested)

A. Start a slow descent maintaining air refueling airspeed. The rate of descent is between 300 and 500 ft per min and this should be used unless tanker or receiver requests otherwise

38. An emergency separation of tanker and receiver aircraft in or near the contact position is a: Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, Apr 19 Para: 1.11 A. Breakaway B. Toboggan C. Overtake D. Bugout

A. Breakaway

39. During HAAR/TAAR, when an emergency requires the immediate separation of aircraft, the tanker is to call______________ preceded by the tanker call sign and hose assignment pertaining to the receiver required to breakaway. The receiver is to disconnect _____________________. Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, Apr 19 Para: 3.44 and 4.36 A. "BREAKAWAY" x3 / climb 500 ft above refueling track and depart. B. "MAYDAY" x3 / manoeuver clear of the astern position, and await further instructions from the tanker C. "return to astern" / and maintain position D. "BREAKAWAY" x3 / manoeuver clear of the astern position, and await further instructions from the tanker

D. "BREAKAWAY" x3 / manoeuver clear of the astern position, and await further instructions from the tanker

40. Equipment with the ability to determine receiver range or range/bearing is the minimum required for conducting an electronic rendezvous. On the MC-130J this requirement is met by: Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, Apr 19 Para: 3.5.b. & Para: 4.5.b. A. A/A TACAN B. EO/IR C. Radar D. A or C

D. A or C

41. Receivers will use the brevity term "TEXACO" to request an on-call HAAR/TAAR. Tanker aircrews, after examining the terrain on track will compute and relay _________, ____________, __________ and ____________ to receivers. Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, Apr 19 Para: 3.15.a. & Para: 4.14.a. A. altimeter setting, refueling altitude, MSA, time status B. altimeter setting, refueling altitude, MSA, ESA C. track heading, rendezvous altitude, MSA, time status D. MSA, rendezvous altitude, ESA, time status

A. altimeter setting, refueling altitude, MSA, time status

42. For airdrop involving personnel, the jumpmaster must approve en route time of less than ________. Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.16.1.8 A. 10 minutes B. 15 minutes C. 20 minutes D. 25 minutes

D. 25 minutes

43. Who is the approval authority for Jumpmaster Directed Airdrops? Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.16.1.9 A. AFSOC/CC B. AFSOC/DO C. Group/CC D. Squadron/CC

C. Group/CC

44. For HAAR/TAAR, during a RV Hotel (random rendezvous), the tanker will be established on RV altitude at least ____ NM from the receivers and maintain this altitude until visual contact is established. Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, Apr 19 Para: 3.30 & Para: 4.22 A. 1/2 B. 3 C. 1 D. 5

D. 5

45. After the 1- or 2- minute warning, any crewmember observing a condition that would jeopardize a safe drop will transmit _____on interphone. The ____________ will aknowledge the call. Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3 Para: 17.16.11.2 and 17.16.11.3. A. "no drop" / PM, CSO, and Loadmaster B. "standby" / PM, CSO, and Loadmaster C. "no drop" / aircraft commander D. "red light" / entire crew

A. "no drop" / PM, CSO, and Loadmaster

46. During reduced receiver flight performance (HAAR/TAAR), the tanker will: Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, Apr 19 Para: 3.45. & Para. 4.37. A. perform a receiver high RV. B. execute the join-up to place the receiver on the side of the tanker with the intended refueling hose. C. establish refueling airspeed and set refueling hoses prior to reaching the receivers abeam position. D. All of the above

D. All of the above

47. During Fixed Wing AAR, receivers maintain altitude separation of at least _____ feet until _____ from the tanker. Once the recever is visual with the tanker, receivers are clear to join and should initiate a progressive climb towards the tanker. Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, Apr 19 Para: 2.2.e. A. 500 / 3 NM B. 1,000 / 1 NM C. 1,000 / 3 NM D. 500 / ½ NM

B. 1,000 / 1 NM

48. For fixed wing AAR procedures conducting an RV Delta, the receiver will be established at 1000 ft below the assigned base AAR altitude when departing the ARIP. Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, Nov 13 Para: 2.16.a.(4).(a) A. True B. False

A. True

49. A "No-Drop" condition exists if the aircraft location is not within pre-coordinated parameters at the ___________________. Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.16.7 A. "1-minute" warning B. "10 second" call C. "green light" call

