Notes A-2.1

Question 1

the frontline problem-solver of IT issues and problems that an organization may experience.

Answer 1

IT Specialist

Question 2

require that an IT specialist can identify the problem and establish a theory of the probable cause of that problem. Understanding the company’s network configuration, policies, and practices will also play a role in determining what may be causing the issue.

Answer 2

Problem solving skills

Question 3

Some companies will require you to use _____ that have been established by the management for problem solving. These ____ are customized to the organization’s information technology environment and ensure a repeatable process is followed by all technicians.

Answer 3

standard operating procedures (SOPs)

Question 4

what are the skills of an IT specialist?

Answer 4

Problem solving, communication, technical knowledge/experience, organization

Question 5

what is the troubleshooting methodology?

Answer 5

1. Identify the problem
2. Establish a theory of probable cause
3. Test the theory to determine the cause
4. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution
5. Verify full-system functionality
6. Document the findings, lessons learned, actions, and outcomes

Question 6

is an overall statement of intent.

Answer 6

A policy

Question 7

is a step-by-step list of the actions that must be completed for any given task to comply with policy. Most IT procedures should be governed by _____

Answer 7

A standard Operating Procedure (SOP)

Question 8

are for areas of policy where there are no procedures, either because the situation has not been fully assessed or because the decision-making process is too complex and subject to variables to be able to capture it in an SOP. _____ may also describe circumstances where it is appropriate to deviate from a specified procedure.

Answer 8

Guidelines

Question 9

define the level of service requirements from an internal department or external, third-party vendor.
An agreement that sets the service requirements and expectations between a consumer and a provider.

Answer 9

Service level agreements (SLAs)

Question 10

Database software designed to implement a structured support process by identifying each case with a unique job ticket ID and with descriptive fields to record how the issue was resolved.

Answer 10

Ticketing system

Question 11

______ group related tickets together. This is useful for assigning tickets to the relevant support section or technician and for reporting and analysis.

Answer 11

Categories and subcategories

Question 12

are for provisioning things that the IT department has a SOP for, such as setting up new user accounts, purchasing new hardware or software, deploying a web server, and so on.

Answer 12

Ticket - Requests

Question 13

are related to any errors or unexpected situations faced by end-users or customers. ____ may be further categorized by severity (impact and urgency), such as minor, major, and critical.

Answer 13

Ticket - Incidents

Question 14

are causes of incidents and will probably require analysis and service reconfiguration to solve. This type of ticket is likely to be generated internally when the help desk starts to receive many incidents of the same type.

Answer 14

Ticket - Problems

Question 15

is a way of classifying tickets into a priority order; critical, major, and minor.

Answer 15

Ticket - Severity level

Question 16

____ incidents have a widespread effect on customers or involve potential or actual data breach.

Answer 16

severity level - Critical

Question 17

____ incidents affect a limited group of customers or involve a suspected security violation.

Answer 17

severity level - Major

Question 18

_____ incidents are not having a significant effect on customer groups.

Answer 18

severity level - Minor

Question 19

In the context of support procedures, incident response, and breach-reporting, _____ is the process of involving expert and senior staff to assist in problem management.

Answer 19

escalation

Question 20

presents self-service options for the customer to try to resolve an incident via advice from a knowledge base or “help bot.” A knowledge base is a collection of FAQs and common troubleshooting procedures that a user can refer to before filing a trouble ticket.

Answer 20

Escalation level - Tier 0

Question 21

connects the customer to an agent for initial diagnosis and possible incident resolution.

Answer 21

Escalation level - Tier 1

Question 22

allows the agent to escalate the ticket to senior technicians (Tier 2 – Internal) or to a third-party support group (Tier 2 – External).

Answer 22

Escalation level - Tier 2

Question 23

escalates the ticket as a problem to a development/engineer team or to senior managers and decision-makers.

Answer 23

Escalation level - Tier 3

Question 24

Searchable database of product Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs), advice, and known troubleshooting issues. The Microsoft ____ is found at support.microsoft.com.

Answer 24

knowledge base

Question 25

An analysis of events that can provide insight into how to improve response and support processes in the future.

Answer 25

Lessons learned report or after-action report (AAR)

Question 26

The purpose of an ____ is to identify underlying causes and recommend remediation steps or preventive measures to mitigate the risk of a repeat of the issue. This report can also be filed into the organization's knowledge base for record-keeping and reference in future trouble tickets and incidents.

Answer 26

incident report

Question 27

records the initial request with any detail that could easily be collected at the time.

Answer 27

Ticket life cycle - Issue description

Question 28

record what diagnostic tools and processes have discovered and the identification and confirmation of a probable cause.

Answer 28

Ticket life cycle - Progress notes

Question 29

sets out the plan of action and documents the successful implementation and testing of that plan and full system functionality. It should also record end-user or customer acceptance that the ticket can be closed.

Answer 29

Ticket life cycle - Problem resolution

Question 30

means using plain language rather than jargon.

Answer 30

clear communication

Question 31

means using as few words as possible in short sentences. State the minimum of fact and action required to describe the issue or process.

Answer 31

concise communication

Question 32

A policy that governs employees' use of company equipment and Internet services. ISPs may also apply ____ to their customers.

Answer 32

An acceptable use policy (AUP)

Question 33

Displaying terms of use or other restrictions before use of a computer or app is allowed. might be configured to show at login to remind users of data handling requirements or other regulated use of a workstation or network app.

Answer 33

Splash screen

Question 34

Professional support process

Answer 34

Professional documentation Set expectations and timelines - meet those Repair and replace options Follow up

Question 35

Professional support delivery

Answer 35

Be on time Avoid distractions Deal appropriately with confidential and private materials

Question 36

Professional appearance

Answer 36

Professional appearance and attire Using proper language Cultural sensitivity

Question 37

Communication technique to ensure that you capture all the information that the other person is "transmitting," including nonverbal cues such as tone of voice or gestures. There are various active-listening techniques for ensuring that you are "getting the right message," such as summarizing, reflecting (matching the speaker's communication style), interpreting, and verbal attends (such as "Uh-huh." or "I see.").

Answer 37

Active listening

Question 38

A question that invites the other person to compose a response. For example, "What seems to be the problem?" invites the customer to give an opinion about what they think the problem is.

Answer 38

Open-ended questions

Question 39

A question that can only be answered with a "Yes" or "No" or that requires some other fixed response. For example, "What error number is displayed on the panel?" can only have one answer.

Answer 39

Closed questions

Question 40

identify early signs that a customer is becoming angry do not take complaints personally let the customer explain the problem while you actively listen Hang up

Answer 40

dealing with difficult customers

Question 41

Designed for use as a client in centrally managed business domain networks.

Answer 41

Operating Systems Market - Business client

Question 42

Designed to run servers in business networks.

Answer 42

Operating Systems Market - Network Operating System (NOS)

Question 43

Designed for standalone use or in a workgroup network in a home or small office.

Answer 43

Operating Systems Market - Home client

Question 44

Designed for handheld devices with a touch-operated interface.

Answer 44

Operating Systems Market - Cell phone (smartphone)/Tablet

Question 45

A business client PC is often called a _____. However, hardware vendors typically use "_____" to refer to a powerful PC used for tasks like graphic design, video editing, or software development.

Answer 45

workstation

Question 46

Available in editions for both business workstations and home PCs, supporting touch interfaces for tablets and laptops. (Note: Windows smartphones are discontinued.)

Answer 46

Windows 10 and 11

Question 47

Optimized as Network Operating Systems (NOSs), sharing the same underlying code and desktop interface as the client versions.

Answer 47

Windows Server 2019, 2022, and 2025

Question 48

is exclusively available on Apple-built devices, such as Mac desktops, iMac all-in-ones, and MacBooks. It cannot be purchased or installed on non-Apple PCs, which enhances stability but limits hardware options.

Answer 48

macOS

Question 49

_____ is a family of more than 20 related operating systems that are produced by various companies. It can run on a wide variety of platforms. _____offers a multitude of file systems in addition to its native system. ______ remains widely deployed in enterprise data centers to run mission-critical applications and infrastructure.

Answer 49

UNIX

Question 50

The kernel manages system resources like CPU, RAM, and I/O devices, while the shell provides the user interface.

Answer 50

kernel/shell architecture

Question 51

is an open-source OS kernel derived from UNIX. It includes features like a shell command interpreter, desktop environment, and app packages.

Answer 51

Linux

Question 52

has numerous distributions (distros), each with its own package set. Notable distros include SUSE, Red Hat Enterprise ____ (RHEL), Fedora, Debian, Ubuntu, Mint, and Arch, each offering different licensing and support options.

Answer 52

Linux

Question 53

Uses versioning for updates, with some versions offering long-term support (LTS).

