QUAL MQF Flashcards by Groot 0136

During the EXTERIOR INSPECTION checklist, enter/exit the nose wheel area from the ____________ side. Do not enter/exit from the _________ side of the nose wheel due to the possible hazard of venting liquid oxygen.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2A-9 Chap: 2A Para: Warning

A. front, back
B. left, right
C. right, left
D. back, front

B. left, right

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Maximum 50% and 100% flaps extended speeds are:
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 1-7 Chap: 1

A. 168 KIAS, 180 KIAS
B. 183 KIAS, 145 KIAS
C. 250 KIAS, 150 KIAS
D. 165 KIAS, 145 KIAS

B. 183 KIAS, 145 KIAS

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Maximum Landing Gear Extended flaps speed is:
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 1-7 Chap: 1

A. 165 KIAS
B. 168 KIAS
C. 183 KIAS
D. 190 KIAS

B. 168 KIAS

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Failure of the utility hydraulic system will result in loss of the following except:
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 3-24 Chap: 3

A. ramp and door operation
B. normal landing gear extension
C. normal flap retraction
D. normal brake supply

A. ramp and door operation

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If you have a main landing gear tire failure:
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 3-35 Chap: 3

A. keep the nose gear off the runway as long as possible
B. do not use maximun reverse thrust
C. land on the side of the runway with the bad tire
D. land on the side of the runway with the good tires

D. land on the side of the runway with the good tires

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When fuel must be dumped in a controlled environment:
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 3-38/39 Chap: 3

A. Do not dump fuel less than 5000 ft above the terrain.
B. Ensure the crossfeed valves are closed to prevent emptying the main tanks completely.
C. Physically verify the switch toggle has returned to the closed position when complete.
D. All the answers are correct.

D. All the answers are correct.

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Bailout from the crew entrance door is not recommended at airspeeds above _____ KIAS or with the landing gear extended.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 3-96 Chap: 3 Para: Warning

A. 170
B. 250
C. 150
D. 125

C. 150

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During ditching, when should personnel inflate life vests?
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 3-87 Chap: 3 Para: Warning

A. After aircraft comes to a complete stop
B. After exiting and clear of the escape hatch
C. When treading water becomes too difficult
D. Ditching imminent

B. After exiting and clear of the escape hatch

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Life raft release handles must be pulled ____ for complete ejection and inflation of life rafts.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 3-88 Chap: 3 Para: Warning

A. Though their full travel
B. At least 3 inches
C. One at a time
D. In numerical sequence

A. Though their full travel

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In the event of either the CREW DOOR OPEN (W) or RAMP OPEN PRESSURIZED ACAWS (W) message is displayed, notify crew and passengers to:
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 3-84 Chap: 3

A. Crew 100% Oxygen
B. breathe deeply and slowly
C. fasten seat belts
D. place their heads between their knees

C. fasten seat belts

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If inflight evacuation of the aircraft is required, the airplane is under control and time permits, the order of preference for bailout exits is:
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 3-95 Chap: 3

A. Crew entrance door, paratroop doors, and cargo door/ramp
B. Cargo door/ramp, paratroop doors, and crew entrance door
C. Paratroop doors, cargo door/ramp, and crew entrance door
D. Paratroop doors, crew entrance door, cargo door/ramp

B. Cargo door/ramp, paratroop doors, and crew entrance door

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An asterisk (*) at the end of an ACAWS message indicates that _________________.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 3-136 Chap: 3

A. you should declare an emergency quickly
B. other associated components may have been affected by the failure
C. the system was not able to conclude exactly what the problem is
D. this problem is not worth investigating any further

B. other associated components may have been affected by the failure

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The airplane should not be operated in conditions of ________ turbulence.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 1-7 Chap: 1

A. Any
B. Moderate
C. Severe
D. Excessive

C. Severe

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Fuel for the APU is routed directly from the ________ fuel tank.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 8-1 Chap: 8

A. No. 1
B. No. 2
C. No. 4
D. No. 3

B. No. 2

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When the APU fire handle is pulled, the following occurs:
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 9-14 Chap: 9

A. All answers are correct.
B. Control power to the APU start circuit interrupted.
C. APU Fuel supply shut-off valve is closed.
D. Fire extinguishing system directional flow valve is positioned.

A. All answers are correct.

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UTILITY HYDRAULIC SYSTEM: The engine-driven pumps are supplied hydraulic fluid by an ____________ from a reservoir mounted on the left side of the cargo compartment.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 11-1 Chap: 11

A. electric utility booster augmentation pump
B. electric suction boost pump
C. electrical conduit flow control valve
D. electric valve

B. electric suction boost pump

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The engine driven hydraulic pumps are provided with internal control mechanisms to vary output volume with system demand, and to control pressure to maintain approximately ______ PSI.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 11-1 Chap: 11

A. 3000
B. 2900
C. 3100
D. 3200

A. 3000

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Identify the system powered by the Utility hydraulic system:
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 11-1 Chap: 11

A. Nose landing gear emergency extension
B. Emergency brakes
C. Flaps
D. Ramp and door

C. Flaps

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The Booster Hydraulic System furnishes hydraulic power to:
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 11-1 Chap: 11

A. Emergency brakes
B. The remaining portion of the flight control system only
C. Landing gear system
D. Flap system

B. The remaining portion of the flight control system only

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Identify the system powered by the AUX hydraulic system:
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 11-1 Chap: 11

A. Booster hydraulic system services
B. Emergency lowering of the nose gear
C. Nosewheel steering
D. In-flight retraction of the landing gear

B. Emergency lowering of the nose gear

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The MC-130J has ____ portable oxygen bottles.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 16-3 Chap: 16

