physics Flashcards

(118 cards)

1
Q

classify lasers by safety

A

class 1 = low power - safe for eyes and skin
class 1M = same as above but cant use with lens

clas 2 = low power but not prolonged starring
class 2M = same but no lens

class 3R = moderate power

Class 3B = need eye protection

Class 4 = surgical laser - hazard to skin and eyes

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2
Q

surgical uses of lasers including the type of laser

A

CO2 = ENT airway surgery
NdYag = GI bleeds / endoscopy
Argon = dermatology and retinal
Ruby = remove tatoes

other laser lithotripsy in urology

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3
Q

physical properties of laser light

A

monochromatic = 1 wave length

coherent = all in same phase

directional / collimated = parrallel beams

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4
Q

risks of surgical laser

A

fires

eyes - blindness

skin - burns

airway fire

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5
Q

how do we minimise risk of lasers?

A

laser safety officer , signs, non reflective material, goggles for staff and patient , blinds on windows

airway = low O2 conc < 0.3, non flammable ET tube , double cuff filled with saline, damp swabs in airway

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6
Q

what is a pulmonary artery floatation catheter? and indication

A

long CVC that sits in pulmonary artery to measure pulmonary capilary wedge pressure

gold standard for many measurements
- core body temp
- cardiac output with thermodilation
- central venous blood sampling
- differentiating between cardiogenic and non cardiogenic shock

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7
Q

describe the pulmonary artery catheter waveform as it moves through heart to pulmonary system

A

RA = 0-5mmHg
RV = 25/0
PA = 25/10
PCWP around 4-12mmHg

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8
Q

state types of data

A

qualitative - ordinal in numerical order (ASA) , nominal (blood group)

quantitatvie = discrete and continous

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9
Q

how does standard deviation relate to normal distribution data?

A

in normal distribution
68% data lies within 1 SD
95% within 2
99.7 % within 3

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10
Q

what is a confidence interval?

A

range of values that contain the true population mean within the stated % confidence

e.g. 95% CI - means the data set has a 95% chance of capturing the mean

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11
Q

positive and negative skewed data

A

positive skew
mode < median < mean

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12
Q

what is the power of a study?

A

ability of a statistical test to reveal a significant difference when there is one.

1- B

B is probability of making a type 2 error

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13
Q

what are the 2 types of erors

A

type 1 (a) = a significant differnece is found when there is one. null is falsely rejected

type 2 (b) = null is falsely accepted

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14
Q

what is the p value in statistics?

A

likelihood an outcome is due to chance and infact null is true.
aim for p < 0.05

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15
Q

types of bias in statistics?

A

selection bias
publication bias
performance bias

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16
Q

what is the absolute and relative risk reduction?

A

absolute - difference in occurance between 2 groups e.g. incidence in one minus incidence in another

relative risk reduction = ARR / control incidence

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17
Q

what is the equation for numbers needed to treat in stats?

A

1/ ARR
(absolute risk reduction)

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18
Q

how is relative risk calculated in stats (not relative risk reduction)

A

incidence in treatment group / incidence in control

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19
Q

what is an odds ratio

A

ODDS = no of events / no. of non events

ODDS ratio = odds of treatment / odds of control

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20
Q

statistical test for
- normal distrubution paired and unpaired.
- non normal paired and unpaired.
- categorical data

A

normal = student T test - paired or unpaired

non -normal - wilcoxon for paired and mann whitney for unpaired

categorical = chi squared

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21
Q

define sensitivity in statistics

A

the ability for a statitical test to identify true positives out of all the actual positive results.

TP / TP + FN

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22
Q

define specificity in statistics

A

the ability for a statitical test to identify true negative out of all the actual negative results.

