network review Flashcards

(438 cards)

1
Q

Which of the following sets correctly represents the possible values that can be represented by each digit in hexadecimal notation?

-0 through 7
-0 through 9 and A through E
-0 through 9 and A through F
-1 through 10

A

-0 through 9 and A through F

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2
Q

Which of the following BEST describes a logical topology where all nodes can send traffic to one another using hardware addresses within the same segment?

-Star topology
-Ring topology
-Mesh topology
-Logical segment topology

A

-Logical segment topology
A logical segment topology refers to a network configuration at the Data Link layer where all nodes can send traffic to one another using hardware addresses, regardless of whether they share access to the same media. This is not necessarily tied to the physical layout of the network but rather to the logical organization of the network at layer 2.

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3
Q

From the list below, identify which questions are open questions that would be effective in gathering detailed information during a troubleshooting process. (Select three.)

-Did the problem start after you installed new software?
-What changes have you noticed since the issue began?
-Do you have problems with other applications as well?
-Have you tried restarting your device?
-Is your computer running Windows 10?
-Can you describe the steps you took before noticing the issue?
-What error message do you see when the problem occurs?

A

-What changes have you noticed since the issue began?
-Can you describe the steps you took before noticing the issue?
-What error message do you see when the problem occurs?

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4
Q

In the OSI model, physical addressing takes place at which layer?

-Data link layer
-Physical layer
-Application layer
-Session layer

A

-Data link layer
The data link layer (DLL) is responsible for the node-to-node delivery of the message. When a packet arrives in a network, it is the responsibility of DLL to transmit it to the host using its MAC address.

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5
Q

Which of the following tasks are associated with the “Test the theory to determine cause” step in the CompTIA Network+ troubleshooting methodology? (Select two.)

-Establish new theory or escalate.
-Document findings, actions, and outcomes.
-Determine next steps to resolve problem.
-Implement the solution.
-Question users

A

-Establish new theory or escalate.
-Determine next steps to resolve problem.

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6
Q

What role does the Presentation layer (layer 6) of the OSI model play in terms of data compression and encryption?

-The Presentation layer is primarily responsible for the physical encryption of data using hardware-based methods.
-The Presentation layer is involved in the logical organization of data into frames for transmission.
-The Presentation layer supports data compression and encryption to prepare data for network transmission.
-The Presentation layer handles the routing of data between different networks and supports encryption protocols like IPsec.

A

-The Presentation layer supports data compression and encryption to prepare data for network transmission.
The Presentation layer transforms data to ensure that it is in the correct format for the application or network. This includes data compression to reduce the size of the data for transmission and encryption to secure the data during transfer.

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7
Q

At which layer of the OSI model is an Ethernet frame encapsulated?

-Physical Layer
-Data Link Layer
-Network Layer
-Transport Layer

A

-Data Link Layer
The Data Link Layer is responsible for the framing of data, including the encapsulation of packets into frames for transmission over physical media. Ethernet frames are a key part of this layer’s protocol, providing addressing and error checking to ensure data reaches its intended destination on a local network segment.

The Physical Layer deals with the transmission of raw bit streams over a physical medium, not the structuring of data into frames.

The Network Layer is concerned with the logical addressing and routing of packets across multiple networks, not the framing of data.

The Transport Layer handles end-to-end communication services for applications, such as segmentation and flow control, not the framing of data.

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8
Q

A user reports that they can’t connect to a server on your network. You check the problem and find out that all users are having the same problem.
What should you do next?

-Determine what has changed.
-Identify the affected areas of the network.
-Establish the most probable cause.
-Create an action plan.

A

-Determine what has changed.

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9
Q

Your company has a network where all devices can communicate with each other as if they were directly connected, regardless of the physical connections.
What type of network topology does this describe?

-Star topology
-Mesh topology
-Logical topology
-Ring topology

A

-Logical topology
Logical topology is the correct answer. A logical topology describes the flow of data through the network. In the scenario, each device can send messages to any other device on the network, which is a characteristic of a logical topology.

A star topology is a type of physical topology where each device on the network is connected to a central node or switch. While the scenario describes a network that physically resembles a star topology, the question is asking for the type of network topology that describes the flow of data, which is a logical topology.

In a mesh topology, every device is connected to every other device on the network. This is not the case in the scenario described.

In a ring topology, each device is connected to exactly two other devices, forming a ring. This is not the case in the scenario described.

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10
Q

You are the lead network engineer responsible for maintaining the network infrastructure of a large enterprise. One day, you receive reports that a specific department is experiencing intermittent network connectivity issues. This problem affects various applications and services, including email, web browsing, and internal database access.
After a preliminary investigation, you find no immediate issues with the network hardware or server configurations.
Given the intermittent nature of the problem and its impact on multiple services, you decide to employ the divide and conquer approach of the OSI model to efficiently troubleshoot and identify the root cause of the connectivity issues.
Using the divide and conquer approach of the OSI model, which of the following steps should you take first to troubleshoot the intermittent network connectivity issues affecting the department?

-Inspect the configuration of the routers and switches to ensure they are correctly routing and switching packets.
-Check the application logs on the affected workstations and servers for any errors or warnings.
-Examine the network cables and connections for any signs of damage or improper connection.
-Analyze the session management to ensure that connections between the client and server applications are stable.

A

-Inspect the configuration of the routers and switches to ensure they are correctly routing and switching packets.

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11
Q

Your company has a network where each device is connected to a central hub via separate cables. What type of network topology does this BEST describe?

-Logical topology
-Mesh topology
-Ring topology
-Physical topology

A

-Physical topology
A physical topology is the correct answer. A physical topology describes the physical arrangement of the devices on the network and how they are connected. In the scenario, each device is connected to a central hub via separate cables, which is a characteristic of a physical topology.

A logical topology refers to the flow of data through the network. While the devices in the scenario can likely send messages to each other, the question is asking for the type of network topology that describes the physical arrangement of the devices and their connections, which is a physical topology.

In a mesh topology, every device is connected to every other device on the network. This is not the case in the scenario described.

In a ring topology, each device is connected to exactly two other devices, forming a ring. This is not the case in the scenario described.

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12
Q

You are setting up a small office network with several computers, a printer, and a network storage device. All devices are connected to a single switch.
You want to ensure that each device can communicate with the others on the network. To facilitate this communication, you need to consider the type of addressing that is used at the Data Link layer.
What type of address is used at the Data Link layer to ensure each device can communicate with the others on the same network segment?

-IP addresses assigned by a DHCP server
-MAC addresses that are unique to each network interface
-Hostnames configured by the network administrator
-Port numbers assigned by the network applications

A

-MAC addresses that are unique to each network interface

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13
Q

Which organization developed the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model?

-IEEE (Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers)
-ISO (International Organization for Standardization)
-IETF (Internet Engineering Task Force)
-ITU (International Telecommunication Union)

A

-ISO (International Organization for Standardization)

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14
Q

A university’s IT department is tasked with connecting two campus buildings with a high-speed data link to support both their current network traffic and anticipated growth over the next decade. The buildings are 3 kilometers apart, and there is an existing single-mode fiber optic cable installed between them.
The department wants to maximize the use of this single fiber strand to support multiple high-speed data channels for various services including internet access, video conferencing, and secure administrative data transfers.
Given the need for scalability, cost-effectiveness, and the ability to support future technologies, which Wavelength Division Multiplexing (WDM) solution should the IT department consider?

-Implement Bidirectional Wavelength Division Multiplexing (BiDi) for its simplicity and cost-effectiveness.
-Utilize Coarse Wavelength Division Multiplexing (CWDM) to support up to 16 channels on the existing infrastructure.
-Utilize Dense Wavelength Division Multiplexing (DWDM) to ensure maximum scalability and support for future growth.
-Deploy Simplex Wavelength Division Multiplexing (SWDM) for its advanced single-direction data transmission capabilities.

A

-Utilize Coarse Wavelength Division Multiplexing (CWDM) to support up to 16 channels on the existing infrastructure.
CWDM is an ideal choice for the university’s requirements because it can support up to 16 wavelengths, making it scalable for future needs while being cost-effective for the current distance of 3 kilometers. CWDM’s ability to operate over a single fiber strand with less precise (and therefore less expensive) lasers than DWDM makes it a practical solution for the university’s inter-building connectivity.

While Bidirectional Wavelength Division Multiplexing (BiDi) is cost-effective, it is more suited for simple point-to-point links with a limited number of channels, which may not meet the university’s need for scalability and support for multiple services.

Dense Wavelength Division Multiplexing (DWDM) offers the highest scalability and channel capacity, but it may be overkill for the university’s current distance and immediate needs, making it a less cost-effective option compared to CWDM.

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15
Q

What does the TIA/EIA cabling standard require for fiber patch cord polarity?

-An even number of elements in the link, such as two patch cords and two permanent links
-No requirement for crossover in the link elements
-A direct connection without the use of patch cords
-An odd number of elements in the link, such as two patch cords and a permanent link

A

-An odd number of elements in the link, such as two patch cords and a permanent link
The TIA/EIA cabling standard specifies that for maintaining correct fiber patch cord polarity, there must be an odd number of elements in the link. This configuration ensures that the correct polarity is maintained from one end of the connection to the other. The elements typically include patch cords and a permanent link. Having an odd number of elements ensures that a crossover occurs at each connection point, correctly aligning the transmit (Tx) and receive (Rx) signals.

An even number of elements would not ensure the necessary crossover of Tx and Rx signals at each connection point. Without the correct crossover, the system would not maintain proper polarity, potentially leading to signal transmission failures.

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16
Q

What type of sprinkler system holds water at high pressure and discharges water when triggered by heat?

-Dry-pipe
-Pre-action
-Wet-pipe
-Halon

A

-Wet-pipe
Wet-pipe sprinkler systems constantly hold water at high pressure and discharge water when triggered by heat, making them quick to respond to fires.

Dry-pipe systems are used in areas where freezing is possible.

Pre-action systems require an alarm trigger before filling with water.

Halon is a gas-based fire suppression system.

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17
Q

You maintain the network for an industrial manufacturing company. A short-circuit of a switch in the server room starts an electrical fire.

Which of the following should you use to suppress the fire? (Select two.)

-Clean Agent Fire Suppression System (such as FM-200/HFC-227)
-Water-Based (Wet-Pipe) Sprinkler System
-CO2 Fire Extinguisher
-Class C Fire Extinguisher
-Dry-Pipe Sprinkler System

A

-Class C Fire Extinguisher
-Clean Agent Fire Suppression System (such as FM-200/HFC-227)
While CO2 fire extinguishers can be effective against electrical fires by displacing oxygen and reducing the temperature, they are not safe for use in occupied areas due to the risk of asphyxiation. In a server room scenario, where personnel might be present trying to control the fire, the use of CO2 could pose a significant risk to their safety.
Class C Fire Extinguisher. A Class C fire extinguisher is designed specifically for electrical fires, which involve electrical equipment. This type of extinguisher uses non-conductive substances to suppress the fire, making it the ideal choice for a fire caused by a short-circuit in a switch within a server room. Using a Class C extinguisher ensures that the fire can be suppressed without increasing the risk of electrocution.
Clean Agent Fire Suppression System (such as FM-200/HFC-227). Clean agent fire suppression systems, such as those using FM-200/HFC-227, are suitable for suppressing electrical fires without causing damage to electronic equipment. These systems work by quickly extinguishing the fire while leaving no residue, making them perfect for sensitive environments like server rooms. Additionally, they are safe for use in occupied areas and do not conduct electricity, addressing the issue without harming the equipment or personnel.

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18
Q

Which of the following are characteristics of a coaxial network cable? (Select two.)

-It is composed of four pairs of 22-gauge copper wire.
-It has a conductor made from copper in its center.
-it uses RJ45 connectors.
-The conductors within the cable are twisted around each other to eliminate crosstalk.
-A wire mesh wrapped around the plastic constitutes the second conductor.

A

-It has a conductor made from copper in its center.
-A wire mesh wrapped around the plastic constitutes the second conductor.

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19
Q

Which optical wavelengths are typically supported by different transceivers?

-650 nm, 850 nm, and 1300 nm
-850 nm, 1300 nm, and 1550 nm
-900 nm, 1200 nm, and 1600 nm
-700 nm, 950 nm, and 1450 nm

A

-850 nm, 1300 nm, and 1550 nm

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20
Q

Which command should be used to investigate a suspended port that is part of a link aggregation group?

-show vlan
-show etherchannel
-show running-config
-show ip interface brief

A

-show etherchannel
The show etherchannel command should be used to investigate the cause of a suspended port that is part of a link aggregation group. This command provides details on the aggregation group and its negotiation status.

The show vlan command displays VLAN assignments, not details about link aggregation groups.

The show running-config command displays the current configuration of the switch, which may not provide specific details on the status of an etherchannel.

The show ip interface command brief provides a brief overview of interface statuses and IP addresses, not detailed etherchannel information.

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21
Q

Which of the following is NOT a component of a standard Ethernet frame header?

-EtherType field
-Error checking field
-Payload size indicator
-Destination and source MAC address fields

A

-Payload size indicator

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22
Q

What is the primary function of an Ethernet switch in a network?

-To provide a wireless access point for devices
-To establish collision and broadcast domain boundaries
-To connect different network architectures, such as Ethernet and Token Ring
-To encrypt network traffic for security purposes

A

-To establish collision and broadcast domain boundaries

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23
Q

Which deployment method uses multiple strands to implement Tx and Rx channels?answer

-Parallel
-Wavelength Division Multiplexing
-Duplex
-Single Strand

A

-Parallel

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24
Q

During a network upgrade, a network administrator decides to replace a hub with an Ethernet bridge to improve network performance.

Which of the following outcomes should the administrator expect after the replacement?

-An increase in the number of broadcast domains
-A reduction in the overall network security
-An increase in the number of collision domains
-A decrease in the network’s data transfer speeds