B. "10 second" call

50. For fixed wing AAR while conducting a RV Golf (En Route), the receiver is to arrive at the ARIP_________ the ARCT. C-130 type receivers may elect to arrive at the ARIP_______ the ARCT. Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2 Apr 19, Para: 2.19.a.(1) A. 30 seconds before, 15 seconds after B. 30 seconds after, 15 seconds after C. 3 minutes prior to, on time to D. on time to 1 minute early, on time to 1 min late

B. 30 seconds after, 15 seconds after

51. During combination drops, if the computed release point will result in any jumper landing within _____ of any boundary of the DZ, ___________. Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130V3, Para: 17.16.15.2 A. 100 yards, inform the pilot B. 150 yards, call a "no drop" C. 100 yards, inform the DO D. 150 yards, inform the jumpmaster

D. 150 yards, inform the jumpmaster

52. During combination drops, release the equipment at the equipment CARP, followed by the parachutists when the door is clear. Exception: for ramp/door bundles release the bundle at the personnel CARP. Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130V3, Para: 17.16.15.2 and 17.16.22.3 A. True B. False

A. True

53. When inputting IPRA parameters, runway alignment should be referenced to true north. A runway alignment referenced to magnetic or grid north may prevent optimum DA/FD performance. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-4, Page 11-71 A. True B. False

A. True

54. When the airplane is between the TP and DZ ESC waypoints, the CNI-MS switches to a sensitive steering mode (approach gains) and reports the crosstrack error in ______ instead of miles. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-4, Page 12-61 A. Feet B. Meters C. Yards D. Other

C. Yards

55. When building an IPRA, the IAF should be located so that the course change from the IAF to the IF is less than _____ degrees (____ degrees or less is recommended). Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-4, Page 11-71 A. 45, 30 B. 60, 30 C. 90, 45 D. 120, 60

D. 120, 60

56. Whenever START is pressed during the IPRA, guidance cues are provided back to the _____ . Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-4, Pg: 11-81, Note A. TP B. IAF C. FAF D. RPI

B. IAF

57. When dropping a door/ramp bundle in conjunction with personnel, the _____ will be the first to exit. Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para 17.16.22 A. Personnel B. Bundle C. Doesn't matter

B. Bundle

58. During RWR operation, an anomaly generates a false blanking signal if the LPCR is OFF. When the false signal is generated, the RWR ignores emitter signals that it should identify. When threat conditions dictate limiting airplane emissions, ensure the LPCR is in____mode and not transmitting. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 2A-86 A. Weather B. Windshear C. Standby

C. Standby

59. LTM is a Class IV laser that produces invisible non-ionizing IR radiation that can cause permanent blindness to people and animals. To prevent blindness to personnel or livestock, fire laser only over areas where firing Class IV laser is authorized. Do not fire the LTM at areas where people or animals are present within: Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 2D-83 A. 500 feet B. 1,000 feet C. 1,500 feet D. 2,000 feet

B. 1,000 feet

60. In the event of an overheat indication, all EO-IR circuitry will continue to operate until failure. If the failure is caused by an overheat condition, shutting down the EO-IR for____ minutes or more may correct the condition. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 2D-88 A. 1 B. 5 C. 10 D. 15

C. 10

61. Emergency Safe Altitude is an altitude that will provide positive terrain clearance during situations that require the exiting of the low-level environment. To compute ESA, add ____ feet (_____ feet in mountainous terrain) to the highest obstacle or terrain feature within __NM of route centerline or intended flight path (whichever is greater), rounded to the next 100-foot increment. Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para 17.7.2 A. 500, 1,000, 5 B. 1,000, 2,000, 5 C. 100, 1,000, 10 D. 1,000, 2,000, 10

D. 1,000, 2,000, 10

62. From the ___________call, parachutists will be mobile/standing in the cargo compartment. Unless situation dictates otherwise (e.g., combat), avoid abrupt maneuvering of the airplane to reduce the injury potential to personnel in the cargo compartment. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 2A-114 A. 10 minute warning B. 6 minute advisory C. 30 seconds to slowdown D. 1 minute warning