TN / TN + FP

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23
Q

define positive and negative predicted values

A

PPV: no. of actual true results out of all the results that were stated as true TP/ TP + FP

NPV: no. of actual negative results out of all the results that were stated as negative TN/ TN + FN
i.e. what proportion were actually negative

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24
Q

define the hierarchy / ranking of scientific evidence

A

1 =systematic review/ meta-analysis of RCT
2= RCT
3 = cohort study
4 = case control study
5 = expert opinion

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25
phases of clinical trials
phase 1 - small no. healthy volunteers phase 2 - increase no. phase 3 - RCT phase 4 - product liscended and surviellence
26
difference between cohort and case control?
cohort- group studied overtime to see who develops case control - look back at predisposing factors
27
what is a forrest plot?
used to represent meta-analysis data each rectangle = study , large lines = confidence interval - if they cross OR of 1 then not significant larger rectangle - larger no. of people in study the line in middle / OR of 1 = no significant difference. if diamond = the sum / average of all studies
28
define a systematic analysis
qualitative review of data of all similar studies in response to a specifc Q (different from literature review as more random selection of studies)
29
define a meta-analysis
quantitative review of data from all available primary studies (usually RCT) that are of similar nature to answer a specifc Q and reach a conclusion
30
factors helping to ensure high quality meta-analysis
- clearly defined Q for analysis - clear and reproducible methodology - clear inclusion/ exclusion criteria - avoid publication bias - random selection not just studies with positive outcome.
31
outline the Electromagnetic spectrum
radio micro infrared visible light UV light Xrays gamma rays increased frequency and shorter wavelength e.g. gamma all transverse waves (sound waves are longitudanal)
32
wavelengths for visible light
400nm to 700nm
33
explain reflection, refraction and diffraction
reflection - light bounces back at same angle it hit surface. angle of incidence = reflection refraction = when light travels from one medium to another, it bends because speed will vary in each medium. diffraction - disperses as it goes through narrowing
34
what is total internal reflection
line of normal drawn. angle of incidence = the light coming through measured against normal angle of refraction - will be larger if travelling into a less dense medium. as angle of incidence increases so does angle of refraction - eventually > 90 degrees
35
what is a fibre optic scope?
thousands of glass fibres arranged in parrallel and tightly ordered to transmit light from one source to a distant source at the tip. work by total internal reflection - keeps light energy focused and prevents loss of energy each glass fibre is coated in cladding glass of lower density (lower refractive index) to allow total internal reflection.
36
pros and cons of fibreoptic scopes
pros - difficutl airway, visualise beyond glottis, pulmonary suction under vision cons - requires training , expensive and fragile, blood/secretions obsurce view, cork in wine bottle.
37
how does a laser work?
flash light / energy provided to lasing medium electrons elevated to higher energy level drop down and release photon - spontaneous emission photon hits another electron in exited phase = stimulated emission (same phase and same wavelegnth and in parralle) amplification of energy reflective ends - energy bouncing back and forth small hole in one end for it to escape
38
what does LASER stand for?
Light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation
39
features of laser safe tube
stainless steal flexible spiral - cant burn non-combustable double cuff
40
Mx of airway fire
turn off laser, call for help turn down O2 / cease ventilation remove ET tube flood with saline TIVA bronchoscopy reintubate HDU / ITU - ARDS / resp failure
41
42
43
how does an MRI work?
H atoms have spin and charge and act like mini magnets placed in a magnet and align with the magnetic field - Radiofrequency magnetic filed energy is applied causing the H atoms to flip 90 degrees to the original field = higher energy state When RF turned off they relax back to original state and release energy Scanner picks up the energy released and compares different rates of relaxation/ excitation to determine type of body tissue.
44
what is the strength of the magnet produced by MRI?
1- 3 Tesla static magnet
45
how much noise does MRI produce ?
100 Db
46
what is the difference between T1 and T2 image?
T1 = water is black, fat white. T2 = water is white and fat white
47
what contrast medium can be used with MRI?
Gadolinium used with T1 weighted MRI alters relaxation of H making the image more visible.
48
when in contrast MRI's used?
angiography GIT brain tumours that have crossed the BBB
49
what are the benefits of an MRI?
non ionising better for soft tissues better for making 3D images.
