NAP studies Flashcards

(64 cards)

1
Q

what did NAP 1 look at ?

A

the supervisory role of the consultant

link between patient outcome and level of supervision

emphysis on needing
- clear protocols/ guidelines on level of supervision in different setings
- more training opportunities
- supervisor / consultants more available

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what did NAP 2 look at?

A

M&M meetings
- highlighted importance in patient safety and outcome
- training into how to conduct an M&M
- increase regularity of M&M
- adviced joint specialty m&ms - with surgeons - no blame and teaching around topics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what did NAP 3 look at

A

major complications after neuroaxial blockade
assessed 700,000 cases
equal spinal and epidural
just under half obstetric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What was the rate of permanent injury and paraplegia / death in neuraxial blocks

A

permanent nerve damage = 1 in 50,000
paraplegia / death = 1 in 140,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What was found to have higher risk epidurals or spinals?

A

epidurals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which group had lower rates of complications with neuraxial blocks

A

children
obstetric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What was suggested by the NAP3 study

A
  • improved detection of complications - training on signs/ symptoms, carebundles, available acess to scanning fascilities
  • improved management - alogorithms available / training
  • prevention - assessing those at higher risk, strict asepsis

Key to dealing with complications is early detection with proper monitoring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How many deaths were reported by NAP 3

A

1 in 140,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the complications and rates of these with epidurals

A

1 in 20 - fail
1 in 50 - hypotension
1 in 150 - PDPH / headache
1 in 2000 - temporary nerve damage
1 in 15000 - permanent
1 in 50, 000 - epidural abscess
1 in 100,000 - meningitis
1 in 140,000= permananet paralysis (NAP 3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

how common are vertebral canal haematomas after CNB?

A

0.85 in 100,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which nerves and modalities are least / most sensitive to local anaesthetic

A

B fibres - sympathetic - most
C fibres
A d
Ag - touch
Aa - motor and proprioception

Aa and Ab are quite resistant - hence still feel pressure in C section

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What factors affect the spread of local

A
  • Baricity
  • Patient position
  • Dose – volume
  • Pregnancy = reduced volume
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Limitations of NAP 3

A

looked mainly at permananet / serious complications rather than minor

didnt differentiate if complications were due to dangerous nature of epi/spinal or high risk factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which complications had most significant prognosis

A

vertebral canal haematoma - spinal cord ischaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

give examples of short acting and longer acting local anaesthetic agents

A

shortest - procaine
medium - lidocaine , prilocaine
long - levo/bupivacaine , ropivacaine (longest)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

adjuncts that can be used in neuraxial anaesthesia..

A

diamorphine, fentanyl, morphine
clonidine, dexmedetomidine
bicarb - increases speed of onset
adrenaline - prolong duration of block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What did NAP 4 look at

A

major airway complications - where they occur (ED/ITU/ theatre), what stage of anaesthesia, what they are associated with.

what airway devices are used in anaesthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What did NAP 4 find to be a cause of complications - i.e. factors invovled

A

lack of airway assessment
lack of airway plan
lack of planning for failure
remote locations
obesity
inappropriate SGA devices in those high risk reflux

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

according to NAP 4 What were obese patients more at risk of

A

aspiration
obstruction on emergence
difficult intubation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What was the biggest cause of death in airway management

A
  • Aspiration
  • Partly from inappropriate use of SGA in those with multiple risk factors requiring RSI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When did majority of airway complications occurs

A

majority at induction
but over 1/3 at extubation - quite significant
due to obstruction and post op pulmonary oedema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Methods for avoiding complications at extubation

A

bite block
suctioning
pre oxygenate
reversal NMBA
only extubate when fully awake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What was the no trace, wrong place campaign

A

teaching and emphysis on confirming placement of ET tube by sustained exhaled CO2 - consistent presence of CO2 over 6 breaths or more

hence capnography should be employed in all areas – arrests, ED, ITU etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Where did the majority of SERIOUS airway problems occur and why

A

most complications occured in theatree
but only 1/3 of the SERIOUS complications occured in theatre

serious complications more likely in ED / ITU
due to…
- unstable patients
- lack of good airway assessment and identifying high risk
- unfamiliar environment
- untrained / skilled staff
- lack of equiptment / capno