A

-An increase in the number of collision domains

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25
Which of the following is true about the impact of drawing power down a PoE cable? -It decreases the cable's resistance. -It can decrease data transmission rates. -It increases data transmission rates. -It enhances thermal performance without additional measures.
-It can decrease data transmission rates. Drawing power through a PoE cable increases the temperature within the cable, which can decrease the cable's ability to transmit data at high rates.
26
You are configuring a new network segment that includes three switches: Switch A, Switch B, and Switch C. Switch A is connected to Switch B, Switch B is connected to Switch C, and Switch C is connected back to Switch A, forming a triangle. To prevent loops, you decide to implement the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP). After enabling STP, you notice that one of the links between the switches is not forwarding traffic. Which of the following links is MOST likely to be in a blocking state due to STP? -The link between Switch A and Switch B -The link between Switch B and Switch C -The link between Switch C and Switch A -Any of the links could be in a blocking state depending on the bridge IDs
-Any of the links could be in a blocking state depending on the bridge IDs
27
How does a hub handle a unicast transmission? -It sends the transmission directly to the destination address without broadcasting. -It discards the transmission if it does not recognize the destination address. -It broadcasts the transmission to all connected devices. -It encrypts the transmission before sending it to the destination.
-It broadcasts the transmission to all connected devices. Hubs do not differentiate between unicast, multicast, or broadcast transmissions. They broadcast all incoming transmissions to every connected device, regardless of the destination address specified in the transmission.
28
How is the EtherType value used to distinguish between payload type and frame length? -EtherTypes are values of 0x0600 or greater to indicate protocol type; values less than this indicate payload length. -EtherTypes are always used to indicate frame length, regardless of the value. -EtherTypes are always used to indicate payload type, regardless of the value. -EtherTypes values less than 0x0600 indicate protocol type; values greater than this indicate payload length.
-EtherTypes are values of 0x0600 or greater to indicate protocol type; values less than this indicate payload length.
29
As a network engineer, you are tasked with troubleshooting intermittent network issues that have been reported by users in your organization. You suspect that some of the Ethernet frames being transmitted across the network might be corrupted. To confirm your suspicion, you decide to utilize a tool that analyzes Ethernet frames for errors. Specifically, you want to focus on the integrity of the frames by examining a particular field within them. Which field should you instruct the tool to analyze for detecting potential frame corruption? -Cyclic Redundancy Check (CRC) -EtherType -Start Frame Delimiter (SFD) -Preamble
-Cyclic Redundancy Check (CRC) The Cyclic Redundancy Check (CRC), also known as the Frame Check Sequence (FCS), is a 32-bit checksum used to detect errors in Ethernet frames. By analyzing the CRC field, the tool can determine if a frame has been corrupted during transmission, making it the correct choice for this scenario.
30
A small software development company is moving its operations to a new location within a mixed-use building that includes offices, retail spaces, and a fitness center. The company's network infrastructure needs to support general office work, software development activities, and occasional large data transfers. The network cabling will run through shared spaces, including areas close to the building's electrical rooms and the fitness center's gym equipment. The company aims to achieve a balance between cost-effectiveness and network reliability. Considering these factors, which type of twisted pair cabling should the company use for its network infrastructure? -Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP) -Screened Twisted Pair (ScTP) -Shielded Twisted Pair (STP) -Fully Shielded Twisted Pair (S/FTP)
-Screened Twisted Pair (ScTP) In a mixed-use building with potential for moderate electromagnetic interference (EMI) from electrical rooms and gym equipment, Screened Twisted Pair (ScTP) cabling, also known as F/UTP, offers a good balance between cost and performance. It provides a thin foil shield around all wire pairs, which helps mitigate the impact of EMI, ensuring more reliable network performance than UTP cabling without the higher costs associated with fully shielded options. This makes it a suitable choice for the company's need for reliability while being mindful of budget constraints.
31
Your company has recently acquired several non-standard tower servers that need to be integrated into the existing data center, which primarily uses rack systems. Considering the need for secure and efficient installation, how should you accommodate these tower servers in the rack-dominated environment? -Convert the tower servers into rack-mountable units using a conversion kit. -Install the tower servers on shelves within the racks. -Leave the tower servers on the floor next to the racks for easy access. -Place the tower servers on shelves above the racks to save space.
-Install the tower servers on shelves within the racks.
32
A systems administrator needs to combine multiple 1 Gbps connections to be able to support 2 Gbps connections. What should the administrator set up? -CAM table -NIC teaming -Port security configuration -Auto-MDI/MDIX
-NIC teaming Port aggregation combines two or more separate cabled links into a single logical channel. From the host end, this is also known as NIC teaming. Auto-MDI/MDIX means that the switch senses the configuration of the connected device and cable wiring and ensures that a media dependent interface (MDI) uplink to an MDIX port gets configured.
33
You are a network administrator troubleshooting connectivity issues in a local area network (LAN) that uses Ethernet. One of the computers on the network is unable to access the Internet. You suspect the issue might be related to ARP. Which of the following steps would be MOST appropriate to diagnose the problem? -Check the ARP cache on the affected computer to see if it has the correct MAC address for the default gateway. -Immediately replace the Ethernet cables of the affected computer, assuming physical damage is causing the connectivity issue. -Configure the affected computer to use a static IP address instead of DHCP to bypass the ARP process. -Increase the firewall security settings on the affected computer to prevent ARP spoofing attacks.
-Check the ARP cache on the affected computer to see if it has the correct MAC address for the default gateway. Checking the ARP cache on the affected computer is a direct method to diagnose potential ARP-related issues. The ARP cache stores recent IP-to-MAC address mappings. If the MAC address for the default gateway is incorrect or missing, it could prevent the computer from accessing the Internet. This step helps in identifying whether the ARP process is functioning correctly or if there's an issue with the ARP entries.
34
What happens if there are multiple matches against a destination in the routing table? -The route with the shortest prefix wins. -The route with the longest prefix wins. -The route with the lowest AD value is chosen. -The route with the smallest packet size is preferred.
-The route with the longest prefix wins. The correct answer is that the route with the longest prefix wins. The longest prefix match rule states that when a router has multiple paths to a destination, the path with the most specific match (longest prefix) is chosen. This ensures that the most specific route is used for packet forwarding. The shortest prefix would be less specific, and routing decisions prioritize specificity to ensure accurate packet forwarding. AD values are used to compare the trustworthiness of routes from different routing protocols, not to decide between routes with different prefix lengths.
35
What command is used to create a VLAN with ID 16? -vlan create 16 -vlan 16 create -vlan 16 name VLAN16 -create vlan 16
-vlan 16 name VLAN16
36
Which VLAN IDs are referred to as the normal range? -1-1001 -2-1001 -1002-1005 -1006-4094
-2-1001 VLAN IDs 2-1001 are considered the normal range for VLAN configuration. These IDs are available for general use in network segmentation. The 1-1001 range incorrectly includes VLAN 1, which is the default VLAN, not part of the normal range. The 1002-1005 VLAN IDs are reserved and not part of the normal range. The 1006-4094 range represents the extended VLAN IDs, not the normal range.
37
Your company is expanding its online services, which will significantly increase the volume of internet traffic. The network infrastructure needs to be upgraded to handle this increase securely. The company operates a single, large-scale data center that hosts all its services. Which type of firewall would be MOST suitable for this scenario? -A high-capacity appliance firewall -A router firewall in a SOHO setup -Multiple small-capacity appliance firewalls distributed throughout the network -A basic software firewall installed on each server
-A high-capacity appliance firewall In a scenario where a company is expanding its online services leading to a significant increase in internet traffic, a high-capacity appliance firewall is the most suitable choice. This type of firewall is designed to handle large volumes of traffic efficiently, ensuring that the network's security is maintained without becoming a bottleneck. Its dedicated hardware is optimized for high performance and reliability, making it ideal for securing a large-scale data center that hosts critical services.
38
A network engineer is troubleshooting a connectivity issue where a router is not forwarding packets to a specific IP address as expected. The engineer suspects a misconfiguration in the router's routing table. To confirm the engineer's suspicion, which command should they use to inspect the router's active routing table? -show ip arp -show route -ip route show -route print
-show route The network engineer should use the show route command to inspect the router's active routing table. This command provides detailed information about the routing table, including destinations, gateways, and the source of each route, which can help identify any misconfigurations. The show ip arp command is used to view the ARP cache, not the routing table. The ip route show command is used on Linux hosts to display the routing table, not on routers. The route print command is specific to Windows hosts for displaying the routing tables, not applicable to routers.
39
You want to query the DNS server ns1.isp.example for the MX records of example.com but wish to minimize the output to only essential information. Which dig command should you use? -dig @ns1.isp.example example.com MX +short -dig @ns1.isp.example example.com -dig example.com MX -dig @ns1.isp.example example.com MX +nocomments +nostats
-dig @ns1.isp.example example.com MX +nocomments +nostats The dig @ns1.isp.example example.com MX +nocomments +nostats command specifically queries the DNS server ns1.isp.example for the MX records of example.com and uses the +nocomments and +nostats parameters to reduce the output to essential information only, making it the most suitable choice for the task. While the dig @ns1.isp.example example.com MX +short command correctly queries for MX records and aims to simplify the output, the +short option might overly simplify the output, potentially omitting useful details.
40
What is the default behavior of dig when no specific DNS server is mentioned in the command? -It queries the local host's DNS settings -It uses the default resolver. -It selects a random DNS server from a predefined list. -It fails to execute and returns an error.
-It uses the default resolver. If dig is run without specifying a DNS server, it will use the system's default resolver to perform the query. dig does not specifically query the local host's DNS settings unless the local host is set as the default resolver.
41
For how long is an IP address leased to a client by the DHCP server? -Indefinitely, until manually released -For a limited period only -For the duration of the client's connection to the network -For 24 hours by default
-For a limited period only
42
What happens when the T2 timer expires in DHCP? -The client stops using the IP address. -The client attempts renewal with the original server. -The client attempts to rebind the lease configuration with any available DHCP server. -The client's IP address is permanently assigned.
-The client attempts to rebind the lease configuration with any available DHCP server. When the T2 timer expires, the client broadens its attempt to maintain connectivity by seeking any available DHCP server to rebind its lease, not just the original server. This is a fail-safe mechanism to ensure network access.
43
You are given the FQDN: server.department.company.com. Which of the following parts of the FQDN represents the top-level domain (TLD)? -server -department -company -com
-com The TLD is the part of the FQDN that is furthest to the right before the root period, which in this case is "com". It indicates the most general part of the domain hierarchy. TLDs are categories of domains that help identify the purpose or geographic area of a domain. In this example, "com" is a generic TLD commonly used for commercial purposes. "server" is incorrect because it represents the specific host or resource within the domain, not the TLD. "department" is incorrect as it signifies a subdivision within the "company" domain, not the TLD. "company" is incorrect because it is a second-level domain under the TLD "com", indicating a specific organization or entity.
44
During a routine network audit, a network administrator discovers that an OSPF network with multiple areas is experiencing frequent re-convergence, leading to temporary routing instabilities. The network is designed with a backbone area (Area 0) and several other areas connected to it. The administrator suspects that the issue might be related to the OSPF configuration. What aspect of the OSPF configuration should the administrator investigate first to address the frequent re-convergence? -The administrator should check if all routers are correctly configured with the same OSPF process ID. -The administrator should verify the OSPF area configurations to ensure that all non-backbone areas are properly connected to Area 0. -The administrator should investigate whether OSPF authentication is enabled and configured correctly on all routers. -The administrator should examine the OSPF timers, particularly the hello and dead intervals, to ensure they are optimized for the network's size and topology.
-The administrator should verify the OSPF area configurations to ensure that all non-backbone areas are properly connected to Area 0.
45
What is the range of tag byte values that can be used for DHCP options? -0 to 255 -1 to 254 -1 to 255 -0 to 254
-1 to 254 DHCP options are identified by a tag byte, which can range from 1 to 254, allowing for a wide variety of options to be specified. 0 and 255 are reserved and cannot be used as option values.
46
Which VLAN IDs are reserved and not available for general use? -1-1001 -1002-1005 -1006-4094 -0-1
-1002-1005 VLAN IDs 1002-1005 are reserved for system use and are not available for general configuration. These VLANs are typically used for specific network protocols and functions. The 1-1001 range includes both the default VLAN and the normal range, which are available for general use. The 1006-4094 range represents the extended VLAN IDs, which are available for general use on devices that support them. VLAN ID 0 is not used, and VLAN ID 1 is the default VLAN, not a reserved range.
47
What is the prefix notation for globally unique unicast IPv6 addresses commonly referred to as? -/32 -/48 -/64 -/128
-/48 Globally unique unicast addresses in IPv6 are widely referred to as /48s. This notation indicates that the first 48 bits of the address are used for network identification, leaving the remaining bits for interface identification. This allows for a large number of unique addresses within a single network. The /32 prefix is typically used for IPv4 addresses and is not commonly associated with IPv6 globally unique unicast addresses. While /64 is a common subnet size for local networks in IPv6, it is not the prefix notation specifically used to refer to globally unique unicast addresses. The /128 prefix indicates a single IPv6 address, not a range of addresses, and is therefore not correct for globally unique unicast addresses.
48
What causes signal strength loss in fiber optic cables? -Electromagnetic interference from external sources -Microscopic imperfections in the structure of the glass fiber -Overheating of the fiber optic cables -Excessive bending of the cables beyond their physical limits
-Microscopic imperfections in the structure of the glass fiber
49
You've been told to assign the IP address 21.155.67.188 to a host on the network using the default subnet mask. Which of the following masks should you use? -21.0.0.0 -255.0.0.0 -255.255.0.0 -255.255.255.0 -21.155.0.0 -21.155.67.0
-255.0.0.0
50
What is the primary purpose of using internal DNS zones? -To provide name resolution services to the public internet -To manage authoritative zone records for domains managed by a company -To allow internal clients access to private network resources -To perform recursive queries for nonauthoritative domains
-To allow internal clients access to private network resources
51
How can connection security be established for an IMAP connection? -Using TCP port 25 -By connecting to TCP port 143 -Using a TLS -Through SMTP
-Using a TLS
52
A network administrator tasked with setting up a secure file transfer system for their company. The company's policy requires that all file transfers must be encrypted from the moment the connection is established. The network administrator needs to choose a protocol that automatically establishes a secure connection before any file transfer commands are exchanged. Which protocol should the network administrator implement? -SFTP -FTPES -Implicit TLS -Explicit TLS
-Implicit TLS
53
Which protocol enables the delivery of a stream of media data via UDP while implementing some of the reliability features associated with other protocols? -SIP -RTP -TCP -HTTP
-RTP RTP benefits most from the lower overhead and reduced latency and jitter of UDP, as it is designed for the real-time delivery of media data, where these factors are crucial. SIP is a session control protocol and can run over both UDP and TCP, but it is not specifically mentioned as benefiting most from UDP's characteristics. TCP is a protocol that provides reliable, ordered, and error-checked delivery of a stream of octets between applications running on hosts communicating via an IP network, contrasting with the characteristics of UDP. HTTP is a protocol used for transferring hypertext requests and information on the Internet, not specifically designed for real-time media delivery like RTP.
54
What is it called when a system's clock begins to be off by a few seconds or even minutes? -Slew -Slam -Time drift -Dispersion
-Time drift Time drift is when a system's clock begins to be off by a few seconds or minutes. Using Network Time Protocol (NTP) can help reduce the risk of time drift. Slewing is an NTP correction method where the time is adjusted a few milliseconds at a time until it's correct again. Slamming is an NTP correction method where the time is hard reset to the correct time. Dispersion measures how scattered the time offsets (in seconds) are from a given time server.
55
Where should you start when troubleshooting license issues on a network appliance? -Immediately contact the vendor's customer support. -Check the appliance's log. -Reboot the network appliance to reset its licensing system. -Increase the network bandwidth
-Check the appliance's log.
56
In Wireshark, what does the "Follow TCP Stream" context command do? -Encrypts the TCP session for security purposes -Reconstructs the packet contents for a TCP session -Disconnects the selected TCP session -Increases the speed of the TCP session
-Reconstructs the packet contents for a TCP session
57
Which of the following is an example of an unintentional source of rogue devices and services? -A malicious actor installing a keylogger on a network computer -Shadow IT, where users introduce unauthorized hardware or software -A hacker deploying a rogue DHCP server to intercept network traffic -An external consultant installing monitoring software without disclosure
-Shadow IT, where users introduce unauthorized hardware or software
58
You are the IT security manager for a mid-sized corporation. One morning, several employees report that when they try to access the company's internal portal, they are redirected to an external website that looks similar but asks for their credentials in a suspicious manner. Upon investigation, you suspect a DNS spoofing attack. What would be the MOST immediate and effective actions to take? (Select two.) -Increase the security settings on the corporate firewall. -Inspect DNS traffic for anomalies. -Instruct all employees to restart their computers. -Scan the network for rogue DHCP servers. -Update antivirus software on all employee computers.
-Inspect DNS traffic for anomalies. -Scan the network for rogue DHCP servers. The correct answers are to scan the network for rogue DHCP servers and inspect DNS traffic for anomalies. In the case of a DNS spoofing attack within a corporate network, the attacker might be using ARP poisoning to respond to DNS queries with spoofed replies or could have configured clients with the address of a DNS resolver they control via a rogue DHCP server. Scanning the network for rogue DHCP servers and inspecting DNS traffic for anomalies would help identify the source of the spoofed DNS responses, making it the most immediate and effective action to mitigate the attack. Restarting computers would not address the root cause of the DNS spoofing attack and would not prevent the redirection from happening again. While keeping antivirus software updated is a good security practice, it may not directly address or mitigate a DNS spoofing attack, as the issue lies within the network's DNS traffic or a rogue DHCP server. While enhancing firewall security is generally beneficial, it might not directly prevent DNS spoofing attacks within the network, especially if the attack originates from a compromised or rogue device internally.
59
What is fileless malware? -Malware that is stored on physical media only -Malware that does not write its code to disk -Malware that can be easily detected and removed by antivirus software -Malware that requires the user to manually execute it each time the computer starts
-Malware that does not write its code to disk
60
A company named "TechGadgets" has a domain "techgadgets.io" and plans to set up a subdomain for its online store named "store". What is the correct FQDN for a server named "checkout" within this subdomain? -checkout.store.techgadgets.io -store.checkout.techgadgets.io -checkout.techgadgets.io.store -store_techgadgets.io.checkout
-checkout.store.techgadgets.io
61
In HSRP, what term is used to describe the group of routers configured to work together as a single default gateway? -Active group -Standby group -Virtual group -Backup group
-Standby group
62
What happens when an 802.1Q tagged frame is received on an untagged port? -The frame is forwarded with the tag intact. -The tag is stripped, and the frame is forwarded to the host. -The port is automatically converted to a tagged port. -The frame is dropped
-The frame is dropped
63
Which of the following items of information are the MOST critical to include on a troubleshooting ticket? (Select three.) -The ticket creator's personal opinion on the cause -The favorite troubleshooting tool of the technician -Who is responsible -The brand of equipment being used -A complete description of the problem -The customer's contact information -A complete description of the solution
-A complete description of the solution -A complete description of the problem -Who is responsible Including who is responsible for the ticket ensures accountability and clarity on who is handling the problem. This is crucial for follow-ups and for maintaining an organized workflow.
64
A network administrator is tasked with configuring a new office's network to support both data and VoIP traffic. The office has a limited number of physical wall ports, and the administrator decides to use VoIP phones with embedded switches that have two external ports. Each desk will have a PC connected to a VoIP phone, which in turn is connected to the wall port. Which of the following configurations should the administrator apply to the switch port connected to the VoIP phone to support this setup? -Configure the port as a trunk port. -Configure the port with two access VLANs, one for data and one for voice. -Configure the port as an access port with a voice VLAN. -Configure the port as a general port without specifying VLANs.
-Configure the port as an access port with a voice VLAN.
65
In a high-rise office building, the fire alarm system detects smoke on one of the floors. The building is equipped with a sophisticated fire suppression system that includes automatic smoke detectors, manual alarm points, and a combination of wet-pipe and pre-action sprinkler systems. The fire is located in a storage room filled with paper products, which is adjacent to the server room. Given the situation, which immediate action should the building's fire safety team prioritize to effectively manage the fire while minimizing potential damage to the server room? -Activate the wet-pipe sprinkler system throughout the entire building. -Use portable Class A fire extinguishers to control the fire in the storage room. -Immediately release the clean agent fire suppression system in the server room. -Manually activate the pre-action sprinkler system in the storage room only.
-Use portable Class A fire extinguishers to control the fire in the storage room. Using portable Class A fire extinguishers to control the fire in the storage room is correct because Class A extinguishers are suitable for fires involving ordinary combustibles like paper, allowing for targeted suppression with minimal risk of water damage to the server room. Activating the wet-pipe system throughout the entire building could cause unnecessary water damage, especially in areas not affected by the fire. Because the fire is not in the server room. Prematurely releasing the clean agent could disrupt server operations unnecessarily. The pre-action system is designed to fill with water upon detection of a fire, but manual activation without confirmation of heat could delay fire suppression efforts. Portable extinguishers provide immediate, targeted response.
66
A system that contains custom applications routinely crashes. IT decides to upgrade the operating system after speaking with application support personnel, and testing the problem. What should IT do next to troubleshoot the issue? -Establish a plan of action. -Identify the problem. -Determine if anything has changed. -Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventive measures.
-Establish a plan of action.
67
A network administrator is configuring a small office network that needs to support up to 50 devices. The administrator decides to use the IP address range 192.168.1.0 for this network. To ensure that there are enough IP addresses for all devices, including network and broadcast addresses, which subnet mask should the administrator use? -255.255.255.192 -255.255.255.128 -255.255.255.0 -255.255.255.224
-255.255.255.192
68
According to NIST's latest guidance, is requiring multiple character classes for passwords recommended? -Yes, it is strongly recommended. -No, it is deprecated. -Yes, but only for critical systems. -No, but it is optional.
-No, it is deprecated. Explanation The correct answer is no, it is deprecated. NIST's latest guidance deprecates the requirement for mixing multiple character classes (letters, case, digits, and symbols) in passwords, although many organizations still follow this practice in their password policies. NIST has moved away from recommending multiple character classes. NIST's guidance does not make exceptions for critical systems. While organizations may choose to implement it, NIST has deprecated this requirement.
69
The network administrator of a large enterprise needs to manage switches, routers, and servers across the company's network. They require a solution that allows for secure remote authentication, as well as the ability to enforce different levels of authorization and perform detailed accounting of administrative actions. Which authentication protocol should the network administrator implement to meet these requirements? -RADIUS, because it simplifies the management of network devices by using a single shared secret for all devices. -TACACS+, because it separates authentication, authorization, and accounting functions, offering granular control over administrative access. -RADIUS, because it uses TCP for communication, ensuring that administrative commands are reliably delivered. -TACACS+, because it is specifically designed for encrypting user data on the network.
-TACACS+, because it separates authentication, authorization, and accounting functions, offering granular control over administrative access. The correct answer is TACACS+, because it separates authentication, authorization, and accounting functions, offering granular control over administrative access. TACACS+ is the best choice for managing administrative access to network devices due to its ability to separate authentication, authorization, and accounting functions. This separation allows for more granular control over what administrators can do and provides detailed logging of their actions, which is essential for security and compliance. While RADIUS does use a shared secret, it does not offer the same level of granular control over authorization and accounting as TACACS+, making it less suitable for detailed administrative access management. RADIUS typically uses UDP for communication, not TCP. This answer confuses the communication protocols used by RADIUS and TACACS+. While TACACS+ does provide encryption, the primary reason for choosing it in this scenario is not for encrypting user data on the network but for its ability to offer granular control over administrative access.
70
What is a transparent proxy also known as? -Forced proxy -Direct proxy -Secure proxy -Private proxy
-Forced proxy A transparent proxy is also known as a forced or intercepting proxy. It intercepts client traffic without requiring the client to be reconfigured to use the proxy. Direct proxy is not a term commonly used to describe a transparent proxy. Secure proxy refers to proxies that provide additional security features, not necessarily transparency. Private proxy refers to a proxy service dedicated to a single user or group, not to its transparency.
71
How does a proxy perform TLS inspection? -By bypassing the TLS protocol entirely -By generating an enterprise certificate for each domain -By requesting permission from the website to inspect traffic -By using a third-party service to decrypt traffic
-By generating an enterprise certificate for each domain The correct answer is by generating an enterprise certificate for each domain. To perform TLS inspection, a proxy generates an enterprise certificate for each domain, which the client trusts as it is issued by an enterprise CA. This allows the proxy to establish its own TLS tunnel with the website, forwarding the client's requests if they conform to policy. Bypassing the TLS protocol entirely would undermine security and is not how proxies perform TLS inspection. Requesting permission from the website to inspect traffic is not a method used for TLS inspection. Using a third-party service to decrypt traffic is not the standard practice for proxies performing TLS inspection; they generate their own certificates.