A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 5

A. 4

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The BIUs act as backup bus controllers in the event both mission computers become disabled. BIU back-up mode provides the functions necessary to __________ and to make a ______________, even on __________ power.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 18-18 Chap: 18

A. fly the airplane; safe landing; battery only
B. ditch the airplane; safe parachute landing; no electrical
C. use both mission computers; reboot inflight; APU
D. abandon the aircraft; safe exit from the aircraft; battery only

A. fly the airplane; safe landing; battery only

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PFD Data Presentation: Coloring is used to further segregate differing sources of information. Cyan denotes __________, Amber denotes ___________.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 18D-43 Chap: 18D

A. Pilots input reference set; Flight director
B. Approaching a limitation; Limitation exceeded
C. TCAS traffic advisories; pilots input reference set
D. Critical warnings and out of range limitations; TCAS traffic advisories

A. Pilots input reference set; Flight director

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CAUTION: With any flap extension, the maximum maneuver load factor is _______G in symmetrical and _________G in unsymmetrical maneuvers.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 1-12 Chap: 1 Para: Caution

A. 2.5 / 2.0
B. 2.5 / 1.5
C. 2.0 / 1.5
D. 2.0 / 2.0

C. 2.0 / 1.5

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25. CNI advisories for the number 1 radios _______ displayed if MC 1 has failed, and CNI advisories for the number 2 radios ________ displayed if MC 2 has failed. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 18-4 Chap: 18 A. will be; will not be B. will not be; will be C. will be; will be D. will not be; will not be

D. will not be; will not be

26. The cursor functions in one of four modes (_______, ________, __________, and __________). Each mode is designed for a particular operation, by tying the cursor position to a different reference position. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 18B-47 Chap: 18B A. cursor; map; digi-map; common B. manual; automatic; computer; reset C. ON; OFF; STBY; RESET D. manual; ground; computer; quick

D. manual; ground; computer; quick

27. The computer cursor switch is a snap-action, double-detent trigger switch. Pulling the switch to its first detent and releasing causes the cursor mode to change to__________. Pulling the switch to the second detent and releasing changes the cursor mode to ____________. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 18B-51 Chap: 18B A. quick cursor; computer cursor B. manual cursor; ground cursor C. computer cursor; quick cursor D. ground cursor; manual cursor

C. computer cursor; quick cursor

28. DIGITAL MAP STABILIZATION. Is used to select the digital map stabilization and slew mode. Pressing the digital map stabilization select switch to the left selects ________ stabilization and cursor slewing, pressing down selects _________ stabilization and cursor slewing, and pressing right selects ________ stabilization and map slewing. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 18B-50 Chap: 18B A. ground; cursor; airplane B. cursor; ground; airplane C. airplane; cursor; ground D. ground; airplane; cursor

C. airplane; cursor; ground

29. The vertical maneuvering resolution advisories issued by TCAS can only be determined and generated against intruder airplanes that report ________ data in their transponder replies to TCAS interrogations. For non-altitude reporting (NAR) airplanes, TCAS generates __________ only. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 18B-33 Chap: 18B A. altitude; traffic advisories B. airspeed; resolution advisories C. mode S; resolution advisories D. mode S; altitude data

A. altitude; traffic advisories

30. TCAS: If intruder is reporting altitude, ________ is displayed in _______ above or below the traffic symbol. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 18B-33 Chap: 18B A. MSL altitude; thousands of feet B. Relative altitude; meters C. Relative altitude; hundreds of feet D. MSL altitude; hundreds of feet

C. Relative altitude; hundreds of feet

31. The engine status display ______________ whenever an ACAWS ____________ occurs. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 18D-2 Chap: 18 A. automatically appears on HDD 2; warning or caution B. pops up on HDD 3; message C. automatically appears on HDD 2; alert D. is unavailable; warning

A. automatically appears on HDD 2; warning or caution

32. If a lower priority alert is being annunciated when a higher alert is triggered, the lower alert__________. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 18-16 Chap: 18 A. alternates with the new alert B. is deleted from the computer's memory C. is always available if the pilot selects the ACAWS Overflow page D. is suspended, and the higher alert is broadcast until canceled, then the lower alert continues

D. is suspended, and the higher alert is broadcast until canceled, then the lower alert continues

33. What is the APU starter duty cycle? Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 1-14 Chap: 1 A. one minute on and one minute off B. 4 minutes on and 4 minutes off C. 1 minute on and 4 minutes off D. 2 minutes on and 2 minutes off

C. 1 minute on and 4 minutes off

34. Doppler beam sharpening functions only on expanded and offset maps when the map falls within the operational limits of the mode. The basic limitations are that the map mode must be greater than _______ from the velocity vector and that the range to the far edge of the map must be less than ____________ from the airplane. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 18B-39 Chap: 18B A. 20 degrees; approximately 30 NM B. 30 degrees; approximately 40 NM C. 40 degrees; approximately 30 NM D. 10 degrees; approximately 40 NM

D. 10 degrees; approximately 40 NM

35. Wind shear hazard is processed and displayed for up to ______ of range coverage. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 18B-41, Chap: 18B A. 3 NM B. 5 NM C. 10 NM D. 20 NM

B. 5 NM

36. When flying directly into heavy or excessive rain (magenta or red regions on the weather radar display), the accuracy of the weather mode________. The crew should select__________. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 18B-40 Chap: 18B Para: Note A. is sufficient; any range scale desired B. decreases as range scale increases; the shortest range scale possible for the given mission C. is better at longer range scales; the longest range scale available D. is unreliable; an alternate radar mode

B. decreases as range scale increases; the shortest range scale possible for the given mission

37. Turbulence is depicted as __________ in the weather radar mode. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 18B-40 Chap: 18B A. red B. white C. yellow D. cyan