50
how is the high strength magnet created?
cryogenic superconducting magnets the metal is cooled to close to absolute zero (0 K) by immersing in liquid helium this causes the metals resistance to become close to absolute zero meaning its current is v high allowing is to create a very strong magnetic field.
51
what is quench?
liquid helium heated rapidly vented from scanner no liquid helium to create a superconducting magnet no magnetic field
52
what are the disadvantages/ safety concerns for an MRI ?
Practicalities for trust * Large * Expensive For patient: * Claustrophobia – trauma * Noisy – can cause damage to ears * Contraindicated for those with metal implants For anaesthetist: * Cant access patient * A lot of equipment incompatible * Far away from clinical area e.g. ITU * Availability of drugs and equipment is limited. * Interference with monitoring from magnet induced currents. Safety: * Risk of metal objects being projected and injuring patient * Radiofrequency energy causes induced current and heating of metals = may cause burns.
53
what are the indications for a GA MRI?
Unstable patient – intubated and ventilated Uncooperative patient – child, learning difficulties , Claustrophobia Intra op MRI – do surgery, check with MRI, do more surgery if needed
54
how do CTs work?
CTs take a series of X-ray images around a central axis
55
What equipment is unsafe in MRI
Any ferrous equipment E.g. laryngoscopes, stethoscopes, gas cylinders, drip stands, defibrillators Pulmonary artery catheter small bit of metal at tip – can get induced currents and cause microshock if put in a magnet.
56
How is safety of MRI improved?
Faraday cage - Entire room is coated with copper/ aluminium For monitoring – special MRI compatible equipment *e.g. ecg electrodes- carbon electrodes * e.g. graphite ecg leads. *e.g. nylon BP cuffs *e.g. special pulse oximeters – fibre optic cabling to prevent induced currents and burns wires should run down centre of patient - furthest from the walls of the doughnut.
57
what are the problems with quenching the MRI
can cause damage to scanner a lot of money to replace He risk of hypoxic area - designed to vent He externally however risk it gets into the MRI room, diluting O2
58
Hazards of anaesthesia in MRI
Magnetic field... * dangerous projectiles e.g. gas cylinders * ferromagnetic foreign bodies become dislodged e.g. metals in eye * pacemaker inactivated / reprogrammed dynamic magnetic field * induce currents - interference but also biological tissues patient * noise, claustrophobia radiofrequency heating * burns from any conducting material on patient hence ecg leads carbon fibre and pulse ox is fibre optic helium escape * hypoxic anaesthetist * unfamiliar environment with unfamiliar equiptment * away from patient
59
do you know any critical incidence related to MRI?
ferromagnetic object - loose coins/ keys in pockets accelarating and causing injury. more serious would be O2 cylinders, wheelchairs. may result in serious patient/ staff injury Cardiac arrest in MRI scanner- need to remove patient, cant take arrest trolley and defib into the room
60
when are magnets used in practice?
MRI deactivating ICD paramagnetic O2 analyser
61
62
what is ultrasound?
USS is a form of imaging relying on the use of sound waves in frequencies above that of human hearing (>20Hz)
63
how does USS work?
It works via the piezoelectric effect. The USS probe contains multiple crystals that vibrate when current is applied and then produce sound. USS emits sound waves to tissue sound is reflected off tissue boundaries when there is a change in density of tissue. sound waves are detected by USS and again via piezoelectric effect transduced into current for interpretation. - The time taken for wave to be detected is determined by depth - The amount reflected is determined by tissue interfaces - The machine filters and processes the signals - Each wave creates a pixel on the screen to create an image
64
what frequency sound waves are used by an USS? are used by the human ear?
human hearing 20Hz to 20KHz USS anything above 20KHz however in **medical USS usually 5 to 15 MHz**
65
how do USS waves travel through tissue depending on their wavelength/ frequency?
short wavelength, high frequency = lower depths, high resolution long wavelength, low freq = deeper but reduced resolution.
66
what colours are bone, tissue and fluid?
urine /fluid = black tissues = grey bone = white (strongly reflected sound waves)
67
define frequency ...
the number of waves passing a point per second. measured in hertz inversely related to wavelength
68
define wavelength of a wave?
the distance between 2 peaks of a wave or the length for one complete wave cycle.
69
what is the equation relating velocity of a wave to wavelength and velocity?
v=λ×f v velocity λ wavelength f frequency the speed of sound in the body is constant and thus wavelength and frequency are inversely related.
70
why is gel used in USS?
improve contact between the probe and surface and reduce air in between these. air has high attenuation and thus will absorb sound waves and reduce image quality. gel is a low attenuation material - allows sound waves to pass through without loss of energy.