72
What is the role of the screening firewall in a screened subnet? -To connect directly to the LAN -To filter communications between hosts in the perimeter and the LAN -To restrict traffic on the external/public interface -To provide unrestricted access to the Intern
-To restrict traffic on the external/public interface
73
What distinguishes smart building technology from consumer-grade IoT devices in terms of security? -Smart building technology is more prone to compromise. -Smart building technology has less scope for compromise. -Smart building technology uses Bluetooth exclusively. -Smart building technology cannot be updated.
-Smart building technology has less scope for compromise.
74
Which of the following is a potential vulnerability of integrated peripherals in smart devices? -Increased battery life -Enhanced user experience -Facilitation of surveillance -Improved device performance
-Facilitation of surveillance
75
What is the purpose of installing cages around racks in data centers? -To improve air circulation around the equipment -To reduce the risk of electrical interference -To restrict access by technicians to their own equipment -To enhance the visual appeal of the data center
-To restrict access by technicians to their own equipment
76
You are tasked with enhancing the security of a large warehouse that stores valuable goods. The warehouse has multiple entry points and a large central storage area. You need to choose a surveillance system that allows for both monitoring of entry points and the ability to identify individuals in the central storage area. Which type of camera system would BEST meet these requirements? -Fixed cameras with narrow focal lengths at each entry point and PTZ cameras in the central storage area -PTZ cameras at each entry point and fixed cameras with narrow focal lengths in the central storage area -Fixed cameras with wide focal lengths at each entry point and in the central storage area -PTZ cameras at both the entry points and the central storage area
-Fixed cameras with narrow focal lengths at each entry point and PTZ cameras in the central storage area
77
What is a triple homed firewall configuration? -A setup with three external firewalls -A firewall with three network interfaces -A configuration with three internal firewalls -A firewall setup without a perimeter netw
-A firewall with three network interfaces
78
As part of your company's security measures, you have implemented an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) alongside your existing firewall. One morning, you receive reports that legitimate traffic from a partner company is being blocked. Which feature of the IPS is MOST likely responsible for this issue? -Signature-based detection -Anomaly-based detection -TCP reset packet sending -Encryption of traffic
-Anomaly-based detection The correct answer is anomaly-based detection. Anomaly-based detection in an IPS defines a baseline of normal network traffic and monitors for deviations from this baseline. While this method is effective in identifying unknown threats, it has a significant drawback: it can generate high levels of false positives, where legitimate traffic is mistakenly flagged as malicious. In this scenario, the legitimate traffic from the partner company likely deviated from the established baseline, leading the IPS to incorrectly block it as a security measure. Signature-based detection relies on predefined patterns of known malicious activities. If the traffic from the partner company was blocked due to signature-based detection, it would imply that the traffic matched a known threat signature. This is less likely to result in false positives compared to anomaly-based detection, especially for traffic that has not previously been identified as malicious. Sending a TCP reset packet is an action taken by an IPS to terminate a suspicious session. While this feature is part of the IPS's preventive measures, it is not directly responsible for the decision to block traffic. The decision to send a TCP reset packet or block traffic is based on the detection mechanisms (such as anomaly-based or signature-based detection), not the action itself. Encryption of traffic is not a function of an IPS. Encryption is used to secure data by converting it into a coded format, ensuring that only authorized parties can access the information. This feature is unrelated to the issue of legitimate traffic being blocked, which is a result of the IPS's detection and prevention mechanisms.
79
Which technology can "push" a client towards a less congested access point to improve roaming? -802.11a -802.11ac -802.11v -802.11n
-802.11v The correct answer is 802.11v. 802.11v is a standard that includes a feature known as BSS Transition Management. This allows the network to provide guidance to clients about when it might be beneficial to move to a different access point, such as when the current one is congested. This "push" helps in balancing the load across the network and improving the overall user experience by steering clients to less congested APs. 802.11a is an earlier standard that focuses on providing higher data rates in the 5 GHz band but does not include features for managing client roaming or congestion. 802.11ac, also known as Wi-Fi 5, improves upon previous standards by offering higher throughput and more efficient data encoding but does not specifically address client steering or congestion management. 802.11n, or Wi-Fi 4, introduced multiple-input multiple-output (MIMO) technology for improved data throughput and signal range but does not include mechanisms for pushing clients to less congested APs.
80
You are a network administrator for a large office building. Employees have been complaining about weak Wi-Fi signals and intermittent connections in the conference room. Upon investigation, you notice that the conference room has large glass windows on one side and is furnished with several metal-framed chairs and a large metal conference table. Based on this information, which of the following actions is MOST likely to improve the Wi-Fi signal in the conference room? -Replace the metal furniture with wooden furniture. -Increase the power output of the access point (AP). -Install a new AP inside the conference room. -Apply a Wi-Fi-friendly film to the glass windows.
-Replace the metal furniture with wooden furniture.
81
A network administrator is tasked with securing the communication between two hosts within their company's private network. The administrator decides to implement IPSec to ensure the data transmitted between these hosts is protected. Given the need for end-to-end encryption of the data payload without encrypting the IP headers, which IPSec mode should the network administrator use? -Transport mode -Tunnel mode -Gateway mode -Secure mode
-Transport mode The correct answer is Transport mode. Transport mode in IPSec is designed for securing end-to-end communications between hosts on a private network. It encrypts only the payload of the IP packet, leaving the IP headers unencrypted. This mode is suitable for the network administrator's requirement to secure communication within the company's private network without encrypting the IP headers. Tunnel mode is incorrect because it is used for securing communications across unsecure networks, such as the Internet, by encrypting the entire IP packet (both payload and header) and encapsulating it within a new IP packet. This mode is more suitable for VPNs rather than internal host-to-host communication.
82
What is the main advantage of using a cable Internet connection? -It offers unlimited data usage. -It provides higher downlink speeds. -It is available in all geographic locations. -It uses existing telephone lines.
-It provides higher downlink speeds. Cable internet connections, often provided along with Cable Access TV (CATV), generally offer higher downlink speeds than DSL connections. This is due to the technology and infrastructure used, such as hybrid fiber coax (HFC) networks, which combine a fiber optic core network with coaxial links to customer premises equipment.
83
What is the role of a modem in a WAN? -To increase the speed of the internet connection -To connect multiple LANs within an organization -To perform modulation and demodulation of data -To serve as a firewall and provide security
-To perform modulation and demodulation of data Modems modulate digital signals from a computer into analog signals for transmission over telephone lines or other media and demodulate incoming analog signals back into digital form.
84
What does Network Level Authentication (NLA) protect the RDP server against? -Phishing attacks -Denial of service attacks -On-path attacks -SQL injection attacks
-Denial of service attacks NLA protects the RDP server against denial of service attacks by authenticating the user before committing any resources to the session. This prevents malicious users from creating multiple pending connections to try to crash the system.
85
What technology allows a browser to draw and update a desktop with relatively little lag, enabling the use of clientless VPNs? -CSS3 -HTML5 -JavaScript -AJAX
-HTML5 HTML5 introduced the canvas element, which allows a browser to draw and update a desktop with relatively little lag. This capability is crucial for clientless VPNs because it enables ordinary browser software to connect to a remote desktop or to a VPN portal without needing a separate client application. The canvas element can also handle audio, making it a versatile tool for creating rich, interactive web applications that can serve as a platform for clientless VPNs. CSS3 is used for styling web pages and cannot directly handle the dynamic rendering of desktop environments or manage connections. JavaScript is a programming language used to create interactive effects within web browsers. While it can interact with the HTML5 canvas element, it is not the technology that enables the drawing and updating of a desktop. AJAX is a technique for creating fast and dynamic web pages. It allows web pages to be updated asynchronously by exchanging small amounts of data with the server behind the scenes. However, it does not provide the specific capabilities required for rendering desktop environments in a browser.
86
An online gaming enthusiast is looking for the best internet access type to support their hobby, which requires low latency and high upload speeds for live streaming. They live in a suburban area with access to various internet services. What would be the MOST appropriate choice? -ADSL -SDSL -Cable Internet -Satellite Internet
-Cable Internet Cable Internet with DOCSIS 3.0 is the most appropriate choice for an online gaming enthusiast who needs low latency and high upload speeds for live streaming. DOCSIS 3.0 technology allows for the use of multiplexed channels to achieve higher bandwidth, which can support both the low latency required for online gaming and the high upload speeds needed for live streaming. Cable Internet also tends to have lower latency compared to satellite internet, making it better suited for gaming. ADSL provides asymmetrical speeds with slower upload than download, which might not meet the needs of someone who requires high upload speeds for live streaming. SDSL offers symmetrical upload and download speeds, which could be suitable, but it generally does not offer the same high speeds or low latency as Cable Internet with DOCSIS 3.0. Satellite Internet suffers from high latency due to the signal having to travel to and from satellites in orbit, making it unsuitable for activities like online gaming that require quick response times.
87
At which layer of the OSI model do WANs often use simpler protocols compared to LANs? -Physical layer -Data Link layer -Network layer -Transport layer
-Data Link layer At the Data Link layer, WANs often use simpler protocols than LANs due to the point-to-point nature of many WAN connections, which requires less complexity.
88
How can a developer add a firewall rule via an API? -By sending an email request to the service provider -By creating a JSON formatted request and posting it to the API endpoint -by manually configuring it through the web console -By calling the service provider's customer support
-By creating a JSON formatted request and posting it to the API endpoint
89
What connects the ONT to the optical line terminal (OLT) in a PON? -A single fiber cable -Multiple coaxial cables -A wireless connection -Multiple Ethernet cables
-A single fiber cable
90
How are customer and provider sites addressed at the Network layer in a WAN? -Using Ethernet addresses -Using MAC addresses -Using IP addresses -Using serial numbers
-Using IP addresses
91
What is the primary purpose of a console port on network appliances? -To provide power to the device -To connect the device to the Internet -To start a CLI for device configuration -To enable wireless connectivity
-To start a CLI for device configuration The console port is specifically designed for direct physical access to network appliances, allowing administrators to configure and manage the device via a command line interface (CLI). This is essential for initial setup or troubleshooting when network access is not available or preferred.
92
What is a drawback of using Transport Layer Security (TLS) for tunneling? -It cannot operate over UDP. -It reduces the speed of data transmission significantly. -It adds significant overhead. -It is incompatible with modern encryption algorithms.
-It adds significant overhead.
93
Your company has a policy of using out-of-band management for critical network devices to ensure that management access is maintained even if the main network goes down. You are evaluating the current network setup to ensure compliance with this policy. Which of the following setups would be considered a compliant out-of-band management solution? -Configuring a management VLAN that isolates management traffic from regular network traffic -Using the same network for both production traffic and management traffic but applying strict firewall rules -Setting up a dedicated physical network for device management, separate from the production network -Ensuring all devices are accessible via SSH over the Internet for remote management
-Setting up a dedicated physical network for device management, separate from the production network A true out-of-band management setup involves having a completely separate and dedicated channel or network for managing devices, which ensures that management access is not affected by issues on the production network. This setup provides the highest level of security and reliability for critical network device management by physically isolating management traffic from production traffic. While a management VLAN provides a level of isolation, it is still part of the same physical network infrastructure. This is considered a form of virtual out-of-band management but does not fully comply with the policy of complete physical isolation.
94
What is the primary function of a T-carrier system? -To provide wireless connectivity -to enable voice traffic digitization -To encrypt data transmissions -To serve as a backup system for internet connections
-to enable voice traffic digitization The T-carrier system was designed to digitize voice traffic for transport around the core of the telecommunications network. It also supports the transportation of other types of digital data and can be provisioned directly to subscribers as a leased line.
95
A multinational corporation is planning to expand its operations to a new location in another country. The IT department is tasked with ensuring seamless data communication between the new location and the headquarters. They decide to implement a WAN solution. Which of the following steps is most critical in the initial phase of setting up the WAN? -Choosing the type of modem based on the physical layer requirements -Selecting an appropriate public IP address range for the new location -Deciding on the encryption method for securing data -Determining the type of WAN technology and service provider
-Determining the type of WAN technology and service provider Determining the type of WAN technology and selecting a service provider are the most critical initial steps in setting up a WAN. This decision will influence all subsequent choices, including the physical layer requirements, IP addressing scheme, and security measures.
96
An emerging tech startup is expanding its operations and plans to utilize cloud services for its development and production environments. The startup has a limited budget but requires secure access for its remote developers to the cloud infrastructure and the ability to connect its on-premises network to the cloud. Which cloud connectivity option is MOST suitable for the startup's needs? -Colocation within a data center -Direct connect or private link -Internet-based VPN connectivity -Transit gateways for interconnecting VPCs
-Internet-based VPN connectivity
97
What is the primary goal of Infrastructure as Code? -To increase the physical security of data centers -To eliminate snowflake systems -To reduce the cost of cloud services -To manually configure networks and systems
-To eliminate snowflake systems The primary goal of IaC is to eliminate snowflake systems, which are unique configurations that drift from the standard due to manual changes or updates. By using IaC, organizations can ensure consistent and repeatable environments, reducing the risk of security and stability issues.
98
What is the primary benefit of implementing SASE in an organization? -Reducing the need for physical security measures -Consolidating networking services into a single, cloud-based service -Increasing the complexity of the network infrastructure -Decreasing reliance on cloud technologies
-Consolidating networking services into a single, cloud-based service The primary benefit of implementing Secure Access Service Edge (SASE) is the consolidation of networking and security services into a unified, cloud-based service model. This approach simplifies the management of network security, improves performance by reducing latency, and enhances security posture by applying consistent security policies across all locations and users. SASE's cloud-native nature allows organizations to scale security and networking services as needed, adapting to the dynamic requirements of modern workforces and cloud applications.
99
Bob is working remotely and needs to transfer a file named report.txt from his local machine to his home directory on a remote server remote.example.com. His username on the server is bob. Which command should he use? -scp report.txt bob@remote.example.com:/home/bob/ -ssh bob@remote.example.com "report.txt /home/bob/" -sftp bob@remote.example.com report.txt /home/bob/ -ssh-copy-id report.txt bob@remote.example.com
-scp report.txt bob@remote.example.com:/home/bob/
100
A small company is setting up its internal network and has been allocated the IP range 192.168.1.0/24. The network administrator decides to subnet this range to create four separate subnets for different departments. Each subnet should have as many host addresses as possible. What subnet mask should the administrator use? -255.255.255.192 -255.255.255.0 -255.255.255.240 -255.255.255.248
-255.255.255.192
101
A network engineer is tasked with designing a high-speed network infrastructure for a new data center. The primary requirements are to ensure high bandwidth and reliable connectivity over long distances within the data center, as well as to connect to an external network located 2 kilometers away. the engineer is considering the use of fiber optic cables and needs to decide between Single Mode Fiber (SMF) and MultiMode Fiber (MMF) based on the application's requirements. Which type of fiber optic cable should the network engineer choose for this project? -Single Mode Fiber (SMF) for both internal and external connections -MultiMode Fiber (MMF) for both internal and external connections -Single Mode Fiber (SMF) for external connections and MultiMode Fiber (MMF) for internal connections -MultiMode Fiber (MMF) for external connections and Single Mode Fiber (SMF) for internal connections
-Single Mode Fiber (SMF) for both internal and external connections The correct answer is to select Single Mode Fiber (SMF) for both internal and external connections. Single Mode Fiber (SMF) is the best choice for both internal and external connections in this scenario due to its ability to transmit data over long distances with minimal loss and high bandwidth. SMF is designed for long-haul communications, making it ideal for the 2-kilometer connection to the external network. It also provides the high bandwidth necessary for the data center's internal network backbone, supporting the high-speed requirements of modern data centers. MultiMode Fiber (MMF) for both internal and external connections is incorrect because MMF is typically used for shorter distances due to its higher attenuation and modal dispersion compared to SMF. While MMF might be suitable for some internal connections, it is not the best choice for the 2-kilometer external connection. While Single Mode Fiber (SMF) for external connections and MultiMode Fiber (MMF) for internal connections might seem like a viable option since SMF is suitable for long distances and MMF could be considered for shorter, internal connections. However, using two different types of fiber within the same network can complicate the infrastructure and increase costs. Since SMF can cover both requirements efficiently, it's more practical to use SMF for all connections.
102
How many layers are there in a spine and leaf topology? -One -Two -Three -Four
-Two A spine and leaf topology consists of two layers: the spine layer, which includes top-tier distribution switches forming the backbone, and the leaf layer, which contains access switches that connect devices to the spine switches.
103
A network technician wants to create efficiencies in network traffic by implementing a device which applies microsegmentation by establishing a point-to-point link between any two network nodes. Which of the following should they implement? -Layer 2 switch -Bridge -Hub -Access Point
-Layer 2 switch
104
Which of the following addressing methods is not used in IPv6? -Unicast addressing -Multicast addressing -Anycast addressing -Broadcast addressing
-Broadcast addressing IPv6 does not use broadcast addressing, which is a method used in IPv4 to send data to all nodes on a network. Instead, IPv6 achieves similar functionality through multicast addressing, which allows for the efficient distribution of data to multiple designated recipients. This change eliminates the inefficiencies associated with broadcasting data to all nodes, including those that do not need it. Unicast addressing is used in both IPv4 and IPv6. It refers to the communication between a single sender and a single receiver across a network. Multicast addressing is used in IPv6 to replace the functionality of broadcast addressing from IPv4. It allows for the efficient transmission of data to multiple specific recipients. Anycast addressing is also used in IPv6 and refers to the delivery of data to the nearest or best destination out of a group of potential receivers that share the same address.
105
Which of the following is true about the Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP)? -It has built-in security mechanisms for data encryption. -it is used exclusively for wireless communication. -It encapsulates IP packets for transmission over serial digital lines. -It operates at the Transport layer of the OSI model.
-It encapsulates IP packets for transmission over serial digital lines.
106
Which of the following is true about the Teredo protocol? -It is designed exclusively for UNIX/Linux operating systems. -It tunnels IPv6 packets as IPv4 packets without using UDP. -It requires compatible clients and servers for operation. -It uses the prefix 64:ff9b::/96 for addressing.
-It requires compatible clients and servers for operation. The Teredo protocol requires compatible clients and servers to tunnel IPv6 packets as IPv4-based UDP messages over port 3544. This compatibility is necessary for the protocol to function correctly across different systems.
107
You have a server at work with a custom application installed. Connections to the server that use the custom application must use IPv6, but the server is currently running IPv4. You're the only person who connects to the server, and you always use your Linux laptop for the connection. Your laptop supports both IPv4 and IPv6, but the rest of your company network runs only IPv4. -You need a cost-effective solution to allow your laptop to connect to the server. Your solution must also support communication through NAT servers. -Which client software should you use to connect to the server? -Miredo -ISATAP -4to6 -6to4
-Miredo On Linux, Miredo client software is used to implement Teredo tunneling. Teredo tunneling establishes a tunnel between individual hosts. Hosts must be dual-stack hosts so that they can tunnel IPv6 packets inside of IPv4 packets. Teredo works with NAT. ISATAP and 6to4 tunneling both require at least one router. You only need to tunnel between two individual computers. 4to6 tunneling is used to send IPv4 traffic through an IPv6 network by encapsulating IPv4 packets within IPv6 packets.
108
A network engineer is tasked with designing a network for a new office building. The building will have 5 different floors, with each floor requiring its own subnet. The IP range allocated for the building is 10.0.0.0/22. The engineer wants to ensure that each floor can support up to 200 devices. What is the minimum subnet mask the engineer can use for each floor's subnet to meet this requirement? -255.255.255.0 -255.255.254.0 -255.255.252.0 -255.255.255.128
-255.255.255.0 A subnet mask of 255.255.255.0 corresponds to a /24 CIDR notation, providing up to 254 usable host addresses per subnet, which is sufficient to support up to 200 devices per floor. 255.255.254.0 (/23) provides up to 510 usable host addresses per subnet, which is more than necessary and would result in fewer total subnets than required. 255.255.252.0 (/22) is the subnet mask for the original network and does not divide it into smaller subnets. 255.255.255.128 (/25) only provides up to 126 usable host addresses per subnet, which is not enough to meet the requirement of supporting up to 200 devices.
109
Which file was historically used for applying persistent IP configuration in Linux? -/etc/sysconfig/network-scripts/ifcfg-eth0 -/etc/network/interfaces -/etc/NetworkManager/NetworkManager.conf -/etc/netplan/01-netcfg.yaml
-/etc/network/interfaces The /etc/network/interfaces file is a traditional location for defining network interface configurations in Debian-based Linux distributions. This file allows for the persistent configuration of network interfaces, ensuring they are correctly set up at boot time. /etc/sysconfig/network-scripts/ifcfg-eth0 is incorrect because this path is specific to Red Hat-based distributions and not the historically common location across all Linux distributions.
110
What is a common example of an overlay network? -Ethernet -Virtual Private Network (VPN) -Local Area Network (LAN) -Wide Area Network (WAN)
-Virtual Private Network (VPN) VPNs are a classic example of overlay networks because they create a secure logical network over the public Internet (or any other network), effectively hiding the complexity of the underlying network infrastructure.
111
What is the most specific attribute in a distinguished name called -Common Name (CN) -Relative Distinguished Name (RDN -Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) -Universal Principal Name (U
-Relative Distinguished Name (RDN The most specific attribute in a distinguished name is called the Relative Distinguished Name (RDN). It uniquely identifies the object within the context of its parent attribute values, making it crucial for distinguishing objects in a directory. The Common Name (CN) is an attribute used within a distinguished name but is not specifically referred to as the most specific attribute. A Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) is a complete domain name for a specific computer or host on the Internet, not a term used within the context of distinguished names in directories. A Universal Principal Name (UPN) is a user account name in Active Directory, not the most specific attribute in a distinguished name.
112
A medium-sized software development company specializes in creating custom solutions for its clients. The company is currently working on a project that requires a dedicated, secure environment due to the sensitive nature of the client's data. The client also demands that the environment be exclusively used by the project team to ensure high performance and compliance with strict industry regulations. The software development company does not have the in-house expertise to manage a cloud infrastructure and prefers a solution that minimizes the need for direct management of the cloud resources. Which cloud deployment model should the software development company choose for this project? -Public -Hosted Private -Private -Hybrid
-Hosted Private A hosted private cloud is the most suitable option for the software development company. This model provides an environment that is exclusively used by the company for its project, ensuring the security and performance required by the client. Since the cloud is hosted by a third party, the company does not need to manage the cloud infrastructure directly, aligning with its preference to minimize management efforts. Additionally, compliance with strict industry regulations can be more easily achieved in a dedicated environment.
113
You are setting up a new office for a software development company that requires high-speed internet access for large data transfers and secure connections to multiple networks. The office is equipped with both copper and fiber optic infrastructure. You are tasked with selecting network interface cards (NICs) for the workstations that will meet these requirements. Which type of NIC should you choose for the workstations? -A NIC with only 100 Mbps Ethernet support -A NIC with dual RJ-45 ports supporting Gigabit Ethernet -A NIC with a 56 Kbps modem adapter -A NIC with fiber optic ports and support for 10 Gbps Ethernet
-A NIC with fiber optic ports and support for 10 Gbps Ethernet
114
A multinational corporation with headquarters in New York and branches in London, Singapore, and Sydney is looking to ensure secure, reliable, and efficient connectivity between its global offices and its cloud infrastructure. The company's IT strategy includes the use of mission-critical applications that require high bandwidth and low latency. Which cloud connectivity option should the company prioritize? -Internet-based VPN connectivity -Direct connect or private link through colocation -Client-to-site VPN model -Public Internet with standard encryption
-Direct connect or private link through colocation
115
Which of the following are the steps are involved in transmitting a signal using electromagnetic radiation? (Select two) -Modulation -Compression -Encoding -Encryption -Amplification
-Modulation -Encoding The following are the steps involved in transmitting a signal using electromagnetic radiation: Modulation. Modulation is the process of varying a carrier wave to transmit a signal, and encoding is the method of converting information into a form that can be transmitted over the wave, such as changing voltage levels to represent digital data. These steps are essential for transmitting a signal using electromagnetic radiation. Encoding. Encoding involves converting information into a form that can be transmitted, and modulation is the process of varying a carrier wave based on this information to transmit the signal. These are the two key steps in transmitting a signal using electromagnetic radiation, essentially detailing how data is prepared and then sent over electromagnetic waves.