B. white

38. LPCR: The weather mode includes an auto-tilt feature to reduce pilot workload. During auto-tilt, the radar automatically calculates an antenna tilt position that allows the radar beam to remain ________ at a distance equal to the selected range scale. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 18B-40 Chap: 18B A. just below the terrain B. at the same altitude as the aircraft C. just above the terrain D. at 1000' below the aircraft's altitude

C. just above the terrain

39. A DRY runway condition (ICAO Good) corresponds to a RCR of _________. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1 Pg: 3-8 Chap: 3 A. 25 B. 23 C. 12 D. 5

B. 23

40. A WET runway condition (ICAO Medium) corresponds to a RCR of __________. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1 Pg: 3-8 Chap: 3 A. 15 B. 10 C. 12 D. 23

C. 12

41. The APU must be on speed and warmed up a minimum of ______ prior to selecting OPEN on the APU bleed air valve. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 1-14 Chap: 1 A. 2 minutes B. 30 seconds C. 4 minutes D. 1 minute

D. 1 minute

42. An ICY runway condition (ICAO Poor) corresponds to a RCR of _________. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1 Pg: 3-8 Chap: 3 A. 5 B. 12 C. 23 D. 2

A. 5

43. The minimum speed recommended for normal operation with the flaps retracted is: Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1 Pg: 4-1 Chap: 4 A. VMCG B. Minimum Flap Retraction Speed C. Flaps Up Safety Speed D. Climb speed

C. Flaps Up Safety Speed

44. ATC cruise ceiling is the altitude at which the maximum rate of climb at maximum continuous power and best climb speed is _________ fpm. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1 Pg: 4-2 Chap: 4 A. 100 B. 200 C. 300 D. 500

D. 500

45. Cruise ceiling is the altitude at which the maximum rate of climb capability at maximum continuous power and best climb speed is _________ fpm. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1 Pg: 4-1 Chap: 4 A. 200 B. 100 C. 300 D. 500

C. 300

46. Service ceiling is the altitude at which the maximum rate of climb at maximum continuous power and best climb speed is _________ fpm. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1 Pg: 4-2 Chap: 4 A. 100 B. 200 C. 300 D. 500

A. 100

47. Takeoff Crosswind/Tailwind Restrictions: If the aircraft is not pointed into the wind +/- 45 degrees and the crosswind component is greater than 15 knots but less than 35 knots: Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 1-14 Chap: 1 A. limit horsepower to 2000 until airplane speed is above 35 knots B. limit horsepower to 1500 until airplane speed is above 15 knots C. limit horsepower to 2500 until airplane speed is above 35 knots D. takeoff is not permitted

C. limit horsepower to 2500 until airplane speed is above 35 knots

48. AUTONAV causes an automatic __________ alignment and requires only a one-button push to align the EGIs, select all available sensors, and choose the best navigation source by setting the AUTO/MAN LSK to AUTO. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-4 Pg: 6-5 Chap: 6 A. gyrocompass B. stored heading C. inflight alignment D. best-available true heading

A. gyrocompass

49. Manual fuel flow values entered on waypoint data page 2/2 ________________. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-4 Pg: 7-87 Chap: 7 Para: Note A. effect that leg only. B. cascade down through the flight plan to the next manualy entered fuel flow C. cannot be changed and only reflect CRUISE FF. D. none of the above.

B. cascade down through the flight plan to the next manualy entered fuel flow

50. Performance data (time and fuel estimates) may disappear from the PERF INIT and LEGS pages if a delay of more than approximately _________ occurs between flight plan activation and takeoff. Perfomrnace data will return after takeoff or if airfield elevation is entered temporarily as cruise altitude. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-4 Pg: 7-33 Chap: 7 Para: Note A. 45 minutes B. 3 hours C. 2 hours D. 15 minutes

A. 45 minutes

51. Any crewmember seeing a deviation of 200 feet altitude or 10 knots in airspeed, or a potential terrain or obstruction problem, will immediately notify the pilot flying. Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para 6.9.1.2 A. True B. False

A. True

52. Carry a ____________ on all flights. Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para 5.2.7 A. headset B. helmet and an oxygen mask C. operable flashlight and watch D. all of the above

D. all of the above

53. Review AFTO Form 781 before _________ or ___________. Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para 5.16 A. approaching the aircraft / entering the aircraft B. unloading cargo / loading cargo C. applying power to the aircraft / operating aircraft systems D. takeoff / landing, whichever comes first

C. applying power to the aircraft / operating aircraft systems

54. Except for takeoff, approach and landing, on overwater flights LPUs will be sized and available at the crewmember's station and worn whenever below 2,000 feet over water. Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para 5.21.3 A. True B. False

A. True

55. Oxygen on board for takeoff will be a minimum of _____ liters. On missions with passengers, carry passenger emergency oxygen systems if flight above _____ is anticipated. Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para 5.21.1 A. 5 / 18,000 feet B. 10 / 18,000 feet C. 10 / FL 250 D. 5 / FL 250

D. 5 / FL 250

56. A flight may proceed on 3 engines to its destination if _________________. Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para 5.25.2 A. 2-engine capability exists B. favorable operating conditions prevail both en route and at the point of intended landing C. a suitable alternate airfield is available at all times D. all of the above

D. all of the above

57. Initiate simulated engine-out go-around at not lower than _________. Initiate simulated engine-out missed approach no lower than the minimum altitude for the approach. Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para 9.5.5 A. 100 feet AGL B. 200 feet AGL C. 300 feet AGL D. circling minimums

B. 200 feet AGL

58. No flap landings comply with following: Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para 9.5.3 A. maximum gross weight of 120,000 pounds B. crosswind component within the recommended zone C. day/night VMC only D. both A and B