71
define resolution
the ability to distinguish between 2 points hence improves quality of an image
72
what type of wave is a sound wave
sound waves are longitundal waves do not belong to EM spectrum (transverse waves)
73
what modes of USS are used in medical imaging?
A mode = amplitude - uses a single wave, assesses depth of tissue. no 2D image. e.g. opthal to look at globe size or bladder scanner B mode = brightness - linear array of waves to create 2D image. most common mode e.g. regional, vascular acsess M mode = motion - B mode used in series to look at changes to image and hence motion. used for heart valves / echo doppler mode = uses the doppler effect looking at a frequency shift in sound waves to determine velocity of a moving object e.g. blood.
74
define the doppler effect...
The doppler effect is the phenomena whereby the sound of a moving object changes its frequency depending on if its moving towards or away from sound detector the shift in frequency is proportional to velocity of the moving object. can be used to quantify the direction and velocity of blood flow via the following formula
75
doppler equation
f0= original frequency c = speed of sound
76
how is the probes angle important in doppler effect?
if at 90 degres cos 90 = 0 so needs to be angulated and constant to measure velocity.
77
what factors affect the image quality in an USS?
Frequency of waves - the higher frequency, the higher the resolution. hence to view deeper structures, this will have to be reduced which will reduce image quality. Attenuation of the material - low attenuation helps not loose energy from the sound waves hence use of gel to reduce attenuation (air has high attenuation) gain - increasing brightness to optimise the contrast seen at tissue bounfaries. type of probe - a linear probe creates higher frequency than curvilinear probe.
78
what is colour doppler?
on modern USS machines you can select a mode which looks at blood flow via doppler effect red = blood moving towards probe blue = blood moving away from probe can help with vascular access
79
what are the pros and cons of USS?
PROS: * safe , non ionising * cheap * relatively portable / more convienient * simple to use * many uses - cardiac output, regional, obstetrics cons: * not good for all tissue types e.g. bone * not good for deep structures * user dependant - requires some training
80
define depth, gain and focus..
depth = how deep the sound waves go and image will show. lower frequency, longer wavelgnth gain = how bright image is - increases noise focus = increasing resolution - focal zone has highest resolution - can adjust where this is.
81
Give 3 patient factors that may influence image quality of USS
- Movement e.g. shivering - Obesity – difficult to view deep structures, increased fat results in attenuation of USS beam - Inability to position for certain scans
82
why does pleura appear white on USS
air is a poor absorber - so a lot is reflected at tissue / air interface
83
Give 4 acoustic artefacts that may influence the USS image quality
- Contact artefact – probe not in contact with skin e.g. need more gel - Acoustic shadowing – much of USS beam is reflected at interfaces between lesser and highly attenuating tissues. Tissues deep to these won’t be seen - Lateral shadowing/ refraction – USS hits curved structure and there is refraction - Poor resolution – USS wavelength is larger than size of structure - Anisotropy – image is dependent on the angle of USS to the structure
84
uses of USS in anaesthesia
cannulation / CVC peripheral nerve blocks difficult airway assessment - cricothyroid membrane tracheostomy identifying pneumothorax oesophageal doppler FAST scan Transthoracic ECHO - Assessing degree of gastric emptying prior to induction
85
Give 5 pieces of information that can be provided from transthoracic echocardiography in a haemodynamically unstable patient
- Evidence of MI e.g. wall motion abnormalities - LV failure - Ejection fraction - valvular problems - Evidence of hypovolaemia – narrow and collapsing vena cava , small chambers, large EF - evidence of tamponade
86
Give 4 echocardiographic assessments that are facilitated by the doppler effect
1. flow through shunts 2. flow through valve / regurg fraction 3. LV function / aortic stenosis - velocity across valve 4. coronary artery flow
87
uses of doppler in clinical practice
* oesophageal and CO monitoring * transthoracic - cardiac function e.g. velocity of blood, regurgitation * VTE assessment in peripheral limbs * transcranial doppler - cerebral blood flow * pulses in limbs in vascular patients
88
needling techniques – pros and cons
89
how does diathermy work?
high frequency AC current = 0.5 - 1.5mHz applied over small area = high current density causes cutting and coagulation of tissues can be continous mode - sine wave Or pulsed or blend of the 2
90
difference between monopolar and bipolar diathermy
monopolar = current between instument and plate. plate is large 10cm/10cm to allow low current density and no damage bipolar = current between 2 points of instrument, doesnt go through patient.