116
You have recently moved to a rural area and the only available internet service is through a Digital Subscriber Line (DSL). You've purchased a SOHO router to set up your home office network. To connect your SOHO router to the DSL internet service provided by your ISP, which port on the SOHO router should you use? -RJ-11 port -RJ-45 WAN port -USB port -Coaxial F-connector port
-RJ-11 port For a Digital Subscriber Line (DSL) internet service, the appropriate port to use on a SOHO router is the RJ-11 port. This port is designed for telephone line connections, which are used by DSL services to provide internet connectivity. The RJ-11 port allows the router to connect directly to the ISP's network via a telephone line.
117
A network administrator notices that when a particular legacy device is connected to a switch port, the network experiences slowdowns. The device is necessary for certain operations but is known to operate in half-duplex mode. What is the most likely cause of the network slowdowns, and how can the administrator mitigate this issue? -The switch port is automatically negotiating to full-duplex while the legacy device is operating in half-duplex; the administrator should manually set the port to half-duplex to the correct speed -The switch is automatically configuring VLANs, causing compatibility issues; the administrator should disable VLANs on the port connected to the legacy device. -The switch port is incorrectly configured to prioritize traffic, leading to network congestion; the administrator should adjust the Quality of Service (QoS) settings. -The entire switch is slowing down due to the high-speed requirements of the legacy device; the administrator should upgrade the switch to a higher capacity model.
-The switch port is automatically negotiating to full-duplex while the legacy device is operating in half-duplex; the administrator should manually set the port to half-duplex to the correct speed
118
Which of the following is a characteristic of a packet filtering firewall? -It is stateful. -It operates at Layer 7 of the OSI model. -It can inspect only port numbers and not any other Layer 4 header information. -It filters traffic based on the content of the data packet.
-It can inspect only port numbers and not any other Layer 4 header information.
119
An organization is using Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) for its cloud services. The network administrator has been asked to ensure that all instances within a specific subnet can only communicate with each other on port 22 (SSH) and should not accept any other inbound traffic from outside the subnet. The administrator decides to use OCI's networking features to accomplish this task. Which of the following should the administrator configure to meet the requirement? -Create a security list for the subnet that allows inbound traffic on port 22 from the subnet's CIDR range and denies all other inbound traffic. -Assign a security group to each instance within the subnet, with a rule that allows inbound traffic on port 22 from the subnet's CIDR range. -Configure a stateful security group that drops all network traffic except for SSH traffic on port 22 for the entire subnet. -Implement a network security group (NSG) in OCI and apply it to the subnet, allowing only port 22 traffic and dropping all other traffic.
-Create a security list for the subnet that allows inbound traffic on port 22 from the subnet's CIDR range and denies all other inbound traffic.
120
You are a network administrator tasked with configuring a new Ethernet interface on a Linux server. The server runs an older version of Ubuntu that does not use netplan for network configuration. You need to set a static IP address for the interface eth1 with the following settings: IP Address: 192.168.1.100 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.0 Gateway: 192.168.1.1 Which of the following steps would you take to configure this interface? -Edit the /etc/netplan/01-netcfg.yaml file to include the interface configuration. -Use the nmcli tool to configure the interface directly from the command line. -Edit the /etc/network/interfaces file to include the interface configuration. -Use the ifconfig command to set the IP address and subnet mask, then route add default gw 192.168.1.1.
-Edit the /etc/network/interfaces file to include the interface configuration.
121
Your company is transitioning from a traditional PSTN system to a more modern communication solution to support remote work and reduce operational costs. You are tasked with choosing a system that allows for easy integration with the company's existing network, supports advanced telephony features like voicemail and music on hold, and can be implemented with minimal hardware investment. -Which of the following options would BEST meet these requirements? -Stay with the current PSTN system and add additional analog lines. -Upgrade to a TDM-based PBX system with digital trunk lines. -Implement a software-based VoIP PBX solution. -Purchase a new set of analog phones to support more lines.
-Implement a software-based VoIP PBX solution.
122
In a network setup, which components are essential for performing specific roles and configuring additional properties for different functions? (Select two.) -Appliances -Network protocols -Intermediate nodes -Network cables -Functions
-Functions -Appliances
123
In a Windows environment, which protocol is typically used to access Microsoft Exchange mailboxes? -IMAP -SMTP -MAPI -HTTPS
-MAPI In a Windows environment, the proprietary Messaging Application Programming Interface (MAPI) protocol is typically used to access Microsoft Exchange mailboxes. MAPI allows for integration with Microsoft products and provides functionalities specific to Exchange. IMAP is a general email access protocol and not specific to Microsoft Exchange. SMTP is used for sending emails, not for accessing mailboxes. HTTPS is a secure transport protocol used on the web, not specifically for accessing Microsoft Exchange mailboxes.
124
What distinguishes a collision domain from a broadcast domain? -Collision domains are established by routers, while broadcast domains are established by switches. -Collision domains are about physically shared media, and their borders are established by bridges and switches. -Broadcast domains require a layer 2 broadcast address to be established. -Collision domains can span multiple routers, while broadcast domains are limited to a single switch.
-Collision domains are about physically shared media, and their borders are established by bridges and switches.
125
What is the advantage of using automated builds from templates over master images? -Faster deployment -Higher security -Easier updates -Less storage space
-Easier updates
126
What does Quality of Service (QoS) provide in VoIP communications? -A backup communication channel -Encryption of voice and video data -Information about the connection -A method for compressing data to reduce bandwidth usage
-Information about the connection QoS provides information about the connection to a QoS system, which in turn ensures that voice or video communications are free from problems, such as dropped packets, delay, or jitter.
127
An event planning company frequently works at different outdoor venues and needs a flexible network setup to connect various devices (e.g., laptops, payment terminals) over a wide area. The devices need to communicate with each other even if they are not within direct line of sight. Which network topology should they consider? -Ad hoc network with all devices configured in IBSS mode. -Wi-Fi Direct setup for each device to connect with others directly. -Mesh network topology using devices that support the 802.11s standard. -Point-to-point network using directional antennas for each device.
-Mesh network topology using devices that support the 802.11s standard.
128
During a network expansion, a company decides to implement EIGRP across its entire network, which spans multiple locations with varying link speeds and delays. The network team is tasked with ensuring that the routing protocol can efficiently handle the diverse network infrastructure while maintaining fast convergence times and minimizing unnecessary traffic. What feature of EIGRP should the network team leverage to meet these requirements? -Utilize static routing alongside EIGRP for all inter-location links. -Configure EIGRP to use multicast addressing for routing updates. -Set a high number of maximum hops across the network. -implement a topology table to prevent routing loops and support rapid convergence.
-implement a topology table to prevent routing loops and support rapid convergence.
129
What type of access point requires a wireless controller to function? -Autonomous AP -Lightweight AP -Heavyweight AP -Standalone AP
-Lightweight AP
130
You are overseeing the installation of a new fiber optic network in an office building. The network design includes a central switch connected to various endpoints throughout the building using fiber optic cables. To ensure a successful installation, you need to select the appropriate type of fiber optic patch cords for connecting the endpoints to the switch. The network requires high data transmission quality with minimal back reflection. Which type of fiber optic patch cord finishing should you choose? -Physical Contact (PC) finishing -UltraPhysical Contact (UPC) finishing -Angled Physical Contact (APC) finishing -Basic Contact (BC) finishing
-UltraPhysical Contact (UPC) finishing
131
In which of the following tables does a NAT router store port numbers and their associated private IP address mappings? -Routing table -MAC address table -Translation table -ARP table
-Translation table
132
An online education platform, EduNet, hosts live webinars for students worldwide. During a webinar, multiple instructors from different locations need to access a server hosted in EduNet's private network to upload and share educational materials. EduNet's network uses a single public IP address and has implemented Port Address Translation (PAT) to manage connections. Which of the following issues is EduNet least likely to encounter due to using PAT in this scenario? -Instructors experiencing difficulty in establishing a connection to the server at the same time -The public IP address being easily identifiable and targeted for cyber attacks -Instructors being unable to access the server because it is on a private network -A decrease in the quality of the webinar stream due to bandwidth limitation
-Instructors being unable to access the server because it is on a private network
133
A company is expanding its office and adding a new department. The IT department decides to implement a "router on a stick" configuration to route traffic between the existing VLANs and the new department's VLAN (VLAN30). The router has a single interface (G0) connected to a trunk port on the switch. What is the first command the IT department should issue to configure the subinterface for VLAN30 on the router? -interface G0.30 -interface G0 encapsulation dot1Q 30 -interface G0.30 encapsulation dot1Q 30 -vlan 30
-interface G0.30
134
Why are permanent cables run through conduit in a fiber optic cabling installation? -To allow for easy color-coding and identification of cables -To facilitate the conversion of optical signals to electrical signals -To protect the cables from physical damage and environmental factors -To increase the data transmission speed of the fiber optic cables
-To protect the cables from physical damage and environmental factors
135
You are a network administrator tasked with configuring a new network that includes several switches. You've decided to use Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) to prevent network loops. One of the switches is connected to the network's high-bandwidth backbone, and you want to ensure this switch is elected as the root bridge. Which of the following actions should you take? -Increase the priority value of the switch connected to the high-bandwidth backbone. -Decrease the priority value of the switch connected to the high-bandwidth backbone. -Disable STP on all switches except the one connected to the high-bandwidth backbone. -Set the same priority value for all switches in the network
-Decrease the priority value of the switch connected to the high-bandwidth backbone.
136
What is the maximum number of hops supported by EIGRP? -15 -100 -255 -Unlimited
-255
137
A medium-sized enterprise has recently expanded its operations, resulting in a significant increase in the number of employees. The company's network now includes over 200 devices that require internet access. The enterprise has been allocated a small pool of public IP addresses by their Internet Service Provider (ISP). The network administrator needs to configure a NAT solution that allows all devices to access the Internet without assigning a specific public IP address to each device. Which type of NAT should the network administrator implement to meet these requirements? -Static NAT -Dynamic NAT -Port Address Translation (PAT) -Port forwarding
-Dynamic NAT
138
Your organization has recently expanded its operations and now requires a failover Internet connection for redundancy. The network team plans to connect to the Internet via two different ISPs. To manage this setup efficiently and ensure that your network can communicate with the rest of the Internet through either ISP, you are considering implementing a specific routing protocol on your edge routers. Which routing protocol should you implement on your edge routers to manage connectivity through multiple ISPs? -OSPF -BGP -RIP -EIGRP
-BGP
139
An IT security specialist is configuring an NTP server for their organization. The specialist is aware of the risks associated with unauthorized time sources and wants to ensure the NTP synchronization data is protected. Which protocol should the IT security specialist implement to secure the NTP server against these risks? -HTTPS -SSH -TLS -NTS
-NTS (network time security)
140
During a routine network audit, you discover that some network appliances in the server room are not documented in the existing physical network diagrams. You notice that there are new switches and routers that have been added to the racks, and some of the patch panels have been reorganized. To update the network documentation, which type of diagram should you prioritize to accurately reflect the current state of the network appliances and their physical connections? -Logical network diagram -Cable map -Rack diagram -Wiring diagram
-Rack diagram
141
Which utility is often used in Linux to release a DHCP lease? -ipconfig -dhclient -dhcp-release -networkmanager
-dhclient
142
What is a Recovery Point Objective (RPO)? -The maximum acceptable amount of data loss measured in time -The objective to increase data storage capacity after a disaster -The point in time when a disaster recovery plan is activate -The goal to achieve zero data loss in any disaster
-The maximum acceptable amount of data loss measured in time
143
You are a project manager at GlobalEnterprises, a company with strict data security policies. You notice that some team members have access to sensitive project files that are not relevant to their current tasks. Concerned about potential data breaches, you want to revise the access control strategy to a more secure model that prevents such issues. Which access control model should you advocate for to ensure that access to sensitive project files is strictly controlled? -Discretionary Access Control (DAC) -Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) -Mandatory Access Control (MAC) -Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC)
-Mandatory Access Control (MAC)
144
Your organization has recently implemented a new security policy that includes the deployment of advanced threat detection tools. As part of the ongoing risk management process, you are tasked with evaluating the effectiveness of these tools. Which of the following actions would be MOST appropriate to undertake first? -Conduct a compliance audit to ensure adherence to external regulations. -Perform a posture assessment to evaluate the maturity level of the security controls. -Increase the IT security budget to purchase more advanced tools. -Train all employees on the basics of cybersecurity.
-Perform a posture assessment to evaluate the maturity level of the security controls.
145
A network administrator is tasked with enhancing the security of their company's network. The administrator decides to implement port security on the company's switches to prevent unauthorized devices from connecting to the network. After configuring port security, the network administrator notices that a particular port on a switch keeps getting disabled, even though the device connected to it is authorized. Which of the following would be the MOST likely reason for this issue? -The MAC address of the device is not included in the static lock list. -The port is set to shutdown mode by default when a violation occurs. -The device is connecting through a wireless connection, which is not supported by port security. -The port security is configured with a maximum of two MAC addresses.
-The port security is configured with a maximum of two MAC addresses.
146
What is the default authentication provider for most operating systems? -Biometric authentication -Knowledge-based authentication -Hardware-based authentication -Two-factor authentication
-Knowledge-based authentication
147
You are the IT security manager for a mid-sized corporation. One morning, several employees report that when they try to access the company's internal portal, they are redirected to an external website that looks similar but asks for their credentials in a suspicious manner. Upon investigation, you suspect a DNS spoofing attack. What would be the MOST immediate and effective actions to take? (Select two.) -Increase the security settings on the corporate firewall. -Inspect DNS traffic for anomalies. -instruct all employees to restart their computers. -Scan the network for rogue DHCP servers. -Update antivirus software on all employee computers.
-Scan the network for rogue DHCP servers. -Inspect DNS traffic for anomalies
148
An administrator has plugged in a new security camera, but when accessing the camera's web management interface, the administrator encounters a self-signed certificate error. What should the administrator do? -Add an exception for the certificate. -Have the service owner update the certificate. -Synchronize the time between the client and server. -Replace the default certificate.
-Replace the default certificate.
149
During a network audit, an auditor is reviewing the MAC addresses of devices connected to the corporate network. One of the devices has a MAC address of FF:FF:FF:11:22:33. The auditor needs to determine the nature of this address. What is the correct classification of this MAC address based on its format? -A unicast address intended for a specific device -A locally administered address -A broadcast address -A multicast address
-A multicast address
150
What does the accounting process in IAM track? -System performance metrics -The cost of system maintenance -Authorized usage of a resource -The physical security of the system
-Authorized usage of a resource
151
A company is transitioning to a remote work model and needs to ensure that its employees can securely access internal resources from their home networks. The IT department is tasked with choosing an authentication system that will be used for employees to connect to the company's Virtual Private Network (VPN). They are considering either RADIUS or TACACS+ for this purpose. Which authentication system should the IT department choose to securely manage employee access over the VPN, and why? -RADIUS, because it is widely used for client device access over VPNs and supports UDP for efficient communication. -TACACS+, because it uses TCP over port 49, ensuring reliable delivery and separation of authentication, authorization, and accounting functions. -TACACS+, because it is specifically designed for managing DHCP leases. -RADIUS, because it encrypts the entire authentication process, making it more secure than TACACS+.
-RADIUS, because it is widely used for client device access over VPNs and supports UDP for efficient communication.
152
In a large enterprise network, an attacker aims to perform a VLAN hopping attack by exploiting the automatic trunking negotiation feature on switches. The network consists of multiple VLANs, and the switches are configured to negotiate trunk links automatically using the Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP). How can an attacker exploit the automatic trunking negotiation feature to perform a VLAN hopping attack in this scenario? -The attacker attaches a device that spoofs the operation of a switch to the network and negotiates the creation of a trunk port. -The attacker sends specially crafted DHCP requests to exhaust the IP address pool of the target VLAN, forcing devices to communicate over the native VLAN. -The attacker encrypts traffic between two VLANs, tricking the switch into creating a trunk port. -The attacker uses a brute force attack to guess the VLAN ID of the target VLAN and sends frames tagged with that ID.
-The attacker attaches a device that spoofs the operation of a switch to the network and negotiates the creation of a trunk port.
153
A network administrator is dealing with a security breach. The malware involved does not write its code to disk but uses memory-resident techniques and legitimate system scripting tools to execute payload actions. Which of the following best describes this type of malware? -Fileless malware -Virus -PUP -Worm
-Fileless malware
154
What is the minimum recommended password length for network appliances according to the document? -8 characters -10 characters -12 characters -14 characters
-14 characters for critical infrastructure like network appliances, the document recommends passwords to be 14 characters or longer to resist guessing and cracking attacks effectively. 8 characters is the minimum for general passwords, not for network appliances. 10 characters falls short of the recommendation for critical infrastructure. 12 characters is closer but still below the recommended length
155
What is the primary purpose of using Secure Shell (SSH) or Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) in the context of remote authentication? -To encrypt the entire network's data -To distribute IP addresses -To start a session over the network -To serve as the primary database for user credentials
-To start a session over the network
156
A network administrator notices that several devices on their network are unable to communicate with a server located in a different subnet. The administrator decides to investigate the issue by checking the routing table on one of the affected devices. Which command should the network administrator use to view the routing table on a Windows device? -show ip route -route -route print -show route
-route print
157
What happens when an ARP query is sent? -It is sent as a unicast to a specific device. -It is sent as a multicast to a group of devices. -It is sent as a broadcast to all devices on the network. -It is sent directly to the router for processing
-It is sent as a broadcast to all devices on the network.
158
What does a 6 dB change in the level of a particular source indicate in terms of distance between the analyzer and the source of the RF source? -It indicates a tenfold increase or decrease in distance. -It signifies that the distance has remained constant. -It represents a halving or doubling of the distance. -It suggests a change in frequency, not distance.
-It represents a halving or doubling of the distance.
159
A user reports that they cannot access your company's internal web application at app.internal.local. You decide to use nslookup to investigate the issue. Which command should you use to start nslookup in interactive mode to perform multiple queries efficiently? -nslookup -nslookup app.internal.local -nslookup -type=soa -nslookup -interactive
-nslookup
160
A network security engineer is performing network penetration testing. The engineer is using Nmap to make a map of all network devices and wants to identify all host addresses on the network more quickly by skipping OS fingerprinting until after a target machine is selected. Which of the following Nmap switches will BEST allow the engineer to perform host discovery only? - -sT - -p - -sn - -sU
- -sn
161
What is the default behavior of Nmap regarding the number of ports scanned? -Scans all available ports -Scans 1,000 commonly used ports -Scans only port 80 -Does not scan any ports without specific instructions
-Scans 1,000 commonly used ports
162
You need to find both the A (address) and MX (mail exchange) records for example.com using a specific DNS server (ns1.isp.example). Which dig command would you use to accomplish this in a single query? -dig @ns1.isp.example example.com ANY -dig @ns1.isp.example example.com A; dig @ns1.isp.example example.com MX -dig @ns1.isp.example example.com A MX -dig @ns1.isp.example example.com
-dig @ns1.isp.example example.com A MX
163
A network engineer is tasked with designing a network infrastructure for a new office located in an industrial area. The office is situated close to several manufacturing plants, which are known to generate significant electromagnetic interference (EMI). The network will support critical data transfers and VoIP services. Given the environmental conditions and the need for reliable, high-speed data transmission, which type of twisted pair cabling should the engineer choose? -Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP) -Screened Twisted Pair (ScTP) -Shielded Twisted Pair (STP) -Fully Shielded Twisted Pair (S/FTP)
-Fully Shielded Twisted Pair (S/FTP)
164
A company is experiencing connectivity issues in their warehouse, where client devices fail to maintain a stable connection to the wireless network. The APs are set to the highest possible transmit power. What adjustment should be made to improve connectivity? -Increase the transmit power of client devices. -Decrease the transmit power of the APs. -Replace all client devices with ones that support a higher data rate. -Install additional APs throughout the warehouse.
-Decrease the transmit power of the APs.
165
An IT consultant is working with a client to diagnose intermittent connectivity issues to a cloud-based service. The client's network is known to experience high latency, especially during peak business hours. The IT consultant decides to use the tracert command to trace the route from the client's network to the cloud service's IP address. Given the high latency environment, The IT consultant wants to ensure that the tracert command waits sufficiently long for responses from each hop to accurately reflect the network conditions without prematurely timing out. Which tracert command option should the IT consultant use to adjust the timeout value for each hop? -tracert -d -tracert -I -tracert -w -tracert -h
-tracert -w The tracert -w command option allows the user to specify the timeout value in milliseconds for each hop. By using this option, the IT consultant can adjust how long the tracert command waits for a response from each hop, which is particularly useful in a high latency environment to ensure that the command does not prematurely time out before receiving responses. The tracert -d command is incorrect because the -d option disables DNS resolution, which does not affect the timeout value for responses from each hop. This option would not help the IT consultant in ensuring that the tracert command accurately reflects the network conditions in a high latency environment. The tracert -I command is incorrect because this option is not valid for the tracert command on Windows systems. The -I option is associated with the traceroute command on other systems for specifying ICMP Echo Request probes, and it does not relate to adjusting the timeout value. The tracert -h command is incorrect because the -h option specifies the maximum number of hops that tracert will probe before stopping. While it limits the scope of the tracert command, it does not affect the timeout value for waiting for responses from each hop.
166
A network engineer is troubleshooting a problem where a server cannot communicate with remote servers outside of its network. The engineer verifies that the server can ping its loopback address, its own IP address, and the default gateway without any issues. However, attempts to ping remote servers time out. The engineer suspects a routing issue. What should the network engineer check first to diagnose the problem? -The server's firewall settings for any rules blocking ICMP packets. -The physical network connections between the server and the router. -The routing table on the router for any incorrect or missing routes. -The IP address configuration on the remote servers.
-The routing table on the router for any incorrect or missing routes.
167
As a system administrator, you are tasked with troubleshooting a network issue on a legacy Linux server in your company's data center. The server has been experiencing intermittent connectivity problems, and you need to verify the server's network interface configuration as part of your initial diagnosis. This server is known to run an older Linux distribution that primarily uses the net-tools package for network management. You decide to use a command that can provide you with detailed information about the server's network interfaces, including their IP addresses, subnet masks, and the operational status (up or down). Given your requirements and the server's software environment, which command should you use to gather the necessary information? -ip addr show -ifconfig -a -ip link -netstat -r
-ifconfig -a
168
What issue arises when a host has an incorrect subnet mask that is longer than it should be? -The host cannot receive any communications. -The host misroutes its replies, thinking communicating hosts are on a different subnet. -The host correctly routes its replies without any issues. -The host's IP address is automatically changed
-The host misroutes its replies, thinking communicating hosts are on a different subnet.
169
What is the purpose of having a margin between the power budget and the loss budget in a fiber optic link? -To ensure the link operates at its maximum data transfer rate -To account for suboptimal installation conditions and potential future repairs -To reduce the financial cost of maintaining the fiber optic network -To increase the physical length of the fiber optic cable without adding more components
-To account for suboptimal installation conditions and potential future repairs
170
During a routine security audit, you discover that an unauthorized device is communicating with your network. You decide to manually add a static ARP entry on your Linux server to redirect the traffic from the unauthorized device's IP address to a secure location for further analysis. Which command would you use to add a static ARP entry for the IP address 192.168.1.100 with the MAC address 00:1A:2B:3C:4D:5E? -arp -s 192.168.1.100 00:1A:2B:3C:4D:5E -arp -a 192.168.1.100 00:1A:2B:3C:4D:5E -arp -d 192.168.1.100 -ip neigh add 192.168.1.100 lladdr 00:1A:2B:3C:4D:5E nud permanent dev eth0
-ip neigh add 192.168.1.100 lladdr 00:1A:2B:3C:4D:5E nud permanent dev eth0
171
You are a network technician troubleshooting a network issue in your company's data center. Upon inspecting a specific switch, you notice that one of the ports has a solid amber LED. based on this observation, what is the most likely cause of the issue with this port? -The link is operating normally with traffic. -the port is experiencing a fault such as a duplex mismatch. -The port is blocked by the spanning tree algorithm to prevent network loops. -The link is connected but there is no traffic passing through.