D. both A and B

59. The minimum runway length for 50% touch and go landings is ______ Feet. Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Table 6.8 A. 6,000 B. 5,000 C. 7,000 D. 4,200

B. 5,000

60. Aircrew members shall not consume alcoholic beverages within ______ hours of takeoff. Ref: AFMAN 11-202V3, Para 2.4.2.2 A. 12 B. 10 C. 8 D. 16

A. 12

61. An alternate is required when the worst weather at destination, to include TEMPO conditions, at the ETA +/-1 hour is less than a ceiling of ____feet and a visibility of ____ . Ref: AFMAN 11-202, Vol 3 para 4.16.2.1. A. 3000 / 3 SM B. 2000 / 3 SM C. 3000 / 3 NM D. 1500 / 3 NM

B. 2000 / 3 SM

62. Flight Duty Period ends at final engine shutdown after the final flight of the completed mission. Ref: AFMAN 11-202V3, Para 3.2.1 A. True B. False

A. True

63. Crew rest is compulsory for aircrew members prior to performing any duties involving aircraft operations and is a minimum of 12 non-duty hours before the Flight Duty Period (FDP) begins. Crew rest is free time and includes time for meals, transportation, and rest. This time must include an opportunity for at least 8 hours of uninterrupted sleep. Crew rest period cannot begin until after the completion of official duties. Ref: AFMAN 11-202V3, Para 3.1. A. True B. False

A. True

64. Removal of a navigation station's identification serves as a warning to pilots that the facility is officially off the air for tune-up or repair and may be unreliable even though intermittent or constant signals are received. Ref: AFMAN 11-202V3, Para: 8.3.3.1. A. True B. False

A. True

65. A "/" in the name of an instrument approach indicates: Ref: AFMAN 11-202V3, Para: 15.11. A. the designers couldn't decide which to use B. more than one type of equipment MAY be required to execute the final approach C. more than one type of equipment IS required to execute the final approach D. none of the above

B. more than one type of equipment MAY be required to execute the final approach

66. No matter what method of IFR departure is used, climb at least _____________ (whichever is higher) with __________. Ref: AFI 11-202V3, Para: 5.8. A. 200 ft/NM or as published / all engines operating B. 200 ft/NM or as published / one engine inoperative C. 152 ft/NM / 3-engines D. 200 ft/min / all engines operating

A. 200 ft/NM or as published / all engines operating

67. A standard holding pattern has legs of 1 min ________ ft and 1 1/2 min ________ ft. Ref: AFMAN 11-202V3, Para: 13.7. A. at or below 14,000 / at or above 14,000 B. below 14,000 / at or above 14,000 C. at or below 14,000 / above 14,000 D. below 14,000 / at or above 14,000

C. at or below 14,000 / above 14,000

68. Aircrew will not descend below MDA, DA, or DH until _____________. Ref: AFMAN 11-202V3, Para: 16.7. A. Visual reference with the runway environment B. Aircraft is in a position to safely land C. Visual reference with the threshold lights D. A and B

D. A and B

69. The ILS/LOC approach must be discontinued if localizer course becomes unreliable or full scale deflection of the CDI occurs; do not descend below localizer minimums if the aircraft is more than _____ or ______ the glideslope. Ref: AFMAN 11-202V3, Para: 16.8.3. and 16.8.9. A. full scale below/ half scale above B. half scale below / full scale above C. half scale below / half scale above D. quarter scale below / full scale above

B. half scale below / full scale above

70. A clearance for an approach includes clearance for the missed approach published on the IAP, unless otherwise instructed by ATC. Ref: AFMAN 11-202V3, Chap: 14 Para: 19.4. A. True B. False

A. True

71. Aircraft maximum waiverable gross weight is ________ pounds. Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 6.1. A. 192,000 B. 175,000 C. 164,000 D. 155,000

B. 175,000

72. Aircraft maximum normal gross weight is ________ pounds. Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 6.1. A. 192,000 B. 175,000 C. 164,000 D. 155,000

C. 164,000

73. Declare "Emergency Fuel" when it is determined that the aircraft will land with less than _______ lbs. Declare "Minimum Fuel" to ATC when it is determined that the aircraft will land with less than ______. Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para 12.4.9 and 12.4.10 A. 4,000, calculated recovery fuel B. 3,000, calculated recovery fuel C. 3,000, divert fuel D. 2,150, required reserve

B. 3,000, calculated recovery fuel

74. An ATC clearance is authority to deviate from AFI 11-202 Vol 3. Ref: AFMAN 11-202, Vol 3 Para: 1.9 A. True B. False

B. False

75. In the National Airspace System (NAS), do not exceed ____ KIAS at or below 2,500 feet AGL within 4 NMs of the primary airport of a Class C or Class D airspace area unless authorized/required by ATC, or required to maintain the minimum safe maneuvering airspeed specified in the aircraft T.O. Ref: AFMAN 11-202V3, para 12.4.3. A. 180 B. 200 C. 500 D. 250

B. 200

76. Do not exceed 250 KIAS below 10,000 ft MSL within the National Airspace System (NAS) unless ____. Ref: AFMAN 11-202V3, Para 12.4.2 A. within restricted areas or Military Operating Areas (MOAs) B. within DoD/FAA instrument/visual routes or unpublished joint MAJCOM- and FAA-designated areas or routes C. on MAJCOM-approved large exercises or short-term special missions with appropriate coordination D. the aircraft T.O. requires or recommends a higher speed in order to maintain safe maneuverability E. All of the above

E. All of the above

77. Do not turn after a takeoff, touch and go, or low approach until at least ___ ft. above the departure end of the runway elevation, unless required by a published procedure or ATC. (Does not apply to closed patterns) Ref: AFMAN 11-202V3, Para 18.7 A. 300 B. 400 C. 500 D. 600