B. 6 minute advisory

63. If a parachutist is towed after exit from a paratroop door, avoid _______________ as this often causes parachutist to swing violently and increase the possibility of injury. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Para: AIRDROP EMERGENCY OPERATIONS, Page 2A-118 A. turning the aircraft away from the towed parachutist B. turning the aircraft in the direction of the towed parachutist C. turning the aircraft under any circumstances D. none of the above

B. turning the aircraft in the direction of the towed parachutist

64. Although 100 percent flaps selection provides an improved airflow for a towed parachutist, under certain conditions the gear down, 100 percent flaps configuration may reduce airplane performance. The AC should consider: Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 2A-118 A. Density altitude B. Airplane Weight C. Position in formation D. All of the above E. None of the above

D. All of the above

65. With multiple 28-foot extraction parachutes deployed outside the airplane, maximum thrust may be needed to stay aloft or to control the descent. The drag produced by the extraction parachutes should decrease if airspeed is allowed to bleed off. This reduction in drag could permit level flight or reduce the rate of descent should level flight not be possible. Reduce power to achieve this airspeed change and do not slow below VS carat +20. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 2A-118.1 A. True B. False

A. True

66. Minimum Safe Altitude provides terrain clearance and limited threat avoidance during situations that require the interruption of low-level operation. To compute MSA for each leg or leg segment, add ___ feet to the elevation of the highest terrain or obstacle within __ of route centerline or the planned flight path (whichever is greater), and round up to the next ___ foot increment. Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para 17.7.4 A. 500, 3, 100 B. 1,000, 5, 100 C. 500, 10, 100 D. 2,000, 3, 100

A. 500, 3, 100

67. Perform a reset each time the tanker airplane stabilized airspeed changes more than____. This must be done prior to granting receiver clearance to engage the hose. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 2A-144 A. 5 KCAS B. 10 KCAS C. 15 KCAS D. 20 KCAS

B. 10 KCAS

68. Minimum airspeed for the reel response test should be ____ for the high-speed drogue, ______ for the variable-speed drogue, and____ for the low-speed drogue (maximum for the low-speed drogue). Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 2A-146 A. 120 KIAS, 180 KIAS, 200 KIAS B. 180 KIAS, 110 KIAS, 120 KIAS C. 180 KIAS, 120 KIAS, 110 KIAS D. 200 KIAS, 120 KIAS, 120 KIAS

D. 200 KIAS, 120 KIAS, 120 KIAS

69. Do not allow the hose to rewind completely into the pod using the R/L-TEST LSK Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 2A-146 A. True B. False

A. True

70. If a Drogue/Hose is damaged, failure to immediately place the CNI-MU POD CTRL page 1/2_________ to OFF may result in AR pod/wing fire and/or damage to the refueling pod. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 2A-149 A. MASTER POWER LSK B. HYDRAULIC POWER LSK C. REFUEL CONTROL D. B and C

A. MASTER POWER LSK

71. Placing the guillotine switch to the CUT position: Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 2A-155 A. Commands master power to OFF B. Commands hydraulic power to OFF C. Commands pod supply valve to MAN/CLSD D. Fires the Cartridge Activated Devices (CADs) cutting the hose E. All of the above

E. All of the above

72. Use of an AR pod or hose when a fuel leak is observed may result in a broken hose and/or an AR pod/wing fire. Any time fuel is observed originating from an AR pod: Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 2A-157 A. Discontinue use B. Report discrepancy C. Ensure that no further refueling from the affected pod occurs D. All of the above E. None of the above

D. All of the above

73. The location of the FLCVs in the outboard main tanks allow these tanks to be overfilled in flight if AR pods are installed. To avoid overfilling tanks 1 and 4 in flight, use the preset fuel quantity function. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 2A-163 A. True B. False

A. True

74. Upon hearing "emergency climb", the CSO will state____________, monitor terrain and call "_________" when above all critical terrain. Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Table 17.2 A. MSA, uncle B. ESA, level off C. MSA or ESA as appropriate, clear of terrain D. MSA or ESA as appropriate, continue

C. MSA or ESA as appropriate, clear of terrain

75. Low-speed drogue limits are a maximum speed of ____KIAS, minimum speed of _______ KIAS, and maximum extending/retracting speed of ______ KIAS. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 1-16.1 A. 130 / 120 / 105 B. 120 / 105 / 120 C. 130 / 105 / 120 D. 120 / 105 / 185