-The port is blocked by the spanning tree algorithm to prevent network loops. A solid amber LED on a switch port signifies that the port is blocked by the spanning tree algorithm, which is a network protocol that ensures a loop-free topology for any bridged Ethernet local area network. A flickering green LED, not a solid amber one, indicates that the link is operating normally with traffic. A blinking amber LED, not a solid amber one, indicates a fault such as a duplex mismatch. A solid green LED, not a solid amber one, indicates that the link is connected but there is no traffic passing through.
172
An IT specialist is working on diagnosing a network issue where certain remote services are intermittently inaccessible from his company's network. The specialist suspects that the problem might be related to the way network traffic is being handled by intermediate devices. To investigate, the IT specialist decides to use the traceroute command to analyze the path traffic takes to reach one of the problematic services. However, the specialist recalls that some network devices along the path might be configured to ignore or drop certain types of traffic, potentially skewing the results of his investigation. Given this concern, which version of the traceroute command should the IT specialist use to increase the likelihood of receiving responses from all devices along the path? -traceroute -d -traceroute -T -traceroute -I -traceroute -6
-traceroute -I
173
A university campus has recently upgraded its wireless network to support 802.11ac, aiming to provide high-speed internet access across its buildings. However, students have reported intermittent connectivity issues, especially when moving between lecture halls. The IT department has confirmed that all access points (APs) are functioning correctly and are not overloaded. Which of the following would be the MOST likely cause of these connectivity issues? -The new APs are all configured to operate exclusively on the 5 GHz band, which has a shorter range than 2.4 GHz. -The students' devices do not support the 802.11ac standard. -The network is not implementing any roaming standards such as 802.11r, 802.11k, or 802.11v -The security protocol used by the new APs is incompatible with the students' devices.
-The network is not implementing any roaming standards such as 802.11r, 802.11k, or 802.11v The correct answer is that the network is not implementing any roaming standards such as 802.11r, 802.11k, or 802.11v. Even if the APs are functioning correctly and are not overloaded, the absence of roaming standards like 802.11r (Fast BSS Transition), 802.11k (Radio Resource Measurement), and 802.11v (Wireless Network Management) can lead to intermittent connectivity issues as students move between lecture halls. These standards are designed to improve roaming experiences by facilitating better client transitions between APs and providing clients with information about the network topology.
174
A workstation's network board is currently configured as follows: Network Speed = Auto Duplexing = Auto The workstation is experiencing poor network performance, and you suspect that the network board is incorrectly detecting the network speed and duplex settings. Upon investigation, you find that it's running at 10 Mbps half-duplex. You know that your network switch is capable of much faster throughput. To fix this issue, you decide to manually configure these settings on the workstation. Before you do so, you need to verify the switch port configuration for the connected workstation. Given that it's a Cisco switch, which commands can you use on the switch to show a list of all switch ports and their current settings? (Select two.) -show interface ethernet counters -show interface capabilities -show interface switchport -show running-config interface -show interface
-show running-config interface -show interface
175
What does roaming mean in the context of wireless networks? -Changing the network ESSID frequently to maintain security -Wireless clients staying connected to the same network as they move around -Disconnecting and reconnecting to different networks to improve signal strength -Manually selecting the strongest wireless network available
-Wireless clients staying connected to the same network as they move around
176
On which operating system does running netstat without switches show active connections of any type? -Windows -Linux -macOS -Android
-Linux
177
company has tasked a sysadmin with blocking access to company resources, including corporate email, on employees' personal cell phones. What kind of policy is the sysadmin NOT implementing regarding personal devices? -Onboarding -Change management -BYOD -DLP
-BYOD
178
A network engineer wants to allow authorized users to be able to authenticate administrative access to routers and switches remotely. Which protocol allows this type of access, uses reliable delivery, and makes it easy to detect when a server is down? -Remote Authentication Dial-in User Service (RADIUS) -Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) -Terminal Access Controller Access Control System (TACACS+) -Directory services
-Terminal Access Controller Access Control System (TACACS+) Terminal Access Controller Access Control System Plus (TACACS+) authenticates administrative access to routers and switches. TACACS+ uses TCP over port 49 and the reliable delivery offered by TCP makes it easier to detect when a server is down, and encrypts all the payload in packets. RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-in User Service) is often used in VPN implementations, and manages remote and wireless authentication infrastructures.
179
Which type of authentication factor should be applied if a network administrator wants to implement a method incorporating gestures as either an intrusion detection or continuous authentication mechanism, despite its susceptibility to error? -Something you have -Something you know -Something you are -Something you do
-Something you do
180
Which of the following security methods is used to prevent unauthorized users from tailgating behind authorized users into secure buildings? -Locking racks -Biometric -Badge reader -Access control vestibule
-Access control vestibule
181
Which of the following is typically associated with a denial of service (DoS) attack? (Select three.) -Deauthenticaion -Brute force -Resource exhaustion -Virtual local area network (VLAN) hopping
-Resource exhaustion -Virtual local area network (VLAN) hopping -Deauthenticaion
182
What type of attack involves broadcasting unsolicited gratuitous reply packets with spoofed source addresses followed by launching a man-in-the-middle (MitM) attack? -Domain Name System (DNS) poisoning -address Resolution Protocol (ARP) cache poisoning -Deauthentication -Ransomware
-address Resolution Protocol (ARP) cache poisoning ARP poisoning perpetuates a MitM attack by broadcasting unsolicited gratuitous ARP reply packets with a spoofed source address. Because ARP has no security, the receiving devices trust this communication.
183
An attacker installs a backdoor application on multiple compromised machines. Which of the following attack types can trigger the zombies to launch simultaneously through this backdoor? (Select three.) -Amplification attack -Distributed Reflection Denial of Service (DRDoS) -Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) -Logic bomb
-Amplification attack -Distributed Reflection Denial of Service (DRDoS) -Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) An amplification attack is where the attacker implements an amplification factor, and dramatically increases the bandwidth sent to a victim during a DDoS attack.
184
An attacker used deauthentication to interpose a rogue access point (AP) to perform a Denial of Service (DoS) attack against a wireless infrastructure. Which of the following is the wireless encryption security protocol that is most vulnerable to this type of attack? -Local area network (LAN) -Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) -Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) -Wi-Fi Protected Access 2 (WPA2)
-Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)
185
What is the difference between tailgating and piggybacking in the context of social engineering attacks? -Piggybacking involves direct interaction, while tailgating does not. -Tailgating is with permission, while piggybacking is without. -Tailgating is done without permission, while piggybacking is with. -There is no difference; they are the same technique.
-Tailgating is done without permission, while piggybacking is with.
186
What is the main difference between a screened subnet using multiple firewalls and one using a single firewall? -The multiple firewall configuration does not use a perimeter network -The single firewall configuration is less secure -The single firewall configuration uses a triple homed setup -The multiple firewall configuration allows unrestricted access to the LAN
-The single firewall configuration uses a triple homed setup The main difference between a screened subnet using multiple firewalls and one using a single firewall is that the single firewall configuration typically employs a triple homed setup. This means that one firewall appliance has three network interfaces: one for the public network, one for the perimeter network, and one for the LAN, allowing for controlled access between these zones.
187
Which protocol would a switch authenticating via 802.1x mechanisms use? -EAPoW -EAPoL -NAC -EAP-TLS
-EAPoL Under 802.1X, the device requesting access is the supplicant. The switch, referred to as the authenticator, enables the Extensible Authentication Protocol over LAN (EAPoL) protocol only and waits for the device to supply authentication data. One solution to the risk of rogue access points is to use EAP-TLS security so that the authentication server and clients perform mutual authentication. 802.1X defines the use of EAP over Wireless (EAPoW) to allow an access point to forward authentication data without allowing any other type of network access. The IEEE 802.1X Port-based Network Access Control (NAC) protocol provides the means of using an EAP method when a device connects to an Ethernet switch port, wireless access point, or VPN gateway.
188
What does End of Life (EOL) phase signify for a product? -The product is being launched -The product has received its final update -The product is at its peak sales -The product is no longer being sold
-The product is no longer being sold
189
A network administrator is setting up new address pools on a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server and is having difficulty remembering available Internet Protocol (IP) addresses. Which of the following would make the management of allocated IP addresses on the network easier? -An IPAM service -Scope options -External DNS server -An NTP server
-An IPAM service IPAM or Internet Protocol (IP) address management is designed to scan Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Domain Name System (DNS) servers and log IP address usage to a database. It can be used to manage and reconfigure DHCP and DNS servers remotely.
190
A company is working to contract out its information technology needs to a third-party managed service provider. As part of the provider's onboarding practices, they run a report to identify and record all assets, their age, warranty, and performance. What type of report is this managed service provider completing? -Baseline -Logical network diagram -Service level agreement -Audit
-Audit
191
What kind of diagram shows the architecture of a network without involving a precise layout based on a floor plan? -Physical -Site survey -Logical -Baseline
-Logical A logical network diagram illustrates the network architecture of a company's network equipment without necessarily involving a specific floor plan or layout. A physical network diagram illustrates the network architecture of a company's network equipment in such forms as a floor plan or wire diagram. A baseline is a snapshot of a known good configuration and how a device operates at that known good configuration. A site survey is a critical planning tool to ensure that the Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN) delivers acceptable data rates to the supported number of devices in all the physical locations expected.
192
The Chief Information Officer canceled a contract with a third-party vendor as they refused to sign a contract to limit what uses of sensitive data are permitted, what storage and distribution restrictions to enforce, and what penalties to incur for breaches of the agreement. What kind of contact did the vendor fail to sign? -NDA -AUP -SLA -MOU
-NDA
193
A Chief Investment Officer signed a preliminary agreement with a vendor to express an intent to work together. What kind of document did the Chief Investment Officer sign? -Service-level agreement -Onboarding policy -Non-disclosure agreement -Memorandum of understanding
-Memorandum of understanding
194
A company is developing a new office and has tasked the information technology department with creating a document to show where their electrical vendor needs to run electrical and internet cabling throughout the office. What kind of diagram would best accomplish this? -Wiring -Site survey -Floor -Rack
-Floor A floor plan is a detailed diagram of wiring and port locations. For example, the IT department might use floor plans to document wall port locations and cable runs in an office. A wiring diagram (or pin-out) shows detailed information about the termination of twisted pairs in an RJ-45 or RJ-48C jack or Insulation Displacement Connector (IDC). A rack diagram records the position of each appliance in the rack. A site survey is a critical planning tool to ensure that the Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN) delivers acceptable data rates to the supported number of devices in all the physical locations expected.
195
As the head of IT security for a financial institution, you are responsible for safeguarding the integrity and security of the bank's network infrastructure. Given the sensitive nature of financial data and the regulatory requirements for data protection, you decide to enhance your security posture by implementing a robust configuration monitoring strategy. This strategy is aimed at ensuring that all network devices remain in compliance with the bank's security policies and that any unauthorized changes are detected and addressed promptly. Which of the following actions would be MOST effective in achieving a comprehensive configuration monitoring strategy for the bank's network devices? (Select two.) -Regularly generate and review reports that highlight any changes made to the production configuration of network devices compared to the baseline configuration. -Implement a change management process that requires all configuration changes to be approved by the IT security team before being applied. -Use tools capable of identifying line-by-line differences between the production and baseline configurations of network devices. -Install additional antivirus software on all network devices to prevent unauthorized changes.
-Regularly generate and review reports that highlight any changes made to the production configuration of network devices compared to the baseline configuration. -Use tools capable of identifying line-by-line differences between the production and baseline configurations of network devices.
196
What does an availability monitor check for in an HTTP service to confirm availability? -A 302 status code -A 404 status code -A 500 status code -A 200 status code
-A 200 status code A 200 status code indicates that an HTTP request has succeeded, which is what an availability monitor looks for to confirm that a service is available. A 404 status code indicates that the requested resource could not be found, which would suggest unavailability. A 500 status code indicates an internal server error, also suggesting a problem with availability. A 302 status code indicates a temporary redirection, not necessarily that the service is available.
197
A sysadmin is investigating an issue on a switch after receiving reports that connecting to any network resource, local or on the web, is much slower than normal. What kind of log should the sysadmin investigate to determine what may be causing the issue? -Audit -Baseline -Traffic -Security
-Traffic
198
Smart power distribution units (PDUs) are mounted and networked in each rack enclosure in a small data center. Management would like to keep track of the power data and feed it to an analytical application. However, the data must be encrypted in transit. How can the network team secure the power data in transit? (Select two.) -Enable and configure only SNMPv3. -Enable dynamic ARP inspection. -Configure a private VLAN. -Set up an RA guard.
-Enable and configure only SNMPv3. -Configure a private VLAN. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) version 3 supports encryption of data logs as they travel over the network to a target system like an analytics server. A private VLAN (PVLAN) applies an additional layer of segmentation by restricting the ability of hosts within a VLAN to communicate directly with one another. PVLAN adds an extra layer of security over the network. The Router Advertisement Guard (RA Guard) Switchport security feature blocks router advertisement packets from unauthorized sources. Dynamic ARP inspection (DAI) prevents a host attached to an untrusted port from flooding the segment with gratuitous ARP replies. ARP inspection maintains a trusted database of IP:ARP mappings.
199
A sysadmin noticed that there were changes to the hardware firewall not properly documented. The sysadmin does not know who made the change. What type of log should the sysadmin investigate that may shed light on who made the change in the firewall? -Trap -Baseline -Audit -Traffic
-Audit An audit log records the use of authentication and authorization privileges. It will generally record success/fail type of events. An audit log is also known as an access log or security log. A baseline is a snapshot of a known good configuration and how a device operates at that known good configuration. A Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) Trap is an agent that informs the SNMP monitor of a notable event (port failure, for instance). The sysadmin can set the threshold for triggering traps for each value. Performance and traffic logs record statistics for compute, storage, and network resources over a defined period. This log would help to determine performance issues on a given network.
200
In which of the following would an IT engineer configure a PTR? -Forward lookup zone -Reverse lookup zone -DNS Forwarder -DNS Hierarchy
-Reverse lookup zone PTR=Pointer record Forward Lookup Zone: Resolves domain names → IP addresses. This is where you configure A (Address) or AAAA records. PTRs are not configured here. Reverse Lookup Zone: Resolves IP addresses → domain names, which is exactly what a PTR record does. So PTR records live here. DNS Forwarder: Used to forward queries to another DNS server; it doesn’t store PTR records. DNS Hierarchy: Refers to the overall structure of DNS zones/domains; it’s not where you configure individual PTR records.
201
Users mention that a video conferencing service is not working properly. The service ties to the company domain name for business purposes. Which domain name system (DNS) record should the tech investigate to resolve the issue? -SRV -CNAME -AAAA -TXT
-SRV (service record) A Service (SRV) record is a DNS record used to identify a record that is providing a network service or protocol. Properties of this record type include port and protocol.
202
A network administrator configures all printers in an organization to be issued specific IP addresses from a DHCP server. What did the administrator configure to accomplish this? -Dynamic assignment -Scope options -Static assignment -Scope
-Scope options
203
New workstations set up in the office currently are connected to the network but do not have an Internet Protocol (IP) address set. These workstations need to work with applications that are time sensitive. What should the system administrator configure for these applications to function correctly? -Point to the correct DNS server. -Create a CNAME record. -Enable DHCP on the NIC. -Configure the correct NTP settings.
-Configure the correct NTP settings.
204
A Windows Active Directory (AD) domain uses companyname.com. An external web server uses www.companyname.com. Users on the corporate network cannot reach the web server when using a www prefix. Which of the following should the IT engineer modify to remedy the issue? -External DNS zone -DNS forwarder -Internal DNS zone -Third-party DNS
-Internal DNS zone Internal domain name system (DNS) zones refer to the domains used on a private network. As the site uses the same domain name as AD, an A record for www needs to be created internally to point to the public web server address.
205
Client systems receive IP address configurations via a DHCP server. When negotiating the address information assignment, which of the following are associated with available leases? (Select two.) DORA T2 T1 ARP
T2 T1 A client can renew its lease from a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server when at least half the lease's period has elapsed (T1 timer) so that it keeps the same IP addressing information. A client can attempt to rebind the same lease configuration with any available DHCP server. By default, this happens after 87.5% of the lease duration is up (T2 timer). The DHCP lease process is often known as the DORA process. This process of obtaining a lease includes Discover, Offer, Request, and Ack(nowledge). When negotiating an address from a DHCP server, an ARP message checks that the address is unused.
206
While on a VPN, an employee sends data over an unsecure network where the data and original IP address are encrypted. What is this process called? -Tunnel mode -Full tunnel -Transport mode -Transport layer security (TLS)
-Tunnel mode Tunnel mode is used for communication between VPN gateways across an unsecure network. With ESP, the whole IP pack is encrypted and encapsulated as a diagram with a new IP header. AH has no real use in tunnel mode. Transport mode is used to secure communications between the host on a private network. When ESP is applied in transport mode, only the payload data is encrypted. If AH is used in transport mode, it can provide integrity for the IP header. Full tunnel allows internet across that is mediated by the corporate network that will alter the client IP address and DNS servers and may use a proxy. Transport layer security (TLS) can be used to encapsulate frames or IP packets.
207
What does a full tunnel VPN configuration do? -Directly connects the client to the internet using ISP-managed configurations -Allows the client to bypass corporate network security -Requires no client software to operate -Mediates internet access through the corporate network
-Mediates internet access through the corporate network
208
An administrator is configuring a router from their laptop through a pale blue cable. What type of cable is this? -Unshielded twisted pair cable -Console cable -Straight through cable -Crossover cable
A console, or rollover cable, is traditionally colored pale blue and connects a computer or laptop to the command line terminal of a switch or router. A crossover cable has a T568A terminator at one end and a T568B terminator at the other. This type of cable connects an end system (host) to another host or a hub to a hub. A straight through cable has either T568A terminators at both ends or T568B terminators at both ends. This type of cable is an uplink (MDI port to MDIX port). Unshielded twisted pair cable is a media type that uses copper conductors arranged in pairs that come twisted to reduce interference. Typically, cables are 4-pair or 2-pair.
209
What solution uses a protocol called WebSockets that enables bidirectional messages to be sent between the server and client without requiring the overhead of separate HTTP requests? -Virtual Network Computing (VNC) -Clientless VPN -Full Tunnel -Split Tunnel
-Clientless VPN Clientless VPN requires a client appl that implements the protocols and authentication methods by the remote desktop/VPN gateway. Virtual Network Computing (VNC) allows a site to operate a remote desktop gateway that facilitates access to virtual desktops or individual apps running on the network servers. Split tunnel allows the client to access the internet directly using its native IP configuration and DNS servers. Full tunnel allows internet access that is mediated by the corporate network that will alter the client's IP address and DNS servers and may use a proxy. Previous
210
Which of the following is also referred to as a router implementation? -Full tunnel -Transport layer security (TLS) -Tunnel mode -Transport mode
-Tunnel mode Tunnel mode is used for communication between VPN gateways across an unsecure network. With ESP, the whole IP packet is encrypted and encapsulated as a datagram with a new IP header. AH has no real use in tunnel mode.
211
Which of the following functions are performed by the OSI Transport layer? (Select three.) -Reliable message delivery -End-to-end flow control -Consistent data formatting between dissimilar systems -Data segmentation and reassembly
-Data segmentation and reassembly -Reliable message delivery -End-to-end flow control
212
Which Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) layer assumes responsibility for managing network connections between applications? -Physical -Session -Data Link -Network
-Session
213
Which of the following protocols reside at the application layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model? (Select two.) HTTP TCP SMTP IP
SMTP HTTP
214
A company uses multiple internet providers to maintain a reliable network. The company's wide area network (WAN) interfaces with a firewall that handles the traffic bandwidth by using policies. Considering the company's approach to Internet access, what is one of the primary roles of the firewall? Content filter Load balancer Proxy server VPN headend
Load balancer
215
A network consultant is reviewing header fields and is looking for evidence that packets are arriving at their destination. What is the name of the output ping that provides this information? IGP Link state RIP TTL
TTL The TTL output field in the ping command shows the value of the counter when the packet arrives at its destination.
216
A wireless router commonly mounted on an office ceiling is widely known as which of the following devices? Bridge Access point HVAC sensor DSL modem
Access point A wireless router is also known as an access point (AP). These types of omnidirectional devices are commonly mounted on the ceiling for maximum range. Digital subscriber line (DSL) is a technology for transferring data over voice-grade telephone lines. A DSL modem is commonly used to connect customers to an Internet service provider (ISP).
217
A company uses several Windows Servers for Active Directory, SQL Server, RADIUS, DHCP, and DNS. Management is recommending a move to the cloud. IT suggests moving services in a staggered fashion so as to not cause disruption. Which of the following cloud architectures would BEST meet the migration requirements of the company? Hybrid IaaS SaaS PaaS
PaaS
218
Cloud offerings, such as Amazon's Elastic Compute Cloud and Microsoft's Azure Virtual Machines, are examples of what type of service? Virtual Platform Infrastructure Software
Infrastructure
219
An organization looks to implement a solution where remote workers can access both cloud-based resources and on-premise data. Some users will use company-issued laptops, while others will use personally owned desktop computers. Which of the following will BEST meet the IT department's requirements? A hybrid cloud A desktop as a service environment A virtual private network A multitenancy environment
A virtual private network
220
A network administrator is researching network virtualization and is trying to find a standard architecture for appliances to be developed against. Which of the following should the administrator consider as a standard architecture? NFV Hypervisor vswitch MPLS
NFV Virtual appliances might be developed against a standard architecture, such as ETSI's Network Function Virtualization (NFV). NFV divides provisioning into three domains. Typically, a hypervisor will implement network connectivity by means of one or more virtual switches (or vSwitch in VMware's terminology). These perform the same function as Layer 2 physical switches. In a virtualization host, the hypervisor manages the virtual environment (such as virtual NICs) and facilitates interaction with the computer hardware and network. Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS) is a means of establishing private links with guaranteed service levels. MPLS can operate as an overlay network to configure point-to-point or point-to-multipoint links.
221
IT engineers from partner organizations are planning a cloud infrastructure. After considering the available delivery models, the engineers decide to migrate and use a community model. Which of the following BEST is a primary characteristic of a community model? Shared costs Utilization benefits Private link Multi-tenant use
Shared costs
222
Company A has purchased new computing devices that support IPv6 and not IPv4. What protocol should the company enable on the network to allow the transmission of IPv6 packets and encapsulated frames or packets from different types of network protocols over an IPv4 network? ICMP LDAP GRE SQL Server
GRE Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE) Tunneling protocol allows the transmission of encapsulated frames or packets from different types of network protocol over an IPv4 network. The Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) reports errors and sends messages about the delivery of a packet.
223
team is briefing the chief information security officer (CISO) on the use of VPN software and the protocols used for point-to-multipoint connections. Which protocols should the team discuss with the CISO? (Select two.) MPLS NFV vNIC mGRE
MPLS mGRE Multipoint Generic Routing Encapsulation (mGRE) is a version of the Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE) protocol that supports point-to-multipoint links, such as the hub and spoke dynamic multipoint Virtual Private Network (VPN). Multiprotocol label switching (MPLS) can operate as an overlay network to configure point-to-point or point-to-multipoint links between nodes regardless of the underlying physical and data link topologies.
224
A network administrator sets up a policy that secures the authentication mechanism that a host must be able to match at least one matching security method for a connection to be established. What is this called? Authentication header (AH) Encapsulating security payload (ESP) Transport layer security (TLS) Internet protocol security (IPSec)
Internet protocol security (IPSec) Internet protocol security (IPSec) can be used to secure IPv4 and/or IPv6 communications on local networks and as a remote access protocol. Each host that is required to use IPSec must be assigned a policy.
225
A system administrator for ABC Company receives a request for a new account for a new employee. The employee will be using a Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) phone. The employee's name is Sam Smith and the phone number will be 1234567890. The company's domain is @abccompany.com. Which of the following would be Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) Uniform Resource Indicators (URIs) that the administrator would create for the new employee? (Select two.) sip:sam.smith.abccompany.com sip:sam.smith@abccompany.com sip:123456789.abccompany.com sip:sam.smith@1234567890
sip:sam.smith@abccompany.com sip:sam.smith@1234567890
226
A client is attempting to connect to a network, but is unable to successfully connect. They decide to open Wireshark to see if they can troubleshoot but want to filter based on the DHCP port. What should they filter on? TCP 139 TCP 67 TCP 80 UDP 123