Answer 53

Linux distros release model - Standard release

Question 54

Provides updates as they become stable, without version distinctions.

Answer 54

Linux distros release model - Rolling release

Question 55

serves as both a desktop and server OS. It is often used in schools and universities as a desktop OS and dominates the web server market as a server OS. Additionally, it is widely used in smart appliances and Internet of Things (IoT) devices.

Answer 55

Linux

Question 56

Proprietary OS developed by Google to run on specific laptop (chromebooks) and PC (chromeboxes) hardware. proprietary operating system derived from the open-source Chromium OS, which is based on Linux

Answer 56

Chrome OS

Question 57

Primarily built for web applications, _____ relies on server-hosted software accessed via a browser, reducing the need for powerful client hardware. Its minimal environment minimizes interference from other software or drivers, enhancing browser performance.

Answer 57

Chrome OS

Question 58

also supports offline "packaged" apps and can run Android and Linux apps, offering flexibility for users and developers.

Answer 58

Chrome OS

Question 59

Cell phone and tablet operating systems are designed exclusively for touch-screen interfaces. The main OSs in this category are ______

Answer 59

Apple iOS/iPadOS and Android.

Question 60

OS for Apple's iPhone smartphone and most iPad tablet models.

Answer 60

iOS

Question 61

is based on the macOS operating system and is closed-source, meaning only Apple can modify the code, and it runs exclusively on Apple devices.

Answer 61

iOS

Question 62

Product life cycle and procurement consideration where a device or product no longer receives a full range of updates or support from its vendor.

Answer 62

Update limitations

Question 63

OS for some models of the Apple iPad tablet.

Answer 63

iPadOS

Question 64

Cell phone/smartphone/tablet OS developed by the Open Handset Alliance (primarily driven by Google). Unlike iOS, it is an open-source OS, based on Linux.

Answer 64

Android

Question 65

A method an OS uses to organize, store, and manage files and directories.

Answer 65

file system

Question 66

prepares a partition on a disk device for use with an operating system. The format process creates a file system on the disk partition. Each OS is associated with various types of file systems.

Answer 66

high-level formatting

Question 67

a proprietary file system developed by Microsoft for use with Windows. It provides a 64-bit addressing scheme, allowing for very large volumes and file sizes.

Answer 67

The New Technology File System (NTFS)

Question 68

When data is written to an NTFS volume, it is re-read, verified, and logged. In the event of a problem, the sector concerned is marked as bad and the data relocated. ______ makes recovery after power outages and crashes faster and more reliable.

Answer 68

NTFS feature - Journaling

Question 69

This allows the Volume Shadow Copy Service to make read-only copies of files at given points in time even if the file is locked by another process. This file version history allows users to revert changes more easily and supports backup operations.

Answer 69

NTFS feature - Snapshots

Question 70

Features such as file permissions and ownership, file access audit trails, quota management, and encrypting file system (EFS) allow administrators to ensure only authorized users can read/modify file data.

Answer 70

NTFS feature - Security

Question 71

To support UNIX/Linux compatibility, Microsoft engineered NTFS to support case-sensitive naming, hard links, and other key features required by UNIX/Linux applications. Although the file system is case-sensitive capable and preserves case, Windows does not insist upon case-sensitive naming.

Answer 71

NTFS feature - POSIX Compliance

Question 72

The ____ Service creates a catalog of file and folder locations and properties, speeding up searches.

Answer 72

NTFS feature - Indexing

Question 73

This disk management feature allows space on multiple physical disks to be combined into volumes.

Answer 73

NTFS feature - Dynamic Disks

Question 74

_____ can only be installed to an NTFS-formatted partition

Answer 74

Windows

Question 75

NTFS is also usually the best choice for additional partitions and removable drives that will be used with Windows. The only significant drawback of NTFS is that _______

Answer 75

it is not fully supported by operating systems other than Windows.

Question 76

A Microsoft file system designed to maximize data availability, scale efficiently to large data sets across diverse workloads, and provide data integrity by means of resiliency to corruption.

Answer 76

The Resilient File System (ReFS)

Question 77

The key benefits of ReFS include:

Answer 77

Resiliency - ability to detect corrupted files and data and repair them while still online and in use, even in virtualized environments. High performance - storage solution improvement along with optimization of data increases the performance with large data sets and workloads through configuration of two logical storage groups or tiers. Scalability - supports millions of terabytes of data without impacting performance metrics.

Question 78

is a very early type named for its method of organization—the file allocation table. provides links from one allocation unit to another.

Answer 78

FAT32; The FAT file system

Question 79

32-bit file system used principally for system partitions and removable media.

Answer 79

File allocation table (FAT)

Question 80

does not support any of the reliability or security features of NTFS. It is typically used to format the system partition (the one that holds the boot loader). It is also useful when formatting removable drives and memory cards intended for multiple operating systems and devices.

Answer 80

FAT32

Question 81

64-bit version of the FAT file system with support for larger partition and file sizes. designed for use with removable hard drives and flash media.

Answer 81

exFAT; Extended File Allocation Table

Question 82

Like NTFS, ____supports large volumes, up to a recommended maximum size of 512 Terabytes (TB). There is also support for access permissions but not encryption.

Answer 82

exFAT

Question 83

nominally supporting volumes up to 2 TB. The maximum file size is 4 GB minus 1 byte.

Answer 83

FAT32

Question 84

Most Linux distributions use some version of the extended _____ to format partitions on mass storage devices. _____ delivers better performance and supports journaling.

Answer 84

(ext) file system; ext4

Question 85

Linux will also support FAT/FAT32 (designated as VFAT) and XFS as alternatives to ext.

Answer 85

Linux will also support FAT/FAT32 (designated as VFAT) and XFS as alternatives to ext.

Question 86

was introduced in 1993 as the High Performance Scalable File System and provided a 64-bit journaling file system. It is the default file system for Red Hat Enterprise Linux (RHEL) installations and is supported by other Linux distributions.

Answer 86

XFS

Question 87

Additional protocols such as the _______ can be used to mount remote storage devices to the local file system of the Linux OS. This can be used to connect to a file resource on another physical system as if the file system was directly attached to the user's own system.

Answer 87

Network File System (NFS)

Question 88

Default file system for macOS-based computers and laptops.

Answer 88

Apple File System (APFS)

Question 89

Apple Mac workstations and laptops use the proprietary ______, which supports journaling, snapshots, permissions/ownership, and encryption.

Answer 89

Apple File System (APFS)

Question 90

Considerations that must be made when using an app in an environment with multiple device and OS platforms.

Answer 90

Compatibility concern

Question 91

Compatibility concern can be considered in several categories:

Answer 91

OS compatibility with device hardware software app compatibility with an OS host-to-host compatibility for exchanging data over a network user training requirements.

Question 92

the range of software available for a particular OS - is a big factor in determining whether an OS becomes established in the marketplace.

Answer 92

The app ecosystem

Question 93

describes the policies and procedures an OS developer or device vendor puts in place to support a product.

Answer 93

A vendor life cycle

Question 94

Product life cycle phase where mainstream vendor support is no longer available.

Answer 94

end-of-life system

Question 95

might be used to gather user feedback. Microsoft operates a Windows Insider Program where you can sign up to use early release Windows versions and feature updates.

Answer 95

life-cycle phase - A public beta phase

Question 96

the vendor releases regular patches to fix critical security and operational issues and feature upgrades to expand OS functionality. _____ devices should be able to install OS upgrade versions.

Answer 96

life-cycle phase - the supported phase

Question 97

the product is no longer commercially available, but the vendor continues to issue critical patches. Devices that are in _______ may or may not be able to install OS upgrades.

Answer 97

life-cycle phase - the extended support phase

Question 98

is one that is no longer supported by its developer or vendor. _____ systems no longer receive security updates and therefore represent a critical vulnerability for a company's security systems if any remain in active use.

Answer 98

life-cycle phase - end-of-life system

Question 99

It supports large file sizes, advanced file permissions, encryption, and other features like compression and journaling. These capabilities make it ideal for a graphic design team that requires secure and efficient file management on a Windows 11 workstation.

Answer 99

NTFS (New Technology File System)

Question 100

is designed for high-resilience applications like data storage on servers. While it offers advanced features like data integrity checks, it is not optimized for desktop environments and lacks some features available in NTFS, such as file-level encryption.

Answer 100

ReFS (Resilient File System)

Question 101

does not have the high overhead and risk of corruption problems that can occur on removable storage with NTFS.