C. 130 / 105 / 120

76. High-speed drogue limits are a maximum speed of ____KIAS, minimum speed of _______ KIAS, and maximum extending/retracting speed of ______ KIAS. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 1-16.1 A. 250 / 185 / 250 B. 250 / 185 / 210 C. 260 / 210 / 250 D. 210 / 105 / 185

A. 250 / 185 / 250

77. Variable-speed drogue limits are a maximum extending/engaging/operating speed of ____KIAS, minimum speed of _______ KIAS, and maximum retracting speed of ______ KIAS. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 1-16.1 A. 210 / 120 / 200 B. 250 / 105 / 210 C. 130 / 105 / 120 D. 210 / 105 / 200

D. 210 / 105 / 200

78. The red pod status light is energized whenever the hydraulic pressure switch detects a pressure of ____ PSI or less, or ____________. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 8-7 A. 1,000 / the pod hose is over-extended B. 2,000 / pressure is over 9000 PSI. C. 1,700 / the pod hose is over-extended D. 1,700 / the pod is turned off

C. 1,700 / the pod hose is over-extended

79. Set radar altimeter to no lower than __% below the planned en route altitude. Ref: AFI 11-2MC-130JV3, Para 17.9.1 A. 10 B. 20 C. 15 D. 30

B. 20

80. In BIU backup mode operations, assume defensive systems are non-functional and review the mission profile. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 18-18 A. True B. False

A. True

81. Selecting skin paint mode on either radar channel when a RWR overlay is active will result in a ___________ message, and the ______________. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 18B-46 A. MODE CONFLICT REMOVAL / RWR overlay is removed B. MODE LOCKOUT / selection is unavailable on that channel until RWR overlay is removed C. UNABLE MODE / skin paint data is displayed in upper sector of display D. none of the above

B. MODE LOCKOUT / selection is unavailable on that channel until RWR overlay is removed

82. The AN/ALE-47 countermeasures dispenser system requires a ______ warm-up. During warm-up, no dispensing is possible. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 18C-2 and 18C-8 A. 10 second B. 5 second C. 15 second D. 30 second

B. 5 second

83. The AN/ALE-47 jettison function will override all system modes, including off, except when: Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 18C-2 and 18C-8 A. Safety pins are installed / Arming panel switches are SAFE B. Airplane is on the ground C. false, system must be in standby D. A or B

D. A or B

84. ____ mode ensures CMDS dispensing in the event of a major failure which disables the programmer. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 18C-2 and 18C-9 A. STBY B. AUTO C. BYP D. ON

C. BYP

85. The defensive systems cannot be zeroized when the airplane is on battery power only. To zeroize the defensive systems equipment, AC power must be available. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 18C-4 and 18C-9 A. True B. False

A. True

86. The RWR components are ____________, one C/D band antenna, four DF receivers, one C/D band receiver/power supply, one analysis processor, one superheterodyne receiver, and one superheterodyne receiver controller: Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 18C-21 and 18C-23 A. Two E/J band antennas B. Three E/J band antennas C. Four E/J band antennas D. Five E/J band antennas

C. Four E/J band antennas

87. When RWR and TCAS overlays are displayed simultaneously on a single NAV-RADAR display, the system gives ___ information higher priority. This prioritization leads to delays of over ____ seconds in the update of TCAS symbol color and shape. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 18C-22 A. RWR, 8 B. TCAS, 4 C. RWR, 4 D. TCAS, 8

A. RWR, 8

88. The MASTER switch (on non-DSU aircraft) is a two position (OPR, STBY) lever-lock switch. In the STBY position, all components of the defensive system are inhibited from radiating or ejecting. This allows all defensive systems to be safetied by a single switch. Jettison switch is still functional. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 18C-21 A. True B. False

A. True

89. _____ is the approval authority for IMC SCA operations. Ref: AFMAN 11-202V3, AFSOC Sup, Para: 15.3.7.8 A. Sq/CC B. COMAFSOF or equivalent C. Gp/CC D. HQ MAJCOM/A3V E. B or C

D. HQ MAJCOM/A3V

90. (AR Pods) Green Light. The green light operates in parallel with the GRN pod status indicator on the CNI-MU POD CTRL pages. The green light illuminates when fuel flow reaches ____ GPM. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 8-7 A. 30 B. 50 C. 70 D. 90