B. 400

78. Avoid thunderstorms and cumulonimbus clouds (CB) by ___ NM at FL 230 and above Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para 5.14.3.1 A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20

D. 20

79. Pilots shall respond to all resolution advisories (RA) regardless of ATC instructions, right-of-way rules, cloud clearances, or other VFR or IFR flight rules, as directed by the TCAS system unless doing so would jeopardize the safe operation of the aircraft. Ref: AFMAN 11-202, Vol 3 Para: 3.37.1 A. True B. False

A. True

80. For a straight-in or sidestep approach, the forecast weather must meet _______________ for that approach. Ref: AFMAN 11-202, Vol 3 Para: 4.15.2 A. ceiling requirements B. visibility minimums C. ceiling and prevailing visibility requirements D. none of the above

B. visibility minimums

81. For a circling approach, the forecast weather must meet ____ requirements. Ref: AFMAN 11-202, Vol 3 Para: 4.15.3 A. the ceiling B. the prevailing visibility C. both the ceiling and prevailing visibility D. none of the above

C. both the ceiling and prevailing visibility

82. The flight duty period will begin when the aircrew shows for flight duties. Crews may complete initial alert activities (e.g., briefing, preflight, cocking, engine runs of their alert aircraft) without starting their FDP. This time should not exceed ____hours. Ref: AFMAN 11-202, Vol 3 Para: 2.2.2.1.5 (AFSOC SUP) A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

B. 3

83. If a landing cannot be accomplished, the missed approach procedure should be inintiated ____________. Ref: AFMAN 11-202V3, Para: 19.1. A. at the estimated deparute end of runway B. immediately upon determining unable to land C. upon reaching the published missed approach point D. Any of the above

C. upon reaching the published missed approach point

84. There are(is) ____EGI systems on the aircraft. Each EGI consists of a ______ & ______. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-4 Page 9-70.1 A. 1, SCNS, INS B. 2, INS, GPS C. 3, GPS, DVS D. None of the above

B. 2, INS, GPS

85. A discontinuity is a segment in the flight plan where there is no _______ flight plan definition. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-4 Page 7-7 A. vertical B. horizontal C. lateral D. None of the above

C. lateral

86. Which of the following occurs when the MSTR AV ON function on the POWER UP page is initially selected? Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-4 Page 6-2 A. COMM and NAV radios are powered up (except HF radios). B. SATCOM is turned on. C. INS alignment is initiated. D. All the above.

A. COMM and NAV radios are powered up (except HF radios).

87. A VNAV profile on the LEGS page using an altitude suffix of "C" defines: Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-4 Page 7-22 A. Fixed Start of Climb (SOC) B. Fixed Bottom of Descent (BOD) C. Fixed Top of Descent (TOD) D. A or B

D. A or B

88. If flammable fumes are present or suspected, electrical equipment not required to carry out the FIRE/SMOKE/FUMES ELIMINATION checklist should not be turned on or off. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Page 3-79 A. True B. False

A. True

89. To avoid fuel freezing, fuel temperature should not be lower than 6 °F (3.3 °C) above the freeze point defined in Figure 1-5. The fuel temperature should be considered to be equal to the _____. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Page 1-15 A. Outside Air Temperature (OAT) B. Static Air Temperature (SAT) C. Total Air Temperature (TAT) D. Stagnation Temperature (ST)

C. Total Air Temperature (TAT)

90. If a circling approach is required, maintain ___________ until established on final approach. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2B-3 Chap: 2B A. 140 knots B. 150 knots C. approach speed D. threshhold speed

C. approach speed

91. The engine ice protection system must be on for taxi and take-off when operating in visible moisture with an ambient temperature of _________ degrees C or less. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2B-5 Chap: 2B Para: Caution A. 5 B. 10 C. 8 D. 0

B. 10

92. To ensure complete priming of the fuel manifold, prime the manifold ____________ and monitor the FUEL PRESS indicator throughout the priming process. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2D-7 Chap: 2D Para: Note A. only in level flight B. during initial climb out C. prior to take off D. none of the above

A. only in level flight

93. Transferring fuel during taxi or in flight into a nearly full main tank when its boost pump is not operating is prohibited because it can result in: Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 5-14 Chap: 5 Para: Warning A. Overfilling the tank B. Variable engine inlet pressure C. Fuel imbalance D. Rapid and continuous venting of fuel

D. Rapid and continuous venting of fuel

94. When the airplane is parked with the fuel tanks more than three-quarters full (6,400 pounds in the outboard and 6,000 pounds in the inboard), all crossfeed valves should be __________. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2D-6 Chap: 2D Para: Caution A. de-energized by pulling ECB 441 B. switched ON C. closed D. open

C. closed

95. A WARNING is a: Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: iv Chap: Forward A. Operating procedures, techniques, etc., that may result in personal injury or loss of life if not carefully followed B. Operating procedures, techniques, etc., that may result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed C. Operating procedures, techniques, etc., that is considered essential to emphasize D. Operating procedures, techniques, etc., that can be ignored except in an emergency

A. Operating procedures, techniques, etc., that may result in personal injury or loss of life if not carefully followed

96. Operation in severe icing conditions, including operation in freezing rain/drizzle is _________ and should be avoided. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2B-4 Chap: 2B A. allowable B. allowable provided the ice protect system is functional C. not recommended D. no answer is correct

C. not recommended

97. The left and right auxiliary tanks each have one (____________) AC-powered transfer pump. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 8-3 Chap: 8 A. 28 - 40 PSI B. 15 - 20 PSI C. 30 - 40 PSI D. 8.5 - 15 PSI