Answer 101

exFAT

Question 102

is based on the _____ browser application. This operating system was designed to be used mainly for web-based processes

Answer 102

Chrome OS

Question 103

Windows 11 requires a central processing unit (CPU) or motherboard with support for the ______

Answer 103

trusted platform module (TPM) version 2

Question 104

is a file system designed for compatibility across multiple operating systems, including macOS and Linux. It supports large file sizes and is optimized for external drives

Answer 104

exFAT (Extended File Allocation Table)

Question 105

is derived from the UNIX kernel and includes additional code for its graphical interface and system utilities.

Answer 105

macOS

Question 106

To support UNIX/Linux compatibility, Microsoft engineered the New Technology File System (NTFS) to support ______, hard links, and other key features UNIX/Linux applications require.

Answer 106

case-sensitive naming

Question 107

____ was developed from _____, which was developed from Linux.

Answer 107

Chrome OS

Question 108

is made up of kernel files and device drivers to interface with the hardware plus programs to provide a user interface and configuration tools.

Answer 108

An OS

Question 109

The earliest operating systems for PCs, such as ________ , used a command-line user interface or simple menu systems.

Answer 109

Microsoft's Disk Operating System (DOS)

Question 110

_______ favored by a particular OS or OS version is a powerful factor in determining customer preferences for one OS over another.

Answer 110

The GUI desktop style

Question 111

One of the main functions of an OS is to provide ______ for the user to configure and operate the computer hardware and software.

Answer 111

an interface (or shell)

Question 112

The top level of the user interface is the _____

Answer 112

desktop.

Question 113

The desktop contains the __________.These are all used to launch and switch between applications.

Answer 113

Start menu, taskbar, and shortcut icons.

Question 114

Windows feature allowing rapid search of apps, data folders, messages, and the web.

Answer 114

instant search box

Question 115

The Windows Settings app and Control Panel are the two main interfaces for _________

Answer 115

administering Windows.

Question 116

means configuring options, setting up user accounts, and adding and removing devices and software.

Answer 116

Administering an OS

Question 117

All Windows configuration data is ultimately held in a database called ________

Answer 117

the registry.

Question 118

Touch-enabled interface for managing user and system settings in Windows. _______is a touch-enabled interface for managing Windows.

Answer 118

Windows Settings

Question 119

Legacy management interface for configuring user and system settings in Windows.

Answer 119

Control Panel

Question 120

_______ controls access to the computer.

Answer 120

A user account

Question 121

_______ is protected by authenticating the account owner.

Answer 121

A user account

Question 122

________ means that the person must provide some data that is known or held only by the account owner to gain access to the account.

Answer 122

Authentication

Question 123

contains default folders for personal documents, pictures, videos, and music. Software applications might also write configuration information to ______ Each user account is associated with ______

Answer 123

profile.

Question 124

_______ account has privileges to change any aspect of the system configuration. The first user of the computer is configured as the default _______

Answer 124

An administrator

Question 125

_______ have privileges on their profile only, rather than the whole computer.

Answer 125

Standard users

Question 126

Cloud-based SSO service allowing users to synchronize settings between multiple Windows devices.

Answer 126

Microsoft Account

Question 127

________ can be used to sign in on a single computer only.

Answer 127

A local account

Question 128

Manage the current user account. If the account type is a Microsoft account, this links to a web portal.

Answer 128

Account settings - Your info

Question 129

Add sign-in credentials for other accounts, such as email or social networking, so that you can access them quickly.

Answer 129

Account settings - Email and Accounts

Question 130

Use a fingerprint reader or PIN to access the computer rather than a password. The computer can also be set to lock automatically from here.

Answer 130

Account settings - Configure sign-in options

Question 131

Join the computer to a centrally managed domain network.

Answer 131

Account settings - Access work or school

Question 132

Permit other local or Microsoft accounts to log on to the computer. Generally speaking, these accounts should be configured as standard users with limited privileges.

Answer 132

Account settings - Family and other users

Question 133

Use the cloud to apply the same personalization and preferences for each device that you use a Microsoft account to sign in with.

Answer 133

Account settings - Sync settings

Question 134

Control Panel app relating to user account creation and maintenance. ______ in Control Panel is the legacy interface.

Answer 134

The User Accounts Applet

Question 135

________ govern what usage data Windows is permitted to collect and what device functions are enabled and for which apps.

Answer 135

Privacy and Security Settings

Question 136

_______ allow a user to change antivirus, browser, and firewall settings.

Answer 136

The security settings

Question 137

allows Microsoft to process usage telemetry. It affects use of speech and input personalization, language settings, general diagnostics, and activity history.

Answer 137

Data collection

Question 138

allow or deny access to devices such as the location service, camera, and microphone and to user data such as contacts, calendar items, email, and files.

Answer 138

App permissions

Question 139

Keeping the PC synchronized to an accurate time source is important for processes such as authentication and backup.

Answer 139

Set the correct date/time and time zone

Question 140

for appropriate spelling and localization, keyboard input method, and speech recognition. Optionally, multiple languages can be enabled. The active language is toggled using an icon in the notification area (or START+SPACE).

Answer 140

Set region options

Question 141

Windows Settings pages related to customizing the appearance of the desktop using themes.

Answer 141

The Personalization Settings

Question 142

________ include the desktop wallpaper, screen saver, color scheme, font, and properties for the Start menu and taskbar.

Answer 142

Personalization and theme settings

Question 143

__________ settings configure input and output options to best suit each user.

Answer 143

Ease of Access (or Ease of Access/Accessibility) settings

Question 144

configures options for cursor indicators, high-contrast and color-filter modes, and the Magnifier zoom tool. Additionally, the Narrator tool can be used to enable audio descriptions of the current selection.

Answer 144

Vision

Question 145

configures options for volume, mono sound mixing, visual notifications, and closed-captioning.

Answer 145

Hearing

Question 146

configures options for keyboard and mouse usability. The user can also enable speech- and eye-controlled input methods.

Answer 146

Interaction

Question 147

Ease of Access can be configured via Settings or via Control Panel. In Windows 11, these settings are found under the ______ heading.

Answer 147

Accessibility

Question 148

enables you to open, copy, move, rename, view, and delete files and folders. In Windows, file management is performed using the ______

Answer 148

File Explorer

Question 149

Contains personal data folders belonging to the signed-in account profile. For example, in the previous screenshot, the user account is listed as "James at CompTIA."

Answer 149

User account

Question 150

Cloud storage service operated by Microsoft and closely integrated with Windows. If you sign into the computer with a Microsoft account, this shows the files and folders saved to your cloud storage service on the Internet.

Answer 150

One Drive

Question 151

Also contains the personal folders from the profile but also the fixed disks and removable storage drives attached to the PC. File system object representing a Windows computer and the disk drives installed to it.

Answer 151

This PC

Question 152

Contains computers, shared folders, and shared printers available over the network. In its most simple form, a network consists of two or more computers connected to each other by an appropriate transmission medium which allows them to share data. More complex networks can be developed from this basic principle—networks can be interconnected in different ways and even dissimilar networks can be linked.

Answer 152

Network

Question 153

When files are deleted from a local hard disk, they are stored in the Recycle Bin. They can be recovered from here if so desired.

Answer 153

Recycle bin

Question 154

While the system objects represent logical storage areas, the actual data files are written to _____

Answer 154

disk drives.

Question 155

_______ can be a single physical disk or a partition on a disk, a shared network folder mapped to a drive letter, or a removable disk.

Answer 155

A "drive"

Question 156

_______ is the floppy disk (very rarely seen these days)

Answer 156

the A: drive

Question 157

________ is the partition on the primary fixed disk holding the Windows installation.

Answer 157

the C: drive

Question 158

Every drive contains a directory called the ______ represented by the backslash ( \ ).

Answer 158

root directory

Question 159

________ are the files that are required for the operating system to function.

Answer 159

System files

Question 160

The system root, containing drivers, logs, add-in applications, system and configuration files (notably the System32 subdirectory), fonts, and so on.

Answer 160

System File Folder - Windows

Question 161

Subdirectories for installed applications software. In 64-bit versions of Windows, a Program Files (x86) folder is created to store 32-bit applications.

Answer 161

system file folder - Program Files/Program Files (x86)

Question 162

Storage for users' profile settings and data. Each user has a folder named after their user account. This subfolder contains NTUSER.DAT (registry data) plus subfolders for personal data files. The profile folder also contains hidden subfolders used to store application settings and customizations, favorite links, shortcuts, and temporary files.

Answer 162

system file folder - Users

Question 163

Control Panel app related to view and browsing settings for File Explorer.

Answer 163

The File Explorer Options

Question 164

Control Panel app related to search database maintenance.

Answer 164

Indexing Options applet.