B. 50

91. To avoid possible loss or damage to receiver airplanes, do not select _____ while the receiver airplane is in contact with or close to a partially trailed hose. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 2A-144 A. Rewind B. Trail C. Reset D. Breakaway

C. Reset

92. Minimum HAAR/TAAR altitude is ____ feet AGL without a waiver. Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para 17.18.1 A. 1,000 B. 700 C. 300 D. 500

D. 500

93. The minimum recommend refueling airspeed for gross weights up to 148,000 pounds is: Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1, Page 7-4 A. 105 knots B. 110 Knots C. 107 Knots D. MOS knots

A. 105 knots

94. The minimum recommend air refueling speed [HAAR] is based on: Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1, Page 7-4 A. Drogue Stability B. Reel response characteristics C. Receiver's stability D. All of the above

D. All of the above

95. The minimum runway length for shortfield operation landings is ________. Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para 6.19.4.4 A. ground roll plus 500 feet B. landing distance plus 500 feet C. ground Roll D. ground roll plus the RVR/visibility correction factor

A. ground roll plus 500 feet

96. Use of non-hard surfaced runways or taxiways requires _____ approval (or deployed equivalent). Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para 6.19.4.1 A. WG/CC B. GP/CC C. SQ/CC D. SQ/DO E. Either C or D

D. SQ/DO

97. During NVG operations, on blacked out runways, a go-around point will be identified to all crew members prior to execution. Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-13-JV3, Para 6.19.2 A. True B. False

A. True

98. When conducting Drop Zone (DZ)/LZ operations, only the CSO will verify CNI-MU CARP/LZ information with a valid DZ/LZ survey. Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-13-JV3, Para 5.8.1.3 A. True B. False

B. False

99. To conduct NVG/IMC low-level operations as lead or single-ship, the following equipment must be operational: Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-13-JV3, Table 17.1 A. One radar altimeter, APN-241 radar (Map or Mono-pulse Ground Mode (MGM) mode), and one INS. B. One radar altimeter and one INS. C. One radar altimeter and one sextant. D. One radar altimeter and APN-241 radar (Map or Mono-pulse Ground Mode (MGM) mode).

A. One radar altimeter, APN-241 radar (Map or Mono-pulse Ground Mode (MGM) mode), and one INS.

100. To conduct day low-level operations as lead or single-ship, the following equipment must be operational: Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-13-JV3, Table 17.1 A. One radar altimeter, APN-241 radar (Map or Mono-pulse Ground Mode (MGM) mode), and one INS. B. One radar altimeter and one INS. C. One radar altimeter and one sextant. D. One radar altimeter and APN-241 radar (Map or Mono-pulse Ground Mode (MGM) mode).

B. One radar altimeter and one INS.

101. To conduct a Threat Penetration over land, the following equipment must be operational: Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-13-JV3, Table 17.1 A. One radar altimeter, APN-241 radar (Map or Mono-pulse Ground Mode (MGM) mode), and one INU. B. One radar altimeter and one INU. C. One radar altimeter and EO/IR. D. One radar altimeter and APN-241 radar (Map or Mono-pulse Ground Mode (MGM) mode).

C. One radar altimeter and EO/IR.

102. To conduct a reduced corridor IMC Airdrop, the following equipment must be operational: Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-13-JV3, Table 17.1 A. One radar altimeter, APN-241 radar (Map or Mono-pulse Ground Mode (MGM) mode), and one INU. B. One radar altimeter and APN-241 radar (Map or Mono-pulse Ground Mode (MGM) mode). C. One radar altimeter and an EGI FOM 4 or better. D. A and C

D. A and C

103. To conduct an NVG SCA at an AMP-4 airfield, the following equipment must be operational: Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-13-JV3, Table 17.1 A. One radar altimeter, APN-241 radar (Map or Mono-pulse Ground Mode (MGM) mode), and one INS. B. One radar altimeter and one INS with either an EO/IR or APN 241 radar (Map or Mono-pulse Ground Mode (MGM) mode). C. One radar altimeter and EO/IR. D. One radar altimeter and APN-241 radar (Map or Mono-pulse Ground Mode (MGM) mode) and DIGMAP.