91
why is high frequnecy currents used in diathermy?
human tissue resonates at 50Hz well away from this so doesnt disrupt biolongical signals high frequnecy creates high energy for cutting/coag
92
pros and cons of diathermy (inc safety)
pros = precise, reduces bleeding cons = interference with ECG, safety issues , pacemaker complications safety 1. burns - if pad not in good contact, high current density. OR no pad, current will go through ECG electrodes. OR ignition of skin preps 2. microshock - uses high freq current away from human tissue current. 3. interference with monitoring 4. interferes with pacemaker / ICD
93
risk of diathermy and implantable cardiac devices
diathermy currents picked up and pacing stops diathermy currents picked up and ICD activated - shock burns and damaged devices
94
how is risk of pacemakers and diathermy minimised?
1. assynchronous mode 2. innactivate ICD and attach external pads - can use magnet 3. use bipolar 4. monopolar - place plate away from pacaker 5. short bursts
95
what is a) current b) voltage c) resistance
current - movement of charge - measured in amperes. can be AC or DC . coulombs / second voltage = energy required to move charge between 2 points resistance = ability of material to resist current. ohms
96
frequency & voltage of UK mains
50Hz 240 volts
97
difference between AC and DC current (graph)
98
what is capacitance and inductance.
a device that stores electrical charge = capacitor = farads. Capacitors prefer AC current - charge and discharge to allow them to continue 2 conducting plates either side of insultator inductor - component which opposes flow of current by creating backwards electromotive force to changes EMF decrease with direct current (as not changing) consists of coils of wire - increases inductance
99
what is power?
energy used per unit time watts = joules / second
100
101
explain how a defibrilator works
2 adhesive pads placed on patients chest with good contact 5000V batery - transformer and AC --DC conversion parrallel circuit capacitor inductor - slows current down to deliver charge over longer time. reduces risk of burns switch
102
factors affecting thoracic impedence
resistance to flow of current Stroke volume - more impedance ventilation - more impedence shaving and skin prep = reduce impedence
103
how does cardioversion differ to defib
synchronised to peak of R wave to prevent VF lower energies used.
104
safety considerations of defib / ICD
risk of burns, fires risk of VF electrocution of staff interfer with pacemakers
105
what is a wheatstone bridge?
voltage divider used to measure unknown resistance by comparing ratios of resistance when 2 voltage dividers are placed in parallel used for strain gauges in arterial BP monitoring
106
3 types of electrical injury
burns - depends on current density arrhtyhmias - depends on current density AND frequency tetany - cant let go phenomena
107
what does damage from electrocution depend on?
current type - AC / DC current frequency magnitude duration route taken conductivity of surface e.g. sole of foot vs wet skin
108
effects of different magnitudes of current
1mA = tingling 5mA = pain 15mA-30 = tetany 50mA = asphyxia 100mA = VF , burning
109
what is microshock?
small amount of current but through a small area in close contact with myocardium e.g. guidewires, central lines, pacing lines. creates high current density
110
what is class I, II and III equiptment
class 1 = earth casing class 2 = double insultated class 3 = safety extra low voltage - 24 V
111
methods ot improve electrical safety
- maintaince - use of eathing / double insulation - fuses - trained staff - correct shoes - avoid wet surface - anti-stratic surface - relative humidity > 50%
112
what is the difference between type B, BF and CF electrical equiptment ?
classed based on leakage current usually for equiptment inserted into the body and risk of microshocks B = max AC 500uA , DC 50uA - leakage current multiple circuits AC 100uA, DC 10uA BF = same as above but floating circuit i.e. isolated CF = cardiac floating max AC / DC 50uA, multiple 10uA
113
what is a transformer?
114
describe a circle breathing system...
FGF --> PT --> expired air --> APL valve --> bag --> ventilator --> SL --> back to FGF closed - efficient / environment friendly CO2 needs to be reabsorbed one way waves wide bore tubes - minimise resistance
115
pros and cons of circle breathing system..
low FGF, less cost, less pollution , maintains humidity cons - high resistance, low FiO2 , risk of rebreathing, toxic products - compound A and CO
116
describe capnograph phases
117
method of CO2 measurement
infra red spectrometry molecules with 2 dissimilar atoms absorb at particular wave length (4.3um) light passes throguh a sample beer and lambert law path of light is fixed conc of CO2 varies
118
what wavelength in pulse ox? how does it work
LED emit these wavelength = 660nm and 940nm photodetect detect beer and lamberts oxyHb and deoxy Hb ratios compared only pulsatile blood looked at isobestic point is where the absorptions cross