Question 165

_______ can include both folders and email data stores. A corrupted index is a common cause of search problems.

Answer 165

Indexed locations

Question 166

________ within the Ease of Access menu are specifically designed to help users with physical disabilities. This section includes options like Sticky Keys, which allows users to press keyboard shortcuts one key at a time, and Mouse Keys, which enables the numeric keypad to control the mouse pointer. These settings are tailored to improve interaction with the computer for users with accessibility needs.

Answer 166

The Interaction settings

Question 167

System behavior, such as what happens when the laptop lid is closed, can be configured through_________. Adjusting the "Choose what closing the lid does" settings allows you to specify whether the laptop should sleep, hibernate, or do nothing when the lid is closed.

Answer 167

Power Options in the Control Panel.

Question 168

Learning keyboard shortcuts is useful for navigating the desktop and program windows quickly. ________ shortcut is specifically designed to allow users to switch between open program windows efficiently without using the mouse.

Answer 168

The Alt + Tab

Question 169

________ page in the Settings app presents options for configuring input and output devices, power, remote desktop, notifications, and clipboard (data copying).

Answer 169

The System Settings

Question 170

There is also an ______ listing key hardware and OS version information.

Answer 170

About page

Question 171

allow the configuration of: Performance options to configure desktop visual effects for best appearance or best performance, manually configure virtual memory (paging), and operation mode. The computer can be set to favor performance of either foreground or background processes. A desktop PC should always be left optimized for foreground processes. Startup and recovery options, environment variables, and user profiles

Answer 171

Advanced settings

Question 172

provide a single interface to manage a secure and reliable computing environment: Patch management Security apps

Answer 172

The Windows Update and Privacy & Security Settings

Question 173

is a file containing replacement system or application code. The replacement file fixes some sort of coding problem in the original file. The fix could be made to improve reliability, security, or performance.

Answer 173

A patch or update

Question 174

detect and block threats to the computer system and data, such as viruses and other malware in files and unauthorized network traffic.

Answer 174

Security apps

Question 175

hosts critical updates and security patches plus optional software and hardware device driver updates. Update detection and scheduling can be configured via Settings > Update & Security.

Answer 175

Windows Update

Question 176

______ page contains shortcuts to the management pages for the built-in Windows Defender virus/threat protection and firewall product.

Answer 176

The Windows Security

Question 177

is an anti-piracy technology that verifies that software products are legitimately purchased.

Answer 177

Microsoft Product Activation

Question 178

This means that Windows automatically detects when a new device is connected, locates drivers for it, and installs and configures it with minimal user input.

Answer 178

Plug and Play.

Question 179

________ pages contain options for input devices (mice, keyboards, and touch), print/scan devices, and adding and managing other peripherals attached over Bluetooth or USB.

Answer 179

The Bluetooth & Devices settings

Question 180

________ settings allow a smartphone to be linked to the computer.

Answer 180

Mobile Devices

Question 181

________ applet in Control Panel provides an interface for adding devices manually and shortcuts to the configuration pages for connected devices.

Answer 181

The Devices and Printers

Question 182

provides an advanced management console interface for managing both system and peripheral devices. Device properties, details, driver settings, and events pertaining to each device can also be accessed from________

Answer 182

Device Manager

Question 183

A large high-resolution screen can use quite small font sizes for the user interface. Scaling makes the system use proportionally larger fonts.

Answer 183

Display configuration settings - Scale

Question 184

When the computer is used for graphics design, the monitor must be calibrated to ensure that colors match what the designer intends.

Answer 184

Display configuration settings - Color

Question 185

If the desktop is extended over multiple screens, the relative positions should be set correctly so that the cursor moves between them in a predictable pattern.

Answer 185

Display configuration settings - Multiple displays

Question 186

Most computers are now used with TFT or OLED display screens. These screens are designed to be used only at their native resolution and refresh rate. Windows should detect this and configure itself appropriately, but they can be manually adjusted if necessary.

Answer 186

Display configuration settings - Resolution and refresh rate

Question 187

Cuts power to most devices (for example, the CPU, monitor, disk drives, and peripherals) but maintains power to the memory. This is also referred to as ACPI modes S1–S3.

Answer 187

Standby/Suspend to RAM

Question 188

Saves any open but unsaved file data in memory to disk (as hiberfil.sys in the root of the boot volume) and then turns the computer off. This is also referred to as ACPI mode S4.

Answer 188

Hibernate/Suspend to Disk

Question 189

utilizes a device's ability to function in an S0 low-power idle mode to maintain network connectivity without consuming too much energy.

Answer 189

Modern Standby

Question 190

A desktop creates a hibernation file and then goes into the standby state. This is referred to as ________. It can also be configured to switch to the full hibernation state after a defined period.

Answer 190

hybrid sleep mode

Question 191

A laptop goes into the standby state as normal; if running on battery power, it will switch from standby to _____ before the battery runs down.

Answer 191

hibernate

Question 192

This uses the hibernation file to instantly restore the previous system RAM contents and make the computer ready for input more quickly than with the traditional hibernate option.

Answer 192

Fast Startup

Question 193

settings allow you to configure a very wide range of options, including CPU states, search and indexing behavior, display brightness, and so on. You can also enable Universal Serial Bus (USB) selective suspend to turn off power to peripheral devices.

Answer 193

Advanced power plan settings

Question 194

group is used to view and remove installed apps and Windows Features. You can also configure which app should act as the default for opening, editing, and printing particular file types and manage which apps run at startup.

Answer 194

Apps Settings

Question 195

_________ Control Panel applet is the legacy software management interface. You can use it to install and modify desktop applications and Windows Features.

Answer 195

The Programs and Features

Question 196

in Control Panel is added if the Microsoft Outlook client email application is installed on the computer. It can be used to add email accounts/profiles and manage the .OST and .PST data files used to cache and archive messages. Detailed configuration of the email account, sync settings, and data file selections will be managed within the Microsoft Outlook Settings menu, the Mail Applet just contains basic settings.

Answer 196

The Mail Applet

Question 197

_______ suspends Windows Update and dedicates resources to supporting the 3-D performance and frame rate of the active game app rather than other software or background services.

Answer 197

Game mode The Gaming settings page is used to toggle game mode on and off

Question 198

is the modern settings app used to view network status, change the IP address properties of each adapter, and access other tools.

Answer 198

Network and Internet settings

Question 199

is a Control Panel applet for managing adapter devices, including IP address information.

Answer 199

Network Connections (ncpa.cpl)

Question 200

is a Control Panel applet that shows status information.

Answer 200

Network and Sharing Center

Question 201

is a Control Panel applet that configures network discovery (allows detection of other hosts on the network) and enables or disables file and printer sharing.

Answer 201

Advanced sharing settings

Question 202

determines which processes, protocols, and hosts are allowed to communicate with the local computer over the network. The Windows Security settings app and the applet in Control Panel allow the _______ to be enabled or disabled.

Answer 202

Windows Defender firewall Complex firewall rules can be applied via the Windows Defender with Advanced Security management console.

Question 203

contains one or more snap-ins that are used to modify advanced settings for a subsystem, such as disks or users.

Answer 203

A Microsoft Management Console (MMC)

Question 204

The default management console with multiple snap-ins to schedule tasks and configure local users and groups, disks, services, devices, and so on.

Answer 204

Computer Management (compmgmt.msc)

Question 205

Maintain disk performance by optimizing file storage patterns.

Answer 205

Defragment and Optimize Drives (dfrgui.exe)

Question 206

Regain disk capacity by deleting unwanted files.

Answer 206

Disk Cleanup (cleanmgr.exe)

Question 207

Review system, security, and application logs.

Answer 207

Event Viewer (eventvwr.msc)

Question 208

View and edit the security settings.

Answer 208

Local Security Policy (secpol.msc

Question 209

View and log performance statistics.

Answer 209

Resource Monitor (resmon.exe) and Performance Monitoring (perfmon.msc)-

Question 210

Make manual edits to the database of Windows configuration settings.

Answer 210

Registry Editor (regedit.exe)

Question 211

Start, stop, and pause processes running in the background.

Answer 211

Services console (services.msc)-

Question 212

Run software and scripts according to calendar or event triggers.

Answer 212

Task Scheduler (taskschd.msc)

Question 213

Pressing ___________ shows a shortcut menu with links to the main management utilities, such as Device Manager, Computer Management, Command Prompt, and Windows Terminal (PowerShell).

Answer 213

WINDOWS + X or right-clicking the Windows button

Question 214

can be used to execute a program with switches that modify the operation of the software.

Answer 214

The Run dialog ( WINDOWS + R)

Question 215

Minimum specifications for CPU speed, memory, and disk capacity for installing an OS or app. for applications refers to the PC specification required to run third-party software.