B. One radar altimeter and one INS with either an EO/IR or APN 241 radar (Map or Mono-pulse Ground Mode (MGM) mode).

104. To conduct an IMC SCA, the minimum equipment that must be operational is one radar altimeter and either a minimum of FOM 2 on the EGI or one INS and APN 241 radar (Map or Mono-pulse Ground Mode (MGM) mode). Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-13-JV3, Table 17.1 A. True B. False

A. True

105. Visual airdrops require two operative INSs. Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-13-JV3, Table 17.1 A. True B. False

B. False

106. During NVG low-level, higher altitudes should be flown if terrain-masked. However, the minimum altitude is ____ feet AGL and minimum in-flight visibility is ____ statute miles. Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-13-JV3, Para 17.7.8.2 A. 100, 3 B. 100, 5 C. 200, 1.5 D. 300, 3

D. 300, 3

107. Crews may fly low-level in IMC at MSA altitudes. During training, conduct planned IMC routes under instrument flight rules (IFR) unless FLIP or host nation rules define other procedures. Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-13-JV3, Para 17.7.8.4 A. True B. False

A. True

108. IMC SCA weather minimums will be no lower than ________________. Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-13-JV3, Para 17.12.3.1 A. 500 feet and 1 mile. B. 300 feet and 1 mile. C. 200 feet and 1/2 mile. D. zero, zero

C. 200 feet and 1/2 mile.

109. Minimum Descent Altitude. To compute MDA for VMC operations, add 100 feet to the Touchdown Zone Elevation (TDZE). For approved IMC SCA operations, add 200 feet to the TDZE. Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-13-JV3, Para 17.12.4 A. True B. False

A. True

110. When constructing an SCA, significant obstacles are those within ________ of the desired glideslope. Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-13-JV3, Para 17.13.4.2 A. 100 feet B. 200 feet C. 250 feet D. 300 feet

D. 300 feet

111. Minimum formation takeoff interval is _____ seconds. Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-13-JV3, Para 17.17.3 A. 10 B. 15 C. 20 D. 30

B. 15

112. Minimum spacing for reduced flap setting drops, i.e., CDS and CRS, is ______ feet between aircraft. Minimum spacing for visual formation airdrop is ______ feet. MCADS or CCA-LVADS minimum spacing is ______feet. Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-13-JV3, Para 17.17.6.1 A. 6,000 / 1,500 / 500 B. 2,000 / 6,000 / 500 C. 6,000 / 2,000 / 500 D. 2,000 / 6,000 / 1,000

C. 6,000 / 2,000 / 500

113. Any occupant, not trained IAW AFI 11-403, limits the time at cabin altitudes between 10,000 ft and 13,000 ft without supplemental oxygen to ______. Ref: AFMAN 11-202V3, Para 3.21.2.2 A. 30 minutes B. 1 hour C. 3 hours D. 20

C. 3 hours

114. Normally, aircrew will use supplemental oxygen anytime the cabin altitude exceeds 10,000 ft MSL. For unpressurized operations, all persons will use supplemental oxygen while above______feet MSL. Ref: AFMAN 11-202V3, Para 3.21.1.1 A. 10,000 B. 14,000 C. 18,000 D. 25,000

B. 14,000

115. Fuel will not be jettisoned except in combat, emergency conditions, or rescue missions requiring gross weight reduction. Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-13-JV3, Para 5.25.3 A. True B. False

A. True

116. For basic aircrew, the maximum flight duty period (FDP) is ___hours. Tactical mission events below 3,000 feet AGL will be accomplished in the first ____ hours of the FDP. Tactical mission events at or above 3,000 feet AGL and one tactical approach to a full-stop landing may be accomplished up to ___ hours for combat, contingencies, and exercises. Ref: AFMAN 11-202, Vol 3,AFSOCSUP Table 3.1 and Para 3.2.1.5.1 A. 16, 10, 12 B. 16, 12, 14 C. 20, 12, 14 D. 20, 16, 18

B. 16, 12, 14

117. To compute MSA for each HAAR/TAAR refueling track, add at least _____ of clearance above all obstacles within _____ of course to be flown and round up to the next 100-foot increment. Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, 17.7.5 A. 1000 feet, 3 NM B. 500 feet, 5 NM C. 1000 feet, 5 NM D. 300 feet, 4 NM