A. 28 - 40 PSI

98. What temperature would you use cold weather procedures? Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2B-9 Chap: 2B A. 0 degrees F/-10 degrees C and below B. 0 degrees C/32 degrees F and below C. wind chill below 10 degrees F/-12 degrees C D. 40 degrees F/4 degrees C and below

B. 0 degrees C/32 degrees F and below

99. The recommended fuel management for normal approach and full stop landings is: Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2D-8 Chap: 2D A. crossfeed operation with the cross-ship manifold closed B. tank-to-engine operation C. crossfeed operation with transfer switches open D. crossfeed operation with the cross-ship manifold open

B. tank-to-engine operation

100. Low fuel state operations are defined as those operations that result in the airplane landing at the final destination with less than _________ lbs of fuel. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 5-18 Chap: 5 A. 4,000 B. 7,000 C. 10,000 D. 6,000

D. 6,000

101. During APU start or operation, the APU may shut down without an associated ACAWS message. If this occurs: Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2A-32 Chap: 2A Para: Caution A. 1 restart may be attempted B. restart only if using an external power cart C. no more than 2 restarts may be attempted D. maintenance is required prior to APU restart

D. maintenance is required prior to APU restart

102. What is the minimum amount of fuel in the No. 2 tank that will normally allow the APU to start and run without setting the No. 2 engine control to RUN? Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2D-10 Chap: 2D A. 900 Pounds B. 2,000 Pounds C. 1,000 Pounds D. 2,250 Pounds

B. 2,000 Pounds

103. A CAUTION is a: Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: iv Chap: Forward A. Operating procedures, techniques, etc., that may result in personal injury or loss of life if not carefully followed B. Operating procedures, techniques, etc., that can be ignored except in an emergency C. Operating procedures, techniques, etc., that may result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed D. Operating procedures, techniques, etc., that is considered essential to emphasize

C. Operating procedures, techniques, etc., that may result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed

104. Do not select AUTONAV ___________ show correct present position. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2A-20 Chap: 2A Para: Note A. until both of the CNI-MUs B. until either of the CNI-MUs C. until you confirm your clearance with ground control D. until cleared by the CSO

A. until both of the CNI-MUs

105. Oxygen system: Under a continuous breathing condition, the pressure should indicate __________. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 16-1 Chap: 16 A. 320-600 psi B. pressure does not matter as long as the quantity indicates above 5 liters C. 270-340 psi D. 300-455 psi

C. 270-340 psi

106. Hot weather operation is operation in temperatures above ___________. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2B-18 Chap: 2B A. 32 degrees C/90 degrees F B. 29 degrees C/85 degrees F C. 38 degrees C/100 degrees F D. 35 degrees C/95 degrees F

D. 35 degrees C/95 degrees F

107. A NOTE is a: Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: iv Chap: Forward A. Operating procedure, technique, etc., that may result in personal injury or loss of life if not carefully followed B. Operating procedure, technique, etc., that is considered essential to emphasize C. Operating procedure, technique, etc., that may result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed D. Operating procedure, technique, etc., that can be ignored except in an emergency

B. Operating procedure, technique, etc., that is considered essential to emphasize

108. Procedures for engine shutdowns on the ground are divided into two categories. For all types of ACAWS __________ (red master warning light and tone), pull the respective FIRE handle and then place the ENGINE START switch to STOP. For all other engine shutdowns on the ground, including normal shutdowns and shutdowns for ACAWS cautions and advisory messages, place the ENGINE START switch to STOP. Although pulling the FIRE handle on the ground does not damage equipment, it does cycle numerous valves and the auxiliary feather pump. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 3-4 Chap: 3 A. CAUTIONS B. ADVISORIES C. WARNINGS D. NOTES

C. WARNINGS

109. Maximum normal landing weight and associated sinkrate are: Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 1-2 Chap: 1 A. 164,000 lbs/300 fpm B. 155,000 lbs/300 fpm C. 165,000 lbs/300 fpm D. 155,000 lbs/ 540 fpm

A. 164,000 lbs/300 fpm

110. Any cruise speed up to recommended clean (VH) may be utilized in conditions up to and including ________ turbulence. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 1-7 Chap: 1 A. severe B. light C. moderate D. no

C. moderate

111. Although __________percent flaps is the normal landing configuration, _______ percent flap landings improve roll control in wake turbulence and high crosswind conditions. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2A-66 Chap: 2A A. 100; 50 B. 50; zero C. 50; 100 D. 25; 50

A. 100; 50

112. What is the maximum airspeed for 50% flaps? Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 1-7 Chap: 1 A. 183 KIAS B. 140 KIAS C. 165 KIAS D. 168 KIAS

A. 183 KIAS

113. Due to engine exhaust heat, entry and exit through the paratroop doors with engines running is prohibited in which condition: Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2D-4 Chap: 2D Para: Warning A. engines in normal ground idle and flaps up B. engines in low speed ground idle and flaps extended C. engines in Hotel mode and flaps extended D. engines in LSGI and flaps up

C. engines in Hotel mode and flaps extended

114. The alarm bell signal for ground evacuation is what? Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 3-4 Chap: 3 A. 2 long rings B. 6 short rings C. 3 short rings D. 1 long sustained ring

D. 1 long sustained ring

115. Failure of the booster hydraulic system causes _________________. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 3-24 Chap: 3 A. the loss of half the force for operating the flight controls B. the loss of hydraulics for gear extension and retraction C. the loss of hydraulics for normal brake pressure D. all the answers are correct

A. the loss of half the force for operating the flight controls

116. PERF INIT CRUISE winds are propagated downpath in the flight plan to each waypoint unless the crew enters a wind at the waypoint. If a wind value is entered at a waypoint, this new wind is ___________ in the flight plan. The CNI-MS uses ________ for all active leg computations. Ref: 1C-130(M)J-1-4, Pg: 7-27 Chap 7 A. propagated downpath, cruise winds B. ignored, sensed winds C. propagated downpath, sensed winds D. applied to that waypoint only, current ground speed