Answer 215

System requirements

Question 216

Like operating systems, software applications can be developed as _______

Answer 216

32-bit or 64-bit software. A 64-bit application requires a 64-bit CPU and OS platform. It cannot be installed on a 32-bit platform. 32-bit software applications can usually be installed on 64-bit platforms, however.

Question 217

A PC's graphics subsystem can be implemented as a feature of either the CPU or the motherboard chipset. This is referred to as _______

Answer 217

integrated graphics

Question 218

is a smart card or USB form factor device that stores some cryptographic user identification data. The user must present the token and supply a password, PIN, or fingerprint scan to authenticate.

Answer 218

An external hardware token

Question 219

Software apps also have OS requirements. One of these is _________

Answer 219

application to OS compatibility

Question 220

Formats for provisioning application installation files, such as via optical discs, downloads, and image files. is the means by which the vendor makes it available to install. Many apps are published through app stores, in which case the installation mechanics are handled automatically.

Answer 220

An app distribution method

Question 221

Desktop applications are installed from a setup file. In Windows, these use either _________

Answer 221

.EXE or .MSI extensions.

Question 222

Apps for macOS can use ________

Answer 222

DMG or PKG formats.

Question 223

Linux packages use DEB packages with the APT package manager or _______________

Answer 223

RPM for Dandified YUM (DNF).

Question 224

Commercial software must be used within the constraints of its license. This is likely to restrict either the number of devices on which the software can be installed or the number of users that can access it. Installing unlicensed software exposes a company to financial and legal penalties.

Answer 224

Licensing

Question 225

Software might be available with paid-for support to obtain updates, monitor and fix security issues, and provide technical assistance. Alternatively, security monitoring and user assistance could be performed by internal staff, but the impact on IT operations still needs assessing.

Answer 225

Support

Question 226

Complex apps can have a substantial and expensive user-training requirement. This can be an ongoing cost as new versions can introduce interface or feature changes that require more training or new employees require initial training. If the app is supported internally, there might also be a technical training requirement to ensure that staff can provide support and maintain the application in a secure state.

Answer 226

Training

Question 227

Why must a project deploying a new application consider operational impacts?

Answer 227

Because large environments with many desktops require automated tools to deploy, update, and support the application.

Question 228

What is a network-based installer?

Answer 228

A method where the setup file is placed in a shared network folder and client computers install the application by running the setup from that folder.

Question 229

How can applications be installed remotely in Windows without manual admin intervention?

Answer 229

By using Group Policy Objects (GPOs) to set computers to install applications from a network folder automatically.

Question 230

What is “push deployment”?

Answer 230

A remote installation method where the server pushes the installer or system image to desktops, often used by centrally managed tools like antivirus suites.

Question 231

What operational issue can result from pushing installations over the network?

Answer 231

Network congestion and increased latency.

Question 232

When do organizations typically schedule large over-the-network deployments to minimize impact?

Answer 232

During non-critical hours, such as overnight or weekends.

Question 233

Why is using GPO beneficial for application deployment in terms of user permissions?

Answer 233

Because users do not need administrator privileges to install applications, reducing the risk of unauthorized changes or installations.

Question 234

What type of account can run the setup file during a remote deployment?

Answer 234

A service account.

Question 235

What permissions must a user have to run an installed application?

Answer 235

Read and execute permissions on the application’s installation directory.

Question 236

Where should user-specific files, settings, or preferences be saved?

Answer 236

n the user's home folder/profile, not the application's program directory.

Question 237

What is the principal security threat when installing applications?

Answer 237

Trojan horse software that conceals malicious intent, such as data theft or remote access.

Question 238

How can setup files pose security risks besides Trojans?

Answer 238

They may be deliberately or accidentally infected with viruses.

Question 239

How can organizations mitigate risks from malicious or compromised installers?

Answer 239

By installing only trusted software and verifying that installer code is digitally signed by reputable publishers.

Question 240

How might legitimate software negatively impact device or network performance?

Answer 240

It may consume excessive CPU, memory, or network bandwidth, or conflict with other applications.

Question 241

What security risk arises from unpatched vulnerabilities in software?

Answer 241

Worms or malware could exploit them to propagate and crash systems or the network.

Question 242

How should organizations ensure software is safe and stable before widespread deployment?

Answer 242

By testing applications in a lab environment and reviewing security advisories and the developer’s security practices.

Question 243

What does a setup file typically contain?

Answer 243

The application’s executables, configuration files, and media files, which are extracted and copied to a designated installation directory during setup.

Question 244

What physical media can a setup file be distributed on?

Answer 244

CD/DVD or USB thumb drive.

Question 245

What must be verified when downloading an installer from the Internet?

Answer 245

The authenticity and integrity of the package, and it must be scanned for malware.

Question 246

How does Windows verify software authenticity?

Answer 246

Through digital signatures that identify valid developers and software sources.

Question 247

How does Linux verify software packages?

Answer 247

By publishing a hash value of the package, which users compare to the hash they generate after downloading

Question 248

What is the purpose of comparing a downloaded package’s hash to the published hash?

Answer 248

To ensure the package has not been tampered with and is authentic.

Question 249

What is required for a network push application deployment?

Answer 249

A completed system image of the workstation.

Question 250

What does a system image contain?

Answer 250

OS settings and files, application settings and files, and licensing and activation settings.

Question 251

How does image deployment differ from normal application installation?

Answer 251

It deploys the entire workstation setup in one unit instead of installing one application at a time.

Question 252

What is an ISO file?

Answer 252

A single file containing the entire contents of an optical disc.

Question 253

What are ISO files commonly used for?

Answer 253

Installing operating systems on virtual machines or installing complex applications with many components.

Question 254

How do you mount an ISO file in Windows?

Answer 254

Right-click the ISO file and select Mount; it will appear in File Explorer with the next available drive letter.

Question 255

allow multiple users to work together simultaneously or allows users to connect remotely to work together on projects and have meetings.

Answer 255

Collaboration tools

Question 256

Cloud-based applications

Answer 256

email storage (OneDrive) collaboration tools (spreadsheets) videoconferencing (Microsoft Teams, Slack, zoom)

Question 257

This allows users to meet, discuss, and work together as if they were sitting in the same office or conference room.

Answer 257

Videoconferencing software such as Microsoft Teams, Slack, and Zoom provides an easy way to connect via video and audio calls.

Question 258

they provide the terms and conditions of the use of the software application and its limitations

Answer 258

Licensing of cloud-based applications

Question 259

can simplify how users sign in and access resources in an enterprise environment. Having a single set of credentials to log into a cloud resource and then being able to use those same credentials to access an on-premise resource, such as their workstation, decreases the number of credentials a user must remember.

Answer 259

The use of an online or cloud-based identity provider

Question 260

lets you view and edit installed hardware properties, change configuration settings, update drivers, and remove or disable devices.

Answer 260

Device Manager (devmgmt.msc)

Question 261

resulting in an "Unknown Device" or a "generic" type with a yellow exclamation mark in Device Manager.

Answer 261

Windows may identify a device's type and function but fail to find a driver

Question 262

how do you manually update or troubleshoot a device?

Answer 262

locate it in Device Manager, right-click, and select Properties. Check the General tab for status information and use the Update Driver button on the Drivers tab to install a new driver.

Question 263

For Plug and Play, hot-swappable devices, you can remove them without uninstalling. what should you do after?

Answer 263

close any active applications, click the Safely Remove Hardware icon in the taskbar, and select the option to stop or eject the device.

Question 264

Disabled devices are indicated by a

Answer 264

down arrow.

Question 265

In Device Manager, you can disable a device if it's malfunctioning or to restrict user access while seeking a replacement. what is disabling useful for?

Answer 265

useful for devices that are hard to physically uninstall, enhancing system security.

Question 266

stores all data generated by the operating system and applications. As the primary store of so much data, ensuring its reliability and performance is a critical management task.

Answer 266

The disk subsystem

Question 267

Console related to initializing, partitioning, and formatting disk drives. summarizes all fixed and removable disks—HDDs (Hard disk drives), SSDs (solid state drives), and optical drives—attached to the system. HDDs and SSDs can be divided into logical partitions, each represented as a volume in the top pane.

Answer 267

The Disk Management console

Question 268

is a logical storage unit for the OS, often mapped 1:1 with a partition. can also be created using a redundant drive configuration (RAID), involving multiple devices and partitions.

Answer 268

A volume

Question 269

are set up on HDDs and SSDs.

Answer 269

Partitions

Question 270

typically refers to a volume assigned a letter, but it can also mean a hardware storage device.

Answer 270

"drive"

Question 271

Contains boot files, usually using a boot system called extensible firmware interface (EFI), and is not assigned a drive letter.

Answer 271

System Volume

Question 272

Contains operating system files, typically assigned the drive letter C:.