C. 1000 feet, 5 NM

118. During TAAR within 3 nm of receiver prior to assuming formation lead, if visual contact is not established but electronic contact is maintained, the tanker is to maintain current altitude and continue join-up. At 1 nm electronic contact, if visual contact is not established, the tanker will: Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, Apr 19 Para: 4.33.a.1.b. A. Immediately call "CONTACT LOST"; establish a minimum 500 ft vertical separation; turn 45 degrees right of track heading; after 30 sec, maneuver for another rendezvous or proceed as briefed B. Slow to AAR airspeed; call "NO VISUAL CONTACT"; maintain electronic contact 1-2 NM in trail of receiver(s) until positive visual contact is reestablished or proceed as briefed. C. Immediately call "LOST VISUAL"; establish a minimum 500 ft vertical separation; turn all lights to bright; slow to refueling airspeed; maintain 1 nm in trail of receiver D. None of the above

B. Slow to AAR airspeed; call "NO VISUAL CONTACT"; maintain electronic contact 1-2 NM in trail of receiver(s) until positive visual contact is reestablished or proceed as briefed.

119. During pre-mission planning for visual airdrop crews will select visual reference points from the initial point through escape. On the airdrop run-in, a minimum of _____ visual reference points will be selected that aid in acquisition of the drop zone and help in offset alignment Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, 17.16.10.1.1 A. 3 B. 4 C. 2 D. 5

A. 3

120. A QUICK CURSOR calculated bias value is immediately applied to the active navigation solution creating a temporary position bias. This bias remains active until___________ Ref: 1C-130(M)J-1-4, p9-74 A. QUICK is deactivated B. New bias is applied C. Aircraft transitions DZ ESC D. Either A or B

D. Either A or B

121. The sensed wind based on ship solution is used in the CARP computation in place of the drop altitude wind under the following conditions: Ref: 1C-130(M)J-1-4, Pg: 12-58 A. The ballistic wind has not been entered B. The aircraft has passed the slowdown point C. The aircraft is within 200 feet of drop altitude D. All of the above E. None of the above

D. All of the above

122. If the aircraft has passed the _____ inside CARP VERT tolerances and has since maneuvered outside of CARP VERT tolerances, the CNI-SP is dynamically calculating an accurate CARP until 10 seconds to green light. Ref: 1C-130(M)J-1-4, p12-61 A. IP B. TP C. SD D. 30 sec to CARP

C. SD

123. When the aircraft cross track error is greater than _______, the CARP XTK annunciation is displayed. Ref: 1C-130(M)J-1-4, Pg: 12-60 A. 150 yards B. 150 meters C. 150 feet D. None of the above

B. 150 meters

124. Tactical plots cannot be defined directly from mark points. Ref: 1C-130(M)J-1-4, Pg: 11-130, Note A. True B. False

A. True

125. The airplane must remain stationary during LAIRCM warmup/cool down cycle, which will normally occur in about ______, but may take up to ______. Ref: 1C-130(M)J-1 18C-58.6 A. 2 minutes, 20 minutes B. 5 minutes, 17 minutes C. 1 minute, 5 minutes D. 5 seconds, 17 seconds

B. 5 minutes, 17 minutes

126. When turning LAIRCM off to reboot the system, the power is to remain off for a minimum of ______ before turning the power back on. Ref: 1C-130(M)J-1 18C-41 A. 10 seconds B. 15 seconds C. 30 seconds D. 1 minute

A. 10 seconds

127. If the variable-speed drogue does not fully inflate after it is fully extended, cycle drogue. If drogue fails to fully inflate, and increase or decrease of ____ is authorized, VSD limitations still apply. _____ attempts/cycles at each airspeed are authorized. If drogue fails to fully inflate, discontinue use and retract drogue. Ref: 1C-130(M)J-1, pg 1-8 note A. 10 KIAS, 4 B. 15 KIAS, 4 C. 15 KIAS, 2 D. 20 KIAS, 2

C. 15 KIAS, 2

128. For daytime ground operations, the maximum outside air temperature for continuous LAIRCM operations is ______ or less. Above this temperature, LAIRCM Limitations in Section 1 should be followed. Ref: 1C-130(M)J-1, Pg: 18C-41 A. +95°F (+35°C) B. +96°F (+36°C) C. +104°F (+40°C) D. +114°F (+46°C)