TCP 67 Information can be viewed from Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) traffic by filtering on TCP 67 and 68. DHCP dynamically assigns IP addresses to network hosts. Server Message Block (SMB) provides File/Print Sharing Service and operates on TCP 139 and 445. SMB allows a machine to share its files and printers to make them available Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) operates over TCP 80 and enables clients to request resources from a HTTP server. The Network Time Protocol (NTP) enables the synchronization of time-dependent applications. A server or host that is configured with the incorrect time may not be able to access network services. Authentication, and other security mechanisms will often fail if the time is not synchronized on both communicating devices. Errors are likely to be generic failed or invalid token messages.
227
Which protocol uses Network Level Authentication (NLA) which requires the client to authenticate before a full remote session starts? Secure Shell (SSH) Telnet Virtual Network Computing (VNC) remote Desktop Protocol (RDP
remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) is Microsoft's protocol for operating remote Graphical User Interface (GUI) connections to a Windows machine. RDP uses Network Level Authentication (NLA) which requires the client to authenticate before a full remote session is started.
228
An international organization is rolling out an essential online platform that necessitates uninterrupted access and reduced delay times for a worldwide audience. The organization aims to distribute the platform across various servers situated in distinct international locations. To make certain that users are automatically connected to the nearest server to minimize latency, which IP addressing scheme should the organization utilize to OPTIMALLY meet their objectives? Broadcast Anycast Unicast Multicast
Anycast The correct answer is anycast. Anycast addressing allows multiple servers to share the same IP address, and when a user attempts to connect, the network routes the user to the nearest server based on routing protocols. This is ideal for achieving high availability and low latency by directing users to the geographically closest server, ensuring faster response times and reliable service delivery.
229
A cable installer uses snips to cut the cable and strip the insulation to install connectors. What single tool can the installer use to do this when working with multiple types of cable? Cable crimper Cable stripper Test access point (TAP) Fusion splicer
Cable stripper
230
The T11 ANSI standard can be a particularly expensive way to connect a Storage Area Network (SAN) and involves three main types of components: the initiator, the target, and a director. What is the name of the standard described? Application layer Internet Small Computer Systems Interface (iSCSI) North-South Fibre Channel
Fibre Channel The Fibre Channel connects storage area networks using 3 main types of components: the initiator, the target, and the Fibre Channel switch. The initiator is the client device of the SAN. The target is the network port for a storage device. The Fibre Channel switch, sometimes referred to as a director, provides the connections between the initiator and the target.
231
An engineer is installing a new connection between two database stacks. The engineer is using copper cable and needs a connection speed of 40GbE with a distance of about 12 feet. Which medium should the engineer utilize for this link? Twinaxial 10BASE-T 10GBASE-LR Coaxial
Twinaxial Twinax is for data center 10 GbE (unofficially referred to as 10GBASE-CR) and 40 GbE (40GBASE-CR4) interconnections of up to about 5 meters for passive cable types and 10 meters for active cable types. Coaxial/RG-6 is an 18 AWG cable with 75-ohm impedance typically used as drop cable for Cable Access TV (CATV) and broadband cable modems. A 10GBASE-LR is rated for 10 km operation over single mode fiber. A 10BASE-T denotes an early implementation that works at 10 Mbps (10), uses a baseband signal (BASE), and runs over twisted pair copper cabling (-T).
232
A network installer is building a long-distance link. The nodes are approximately 5 km apart. What type of fiber link should the installer build for this link? 1000BASE-LX 100BASE-SX 100BASE-FX 10GBASE-SR
1000BASE-LX The 1000BASE-LX is a Gigabit Ethernet standard and supports 1 Gbps and a distance of 5 km using single mode fiber. Installers often use the 100BASE-FX Fast Ethernet firer standard for wiring backbones. It uses multimode fiber for speeds of up to 100Mbps for a distance of up to 2 km. The 100BASE-SX is a Fast Ethernet fiber standard that supports lengths up to 300 meters and speeds up to 100Mbps. The 10GBASE-SR is a 10 Gigabit Ethernet fiber standard in backbone configurations, and it supports up to 300-meter link lengths.
233
A tech replaces a failed wireless router at a company. While waiting for the new router to arrive, an older router is put in place and will only provide speeds of 54 Mbps. Which wireless standard does the older router use? b ac n g
g
234
The same hub has Host A1 and Host B1 connected. Host A1 sends a request to communicate with Host C2. Host B1 is communicating with Host C3. There is a delay in communications between Hosts A1 and C2 until the media is clear. Which Ethernet protocol is providing this function? Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN) Broadcast domain Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection (CSMA/CD)
Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) protocol uses schemes, such as "request to send," to gain access to the media. Nodes listen to the media before transmitting and transmit when the media is clear. A node wanting to transmit but detecting activity, must wait and try later. CSMA with Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) protocol defines methods for detecting a collision. When a signal present on the interface transmits and receives lines simultaneously, the node broadcasts a jam signal. Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN) creates separate layer 2 broadcast domains on the same switch or configures separate broadcast domains across distributed switches. Nodes that share the same broadcast address are within the same broadcast domain.
235
An engineer has installed a new router but is not connected to the core network yet. What type of connector should the engineer install to get the requested throughput of 30Gbps or more? Enhanced form-factor pluggable (SFP+) Coarse wavelength division multiplexing (CWDM) Dense wavelength division multiplexing (DWDM) Enhanced quad small form-factor pluggable (QSFP+)
Enhanced quad small form-factor pluggable (QSFP+) Enhanced quad small form-factor pluggable (QSFP+) supports 40 GbE by provisioning 4 x 10 Gbps links. Enhanced form-factor pluggable (SFP+) is an updated specification to support 10 GbE but still uses the LC form factor. Dense Wavelength Division Multiplexing (DWDM) provisions greater numbers of channels (20, 40, 80, or 160). This means that there is much less spacing between each channel and requires more precise and expensive lasers. Coarse Wavelength Division Multiplexing (CWDM) supports up to 16 wavelengths and is typically used to deploy four or eight bidirectional channels over a single fiber strand.
236
What approach is used to communicate multiprotocol data between two routers? Generic routing encapsulation (GRE) Point-to-point protocol (PPP) Transport layer security (TLS) Internet protocol security (IPSec)
Point-to-point protocol (PPP) Point-to-point protocol (PPP) is an encapsulation protocol that works at the Data Link layer (layer 2). PPP has no security mechanisms, so must be used with other protocols to provision a secure tunnel.
237
Which of the following methods is used to encapsulate IP packets for transmission over serial digital lines? Point-to-point protocol (PPP) Internet protocol security (IPSec) Transport layer security (TLS) Generic routing encapsulation (GRE)
Point-to-point protocol (PPP) Point-to-point protocol (PPP) is an encapsulation protocol that works at the Data Link layer (layer 2). PPP has no security mechanisms, so must be used with other protocols to provision a secure tunnel. Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE) works at layer 3. GRE packet can encapsulate an IP packet as its payload. GRE does not have any mechanisms for authenticating users or devices and so is often used with other protocols in a VPN solution. Internet protocol security (IPSec) operates at the network layer 3 of the OSI model to encrypt packets passing over any network. Transport layer security (TLS) can be used to encapsulate frames or IP packets.
238
A company has 725 hosts on their network that utilize public Internet Protocol (IP) addresses. In addition, they have three contiguous class C addresses for the hosts. Instead of maintaining three routing tables, the company has one single entry. What of the following allows the company to consolidate their routing tables? Reserved Addresses Variable Length Subnet Masks (VLSMs) Network Address Translation (NAT) Classless Inter-Domain Routing (CIDR)
Classless Inter-Domain Routing (CIDR) The company is using Classless Inter-Domain Routing (CIDR). CIDR uses bits normally assigned to the network ID to mask the complexity of the subnet and host addressing scheme within the network. CIDR allows the company to collapse the three routing entries into one single entry. Variable Length Subnet Masking (VLSM) allows a network designer to allocate ranges of Internet Protocol (IP) addresses to subnets that match the predicted need for numbers of subnets and hosts per subnet.
239
Two Windows hosts connected to a switch are contending to respond to ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) queries. Only one of the hosts is receiving network traffic. What is the MOST likely cause of this issue? Expired IP address Duplicate MAC address Incorrect gateway Duplicate IP address
Duplicate MAC address A duplicate Media Access Control (MAC) address causes both hosts to contend with each other when responding to Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) queries. Then, communications could be split between them or reach only one of the hosts. If Windows detects a duplicate internet protocol (IP) address, it displays a warning and disables IP traffic. In this case, network traffic is still occurring.
240
A network administrator is reviewing the company's network and surveying current network configurations. After examining a few hosts, the administrator notes that the general Internet Protocol (IP) scheme starts with the first octet at 10 and all are using a default mask of 255.0.0.0. Which of the following is true for this network? (Select two.) Class A network Private IP addressing /24 Public IP addressing
Class A network Private IP addressing
241
What is the significance of the name "localhost" in the context of IP networking? It is associated with the numeric loopback address for internal testing. It represents the highest priority host in a multicast group. It is the default name for the primary network interface. It is a reserved domain name for future internet protocols.
It is associated with the numeric loopback address for internal testing. "localhost" is a hostname that refers to the current device being used. It is associated with the loopback address, typically 127.0.0.1, which is used for internal testing and communication within the host. This allows software and services on the same device to communicate with each other using the TCP/IP protocol stack without sending packets over the network.
242
What technology is typically used inside data centers to implement overlay networks? BGP OSPF VXLAN MPLS
VXLAN VXLAN (Virtual Extensible LAN) is commonly used in data centers to implement overlay networks. It allows for the creation of a logical network on top of a physical network using layer 2 encapsulation over a layer 3 IP network.
243
What is the primary purpose of NAT64 in the context of IPv4 and IPv6 transition? To run both IPv4 and IPv6 simultaneously on hosts and routers To replace the 2002::/16 prefix with an ISP-managed prefix To transfer IPv4 traffic over an IPv6 network To encapsulate IPv6 packets within IPv4 packets
To transfer IPv4 traffic over an IPv6 network The correct answer is to transfer IPv4 traffic over an IPv6 network. NAT64 encapsulates an IPv4 address inside an IPv6 address. For the internet, it looks like IPv6, but when it hits an end network, it is stripped down to IPv4 and routed the rest of the way. Encapsulating IPv6 packets within IPv4 packets describes tunneling mechanisms, not NAT64. Running both IPv4 and IPv6 simultaneously on hosts and routers describes the dual stack approach, not NAT64. Replacing the 2002::/16 prefix with an ISP-managed prefix describes the IPv6 Rapid Deployment (6RD) protocol, not NAT64.
244
A host with a Media Access Control (MAC) of 00:72:8b:31:8b:cb uses a global scope addressing scheme. Which of the following is the MAC-derived address for the Extended Unique Identifier (EUI) 64? 0072:8bff:ee31:8bcb 0072:8bff:fe31:8bcb 0272:8bff:fe31:8bcb 0272:8bff:ee31:8bcb
0272:8bff:fe31:8bcb Globally scoped unicast addresses are routable over the Internet and are the equivalent of public Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) addresses. A MAC address is 48 bits and an Extended Unique Identifier (EUI)-64 creates a 64-bit interface. The digits fffe are added in the middle of the address and the Universally Administered (U)/Locally Administered (L) bit is flipped. The proper EUI-64 in this scenario is 0272:8bff:fe31:8bcb.
245
Which technologies does SASE combine? SD-WAN and SSE IDS and IPS VPN and Firewall Firewall and Antivirus
SD-WAN and SSE SASE combines Software-Defined Wide Area Network (SD-WAN) and Security Service Edge (SSE) technologies to create a secure, efficient way to connect users to services regardless of location.
246
Where is the SD-WAN controller and management software typically located? (Select two.) At each branch office On every user device In a corporate data center In a public cloud
In a corporate data center In a public cloud
247
When an IPv6 address is used as part of a URL, how is it correctly formatted? Followed by "/ipv6" Enclosed within parentheses ( ) Enclosed within brackets [ ] Preceded by "ipv6:"
Enclosed within brackets [ ]
248
A network contractor is reviewing the algorithms used for path selection. The algorithms categorize according to the topology and metrics used to build and update a routing information base. It also prioritizes optimal or least-cost paths. What algorithm uses the number of hops to determine the destination as a metric? Routing information protocol Distance vector Hybrid routing protocol Static route
Distance vector Routing Information Protocol (RIP) – This is a distance-vector routing protocol that calculates the best path based on the number of hops between source and destination. The maximum number of hops allowed is 15, making it unsuitable for very large networks. Distance vector – This is a general class of routing protocols, which includes RIP, where routers share their entire routing table with neighbors periodically. RIP is a specific distance-vector protocol.
249
Which routing protocol uses the destination address 0.0.0.0/0? Administrative distance Static default QoS
default
250
A technician is reviewing the routing gateway protocols for the organization under the autonomous system (AS) control as a single owner. In reviewing the available protocols, which one identifies routes within an AS? RIP IGP TTL EIGRP
IGP Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) is an advanced distance vector or hybrid routing protocol. EIGRP relies on neighboring routers to report paths to remote networks.
251
Which statement is true regarding the configuration of routers in a FHRP setup? Each router must have a different MAC address but can share a common IP address. Each router must have a unique MAC and IP address, but they share a common virtual IP address. Each router must have the same MAC and IP addresses. Each router must have a unique IP address, and they do not need to share any common addresses.
Each router must have a unique MAC and IP address, but they share a common virtual IP address. FHRP (First Hop Redundancy Protocols) like HSRP, VRRP, and GLBP are used to provide high availability for the default gateway in a network. Each physical router has its own unique IP and MAC for its interface. The routers share a virtual IP address (the default gateway for hosts) so that if one router fails, another can take over without changing the gateway on hosts. Some protocols (like HSRP) also use a virtual MAC address for the shared IP, but the physical interfaces themselves keep their unique MACs.
252
A network engineer configures network connectivity. Identify how switches will work if the engineer configures the spanning tree protocol (STP). (Select two.) Hosts can configure IPv6 addresses automatically. Each switch determines the shortest path to the root. Hosts are allowed to discover other nodes Switches are organized into a hierarchy.
Switches are organized into a hierarchy. Each switch determines the shortest path to the root.
253
What happens when an 802.1Q tagged frame is received on an untagged port? The frame is forwarded with the tag intact The port is automatically converted to a tagged port The frame is dropped The tag is stripped, and the frame is forwarded to the host
The tag is stripped, and the frame is forwarded to the host
254
Which of the following is the model typically used in spine and leaf topologies to connect distribution switches to server nodes and provide higher bandwidth than the typical workgroup switch? Core Top-of-rack switching Software-defined network Fibre Channel
Top-of-rack switching Top-of-rack switching refers to the practice of using switches specifically made to provide high-bandwidth links between distribution switches and server nodes.
255
A sysadmin has set a network switch to autonegotiate. What does this setting impact? Mirroring Connectivity Aggregation Speed
Speed Switches support a range of Ethernet standards so older and newer network adapters can all connect to the same network. In most cases, a sysadmin sets a port on the switch to autonegotiate speed (10/100/1000 Mbps.) When a switch needs to connect to another switch, communications would fail if both interfaces used MDI-X. Nowadays, most switch interfaces configure to use auto-MDI/MDIX by default.
256
A network technician needs to set up the ability to auto-negotiate a bonded link between the switch ports and the end system. Which of the following should they set up? LACP Spanning Tree MDI-X Port Mirroring
LACP Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP), which can be used to auto-negotiate the bonded link between the switch ports and the end system, detects configuration errors and recovers from the failure of one of the physical links. When Ethernet is wired with a hub, there must be a means of distinguishing the interface on an end system versus an intermediate system. The interface on the hub is called an MDI crossover (MDI-X).
257
While deploying a VoIP network for a small business, a telecom company configures which options? (Select two.) Circuit-based transmission Auxiliary VLAN Multiple broadcast domains Untagged frames
Auxiliary VLAN Multiple broadcast domains
258
An engineer notices a large number of frames traversing a network. While frames are not getting dropped, the traffic from the frames is taxing switches in a network closet. What will the engineer MOST likely implement to resolve this issue? Link aggregation protocol Jumbo frames Flow control Port aggregation
Jumbo frames
259
In terms of radio wave signals, which term describes the impact of thick walls and ceilings? Attenuation Refraction Reflection Absorption
Absorption Absorption refers to the degree to which walls and windows will reduce signal strength (some of the radio wave's energy is lost as heat when passing through construction materials). Glass or water can cause radio waves to bend and take a different path to a receiver and cause the data rate to drop. This is known as refraction. Mirrors or shiny surfaces cause signals to reflect, meaning that a variable delay is introduced. Refection causes packets to be lost and consequently the data rate to drop. Attenuation is the loss of signal strength that occurs as the signal travels through the media. Some media is more prone to attenuation than others.
260
A network consultant calculates the sum of the transmit power, antenna cable/connection loss, and antenna gain. What is the consultant trying to calculate? Captive port Effective isotropic radiated power (EIRP) Received signal strength indicator (RSSI) Channel utilization
Effective isotropic radiated power (EIRP) The power at which an access point transmits is configurable. Effective Isotropic Radiated Power (EIRP) is calculated as the sum of transmit power, antenna cable/connector loss, and antenna gain. The Received Signal Strength Indicator (RSSI) is the strength of the signal from the transmitter at the client end.
261
A network administrator is setting up a new office room on a different floor of the building to support video conferencing sessions. The video systems will be utilizing a wireless network. Although the work budget is very small, the network must support two 2,167 Mbps streams over an 80 MHz 5 GHz band channel. What is the minimum wireless 802.11 standard access point (AP) a network administrator can purchase to stay close to budget while meeting the network requirements? Wi-Fi 6 Wi-Fi 4 Wi-Fi 5 Wireless g
Wi-Fi 5 Wi-Fi 5 (802.11ac) is designed to provide network throughput similar to Gigabit Ethernet. An AC5300 can support 1000 Mbps over a 40 MHz 2.4 GHz band channel and two 2,167 Mbps streams over 80 MHz 5 GHz band channels. Wi-Fi 4 (802.11n) is rated at providing 72 Mbps per stream. Assuming the maximum number of four spatial streams and optimum conditions, the nominal data rate could be as high as 600 Mbps for a 40 MHz bonded channel.
262
An IT technician needs to set up multiple outdoor antennas at a large farm to boost radio communication for its farmers. Which of the following antennas should the technician install that would require the least amount of maintenance throughout its lifecycle? Parabolic grid antenna Yagi antenna Static dish antenna Torus antenna
Yagi antenna A Yagi (a bar with fins) antenna is a valuable unidirectional signal for point-to-point wireless bridge connections. This is common for outdoor use and can boost radio signals across long distances. A static dish antenna is a parabolic or dome shaped antenna that is unidirectional. This antenna is expensive with up-front cost and maintenance. A torus (donut) antenna is similar to round wireless routers that businesses mount in an office ceiling. This is not ideal for outdoor use. A parabolic grid antenna looks like a dome but with a more rectangular feature with grid-like openings. This antenna is expensive with up-front cost and maintenance.
263
The manager would like to set up a temporary wireless network to connect a computer to the corporate office's network to show a presentation slide and video only accessible from the internal SharePoint. The device will only support a pre-shared key (PSK) authentication process. Which wireless network feature will provide the latest security that will not require integrating services with a local Active Directory (AD)? WPA2-Enterprise WPA2-Personal WPA-Enterprise WPA-Personal
WPA2-Personal Wi-Fi Protected Access version 2 (WPA2)-Personal uses a pre-shared key (PSK) that all users will use to connect to the access point (AP). WPA2, in general, uses Wi-Fi encryption with Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) and Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol (CCMP). WPA2-Enterprise does not use a PSK to connect clients to an access point (AP). Enterprise mode allows users to use their account credentials to connect.
264
While investigating an issue tied to authentication redirects, the network consultant discovers that the client is being redirected to an HTTP rather than an HTTPS site. Which of the following terms BEST describes this issue? Encryption protocol mismatch Channel utilization Captive portal Disassociation
Captive portal Most captive portal issues arise because the redirect does not work. The captive portal should use HTTPS. Most modern browsers will block redirection to sites that do not use TLS.
265
Users at a medium-sized business utilize an ad hoc approach when connecting wireless devices. Which of the following applies to an ad hoc topology? It uses a basic service set (BSS). It is able to roam in an extended service area (ESA). It is grouped into an extended service set (ESS). It uses an independent basic service set (IBSS)
It uses an independent basic service set (IBSS) An independent basic service set (IBSS) is an ad hoc topology where the wireless adapter allows connections to and from other wireless devices. Clients can roam within an extended service area (ESA). ESA uses multiple access points (APs) with the same service set identification (SSID) and security configuration connected by a wired network. An extended service set (ESS) uses more than one basic service set to create. A basic service set (BSS) is an AP that mediates communications between client devices and provides a bridge to a cabled network segment.
266
What is the benefit of using lockable brackets and drawers within a rack? To improve the Wi-Fi signal strength To protect individual elements within a rack To organize cables more efficiently To increase the storage capacity of the rack
To protect individual elements within a rack
267
A solutions architect is designing a cable management solution. Which of the following is the most common wiring distribution? Patch panel Krone 66 Block 110 block
Patch panel
268
Why do equipment room and data center facilities tend to use high voltage circuits? To decrease the efficiency of power distribution To reduce the overall power consumption of the facility To double the amperage required for the same wattage load To allow for a higher load capacity with lower amperage
To allow for a higher load capacity with lower amperage High voltage circuits are used in data centers and equipment rooms because they allow for a higher load capacity while requiring lower amperage. This is beneficial because it reduces the risk of overloading circuits and allows for more efficient power distribution across the facility.
269
An organization is planning to use power over ethernet (POE) to supply power to the wireless access points spread throughout the building. What is the best cabling solution to support PoE? (Select two.) Shielded cabling Unshielded cabling Cat 3 cable or better Cat 5e cable or better
Shielded cabling Cat 3 cable or better PoE requires Cat 3 cable or better while PoE+ must use Cat 5e cable or better. Drawing power down the cable generates more heat that can adversely affect data rates. PoE should use shielded cabling as it is capable of dispersing heat more efficiently than unshielded cabling.
270
A newly deployed stack with servers, network switches, a KVM (Key, Video, Mouse), storage unit, and uninterruptible power supplies has just been fully cabled. After powering on the stack, there seems to be a network connectivity issue between the switch and servers. What is the best approach when trying to resolve this type of network issue? Divide and conquer Plan of action Top-to-bottom Bottom-to-top
Bottom-to-top A bottom-to-top approach of the OSI (Open System Interconnection) model is a methodical validation of network components starting from the bottom or layer 1 (Physical) and going up. This is most appropriate because cables have just been connected. A top-to-bottom approach of the OSI model is a methodical validation of network components starting from the top or layer 7 (Application) and going down. Systems are at default, so basic network connectivity should be available. Divide and conquer approach starts with the layer most likely to be causing the problem, then work either down or up depending on the test results. A plan of action occurs after a theory has been tested and a cause of the issue is determined.
271
What are the potential causes of intermittent loss of connectivity in a cabling system? (Select two.) Crosstalk Excessive untwisting at the cable ends Use of fiber optic cables instead of copper Attenuation
Attenuation Excessive untwisting at the cable ends
272
A sysadmin is running into an issue that traffic is getting dropped by the network equipment. After researching the issue, the sysadmin finds that the individual packets are too small. What should the sysadmin remove to resolve the issue? Baseline Runts Bandwidth Giants
Runts A runt is a frame that is smaller than the minimum size (64 bytes for Ethernet). A collision usually causes a runt frame. A giant is a frame that is larger than the maximum permissible size (1518 bytes for Ethernet II). If it is too large, it may get dropped by networking equipment.
273
An engineer has a task to survey an old building and determine the current network infrastructure. Building owners state that some cabling is from a recent installation The engineer achieves a speed of 10 Gbps while testing the cable up to 100 meters and also determines the cable to be well shielded. Based on the engineer's findings, the cabling meets what specification? Cat 3 Cat 6 Cat 5e Cat 7
Cat 7 Cat 7 cable is fully screened and shielded (S/FTP) and rated for 10GbE applications up to 100 m (328 feet). The cable supports transmission frequencies up to 600 MHz at 10 Gbps. Cat 5e is tested at 100 MHz (like Cat 5 was) but to higher overall specifications for attenuation and crosstalk, meaning that the cable is rated to handle Gigabit Ethernet (1 Gbps) throughput. Cat 6 can support 10 Gbps speeds only over shorter distances--nominally 55 meters, but often less if cables are closely bundled together.
274
A network engineer is troubleshooting an ethernet connection between two buildings. The engineer notices that the network devices were upgraded, but the wiring was not. The engineer needs a connection that can handle 10Gbps at 500 MHz for a distance of 300 feet using RJ-45 connectors. What type of ethernet cable should the engineer replace the Cat 5 with to meet the connection standard? Cat 6A Cat 8 Cat 6 Cat 7
Cat 6A
275
A user installs a financial software package that requires cloud access. For some reason, the application fails to connect to the cloud server. What is the MOST likely cause of this issue? Incorrect time Incorrect host-based firewall settings Unresponsive service Duplicate IP (Internet Protocol) address
Incorrect host-based firewall settings A host-based firewall is implemented as a software application running on a host. Often rules need to be manually added to a firewall allow for applications to communicate properly. Authentication, and other security mechanisms will often fail if the time is not synchronized on all communicating devices. An unresponsive service on a system can be caused by many factors. These services may include important network functions such as Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP).
276
An organization asks a network consultant to assist in learning why the company's network is getting overloaded. Upon monitoring the network, the consultant learns that the CPI utilization of the switches jumps up above 80% at various points. What is happening in the network? Certificate issues Broadcast storm Multicast flooding DNS issues
Broadcast storm A broadcast storm will cause network utilization to go to a near-maximum capacity and the CPU utilization of the switches to jump to 80 percent or more, making the switched segment effectively unusable until the broadcast storm stops. If a switch is not multicast-aware, it will treat multicast transmissions as broadcasts and flood them across all ports in the broadcast domain, consuming much bandwidth and slow down the network.
277