C. propagated downpath, sensed winds

117. If a flight must continue under the control of ____ or more soft panels, a ________ waiver is required. Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, 4.8.2.5 A. 2, GP/CC B. 4, AFSOC/A3 C. 3, COMAFSOF D. 2, COMAFSOF

D. 2, COMAFSOF

118. If involved in a mishap or incident, after landing and terminating the emergency, _____________. Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, 5.31 A. Egress the aircraft at the earliest opportunity B. Conduct a thorough debrief C. Remain on oxygen until system is depleted. D. Pull the CVR power circuit breaker (ECB #464)

D. Pull the CVR power circuit breaker (ECB #464)

119. For landing sink rates from 300 to 540 feet per minute the total main tank fuel limit with AR pods installed is _________. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 1-3 Chap 1 A. 35,000 pounds B. 28,000 pounds C. 23,000 to 28,000 (varies with zero fuel weight) D. Less than 500 pounds each

C. 23,000 to 28,000 (varies with zero fuel weight)

120. The alarm bell signal for ditching or crash landing imminent is what? Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 3-4 Chap: 3 A. 2 long rings B. 6 short rings C. 3 short rings D. 1 long sustained ring

B. 6 short rings

121. The alarm bell signal for prepare to bailout is what? Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 3-4 Chap: 3 A. 2 long rings B. 6 short rings C. 3 short rings D. 1 long sustained ring

C. 3 short rings

122. Without supplemental oxygen aircrew will___________ Ref AFMAN 11-202, Vol 3 ParaL 3.21.1 A. Not operate above 14,000 MSL B. Not exceed 30 minutes btween 12,500 MSL and 14,000 feet MSL C. Not exceed 1 hour between 10,000 MSL and 12,500 feet MSL if any portion of the flight is conducted in IMC, at night, while employing weapons, conducting airdrop, air refueling, or high-g maneuvers D. All of the Above E. None of the above

D. All of the Above

123. Supplemental oxygen will be used by all occupants between 14,000 feet MSL and FL250. Ref AFMAN 11-202V3, Para 3.21.3 A. True B. False

A. True

124. Wind Factor and ETP data computations are required on Category I routes or Category I route segments when the total time between the last suitable airfield and the FSAF is __ hours or more. Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para 11.3.4 A. 5 B. 3 C. 10 D. 2

A. 5

125. Suitable airfields are those normally within ___ NM of flight planned course centerline meeting weather, fuel, and C-130J runway requirements. Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 11.3.4. A. 50 B. 150 C. 100 D. 200

C. 100

126. Maximum recommended gross weight for max effort landings is: Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 1-2 A. 130,000lbs B. 142,000lbs C. 164,000lbs D. 175,000lbs

B. 142,000lbs

127. A dump system is provided to dump all fuel overboard except approximately _______ pounds in each main tank, 0 pounds in each auxiliary tank, and 0 pounds in each external tank (if installed). Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 3-38 A. 1450 B. 1520 C. 1770 D. 2180

B. 1520

128. While dumping fuel, the crossfeed valves must be closed to prevent all of the fuel in the main tanks from being dumped overboard. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 3-39 A. True B. False

A. True

129. The value displayed on the total quantity indicator does not include the fuel quantity for tanks that have a failed indicating system. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Page 8-18 A. True B. False

A. True

130. If a landing gear system or position indicator malfunction is encountered, only a full stop landing will be made. Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para 4.7 A. True B. False

A. True

131. Prior to entering MNPS airspace, both _____ must be fully operational to meet the MNPS requirements of having two fully serviceable Long Range Navigation Systems. Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-13-JV3, Para 11.1.1.8 A. INSs B. GPSs C. MCs D. SPs

A. INSs

132. The pilot in command must ensure the aircraft is carrying enough reserve fuel on each flight to increase the total planned flight time between refueling points by ____percent (up to a maximum of _____minutes) or ____minutes, whichever is greater. Ref: AFMAN 11-202V3, Para 4.20.3 A. 15, 30, 20 B. 10, 45, 20 C. 10, 30, 15 D. 20, 60, 30

B. 10, 45, 20

133. Prior to Refusal Speed, any crew member noting a safety of flight condition/malfunction will state _____ and give a brief description of the malfunction. Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-13-JV3, Table 6.1 A. "Go" B. "Stop" C. "Reject" D. "Abort"

C. "Reject"

134. Do not operate aircraft over non-congested areas at an altitude of less than ____ ft above the surface, except over open water, in special use airspace, or sparsely populated areas. Ref: AFMAN 11-202V3, Para 12.3.5 A. 300 B. 500 C. 1000 D. 1000 above the highest obstacle within a 2000 foot radius

B. 500

135. Fly over national parks or monuments no lower than ____. (Assuming no special use airspace, LATN or MTR) Ref: AFMAN 11-202V3, Para 12.3.7 A. 1500' AGL B. 2000' AGL C. 2500' AGL D. 3000' AGL

B. 2000' AGL

136. What are the basic NAS VFR minimums for fixed wing in Class G airspace below 10,000 feet according to AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3? Ref: AFMAN 11-202V3, Table 12.1 A. 1000' below, 1000' above, 2000' horizontal, visibility 3 SM B. 500' below, 1000' above, 1000' horizontal, visibility 5 SM C. 500' below, 1000' above, 2000' horizontal, visibility 3 SM D. 2000' below, 2000' above, 1000' horizontal, visibility 5 SM

C. 500' below, 1000' above, 2000' horizontal, visibility 3 SM

137. What is the primary method of measuring engine power? Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 9-2 Chap: 9 A. MGT B. NP C. HP D. NG