A. +95°F (+35°C)

129. When monitoring the hydraulic pressure on HDD SYSTEM STATUS page during the Aerial Refueling Tanker Contact checklist, when would the hydraulic system pressure (Utility/Boost) instrument indication digital readout turn red? Ref: 1C-130(M)J-1, Pg: 1-27 A. 0 to 2,540 PSI B. 0 to 2,900 PSI C. When the PSI drops below 3,000 PSI D. When the system cannot maintain pressure

A. 0 to 2,540 PSI

130. The _______________________ or designated authority with OPCON of the drop aircraft must approve drop operations to non-US personnel. Ref: DAFMAN 13-217, Para: 3.13.4.3 A. MAJCOM/CC B. MAJCOM/A3 C. Air Component Commander D. Both A and C E. Both B and C

D. Both A and C

131. The CSO will verify the actual number and type of parachutes, load weights, sequence of delivery, and position of loads in aircraft. Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.16.6.5 A. True B. False

A. True

132. Stopping a Drop in Progress. Any crew member recognizing an unsafe condition during an airdrop will state "red light." Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.16.11.4 A. True B. False

A. True

133. Departure from DZ (Escape). The CSO will call "red light" ________ . Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.16.12 A. At the expiration of the "green light" B. Upon hearing "load clear" C. Either A or B D. Both A and B

C. Either A or B

134. Airdrops conducted above _______ feet AGL are considered high-altitude drops. Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.16.17 A. 2,000 B. 3,000 C. 10,000 D. 13,000

B. 3,000

135. CSOs should use _____ exit times for Container Ramp Load (CRL) bundles. Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.16.23.1 A. Personnel B. CDS C. LCLA D. HE

C. LCLA

136. For MFF training operations a minimum DZ size of 55 yards/50 meters by 110 yards/100 meters (rectangular) or 55 yards/50 meters radius (circular) is recommended. Ref: DAFMAN 13-217, Para: 3.3.3 A. True B. False

A. True

137. Unmarked DZs are normally used for: Ref: DAFMAN 13-217, Para: 3.3.4 A. Contingency operations B. Austere polar environments C. No DZ party present D. Both A and B E. All of the above

D. Both A and B

138. IMC Airdrops. USAF or USSF unilateral training and exercise airdrops of actual personnel or equipment require a minimum of a _____ feet AGL ceiling and _____ mile visibility at the DZ. Ref: DAFMAN 13-217, Para: 3.4 A. 300, one-half B. 300, one-third C. 500, one-half D. 600, one-half E. 600, one-third

A. 300, one-half

139. Plan minimum IMC drop altitudes at _____ or as specified by parachute ballistics, whichever is higher. Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.16.9.1 A. NVG altitude B. En route altitude C. MSA D. ESA

C. MSA

140. There are altitude wind restrictions for fixed wing airdrops. Ref. DAFMAN 13-217, Para: 3.6.3 A. True B. False

B. False

141. Transmission on HF during HAAR operations is authorized any time a receiver is in contact or attempting to contact the drogue. Ref. T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2C-118, Warning A. True B. False

B. False

142. The automatic SPR drain cycle will take approximately ________. Ref. T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 8-17 Note A. 1 minute B. 5 minutes C. 8 minutes D. 10 minutes

B. 5 minutes

143. During an SPR drain cycle, the SPR drain pump activates to pump residual fuel into ____ tank. Ref. T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 8-13 A. No. 1 B. No. 2 C. No. 3 D. No. 4

C. No. 3

144. Do not conduct an SPR drain cycle if a cross ship valve is failed open. Ref. T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2A-177, Warning A. True B. False

A. True

145. During AAR, when simultaneously refueling aircraft fuel tanks, the tanks will fill at different rates due to variations in fuel system plumbing and aircraft attitude. Generally, tank refuel flow rates vary from fastest to slowest as follows: Ref. T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2A-177, Note A. Outboards, Externals (when installed), Auxiliary, Inboards B. Inboards, Auxiliary, Outboards, Externals (when installed) C. Inboards, Outboards, Auxiliary, Externals (when installed) D. Outboards, Inboards, Externals (when installed), Auxiliary

C. Inboards, Outboards, Auxiliary, Externals (when installed)

MSN MQF Flashcards

(145 cards)