A network administrator is testing a remote server's network configuration and decides to ping the Internet Protocol (IP) address of a familiar office Windows workstation. No replies are received, but the admin confirms DHCP settings are enabled on the workstation and can successfully browse the Internet. What is the MOST likely reason why the client workstation did not respond to a ping request? The Ethernet port is bad. An IP address from another subnet is being used. The IP address has expired The same IP address of another client is being used.
An IP address from another subnet is being used.
278
In a newly set up branch office, a network administrator configures the network with the subnet 172.16.0.0/16. All devices are supposed to communicate within this subnet. However, the administrator notices that Host X, with the following configuration, cannot access the shared resources located on a server within the same subnet: IP Address: 172.16.25.34 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.0 Default Gateway: 172.16.0.1 What is the primary reason for Host X's inability to access shared resources? The IP address is incorrectly assigned The server's IP address is in a different subnet The default gateway is misconfigured The subnet mask is too restrictive
The subnet mask is too restrictive
279
A system administrator is researching a connectivity issue. The administrator sees the physical link listed as up, but the line protocol listed as down. What is the MOST likely issue that the system administrator should investigate? Bandwidth Link states Encapsulation errors Jitter
Encapsulation errors Encapsulation is the frame format expected on the interface. Encapsulation errors will prevent transmission and reception. If the system administrator checks the interface status, the physical link will list it as up, but the line protocol will list it as down.
280
What is the most likely cause of a network experiencing continual bottlenecks? Seasonal increases in web traffic Device-related issues Occasional video conferencing Scheduled nightly backups
Device-related issues Continual bottlenecks in a network are most likely due to device-related issues. This can include hardware that is underpowered, outdated, or malfunctioning, which cannot handle the regular data flow efficiently. Such devices become persistent choke points, reducing the overall network performance regardless of the specific type or volume of traffic.
281
A network engineer is trying to get approval to replace aging networking equipment. The justification for the purchase is that the office is losing network connectivity due to devices becoming overloaded and overheating. What is the engineer using as a primary justification for replacing the equipment? Site survey Downtime/Uptime Change management Disaster recovery
Downtime/Uptime
282
A cable installer is testing fiber optic cable for spectral attenuation with the goal of ensuring that each channel has enough power to support wavelength division multiplexing. What tool is the cable installer using? OTDR OSA Tone generator Multimeter
OSA An administrator would use an optical spectrum analyzer (OSA) with fiber optic cabling, usually with wavelength division multiplexing (WDM), to ensure that each channel has sufficient power. An optical time domain reflectometer (OTDR) locates breaks in fiber by sending light pulses down the cable and timing how long it takes for any reflections to bounce back.
283
A systems administrator is unable to ping remote hosts from a Debian server. However, remote hosts can ping the server. The administrator troubleshoots the issue by examining the OUTPUT chain. Which of the following tools meets the administrator's needs to troubleshoot the issue? ifconfig iptables route ipconfig
iptables The iptables command line utility is used to edit the rules enforced by the Linux kernel firewall. It can change INPUT, OUTPUT and FORWARD chains that are firewall rulesets.
284
Which of the following commands displays the general NetFlow data on the command line? show ip flow export show iperf show ip cache flow show mls netflow ip
show ip cache flow
285
A network manager cannot communicate with a system on the network that has an Internet Protocol (IP) address of 192.150.060.024. The manager uses the ping command and can reach the IP address. Which of the following commands can the network manager use for troubleshooting this issue? arp -a 192.150.060.024 arp -d 192.150.060.024 arp 192.150.060.024 arp -s 192.150.060.024
arp -a 192.150.060.024 It is possible that two systems on the network have the same Internet Protocol (IP) address and the Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) table has the other system stored in the cache. This can be verified by using the command arp -a 192.150.060.024 and reviewing the returned Media Access Control (MAC) address. The command arp -s 192.150.060.024 will not assist the network manager. The -s option allows administrators to add an entry to the ARP cache. The administrator would add the MAC behind the IP. The -d option will delete the entry for the IP address. This will not assist with troubleshooting. The command arp 192.150.060.024 will not return a result as it is not a valid command.
286
After plugging a cable into a computer, a user reports there is no network access. Which of the following tools would the technician MOST likely check to verify that the cable was crimped correctly? Cable certifier Toner probe Punch down tool Loopback plug
Cable certifier A cable certifier is used to verify that a cable meets its specifications, such as the bandwidth and frequency. For example, it can verify a CAT 5e cable meets specifications and supports speeds of 1000 Mbps, and can verify a CAT 6 cable supports speeds of 10 Gbps. A punch down tool is used to assist in inserting wires into patch panels or punch down blocks. A loopback plug is a connector used for diagnosing transmission problems on parallel and serial ports. It plugs into a port on the back of the computer. A toner probe is used to trace wires or cables by sending a signal from one end of a wire along its entire length.
287
is a file-level storage system connected to a network. It allows multiple clients or computers to access files over the network, usually via standard protocols like NFS (Network File System), SMB/CIFS, or AFP. Works at the file level (you access files and folders, not raw disks). Connected via Ethernet (LAN). is like a shared filing cabinet in your office — everyone can access documents via the network.
NAS (Network-Attached Storage)
288
is a block-level storage network that connects servers to storage devices over a high-speed network (usually Fibre Channel, iSCSI, or NVMe over Fabrics). seen as local disks, even though the physical disks are remote. Works at the block level (raw disk blocks, like local hard drives). Uses dedicated high-speed networks (not regular Ethernet, though iSCSI can use Ethernet). Designed for high-performance, mission-critical applications. is like a private hard drive on a super-fast network that servers treat as their own disk — it’s much faster and more flexible for applications but requires more setup.
SAN (Storage Area Network)
289
is a device that centrally manages and controls multiple wireless access points (APs) in a network. provides a single point of management for the entire wireless network. Centralized Management. Security Enforcement. RF (Radio Frequency) Management. Roaming Support. Monitoring and Troubleshooting. can be deployed as hardware, software, or cloud.
wireless controller
290
is a network of geographically distributed servers that work together to deliver web content (like websites, videos, or software) to users faster and more reliably.
content delivery network (CDN)
291
Handles raw transmission of bits (0s and 1s) over physical media. Defines cables, connectors, voltages, and signaling. Passes bits to the Data Link Layer Converts electrical/optical signals into binary data that the next layer can process.
Layer 1 Physical
292
Packages bits into frames. Handles MAC addressing for local network delivery. Detects and sometimes corrects errors from the physical layer. Switches MAC addresses Ethernet, Wi-Fi (802.11) Receives raw bits from the Physical layer → creates frames. Passes frames to the Network Layer for routing.
Layer 2 Data Link
293
Handles logical addressing and routing between networks. Determines path from source to destination across multiple networks. IP addresses (IPv4, IPv6) Routers ICMP (ping, traceroute) Receives frames from Data Link → encapsulates data in packets with source/destination IP. Passes packets to Transport Layer for end-to-end delivery.
Layer 3 Network
294
Ensures reliable delivery between hosts. Provides flow control, sequencing, and error correction. TCP (reliable, connection-oriented) UDP (unreliable, connectionless) Ports (80, 443, 53…) Receives packets from Network → segments data into segments (TCP) or datagrams (UDP). Passes to Session Layer for communication management.
Layer 4 Transport
295
Manages sessions or connections between applications. Establishes, maintains, and terminates communication sessions. Authentication and token handling Uses transport layer segments to maintain sessions. Passes data to Presentation Layer for formatting.
Layer 5 Session
296
Formats and translates data for the application layer. Handles encryption, compression, and encoding. SSL/TLS (encryption) JPEG, MPEG, ASCII, Unicode conversions Takes session data → encodes or encrypts it. Delivers formatted data to Application Layer for final use.
Layer 6 Presentation
297
Provides network services directly to user applications. Interfaces with software, browsers, email clients, etc. HTTP/HTTPS (web browsing) SMTP/POP3/IMAP (email) FTP/SFTP, DNS Uses Presentation Layer to receive properly formatted data. Sends and receives data from end-user applications.
Layer 6 Application
298
It’s a network architecture concept where network services that traditionally ran on dedicated hardware are instead run as software on virtualized hardware.
Network Functions Virtualization
299
is a private, isolated section of a public cloud where you can run your resources (servers, storage, databases) in a logically separated network. Even though it’s hosted in a public cloud provider’s infrastructure (like AWS, Azure, or Google Cloud), your VPC acts like your own private data center. You control networking, IP addressing, subnets, firewalls, and routing inside it.
Virtual Private Cloud
300
is a virtual firewall that controls inbound and outbound traffic at the subnet or virtual machine level in cloud environments. Used in Azure, AWS (as Security Groups), Oracle Cloud, etc. Stateful filtering: If an inbound connection is allowed, the corresponding outbound reply is automatically allowed. Applied to: Individual VMs or network interfaces, and sometimes subnets.
Network security group NSG: Like a door with a smart security guard at each house — if you let someone in, their return exit is automatically allowed. NSL: Like a fence around a neighborhood — every incoming and outgoing movement must be checked individually.
301
is a stateless firewall applied at the subnet level that controls traffic in and out of a subnet. Used in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) and other cloud providers. Stateless filtering:Must explicitly allow both inbound and outbound traffic. Replies are not automatically allowed. Applied to:Entire subnets, so it affects all resources inside that subnet. Rules:Like NSGs: specify protocol, source/destination IPs, and ports.
Network security lists NSG: Like a door with a smart security guard at each house — if you let someone in, their return exit is automatically allowed. NSL: Like a fence around a neighborhood — every incoming and outgoing movement must be checked individually.
302
is a virtual router or gateway that allows resources in a private network (like a VPC) to communicate with the public Internet. It’s commonly used in cloud environments such as AWS, Azure, or Google Cloud. Provides two-way communication between the VPC and the Internet.
internet gateway
303
is a high-performance routing technique used in WANs (Wide Area Networks) that directs data from one network node to the next based on short path labels rather than long IP addresses. Label Assignment: When a packet enters an ___ network, a label is attached to it. The label identifies the predefined path the packet should follow to reach its destination. Label Switching: Routers inside the ___ network, called Label Switch Routers (LSRs), forward packets based on the label instead of looking up the IP address in a routing table. This makes forwarding faster and more efficient. Label Removal: When the packet exits the ___ network, the label is stripped off, and normal IP routing resumes.
Multiprotocol label switching (MPLS)
304
Port 20/21 Transfers files between computers over a network. Unencrypted, uses TCP ports 20 (data) and 21 (control).
FTP
305
Encrypted, uses TCP port 22. Securely logs into remote devices and runs commands.
SSH
306
TCP port 22 secure version of FTP, runs over SSH. Encrypts file transfers
SFTP (SSH File Transfer Protocol)
307
TCP port 23 Remote login protocol, allows command-line access. Unencrypted
Telnet
308
Uses TCP port 25 (standard) and 587 (submission). Sends email messages between servers.
SMTP
309
Uses UDP port 53 (queries) and TCP port 53 (zone transfers). Resolves domain names (like example.com) to IP addresses.
DNS
310
Uses UDP ports 67 (server) and 68 (client). Automatically assigns IP addresses and network configuration to devices
DHCP
311
Uses UDP port 69. Lightweight, simple file transfer protocol. Unencrypted, often used for booting devices or firmware updates.
TFTP
312
Unencrypted, uses TCP port 80. Transfers web pages and web content over the Internet.
HTTP
313
Uses UDP port 123. Synchronizes clocks on computers across a network.
NTP
314
Uses UDP ports 161 (queries) and 162 (traps/alerts). Monitors and manages network devices (routers, switches).
SNMP
315
Typically uses TCP/UDP port 389. Accesses and manages directory services (user accounts, groups).
LDA{
316
Uses TCP port 443. Secure version of HTTP, encrypts web traffic with SSL/TLS.
HTTPS
317
Often used on Windows networks, uses TCP port 445. Provides file and printer sharing between devices.
SMB
318
Usually UDP port 514, can be TCP for reliability. Sends event messages from devices to a central log server.
syslog
319
Uses TCP port 465. Secure over TLS/SSL for sending email.
SMTPS
320
Uses TCP port 636. Secure version of LDAP using SSL/TLS.
LDAPS
321
Often accessed over TCP port 1433 or 3306 Not strictly a network protocol, but used by database servers for queries.
port 1433 (Microsoft SQL Server) or 3306 (MySQL). SQL
322
Uses TCP port 3389. Microsoft protocol for remote graphical desktop access.
RDP
323
Uses TCP/UDP port 5060 (unencrypted) and 5061 (encrypted/SIPS). Initiates, modifies, and terminates multimedia sessions (VoIP calls).
SIP
324
Used for network diagnostics and error messages. Commonly seen in ping and traceroute. Works at Layer 3 (Network). Does not transport user data, just control information.
Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)
325
Tunnels one protocol inside another for transport across networks. Often used to connect networks over the Internet (VPN tunnels). Does not provide encryption by itself. Works at Layer 3 (Network) encapsulation.
Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE)
326
A framework to secure IP communications. It has three main components: AH, ESP, IKE
Internet Protocol Security (IPsec)
327
Provides authentication and integrity (verifies sender & data not altered). Does not encrypt the payload. Works at Layer 3 (Network).
Authentication header (AH)
328
Provides encryption, authentication, and integrity. Encrypts the data payload for confidentiality. Works at Layer 3 (Network).
Encapsulating security payload (ESP)
329
Protocol to establish and manage cryptographic keys for IPsec. Ensures secure key negotiation between endpoints. Works at Layer 3/Layer 4 for secure VPN setup.
Internet Key Exchange (IKE)
330
Traffic sent from one source to a specific group of devices that have expressed interest in receiving it. Example: Streaming a live video to multiple subscribers on a network. How it works: Uses special ____ IP addresses (IPv4: 224.0.0.0 – 239.255.255.255). Use case: Video conferencing, IPTV, or stock market feeds.
multicast
331
Traffic sent from one source to the nearest (or best) node out of a group of potential receivers. Example: User requests a web page, and the request is routed to the closest server in a content delivery network (CDN). How it works: Multiple devices share the same IP address, and routing directs traffic to the closest one. Use case: Load balancing, DNS servers, CDN edge servers.
Anycast
332
A network technician is installing sensors to measure environmental conditions in an equipment closet. A sensor is attached to the fire suppression system. What will this sensor detect? Temperature Humidity Flooding Electrical
Flooding Regarding flooding, there may be natural or person-made flood risks from nearby watercourses and reservoirs or leaking plumbing or fire suppression systems. High temperatures will make it difficult for device and rack cooling systems to dissipate heat effectively.
333
A data center technician needs to secure the cryptographic keys under lock and key to ensure that insider threats do not have access to take them from the building. Which of the following security measures is the most logical way to achieve this? Smart lockers Access control vestibule (previously known as a mantrap) Locking racks Locking cabinets
Locking cabinets Locking cabinets can provide secure storage for individual items, such as cryptographic keys or shared password lists. Locking racks can have whole pieces of equipment installed within them to protect against insider attacks and attacks that breakthrough perimeter security mechanisms. Smart lockers are incorrect because their cryptographic keys need to be stored under lock and key. Smart lockers unlock via a smart card/badge or biometric. Access control vestibule (previously known as a mantrap) is used to prevent unauthorized access to facilities by using a gateway that leads to an enclosed space protected by another barrier.
334
The CEO of an organization informs IT that email is not working. Upon investigating the problem, an engineer discovers that the company's domain name system records are missing on a company owned internal DNS server. Which record should the engineer fix to solve the email issue? PTR MX TTL CNAME
MX
335
A custom client application is unable to communicate with the internal Internet Information Services (IIS) server. Pinging or establishing a telnet connection from a workstation to the server works normally using an IP address or FQDN. Which of the following are possible causes for this network issue. (Select two.) The SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) certificate is not trusted. The IIS service is not running. The client cannot resolve server's name. TCP ports are blocked.
The IIS service is not running. TCP ports are blocked.
336
A user is having trouble connecting to the company's WiFi network. The user has verified that the password is correct and the network is available. What is the MOST likely issue with the device not connecting? TLS settings Encryption protocol mismatch AAA server Captive portal
Encryption protocol mismatch An encryption protocol mismatch will cause the connection to fail, even if the correct credentials are supplied. Check OS drivers or verify authentication types/protocols on the device. A captive portal is a web page or website to which a client is redirected before being granted full network access. This would not apply in this situation.
337
A systems administrator wants to set up IPv4 forwarding for the purposes of load balancing and failover. Which of the following should they use? Anycast Broadcast Multicast Unicast
Anycast Anycast means that a group of hosts is configured with the same IP address. It allows for load balancing and failover between the server hosts sharing the IP address.
338
Which port configuration is typically used to connect switches or to connect a switch to a router for handling multiple VLANs? Untagged port Tagged port Access port Host port
Tagged port A tagged port, often operating as a trunk port, is used for transporting traffic addressed to multiple VLANs. This configuration is typically used to connect switches or to connect a switch to a router in environments where multiple VLANs exist. An untagged port is used for single VLAN traffic, not multiple VLANs. An access port is another term for an untagged port, which is not used for handling multiple VLANs. A host port is also another term for an untagged port, which is not suitable for connecting switches or routers for multiple VLANs.
339
A company plans a network run to a warehouse behind its main office building. The distance is short and to save money, the IT engineer suggests using a specific type of fiber cabling. Which cable type would the engineer MOST likely recommend implementing, based on the given criteria? Cat7 Multimode Cat8 Single-mode
Multimode Multimode fiber is inexpensive to deploy compared to single-mode fiber. As such, it does not support long distances as single-mode and is more suitable for Local Area Networks (LANs) than Wide Area Networks (WANs). Single-mode cables support data rates up to 10 Gbps or better and cable runs of many kilometers, depending on the quality of the cable and optics.
340
What is the role of a native VLAN? It is designated for the fastest data transfer speeds. It is the VLAN that all ports belong to by default. It handles untagged traffic on a trunk port. It is used to carry traffic from multiple VLANs over a single link.
It handles untagged traffic on a trunk port. The native VLAN is designated to manage untagged traffic that arrives on trunk ports, ensuring that this traffic is correctly processed and forwarded. This is crucial for compatibility with older devices that do not support VLAN tagging.
341
The end-to-end or host-to-host layer is another name for which layer? Transport Application Physical Data Link
Transport
342
An administrator is planning for disaster recovery. The owner specifies that if the systems are down for longer than 48 hours in any given situation the business would not be able to recover financially. What disaster recovery metric does this scenario represent? State Configuration RPO RTO
RTO This represents the Recovery Time Objective (RTO) which is the maximum amount of time following a disaster that an individual IT system may remain offline. The Recovery Point Objective (RPO) is the amount of data loss that a system can sustain, measured in time units, and also represents the amount of data an organization is willing to lose.
343
A network technician is looking to install a network with the most up-to-date Wi-Fi that operates only in the 5 GHz band. Which Wi-Fi system would the network technician MOST likely use? Wi-Fi 6 3G, 4G, 5G Wi-Fi 5 Wi-Fi 4
Wi-Fi 5
344
A systems architect is setting up traffic between an SDN controller and infrastructure devices through automation by scripts that call functions. What direction of traffic is this considered to be? East South West North
South
345
A security team is reviewing the authentication controls on the corporate network. Which of the following is an important reason for the team to implement role-based access and least privilege? (Select two.) To give rights to users implicitly. To apply microsegmentation to systems. To establish checks and balances against insider threats. To grant users sufficient rights to perform a job.
To grant users sufficient rights to perform a job. To give rights to users implicitly. Least privilege means that a user is granted sufficient rights to perform his or her job and no more. This mitigates risk if the account should be compromised and fall under the control of a threat actor. Role-based access define organizational roles and subjects are allocated to those roles. Users gain rights implicitly (through being assigned to a role) rather than explicitly (being assigned the right directly).
346
An attacker uses a malicious host with a spoofed physical address to perform cache poisoning and perpetuate an on-path attack. Which of the following can prevent these types of attacks? (Select two.) Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) inspection Media Access Control (MAC) filtering Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) snooping Port-based Network Access Control (PNAC)
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) snooping Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) inspection ARP inspection prevents a host attached to an untrusted port from flooding the segment with gratuitous ARP replies. ARP inspection maintains a trusted database of IP:ARP mappings. DHCP snooping is a type of switch port security setting that inspects DHCP traffic arriving on access ports to ensure that a host is not trying to spoof its MAC address.
347
A security analyst is setting up detections to look for unauthorized domain transfers from their external-facing DNS servers. Which of the following ports should they monitor? UDP 53 UDP 520 TCP 53 TCP 443
TCP 53
348
A server technician has removed a server blade from its rack for cleaning. The technician sees corrosion on one of the circuit boards and notices some water on the bottom of the casing. What hazards could have affected this server? (Select two.) Electrical Temperature Humidity Flooding
Humidity Flooding
349
A user states that phone calls external to the organization do not work. The engineer tests a phone and can only make internal calls. Which component needs troubleshooting? VoIP PBX Voice gateway VoIP gateway Media converter
VoIP gateway A Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) gateway is a component in a VoIP phone system. This gateway, which can be software or hardware, is used to interface with a traditional analog phone system. A Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) Private Branch Exchange (PBX) is the core switch that controls all functions found in a VoIP system.
350
A network technician is looking at leaf layer access switches of a SDN. What are these implemented as? ToR LER SAWs FCoE
ToR The leaf layer access switches are implemented as top-of-rack (ToR) switch models. These are switch models designed to provide high-speed connectivity to a rack of server appliances. Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE) is a means of delivering Fibre Channel packets over Ethernet cabling and switches. A Label Edge Router (LER) inserts or "pushes" a label or "shim" header into each packet sent from routers below it, and then forwards it to an LSR to determine the Label Switched Path (LSP) for the packet. SAWs are secure administrative workstations that are hardened and are used solely to manage servers.
351
A network architect is looking for topologies commonly used in a variety of wide-area networks (WANs) Implementations that use satellite and wired links. Which of the following topologies should they use? Bus Star Mesh Ring
Mesh A mesh topology is commonly used in WANs. In theory, a mesh network requires that each device has a point-to-point link with every other device on the network (fully connected).
352
A security administrator is investigating anomalous activity from a particular host. The administrator looks in DNS and sees the following address "1.100.51.198.in-addr.arpa". What type of record is this? SRV PTR MX CNAME
PTR A reverse DNS query returns the hostname associated with a given IP address. This information is stored in a reverse lookup zone as a pointer (PTR) record. A Service (SRV) record is used to identify a record that is providing a network service or protocol. It is often used to locate Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) or media servers.
353
A network technician is looking at various administrative distances to see which route would be selected first. Which of the following would have the lowest administrative distance? EIGRP BGP OSPF Unknown
BGP BGP has an administrative distance of 20. An administrative distance (AD) value can express the relative trustworthiness of the protocol supplying the route. EIGRP has an administrative distance of 90. Default AD values are coded into the router but can be adjusted by the administrator if necessary. OSPF has an administrative distance of 110. Each routing protocol uses its metric to determine the least-cost path. Unknown has an administrative distance of 255. As routing protocols use different methods to calculate the metric, a network technician cannot compare routes from other protocols in the overall IP routing table, so it uses AD values.
354
A network technician is tasked with determining the site technological capabilities of each building in the organization. When looking at the current building, the technician confirms that the building is currently empty but has the approved equipment install permits on site. What type of site is represented by this scenario? Firewalls Cold Site Warm Site Hot Site
Cold Site
355
A network administrator must install a new building floor with wireless access points (APs) to provide a wireless network to employees' mobile devices. The AP security settings will be hardened and use an Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) to allow users to authenticate with their user accounts to access the network securely. What is the minimum wireless protection required to install these APs properly? WPA2-Personal WPA-Enterprise WPA2-Enterprise WPA-Personal
WPA2-Enterprise WPA2-Enterprise allows clients to pass on employees' user credentials to gain access to the AP. WPA2, in general, uses Wi-Fi encryption with Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) and Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol (CCMP). WPA2-Personal uses encryption with AES and CCMP but uses a pre-shared key (PSK) that all users will use to access the AP
356
What is the major advantage of active-passive configurations in high availability clusters? They eliminate the need for a virtual IP They are less expensive than active-active configurations Performance is not adversely affected during failover They allow for unlimited scalability
Performance is not adversely affected during failover The major advantage of active-passive configurations is that performance remains stable during failover. Since the passive node is on standby and not processing connections until needed, the transition from the active to the passive node does not adversely affect performance. Active-passive configurations can actually be more expensive due to the unused capacity of the passive node. They do not inherently allow for unlimited scalability; scalability depends on the specific implementation and infrastructure. A virtual IP is still needed in active-passive configurations to provide a single access point for clients.
357
After troubleshooting intermittent network connectivity issues with a user, the results of an ipconfig show different network settings than the enterprise uses. What could be the cause of this issue? DHCP scope exhaustion APIPA malfunction DHCP server is offline A rogue DHCP server
A rogue DHCP server
358
A network specialist received a port failure notification on UDP port 162. What agent is detecting the notable event? Traps Syslog OIDs CPU
Traps
359
An email administrator is setting up records for their new cluster of mail servers. What must each of their MX records point to? Root MX record DKIM CNAME A record
A record
360
A security engineer is setting up anomaly detection for suspiciously large file transfers. Which of the following ports should they use to set up their alert? 1433 161 445 5060
445
361
A network consultant is conducting a test to determine the amount of data transferred through a connection over a given period. What is the consultant testing? Baselines Netflow data Bandwidth Audit Logs
Bandwidth Generally, bandwidth refers to the amount of transferable data through a connection over a given period.
362