Answer 272

Boot Volume

Question 273

Contain tools for repair or factory reset, using either the PC vendor's tool or Microsoft's WinRE, and are not assigned drive letters.

Answer 273

Recovery partitions

Question 274

When adding an unformatted HDD, SSD, or thumb drive, you must initialize it using master boot record (MBR) or Globally Unique ID (GUID) Partition Table (GPT) partition style for the new disk. MBR and GPT refer to the way the partition information is stored on the disk.

Answer 274

disk management console - Initializing disks

Question 275

Configure each disk with at least one partition. Create new partitions by right-clicking the unpartitioned space and following the wizard.

Answer 275

disk management console -Partitioning

Question 276

Write a file system, typically NTFS, to new partitions allowing Windows to read and write files. FAT32 may be used for small, removable drives. Reformatting existing partitions deletes all files. You can also select a volume label and allocation unit size.

Answer 276

disk management console - Formatting

Question 277

Expand existing partitions when needed if there is unpartitioned space or remove/shrink partitions to free space.

Answer 277

disk management console - Repartitioning

Question 278

Windows feature for creating a single storage resource from multiple devices. Data can be protected against device failure by RAID-like mirroring or parity. Windows now supports a software RAID feature called ______ for redundant disk configurations.

Answer 278

Storage Spaces

Question 279

Traditionally, the smallest storage unit is a ______

Answer 279

512-byte sector

Question 280

File systems can group sectors into clusters of ______

Answer 280

2, 4, or 8 sectors

Question 281

During setup, the boot partition must be ______, and the system partition must be _____.

Answer 281

NTFS; FAT32

Question 282

On a hard disk, files ideally occupy contiguous clusters. Over time, they become fragmented across non-contiguous clusters, reducing read performance.

Answer 282

Fragmentation

Question 283

Typically, more files are created than deleted, reducing capacity. Performance suffers if the boot volume has less than 20% free space, and a Low Disk Space warning appears below 200 MB.

Answer 283

Capacity:

Question 284

HDDs are prone to physical damage, especially during power cuts, leading to corrupted files. SSDs can degrade, resulting in bad blocks, and are vulnerable to impacts, overheating, and electrical issues.

Answer 284

Damage

Question 285

Fragmentation occurs when a data file is not saved to contiguous sectors on an HDD and reduces performance. The defragmenter mitigates this and can also perform optimization operations for SSDs.

Answer 285

The Defragment and Optimize Drives tool

Question 286

defragmenting reorganizes file data into contiguous clusters, reducing the time the controller needs to seek across the disk to read a file.

Answer 286

defragging HDDs

Question 287

data is stored in blocks managed by the drive controller, not the OS. The controller uses wear-leveling routines to reduce cell degradation. The optimizer tool runs TRIM operations, allowing the controller to mark OS-deletable data as writable. If the SSD holds the OS and Volume Shadow Copy is enabled, the optimizer may also perform defragmentation.

Answer 287

defragging SSDs

Question 288

Windows utility for removing temporary files to reclaim disk space identifies files safe for deletion to free up space, including those in the Recycle Bin and temporary files. Running it in administrator mode with the Clean up system files option reclaims space from caches like Windows Update and Defender.

Answer 288

The Disk Clean-up tool

Question 289

Enables execution of an action (such as running a program or a script) automatically at a pre-set time or in response to some sort of trigger. automates commands and scripts, with many Windows processes having predefined schedules.

Answer 289

The Task Scheduler

Question 290

Tasks can be triggered by events, such as user sign-in or the machine waking from sleep, not just by calendar dates/times.

Answer 290

task scheduler - Triggers

Question 291

Each task can include multiple actions for complex automation.

Answer 291

task scheduler - Multiple Actions

Question 292

All task activity is logged so you can investigate failures.

Answer 292

task scheduler -Logging

Question 293

Tasks can be organized into folders for better management.

Answer 293

task scheduler -Organization

Question 294

In addition to specifying the file or script path and trigger, ________ If the user account lacks sufficient permissions, the task will not execute.

Answer 294

you must enter the credentials under which the task will run.

Question 295

Console for creating and managing user and group accounts with the authentication and permissions scope of the local system. offers an advanced interface for managing user accounts, including creating, modifying, disabling, deleting, and resetting passwords.

Answer 295

The Local Users and Groups console

Question 296

allow you to group user accounts with similar permissions, like editing files in a shared folder.

Answer 296

Security groups

Question 297

such as Administrators, Users, and Guests, define account types available through the settings interface.

Answer 297

Default groups

Question 298

verifies the identity of a user, computer, or service, with validity guaranteed by the issuing certification authority (CA).

Answer 298

A digital certificate

Question 299

displays installed certificates and allows for requesting and importing new ones.

Answer 299

The certificate manager console

Question 300

Stores certificates issued to the user account, used for network authentication, data encryption, and digital signatures.

Answer 300

The certificate manager console - Personal Folder

Question 301

Contains certificates from all trusted issuers, including Microsoft's CA root, local enterprise CAs, and third-party CAs, mostly managed via Windows Update.

Answer 301

The certificate manager console - Trusted Root Certification Authorities

Question 302

Contains trusted issuers from non-Microsoft or local enterprise providers.

Answer 302

The certificate manager console -Third-party Root Certification Authorities

Question 303

Use ______ to manage certificates for the current user

Answer 303

certmgr.msc

Question 304

Use ______for the computer certificate store.

Answer 304

certlm.msc

Question 305

offers a robust way to configure these Windows settings without directly editing the registry. Vendors can also create administrative templates to configure third-party software via policies.

Answer 305

The Group Policy Editor

Question 306

efficiently applies settings across multiple computers, avoiding manual configuration. Policies are typically set using an enabled/disabled/not defined toggle, though some require discrete values.

Answer 306

In large networks, group policy

Question 307

is a remotely accessible database for storing configuration information for the OS, devices, and applications. (regedit.msc)

Answer 307

The Windows registry

Question 308

The registry database is the configuration database for Windows. The registry can be directly edited by experienced support personnel using a variety of tools. The registry should be backed up before system changes are made.

Answer 308

The Registry

Question 309

Manages system-wide settings.

Answer 309

The Registry (root keys) - HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE (HKLM)

Question 310

Contains settings for individual user profiles, like desktop personalization.

Answer 310

The Registry (root keys) - HKEY_USERS (HKU)

Question 311

A subset of HKEY_USERS with settings for the logged-in user.

Answer 311

The Registry (root keys) -HKEY_CURRENT_USER (HKCU):

Question 312

Contains information about registered applications, file associations, and OLE object classes, determining which application opens a file type.

Answer 312

The Registry (root keys) -HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT (HKCR):

Question 313

Reflects the current hardware profile used at startup, dynamically built at boot time.

Answer 313

The Registry (root keys) -HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG (HKCC):

Question 314

is stored in binary files called hives, consisting of a main file, a .LOG file (transaction log), and a .SAV file (setup copy).

Answer 314

The registry database

Question 315

File storing configuration data corresponding to a section of the Windows registry. also has an .ALT backup file.

Answer 315

The system hive

Question 316

Most files are in the C:\Windows\System32\Config folder, while each user profile's hive (NTUSER.DAT) is in the ______

Answer 316

user's profile folder.

Question 317

_____ entry includes the name, data type (such as string or binary), and the value itself.

Answer 317

A value

Question 318

is a container for snap-ins like Device Manager, Disk Management, Group Policy Editor, and Certificate Manager. Use the mmc command to customize and create a console with your chosen snap-ins. Save the console as an MSC file in the Administrative Tools folder.

Answer 318

A Microsoft Management Console (MMC)

Question 319

allows the SSD controller to mark OS-deletable data as writable, which helps maintain the SSD's performance and longevity. This is the most appropriate action for optimizing an SSD.

Answer 319

The Optimize Drives tool (formerly known as Disk Defragmenter) performs TRIM operations on SSDs. TRIM:

Question 320

Basic shell interpreter for Windows. processes legacy commands from early Windows versions.

Answer 320

The command prompt

Question 321

Windows feature that requires a task to be explicitly launched with elevated privileges and consented to via UAC.

Answer 321

"Run as administrator,"

Question 322

are usually preceded by a forward slash.

Answer 322

Switches

Question 323

If an argument includes a space,

Answer 323

enclose it in quotes

Question 324

Use ___ to clear the screen if needed.

Answer 324

"cls"

Question 325

type _______ for syntax and switches used for the command.

Answer 325

"help Command"

Question 326

Use the __ switch for command-specific help, e.g., netstat __ displays help on the netstat command.

Answer 326

/?

Question 327

Command-line utility that displays information about the contents of the current directory.