C. HP

138. The maximum tire speed (knots ground speed) for the nose wheel is: Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 1-10 Chap: 1 A. 145 B. 174 C. 139 D. 155

C. 139

139. The maximum tire speed (knots ground speed) for the main wheels is: Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 1-10 Chap: 1 A. 145 B. 174 C. 139 D. 155

B. 174

140. VHF Communication Radio: Frequencies can be selected manually or be selecting one of ____ preset channels. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 18A-4 Chap: 18A A. 20 B. 40 C. 10 D. 30

B. 40

141. When RWR and TCAS overlays are displayed simultaneously on a single NAV-RADAR display, the system gives _______ information higher priority. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 18B-37 Chap: 18B Para: Note A. RWR B. TCAS C. Mode S D. Mode 3

A. RWR

142. There is a limit of ____ waypoint spaces allotted for the flight plan and the alternate flight plan including the primary and alternate destinations. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-4 Pg: 7-2 Chap: 7 A. 200 B. 100 C. 60 D. 40

C. 60

143. When comparing the indicated altitude to the elevation of a known check point, the maximum allowable error is ±_____ feet for the pilot, copilot, and standby altimeters. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 1-29 Chap: 1 A. 25 B. 40 C. 50 D. 75

B. 40

144. Controlled cockpit rest will be taken by only one crewmember (per crew position, as applicable) at a time, must be restricted to non-critical phases of flight, terminated _______ prior to planned descent, and should be limited to ________ per rest period. Ref: AFMAN 11-202V3, Para: 3.5.1 (AFSOC SUP) A. 1 hour, 1 hour B. 30 minutes, 30 minutes C. 1 hour, 30 minutes D. 1 hour, 45 minutes

D. 1 hour, 45 minutes

145. The expected position error (in meters) for a Figure of Merit (FOM) value of 4 is: Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 18B-53 Chap: 18 A. greater than 25 up to 50 B. greater than 50 up to 75 C. greater than 75 up to 100 D. greater than 100 up to 200

C. greater than 75 up to 100

146. An EGI cycle time is around _____ seconds. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 18B-55 Chap: 18 A. 25 B. 30 C. 35 D. 45

C. 35

147. Perform Inflight Alignment (IFA) on one EGI at a time. GPS FOM must be ____ for the CNI-MU to allow an IFA to be selected. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 5-19 Chap: 5 A. ≤3 B. ≥3 C. ≤4 D. ≥4

C. ≤4

148. The ACAWS message INAV POS DIFFERENCE is displayed when: Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 3-230 Chap: 3 A. The entered allowable position tolerance between INAV 1 and INAV 2 (POS ALERT 1) has been exceeded B. The entered allowable position tolerance between INAV 1 and INAV 2 (POS ALERT 2) has been exceeded C. A miscompare exists between the EGI blended solution position and the IPRA solution position D. None of the above

A. The entered allowable position tolerance between INAV 1 and INAV 2 (POS ALERT 1) has been exceeded

149. DSDTS inhibits the transfer of mission data to or from the mission data cartridge when airborne. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-4 Pg: 1-2 Chap: 1 a. True b. False

a. True

150. The IFA procedure can cause enough delay in the flight prior to coast out that fuel reserves at destination may be negatively affected. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-4 Pg: 18B-3 Chap: 18 Para: Caution A. True B. False

A. True

151. Critical fuel decisions ___________ on the information provided by the CNI-SP calculations alone. Performance manual charts should be cross-checked before proceeding on a fuel critical course of action. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-4 Pg: 7-33 Chap: 7 Para: Caution A. should be predicted B. should not be predicted C. should be made D. must be made

B. should not be predicted

152. The CNI-MU message FUEL QTY ERROR is displayed when: Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-4 Pg: 2-6 Chap: 2 CNI-MU Alert Messages A. Estimated fuel for active flight plan and total fuel quantity differ by more than 2,500 pounds for more than 10 minutes B. Estimated fuel for active flight plan and total fuel quantity differ by more than 1,000 pounds for more than 10 minutes C. Fuel on board is not sufficient to complete route and taxi without using up reserve fuel D. When the last waypoint in the flight is the same destination

A. Estimated fuel for active flight plan and total fuel quantity differ by more than 2,500 pounds for more than 10 minutes

153. After the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) fire handle is pulled, when should the agent be discharged during an APU Fire emergency? Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 3-6 Chap: 3 Para: Warning A. Immediately after the fire handle is pulled B. Wait a minimum of 15 seconds before the agent should be discharged C. When no indication remains after the APU FIRE handle has been pulled, or if no other indication or malfunction is suspected D. When an indication continues after the APU FIRE handle has been pulled, or if any other indication or malfunction is suspected

D. When an indication continues after the APU FIRE handle has been pulled, or if any other indication or malfunction is suspected

154. A main tank fuel quantity indicator may be inoperative provided: Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-13-JV3, Pg: 43 Table 4.8 A. All Fuel Flow Indicators are operative B. Associated Fuel Boost Pump is operative C. All other Fuel Quantity Indicators for thanks with fuel on the same side of the Cross-ship Valve are operative and fuel quantity in the associated tank is verified by an accepted procedure D. All of the above

D. All of the above

155. An Embedded Global Positioning/Inertial Navigation System (EGI) may be inoperative provided: Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-13-JV3, Pg: 48 Table 4.14 A. Passengers/troops will not be carried B. An In-Flight Alignment will be accomplished C. Overwater or Basic Area Navigation flight will not be conducted D. The secondary EGI has a FOM ≥3

C. Overwater or Basic Area Navigation flight will not be conducted

QUAL MQF Flashcards

(155 cards)