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What was found to be the biggest difference in patient outcomes? nap 4
capnography use
26
Recommendations by NAP 4
use checklists use capnography training - tracheostomy algorithm, CICO, no trace, wrong place extubation stuff - suction, bite block ITU patients have an emergency re-intubation plan
27
What was the major airway complication seen on ITU
displaced / blocked tracheostomy tubes and unable to successfully reintubate
28
Number of cases in NAP 4 - deaths and brain damage
38 deaths 8 brain damage 184 cases in total
29
What did NAP 4 find relating to trauma and why
more failed intubations / difficult airways / complications/ requiring surgical airway because - MILS / RSI - unfamiliar environment - pressure of trauma situation - facial injuries and distorted anatomy - unstable pt
30
how did NAP4 change front of neck practice?
= needle cricothyroidotomy is worse than scalpel method
31
what did NAP 5 look at ?
incidence of awareness under anaesthesia
32
incidence rates in NAP 5
1 in 19000 = overall awareness 1 in 8000 - using NMBA 1 in 136,000 - not paralysed
33
How long did awareness events last
less than 5 mins
34
What complication was found in those experiencing awareness
PTSD and depression Around half the patients in the study reported distress including pain/paralysis and this was associated with long term psychological outcomes
35
Which types of surgery were more at risk of awareness
cardiothoracic emergency Obstetrics
36
What patient factor was found to be a risk factor for awareness
females obesity difficult airway
37
What anaesthetic factors increase risk of awareness
junior anaesthetist out of hours Thio RSI TIVA NMBA
38
When was awareness mostly reported
induction and emergence - 2/3
39
Recommendations by NAP 5 / AABGI on awareness
use of BIS reversal of NMBA and TOF monitoring training inform patients of risk of awareness at pre op identify those at high risk
40
causes of accidental awareness when using TIVA
**failure to deliver intended dose** * equiptment failure e.g. cannula disconnection/ tissues, pump failure. * human error - wrong dose / drug selected or wrong patient info input **poor understanding of underlying mechanism** - lack of training in TIVA - using fixed dose infusion instead of TCI - switching from volatile to TIVA in transfer and not allowing IV to build up before volatile switched off.
41
What did NAP 6 look at
- Anaphylaxis incidence and causes related to anaesthesia and surgery
42
what is the incidence of perioperative anaphylaxis
1 in 10,000 - 10 deaths and 40 cardiac arrests
43
What are the most common causes of anaphylaxis
- Antibiotics = 47% - Muscle relaxants = 33% - Chlorhexidine - Patent blue dye
44
Survival rate for periop anaphylaxis
> 96% 1/3 had harm - long term anxiety of op, myocardial injury , PTSD
45
How does anaphylaxis most commonly present
hypotension - always present and 46% of time first feature bronchospasm - 18% tahcycardia hypoxia
46
Which patient group is most at risk of cardiac arrest secondary to anaphylaxis?
- Elderly - cardiac disease - Obese - Increasing ASA - ACEi or B blocker use
47
Which antibiotic was particularly high risk
- Teicoplanin - (co-amoxiclav 2nd)
48
Which NMBA has highest anaphylaxis incidence
succinylcholine - mostly presents as bronchospasm
49
How does atracurium anaphylaxis present
hypotension
50
What is the usual type of cardiac arrest seen in anaphylaxis
PEA often with bradycardia
51
Recommendations by NAP 6
better training - national and regional allergy department lead better anaphylaxis kits and guidelines available start compressions if SBP < 50mmHg better identification of true penicillin allergy to avoid teicoplanin
52
How often were complications in anaesthesia arising
1 in 18 1/3 CVS in nature 1/4 - airway and breathing e..g laryngospams, failed airway, breathing issues more commonly in urgent situations, extremes of age
53
Patient risk factors for complications / poor outcome
frailty obese high ASA male
54
Surgical factors for complication
urgent out of hours complex / long duration type - vascular, lower limb ortho, lower GI, interventional cardiology (obstetrics lower riks)
55
What was the incidence for cardiac arrest
1 in 3000
56
What was the survival rate of cardiac arrest
75% - much higher than other hospital arrests 44% discharged
57
Most common causes of perioperative cardiac arrest
haemorrhage bradyarrhythmias cardiac ischaemia
58
What were the majority of rhythms in cardiac arrest
non shockable - PEA
59
What rhythm had best and worst outcomes
bradyarrhythmias - best PEA - worst
60
When were arrests mostly occurring
- 40% during surgery - 26% during induction
61
Potential contributing factors to cardiac arrests in anaesthesia...
lack of risk scoring lack of adjustment of anaesthesia in high risk -e.g. smaller dose, slower induction lack of supervision lack of appropriate monitoring in transfer 6 cases of oesophageal intubation more complex / elderly population plus higher BMI
62
what were the risk factors for airway complications
- obesity - infants - out of hours - H&N surgery
63
Recommendations by NAP 7
routine use of risk scores - NELA / SORT discussions of DNAR with families in those high risk training - QRH handbook, local guidelines / protocols, especially in at risk groups - children/ elderly guidelines on how to manage specific populations e..g frailty / hypovolaemia adequate monitoring in transfer Standardisation of resus equipment available in all areas in low flow states - give small bolus of adrenaline debreif for staff
64
what will NAP 8 report on
major complications of regional anaesthesia and perioperative nerve injury