Answer 327

the dir command

Question 328

Use ____ to sort files, where x can be:

Answer 328

/o:x n for name s for size e for extension d for date

Question 329

Use ____ to specify the date field, where x can be:

Answer 329

/t:x c for created a for last accessed w for last modified

Question 330

Use ___ to show files with specific attributes, where x can be:

Answer 330

/a:x r for Read-only h for hidden s for system a for archive

Question 331

Use ________ for unspecified characters. A question mark ? represents a single unspecified character. For example, dir ????????.log lists all .log files with eight-character names.

Answer 331

wildcard characters

Question 332

Command-line tool used to navigate the directory structure. to change the working directory.

Answer 332

Use the cd command

Question 333

The active, or in focus, drive is managed separately from the directory. To switch drives, enter ______

Answer 333

the drive letter followed by a colon and press ENTER. typing D: switches to the D drive

Question 334

Command-line tool for moving files in Windows.

Answer 334

The move command

Question 335

Command-line tool for copying files in Windows.

Answer 335

copy command

Question 336

Command-line file copy utility recommended is another file copy utility. Microsoft recommends using _____over xcopy for better handling of long file names and NTFS attributes.for use over the older xcopy.

Answer 336

The robocopy command, or "robust copy,"

Question 337

Excludes files that match the specified names or paths.

Answer 337

/xf

Question 338

Excludes directories that match the specified names or paths.

Answer 338

/xd

Question 339

Copies subdirectories, excluding empty ones.

Answer 339

/S

Question 340

Copies all subdirectories, including empty ones.

Answer 340

/E

Question 341

Lists the files and directories that would be copied, without actually copying them.

Answer 341

/L

Question 342

To create a directory, use the ____or ___ command.

Answer 342

md or mkdir

Question 343

To delete an empty directory, use ___ Directory or ___ Directory. If the directory contains files or subdirectories, use the __ switch to remove them.

Answer 343

rd; rmdir; /s

Question 344

Command-line utility used to configure disk partitions. serves as the command-line interface for the Disk Management tool.

Answer 344

The diskpart command

Question 345

Command-line utility for creating a file system on a partition. creates a new file system on a drive, deleting all existing data

Answer 345

The format command

Question 346

Command-line tool that verifies the integrity of a disk's file system. scans the file system and disk sectors for faults and attempts to repair detected problems. A version called _____ runs automatically if file system errors are detected at boot.

Answer 346

The chkdsk command; autochk

Question 347

(where X is the drive letter but no switch is used) runs in read-only mode, reporting any errors that need repair.

Answer 347

chkdsk X

Question 348

attempts to fix file system errors.

Answer 348

chkdsk X : /f

Question 349

fixes file system errors and tries to recover bad sectors, prompting you to save recoverable data as filennnn.chk files in the root directory.

Answer 349

chkdsk X : /r

Question 350

format X: /fs:SYS

Answer 350

X: the drive letter SYS: the file system type (e.g., NTFS, FAT32, exFAT)

Question 351

/q

Answer 351

Performs a quick format: skips scanning the disk for bad sectors.

Question 352

Command-line tool for shutting down or restarting the computer. The command is supported by Windows and Linux, though with different syntax. is used to safely power off, restart, hibernate, or log out of the system.

Answer 352

The shutdown command

Question 353

Closes all programs and services before turning off the computer. Users should save open files first but will be prompted to save unsaved changes.

Answer 353

Shutdown (shutdown /s )

Question 354

Use _________ to delay shutdown by nn seconds (default is 30 seconds). Abort a shutdown with ______ (if done quickly).

Answer 354

shutdown /t nn; shutdown /a

Question 355

Saves the current session to disk before powering off.

Answer 355

Hibernate (shutdown /h )

Question 356

Closes programs and services under the user account, leaving the computer running.

Answer 356

Log off (shutdown /l )

Question 357

Closes programs and services before rebooting without powering down, also known as a soft reset.

Answer 357

Restart (shutdown /r )

Question 358

Command-line utility that checks the integrity of system and device driver files. allows you to manually verify and restore system files from cache if they are corrupt or damaged.

Answer 358

sfc command utility (sfc )

Question 359

Runs an immediate scan. "sfc /"

Answer 359

sfc /scannow

Question 360

Schedules a scan for the next computer restart. "sfc /"

Answer 360

sfc /scanonce

Question 361

Schedules a scan at every boot. "sfc /"

Answer 361

sfc /scanboot

Question 362

Command-line tool for reporting Windows version information. provides Windows version information, useful for support.

Answer 362

The winver command Key details provided by winver: Windows 10 or 11: Identifies the OS as a client version, distinct from Windows Server. Version:Indicates a feature update, shown as a year/month code representing the time of release (e.g., 1607 for July 2016, 21H1 for early 2021). OS Build: A two-part number; the first part shows the brand and feature update, while the second part (rev) indicates quality updates or patches. The rev number can be used to find changes and known issues associated with the update in the Microsoft Knowledge Base (​support.microsoft.com​).

Question 363

is a utility that displays the current user's username and domain information, verifying the identity and access level of the logged-in user.

Answer 363

The whoami command

Question 364

This protocol provides network mapping and discovery functions for networks without dedicated name servers.

Answer 364

Link-layer Topology Discovery

Question 365

Each network connection is governed by the _________________ imposed by Windows Defender Firewall.

Answer 365

local OS firewall settings

Question 366

Windows feature that categorizes network profile as public or private. Each profile can have a different firewall configuration, with public network types being more restricted, by default.

Answer 366

the network location awareness

Question 367

If the network profile type is set as ________, the PC is discoverable and may be used for folder or printer sharing. This is only advisable when connecting to a trusted network.

Answer 367

Private

Question 368

If the network is set as______, Windows Firewall is configured to block all access and make the host undiscoverable.

Answer 368

Public

Question 369

refers to using a cellular adapter to connect to the Internet via a provider's network. The bandwidth depends on the technologies supported by the adapter and by the local cell tower (3G, 4G, or 5G, for instance).

Answer 369

Wireless wide area network

Question 370

Windows feature for indicating that network data transfer is billable and for setting warnings and caps to avoid unexpected charges from the provider

Answer 370

metered connection

Question 371

line utility is used to trace the path a packet of information takes to get to its target. The command can take an IP address or FQDN as an argument.

Answer 371

The tracert command (pronounced trace route)

Question 372

performs a trace and then pings each hop router a given number of times for a given period to determine the round-trip time (RTT) and measure link latency more accurately. The output also shows packet loss at each hop.

Answer 372

the pathping command

Question 373

can be used to investigate open ports and connections on the local host. In a troubleshooting context, you can use this tool to verify whether file sharing or email ports are open on a server and whether other clients are connecting to them.

Answer 373

The netstat command

Question 374

includes UDP ports in the listening state.

Answer 374

netstat -a

Question 375

shows the process that has opened the port. Alternatively, use the -o switch to list the process ID (PID) rather than the process name. These switches can only be used from an administrative command prompt.

Answer 375

netstat -b

Question 376

displays ports and addresses in numerical format. Skipping name resolution speeds up each query.

Answer 376

netstat -n

Question 377

can be used to report Ethernet and protocol statistics respectively

Answer 377

netstat -e and -s

Question 378

Remote access tool and protocol. VNC is the basis of macOS screen sharing. is a freeware product with similar functionality to RDP It works over TCP port 5900.

Answer 378

Virtual Network Computing (VNC) protocol.

Question 379

protects the RDP server against denial-of-service attacks. authenticates the user before committing any resources to the session.

Answer 379

Network Level Authentication (NLA).

Question 380

If Remote Desktop is used to connect to a server that has been compromised by malware, the credentials of the user account used to make the connection become highly vulnerable ________________________ are means of mitigating this risk.

Answer 380

RDP Restricted Admin (RDPRA) Mode and Remote Credential Guard

Question 381

There are also open-source implementations of RDP, such as ____. You can use _____ to run an RDP server on a Linux host.

Answer 381

XRDP

Question 382

Windows remote-support feature allowing a user to invite a technical support professional to provide assistance over a network using chat. The user can also grant the support professional control over his or her desktop. Remote Assistance uses the same RDP protocol as Remote Desktop.

Answer 382

Remote Assistance

Question 383

Windows support feature allowing remote screen-sharing over the Internet. (CTRL +WINDOWS +Q ) works over the encrypted HTTPS port TCP/443. The helper must be signed in with a Microsoft account to offer assistance. The helper generates the passcode to provide to the sharer.

Answer 383

the Quick Assist

Question 384

assigns a port dynamically from the ephemeral range (49152 to 65535).

Answer 384

Remote Assistance

Question 385

stands for Windows Remote Management. It's a key technology developed by Microsoft for managing Windows-based systems remotely.