A network engineer is tasked with configuring a new network segment for the marketing department. The department requires its own VLAN (VLAN50) to segregate its traffic from the rest of the company. The network consists of a Layer 3 switch and multiple Layer 2 switches. The engineer decides to use an SVI for VLAN routing. Which of the following commands should the engineer use to configure the SVI for VLAN50 on the Layer 3 switch? switchport mode access vlan 50 interface G0/1.50 encapsulation dot1Q 50 vlan 50 interface VLAN50 ip address 192.168.50.1 255.255.255.0
interface VLAN50 ip address 192.168.50.1 255.255.255.0
363
A security administrator is investigating recent logins to a server that has been compromised. Which log should the administrator view to check recent logins? Audit log Traffic logs OIDs Syslog
Audit log
364
Mobile users in an organization complain about limited functionality in a company's headquarters. The IT staff decide to extend mobile access capabilities by widening the current wireless network. When evaluating the expansion configuration, a wireless access point media access control (MAC) address relates to which of the following options? Base station Extended Service Set (ESS) Basic Service Set (BSS) Basic Service Set Identifier (BSSID)
Basic Service Set Identifier (BSSID)
365
An IT engineer works with desktop installation technicians who deploy new computers to users. The installation technicians report that users in one area of the building do not achieve network speeds above 100 Mbps. After evaluating the cabling choices, the IT engineer determines that the problem area uses which type of cabling? Cat 3 Cat 5 Cat 6 Cat 5e
Cat 5 The American National Standards Institute (ANSI) and the Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA)/Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) have created categories and standards for twisted pair cabling. Cat 5 cabling supports a maximum speed of 100 Mbps. Cat 3 cabling is the oldest cabling standard among the choices. This twisted pair cable type supports speeds up to 10 Mbps. Cat 6 defines a modern implementation of twisted pair cabling that supports speeds up to 10 Gbps. Cat 5e defines an improvement of Cat 5 cabling by improving speeds from 100 Mbps to 1 Gbps.
366
A user submits a help ticket indicating that they only have 1 bar of signal at their desk. What issue is the user having in regard to wireless access? RF attenuation Distance Speed Interference
Distance
367
What step of the CompTIA Network+ troubleshooting methodology can involve approaching multiple problems individually? 4 2 1 5
1
368
An organization is facing challenges with securing access to cloud services for its remote workforce. They have noticed an increase in malware incidents and unauthorized data access attempts. The security team is looking for a solution that can enforce strict access controls, provide single sign-on capabilities, and monitor user activities for compliance and threat detection. They are also interested in a solution that can prevent data exfiltration and scan for malware in real-time. Which component of SASE would MOST effectively address the organization's security challenges? SD-WAN Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) Zero Trust Architecture Secure Web Gateway (SWG)
Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) A Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) would most effectively address the organization's security challenges by providing a set of technologies designed to mediate access to cloud services. CASBs enforce strict access controls, enable single sign-on authentication, scan for malware, monitor and audit user and resource activity, and mitigate data exfiltration, directly aligning with the organization's needs. A Secure Web Gateway (SWG) provides safe access to the Internet and cloud services by enforcing security policies and filtering unwanted software. However, it does not offer the broad range of specific functionalities (such as single sign-on or detailed user activity monitoring) that a CASB does, making CASB the more effective choice for the organization's stated needs.
369
What is the default subnet mask for the IP address 203.111.3.3? 255.255.255.0 255.255.0.0 255.0.0.0 255.255.255.255
255.255.255.0 IP addresses are divided into classes. The most common of these are Classes A, B, and C. Each address class has a different default subnet mask. To identify an IP address's class, look at its first octet. Class A networks use a default subnet mask of 255.0.0.0 and have 0-126 as their first octet. Class B networks use a default subnet mask of 255.255.0.0 and have 128-191 as their first octet. Class C networks use a default subnet mask of 255.255.255.0 and have 192-223 as their first octet.
370
Which of the following is a key benefit of using Direct Connect for cloud connectivity? (Select all that apply) Enhanced security through a private connection Automatic backup and disaster recovery Simplified public IP address management Reduced need for internal firewalls Decreased latency for data transmission
Decreased latency for data transmission Enhanced security through a private connection
371
Which principle is most closely associated with least privilege access in ZTA? Trust but verify Never trust, Always verify Deny by default Deny, then verify
Deny by default "Deny by default" is most closely associated with the principle of least privilege access in Zero Trust Architecture (ZTA). This approach ensures that access is denied unless explicitly granted, aligning with the idea that users should only have the minimum necessary permissions to perform their tasks. "Never trust, always verify" is a core principle of ZTA, but it emphasizes ongoing verification rather than specifically addressing least privilege.
372
What is the primary use case for implementing BGP in an enterprise network? Providing robust and scalable inter-domain routing Enhancing internal routing within a data center Encrypting data transmissions Monitoring internal network traffic
Providing robust and scalable inter-domain routing
373
What is the primary purpose of a VLAN database in network management? To store VLAN login credentials To maintain information about VLAN configurations and assignments To encrypt VLAN traffic To manage VLAN IP address allocations
To maintain information about VLAN configurations and assignments
374
How does increasing the channel width from 20 MHz to 40 MHz affect a wireless network? Select all that apply. It reduces the network's security It increases the available bandwidth and potential data throughput It decreases the number of available channels, potentially causing more interference It simplifies network management
It increases the available bandwidth and potential data throughput It decreases the number of available channels, potentially causing more interference
375
In an SNMPv3 implementation, which component is CRUCIAL for ensuring that SNMP traps are securely transmitted and received between the network devices and the SNMP manager? The use of a well-defined community string The configuration of a MIB The implementation of the USM The assignment of SNMPv2c access levels
The implementation of the USM The implementation of the User-based Security Model (USM) is CRUCIAL for ensuring that SNMP traps are securely transmitted and received in an SNMPv3 environment. USM provides authentication and encryption, which are key to securing SNMP messages.
376
Which method is best for capturing packets on a specific network segment without interrupting network traffic? Using a network tap Enabling port mirroring on a switch Deploying a firewall with packet capture capabilities Running packet capture software directly on a network device All options are equally effective
Enabling port mirroring on a switch Enabling port mirroring on a switch is best for capturing packets on a specific network segment without interrupting network traffic. Port mirroring allows a copy of the traffic from one or more ports to be sent to a monitoring port where packet capture can be performed. This method is non-intrusive and doesn't affect the flow of traffic on the network, making it ideal for real-time monitoring.
377
Which feature of a SIEM system is MOST CRUCIAL for detecting security incidents as they occur? The ability to aggregate logs from multiple sources The implementation of real-time correlation rules The storage of historical logs for compliance purposes The integration with external threat intelligence feeds
The implementation of real-time correlation rules The MOST CRUCIAL feature of a SIEM system for detecting security incidents in real-time is the implementation of real-time correlation rules. These rules allow the SIEM to analyze log data as it is received, identifying patterns or sequences of events that indicate a security incident.
378
Which tool is BEST SUITED for capturing and analyzing real-time network traffic to diagnose performance issues? A network protocol analyzer A syslog server A network management system A configuration management tool
A network protocol analyzer A network protocol analyzer is BEST SUITED for capturing and analyzing real-time network traffic to diagnose performance issues. This tool allows you to inspect individual packets, analyze traffic flow, and identify potential bottlenecks or misconfigurations at a granular level. While a network management system can provide an overview of network performance, it is not as specialized for real-time traffic capture and detailed analysis as a protocol analyzer. Syslog servers and configuration management tools serve different purposes and are not focused on real-time traffic analysis.
379
A network administrator needs to ensure that certain IP addresses within the DHCP scope are not assigned to clients because they are reserved for static use. What configuration should the administrator implement? DHCP Exclusions DHCP Reservations DHCP Lease Time DHCP Relay
DHCP Exclusions
380
A network administrator needs to configure a new router that has not yet been connected to the network. What type of connection should they use to perform the initial setup? Console SSH API Telnet
Console A console connection is typically used for the initial setup of network devices, such as routers and switches, especially when the device has not yet been configured to communicate over the network. SSH and Telnet are used for remote management after the device is network-ready, and an API is used for programmatic control of network devices.
381
A network administrator notices unauthorized devices appearing in different VLANs across the network. After investigating, they find that these devices are sending frames with 802.1Q tags that don't match their assigned VLAN. Which of the following actions would BEST prevent this type of attack in the future? Enable BPDU guard on all switch ports Disable DTP on all switch ports Implement DHCP snooping on the network Increase the length of the DHCP lease time
Disable DTP (Dynamic Trunk Protocol) on all switch ports Disabling DTP on all switch ports would best prevent VLAN hopping attacks by ensuring that ports do not dynamically negotiate trunking, which could otherwise allow unauthorized devices to send frames with 802.1Q tags.
382
Which of the following is the MOST effective technique for mitigating ARP-related attacks? Implementing DHCP snooping on all network switches Enabling port mirroring to monitor ARP requests Using DAI to validate ARP packets Deploying VLAN hopping to isolate ARP requests
Using DAI to validate ARP packets Using Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI) to validate ARP packets is the most effective technique for mitigating ARP-related attacks. DAI ensures that only legitimate ARP responses are accepted by verifying each ARP packet against a trusted database of IP-to-MAC address mappings, effectively preventing ARP spoofing and other related attacks.
383
A user reports intermittent slowdowns when accessing a shared network drive. What is the BEST initial question to ask to begin diagnosing this issue? "Can you describe exactly what happens when the slowdown occurs?" "Have you checked if other users are experiencing the same problem?" "Is the network drive on the same subnet as your device?" "Have you tried rebooting your computer to resolve the issue?"
"Can you describe exactly what happens when the slowdown occurs?"
384
You’ve been troubleshooting a recurring network issue that’s only affecting a small subset of users, all located in the same physical area of the building. Despite testing several theories, the root cause remains unclear. What is the MOST appropriate next step? Escalate the issue to a more specialized team Investigate potential environmental factors that may be contributing to the issue Increase the level of logging to gather more detailed information Reapply one of the previous fixes to see if the issue temporarily resolves
Investigate potential environmental factors that may be contributing to the issue
385
Which of the following conditions is NOT typically responsible for the presence of runts in a network? Duplex mismatches Cable faults Excessive fragmentation at the IP layer Network collisions
Excessive fragmentation at the IP layer Excessive fragmentation at the IP layer is not typically responsible for runts. Runts are usually caused by physical layer issues like duplex mismatches, cable faults, and network collisions. Fragmentation affects packets at the network layer, not the frame size at the data link layer.
386
Which of the following is NOT a recommended strategy for mitigating network contention? Implementing VLANs to segment network traffic Increasing the size of the broadcast domain Configuring QoS to prioritize critical traffic Upgrading network infrastructure to higher bandwidth capabilities
Increasing the size of the broadcast domain
387
Which of the following is NOT an appropriate use of a protocol analyzer? Identifying the source of network latency Capturing packets for analyzing suspicious activity Configuring routing protocols on network devices Monitoring network performance over time
Configuring routing protocols on network devices
388
A network administrator needs to identify devices and their network details within a local network segment. The administrator prefers a tool that operates at Layer 2 of the OSI model. Which of the following tools should be used? LLDP Nmap traceroute nslookup
LLDP LLDP operates at Layer 2 of the OSI model and is used for network discovery, allowing administrators to identify devices and their network details within a local network segment. Nmap operates at a higher level for network scanning, while traceroute and nslookup are used for path tracing and DNS queries, respectively.
389
Which type of load balancing algorithm distributes traffic equally among all available servers, regardless of their current load? Round-robin Least connections IP hash Weighted round-robin
Round-robin
390
Which of the following is a common metric used in QoS configurations to measure the quality of a network connection? Bandwidth Latency Packet loss All of the above
All of the above
391
What is required to set up a Direct Connect connection between an on-premises data center and the cloud? A public IP address for each device A dedicated physical connection provided by a Direct Connect partner A VPN client on each on-premises device Dynamic IP address allocation
A dedicated physical connection provided by a Direct Connect partner
392
Which TCP feature is used to control the flow of data to prevent network congestion? Sequence numbers Window size Error checking Port numbers
Window size The TCP feature used to control the flow of data to prevent network congestion is the window size. It determines the amount of data that can be sent before receiving an acknowledgment from the receiver.
393
Which organization would most likely use a Class B IP address? A large multinational corporation A small business with a few devices A medium-sized enterprise A home user with a single device
A medium-sized enterprise
394
What is the primary purpose of EIGRP? To manage external routing between autonomous systems To monitor network traffic for security threats To encrypt data packets within the network To provide efficient internal routing within an autonomous system
To provide efficient internal routing within an autonomous system
395
What is the primary benefit of using FHRP in a network? Simplified network configuration Enhanced security through encryption Increased network redundancy and reliability Improved network speed
Increased network redundancy and reliability
396
What is the typical state of the Alternate Port? Forwarding Blocking Listening Learning
Blocking
397
In the context of SNMP, what is the role of the MIB within a network management system? It acts as a database for storing SNMP trap messages It defines the structure and format of the SNMP community strings It provides a hierarchical structure to organize and access network management data It encrypts SNMP messages to ensure secure communication
It provides a hierarchical structure to organize and access network management data
398
Which of the following packet capture methods is LEAST likely to introduce significant performance degradation or packet loss in a network? Using a network tap Enabling port mirroring on a switch Running packet capture software directly on a network device Deploying a firewall with packet capture capabilities
Using a network tap
399
Which method is LEAST COST-EFFECTIVE for managing unexpected network congestion during peak usage? Analyzing traffic patterns Implementing intelligent load balancing across multiple paths Utilizing real-time monitoring Expanding physical bandwidth
Expanding physical bandwidth
400
A network administrator wants to ensure that DNS queries and responses are encrypted to prevent eavesdropping and tampering. Which secure DNS protocols should they consider implementing? DNSSEC and DoT DoH and DNSSEC DoT and DoH DNSSEC and Reverse DNS
DoT and DoH
401
During an investigation, a security analyst discovers that an attacker gained unauthorized access to a server by exploiting a vulnerability in a legacy application. The attacker was able to execute code remotely and elevate privileges, allowing them full control of the system. What type of vulnerability or technique did the attacker most likely exploit? Buffer overflow Zero-day exploit Social engineering SQL injection
Buffer overflow
402
Which of the following is NOT an effective method for mitigating ARP spoofing? Implementing IPsec to encrypt ARP traffic Enabling DAI on the network Configuring static ARP entries on critical devices Using port security to restrict access based on MAC addresses
Implementing IPsec to encrypt ARP traffic
403
An organization is setting up a secure communication channel between its servers and client devices. The IT team generates a pair of cryptographic keys but encounters issues when attempting to securely share one of the keys with the client devices. What is the most likely reason for this challenge? The organization used asymmetric encryption, and the key intended for clients must be distributed securely The organization used symmetric encryption, which requires both keys to be kept secret The keys were generated using an outdated algorithm, leading to compatibility issues The communication channel was not properly encrypted, allowing potential interception during key distribution
The organization used asymmetric encryption, and the key intended for clients must be distributed securely
404
Which of the following is a common symptom of improper cable termination in a network? Intermittent connectivity with no clear pattern Consistent high latency across all network traffic Total network failure across multiple devices High levels of signal attenuation on long cable runs
Intermittent connectivity with no clear pattern
405
A network engineer observes an increasing number of giants on an interface connected to a server. The MTU size is correctly configured on both the server and the switch. What is the MOST likely cause of these giants? An outdated driver on the server’s NIC A duplex mismatch between the server and the switch Physical damage to the network cable A malfunctioning NIC on the server
A malfunctioning NIC on the server
406
Which of the following is MOST likely to cause a routing table to incorrectly direct traffic? A mismatched VLAN assignment A missing or misconfigured default route Incorrect subnet mask configuration on end devices A duplex mismatch on a network interface
A missing or misconfigured default route
407
Which QoS technique is used to ensure that high-priority traffic is sent before lower-priority traffic? Bandwidth throttling Traffic shaping Packet scheduling Load balancing
Packet scheduling
408
Which type of NAT assigns a unique public IP address to each device on a private network? Static NAT Dynamic NAT PAT Overlapping NAT
Static NAT
409
Which factor is the MOST significant challenge in satellite communication systems? Signal interference from weather conditions Signal interference from terrestrial networks The need for direct line-of-sight High latency due to signal travel distance
High latency due to signal travel distance
410
What is the primary characteristic of a spine and leaf network architecture? Spine switches are connected to leaf switches in a linear sequence Each leaf switch is connected to every other leaf switch Each spine switch is connected to every other spine switch Each leaf switch is connected to every spine switch
Each leaf switch is connected to every spine switch
411
Which component is fundamental to the implementation of SASE? On-premises firewalls Cloud-based security services Cloud storage services CRM systems
Cloud-based security services SASE (Secure Access Service Edge) is a network security framework that combines WAN capabilities with cloud-delivered security. Its core idea is to move security functions (like firewall, secure web gateway, CASB, and zero-trust network access) to the cloud, so users and devices are protected regardless of location.
412
What is a potential drawback of using NAT in a network? Increased risk of IP address conflicts Reduced network security Complication of peer-to-peer communications Decreased network redundancy
Complication of peer-to-peer communications
413
In which scenario would an ad hoc network be the most appropriate choice? A small team working in a remote location without established network infrastructure A temporary pop-up store in a busy shopping mall A group of travelers using a hotel’s Wi-Fi to share files A regular weekly meeting in a conference room with an existing corporate network
A small team working in a remote location without established network infrastructure Ad hoc networks are peer-to-peer networks where devices communicate directly with each other without relying on a central router, access point, or existing infrastructure.
414
Which of the following factors is most critical when selecting a rack size for a new network installation? The color of the rack to match the room's aesthetics The amount of available space for future equipment expansion The number of LED lights on the front panel The height of the ceiling in the room
The amount of available space for future equipment expansion
415
What is the MOST EFFECTIVE strategy for preventing overheating in a high-density server environment? Increasing the overall airflow by installing more cooling fans Implementing hot and cold aisle containment to manage air circulation Using liquid cooling systems to directly cool the server components Installing temperature sensors to monitor and adjust cooling in real-time
Implementing hot and cold aisle containment to manage air circulation
416
Which metric is MOST CRUCIAL for identifying latency issues in a network? Bandwidth utilization Packet loss rate RTT Error rate on network interfaces
RTT Round-trip time (RTT) is MOST CRUCIAL for identifying latency issues in a network. RTT measures the time it takes for a packet to travel from the source to the destination and back, making it a direct indicator of latency.
417
A network administrator is tasked with assigning IP addresses to a small office network. The administrator wants to ensure that devices can communicate with each other within the same network, but wants to reserve some addresses for future expansion. The network uses a subnet mask of 255.255.255.240. How many usable IP addresses are available in this subnet? 8 14 16 30
14
418
Which of the following best describes the function of the 802.1X standard in network security? It provides a method for encrypting data traffic on wireless networks It defines a standard for port-based network access control, allowing only authenticated devices to connect It is used to dynamically assign IP addresses to devices as they connect to the network It specifies the protocols for secure email communication over the network
It defines a standard for port-based network access control, allowing only authenticated devices to connect
419
After applying a network configuration change, users report intermittent connectivity issues. What should be your first step in verifying the solution’s effectiveness? Review the configuration settings to ensure they were applied correctly Increase the monitoring frequency to detect any ongoing issues Revert the configuration to its previous state to see if the issue persists Ask users to reboot their devices and check for connectivity again
Review the configuration settings to ensure they were applied correctly
420
A network engineer notices that after a topology change in the network, a specific switch port is not forwarding traffic, but the MAC address table is being populated with new addresses. What is the most likely state of this port? Listening Blocking Learning Forwarding
Learning Blocking – The port does not forward frames and does not learn MAC addresses. Listening – The port listens for BPDUs to prevent loops but does not learn MAC addresses. Learning – The port learns MAC addresses from incoming frames but still does not forward traffic. Forwarding – The port forwards traffic and continues to learn MAC addresses.
421
Which of the following is NOT a potential cause of routing table issues? Incorrect static route configuration Routing protocol misconfiguration Corrupted routing table due to hardware failure Excessive broadcast traffic on the network
Excessive broadcast traffic on the network
422
Which of the following is NOT a potential consequence of an incorrect subnet mask configuration? Devices being unable to communicate with each other on the same network Inaccurate routing of traffic within the local network Devices receiving IP addresses outside the intended subnet Failure to connect to external networks, such as the internet
Devices receiving IP addresses outside the intended subnet
423
Which of the following is NOT a function of a toner in network troubleshooting? Tracing the physical path of a cable Identifying cable continuity Detecting the presence of a signal on a cable Locating a specific cable within a bundle
Identifying cable continuity
424
What is the purpose of the ACK mechanism in TCP? To establish a connection between two devices To verify the integrity of received data packets To control the flow of data between sender and receiver To notify the sender that the data has been received successfully
To notify the sender that the data has been received successfully
425
How does traffic shaping help in managing network traffic? By distributing traffic load evenly across the network By delaying the transmission of certain types of traffic to prevent congestion By prioritizing certain types of traffic over others By providing end-to-end encryption
By delaying the transmission of certain types of traffic to prevent congestion
426
What is a significant benefit of using PaaS for application development? Full control over the operating system and hardware Simplified deployment and scalability of applications Pre-installed software applications ready for immediate use Fixed monthly cost regardless of usage
Simplified deployment and scalability of applications
427
Which of the following is a security enhancement available in NTP? Time-based encryption Symmetric key cryptography for authenticating NTP messages Public key infrastructure for time synchronization IPsec tunneling for NTP traffic
Symmetric key cryptography for authenticating NTP messages
428
How does the MTU size affect the efficiency of data transmission? Larger MTU sizes reduce the overhead per packet, increasing efficiency Smaller MTU sizes reduce the chance of errors, increasing efficiency Larger MTU sizes increase the overhead per packet, decreasing efficiency MTU size does not affect data transmission efficiency
Larger MTU sizes reduce the overhead per packet, increasing efficiency
429
Which of the following authentication methods utilize digital certificates as part of their process? Select all that apply. 802.1X WPA2-PSK EAP-TLS WPA3-SAE
EAP-TLS 802.1X
430
What is the MOST SIGNIFICANT advantage of using a raised floor system in a network installation to manage temperature? It allows for more even distribution of cold air across the equipment It enables better airflow control by isolating hot and cold air zones It reduces the need for additional cooling units in the data center It minimizes the impact of external environmental temperature fluctuations
It enables better airflow control by isolating hot and cold air zones
431
In SNMPv3, which feature is MOST ESSENTIAL for ensuring message integrity and preventing tampering? The use of encrypted SNMP messages The implementation of authentication protocols The configuration of SNMP traps The assignment of a unique MIB for each device
The implementation of authentication protocols
432
Which of the following best describes the primary use and benefit of PTP in network environments? It provides coarse synchronization of network devices for general-purpose operations It enables highly accurate synchronization of clocks in devices within a local network It offers encrypted communication for time-sensitive data across the internet It prioritizes network traffic based on precise time measurements
It enables highly accurate synchronization of clocks in devices within a local network PTP (Precision Time Protocol, IEEE 1588) is designed to synchronize clocks to sub-microsecond accuracy across devices in a local area network (LAN).
433
Which of the following is NOT a component of risk assessment in network security? Identifying potential threats to the network Evaluating the impact of a vulnerability being exploited Implementing security controls to mitigate risks Determining the likelihood of a vulnerability being exploited
Implementing security controls to mitigate risks
434
A network administrator notices unusual traffic on a server that isn’t typically accessed by users. Upon further investigation, it’s found that an EOS application on the server is being exploited to gain unauthorized access. What security measure would best have prevented this issue? Regularly updating and patching the server’s software Disabling unused ports and services on the server Implementing multi-factor authentication for server access Encrypting all communications to and from network applications
Disabling unused ports and services on the server
435
When implementing a new configuration in a high-stakes network environment, what is the MOST important consideration regarding potential effects? Whether the change aligns with current industry best practices The ease of reversing the change if issues arise The amount of time it will take to implement the change How the change will impact network performance under peak load
How the change will impact network performance under peak load
436
Which of the following is MOST likely to result from a transceiver mismatch on a network? Inconsistent network connectivity between devices Increased latency due to signal processing delays Mismatched transceiver types on either end of the connection Decreased bandwidth across all network connections
Inconsistent network connectivity between devices
437
Which of the following is NOT provided by the show interface command? Interface status and error counters Traffic load and utilization statistics MAC addresses learned on the interface Information on interface duplex settings
MAC addresses learned on the interface
438