Answer 385

WinRM

Question 386

is Microsoft's implementation of the WS-Management protocol. It allows systems to exchange and access management information across a network.

Answer 386

WinRM

Question 387

Being a Simple Object Access Protocol (SOAP) based program it relies on HTTP/HTTPS connections to communicate between the systems.

Answer 387

WinRM

Question 388

Application protocol supporting secure tunneling and remote terminal emulation and file copy. runs over TCP port 22.

Answer 388

Secure shell (SSH)

Question 389

SSH allows various methods for the client to authenticate to the server. Which are?

Answer 389

Password authentication- Public key authentication-

Question 390

will be able to distinguish client accounts and provide support for recording and reporting billable support activity. tools are principally designed for use by managed service providers (MSPs).

Answer 390

Remote monitoring and management (RMM) tools

Question 391

is an outsourcing company that specializes in handling all IT support for their clients.

Answer 391

An MSP

Question 392

software suites are designed for deployment by a single organization and focus primarily on access control and authorization.

Answer 392

Desktop management/mobile-device management (MDM) software

Question 393

A software agent that collects system data and logs for analysis by a monitoring system to provide early detection of threats.

Answer 393

endpoint detection and response

Question 394

provides a remote display system to monitor and interact with virtual machine environments from across the Internet. The server and client relationship is used for the protocol by allowing the server to monitor and interact with each client.

Answer 394

The Simple Protocol for Independent Computing Environments (SPICE)

Question 395

Supported by Apple iOS and macOS, this uses Bluetooth to establish a Wi-Fi Direct connection between the devices for the duration of the file transfer. The connection is secured by the Bluetooth pairing mechanism and Wi-Fi encryption.

Answer 395

AirDrop - file transfer software

Question 396

Microsoft's version of AirDrop. Nearby Sharing was introduced in Windows 10 (1803).

Answer 396

Nearby Sharing - file transfer software

Question 397

Bluetooth-enabled sharing for Android devices.

Answer 397

Nearby Share - file transfer software

Question 398

is designed for technical support and troubleshooting by turning control of your system to another remote user. MSRA is not designed for continuous remote device monitoring or management.

Answer 398

Microsoft Remote Assistant (MSRA)

Question 399

software lets you perform tasks remotely, such as analyzing activity and receiving automated alerts for unusual device activity.

Answer 399

Remote management and monitoring (RMM)

Question 400

_______ is a critical factor when evaluating remote management tools. WinRM uses the WS-Management protocol, which must align with the organization's security policies to ensure safe and compliant remote management. Security considerations are important when using remote access technologies.

Answer 400

Security

Question 401

____________________ is a critical security task. Many recent attacks on web servers have exploited poor SSH key management.

Answer 401

Monitoring for and removing compromised client public keys

Question 402

Remote network boot capability is often referred to as __________ and allows devices to be remotely powered on over a network. This would allow the administrator to ensure all devices can be powered on to then start the update process.

Answer 402

wake on LAN (WOL)

Question 403

Utility that provides a report of the PC's hardware and software configuration.

Answer 403

The System Information tool (msinfo32.exe)

Question 404

It provides an inventory of system resources, firmware and OS versions, driver file locations, environment variables, and network status.

Answer 404

The System Information tool (msinfo32.exe)

Question 405

A Windows console related to viewing and exporting events in the Windows logging file format.

Answer 405

Event Viewer (eventvwr.msc)

Question 406

is a management console snap-in for viewing and managing logs on a Windows host. The default page summarizes system status, displaying recent errors and warnings. The left pane categorizes log files.

Answer 406

Event Viewer (eventvwr.msc)

Question 407

Records events affecting the core OS, such as service load failures, hardware conflicts, driver load failures, and network issues. Each log file has a default maximum size (usually about 20 MB)

Answer 407

The Windows Logs folder - System Log

Question 408

Contains information on non-core processes, utilities, and some third-party apps, like app installers write events to the Application log. Each log file has a default maximum size (usually about 20 MB)

Answer 408

The Windows Logs folder - Application Log

Question 409

Holds audit data for the system. Each log file has a default maximum size (usually about 20 MB)

Answer 409

The Windows Logs folder - Security Log

Question 410

Records installation events. Each log file has a default maximum size (usually about 20 MB)

Answer 410

The Windows Logs folder - Setup Log

Question 411

Highest priority issues, often indicating a halted or unresponsive process.

Answer 411

Event Sources and Severity Levels - Critical

Question 412

Less severe issues to investigate after resolving critical ones.

Answer 412

Event Sources and Severity Levels - Error

Question 413

Conditions that could lead to errors or critical issues if not addressed, like low disk space.

Answer 413

Event Sources and Severity Levels - Warning

Question 414

Noteworthy operations or states that don't require action.

Answer 414

Event Sources and Severity Levels - Information

Question 415

Security log events indicating successful actions, like user authentication, or failures, like incorrect password entries.

Answer 415

Event Sources and Severity Levels - Audit Success/Failure

Question 416

monitors your PC's key resources. Open it by pressing CTRL+SHIFT+ESC, right-clicking the taskbar or Start, or pressing CTRL+ALT+DEL and selecting ______

Answer 416

Task Manager

Question 417

refers to system (RAM) usage only.

Answer 417

task manager memory page - In use

Question 418

reports the amount of memory requested and the total of system plus paged memory available. Paged memory refers to data that is written to a disk pagefile.

Answer 418

task manager memory page - Committed

Question 419

refers to fetching frequently used files into memory pre-emptively to speed up access.

Answer 419

task manager memory page - Cached

Question 420

refer to OS kernel and driver usage of memory. Paged usage is processes that can be moved to the pagefile, while non-paged is processes that cannot be paged.

Answer 420

task manager memory page - Paged pool and non-paged pool

Question 421

Apps and scripts set to run when the computer starts or when the user signs in. _____ items can be configured as shortcuts, registry entries, or Task Scheduler triggers.

Answer 421

task manager - Startup tab

Question 422

Console for live monitoring of resource utilization data for the CPU and GPU, system memory, disk/file system, and network.

Answer 422

Resource Monitor (resmon.exe)

Question 423

offers advanced snapshot monitoring beyond Task Manager, displaying resource performance graphs and key statistics like threads initiated by a process and hard page faults per second.

Answer 423

Resource Monitor (resmon.exe)

Question 424

Console for reporting and recording resource utilization via counter data for object instances.

Answer 424

Windows Performance Monitor (perfmon.exe)

Question 425

offers real-time system resource charts and logs data for long-term analysis. These charts and logs are more detailed than the Performance tab of Task Manager.

Answer 425

Windows Performance Monitor (perfmon.exe)

Question 426

Collect statistics on resources like memory, disk, and processor to assess system health and performance.

Answer 426

performance monitor log files - Counter Logs

Question 427

Gather detailed service statistics, offering detailed reports on resource behavior. They extend the capabilities of the Event Viewer by logging data that would otherwise be inaccessible.

Answer 427

performance monitor log files - Trace Logs

Question 428

Measures non-idle thread execution time and should be low in general. Sustained values over 85% may indicate a bottleneck.

Answer 428

performance monitor counter -(object: processor) % Processor Time

Question 429

High processor time (over 85% for sustained periods) can be analyzed by comparing these. A significantly higher privileged time suggests the CPU may be underpowered (it can barely run Windows core processes efficiently).

Answer 429

performance monitor counter -(object: processor) % Privileged Time; % User Time

Question 430

The percentage of time the selected disk drive is occupied with read or write requests serves as a strong indicator of disk activity. If this average exceeds 85% for an extended period, it may indicate a disk problem.

Answer 430

performance monitor counter - (Object: Physical disk) % Disk Time

Question 431

Shows outstanding disk requests. Taken with the preceding counter, this gives a better indicator of disk problems. For example, high values alongside high disk time suggest disk problems.

Answer 431

performance monitor counter - (Object: Physical disk) Average Disk Queue Length

Question 432

The amount of available memory should not be below 10% of the total RAM. Continuous decline may indicate a memory leak (a process that allocates memory but does not release it again).

Answer 432

performance monitor counter - (Object: Memory) Available Bytes

Question 433

The number of pages read from or written to disk to resolve hard page faults indicates your system's use of the paging file. This is acceptable unless it becomes excessive (averaging above 50). It's advisable to check the paging file's usage by examining the paging object itself.

Answer 433

performance monitor counter - (Object: Memory) Pages/sec

Question 434

The percentage of the pagefile in use indicates its utilization. If your 1000 MB paging file averages 50% usage, adding around 500 MB of memory could be beneficial. Remember, excessive paging can degrade disk performance, as paging is disk-intensive.

Answer 434

performance monitor counter - (Object: Paging File) % Usage

Question 435

Utility for configuring Windows startup settings.

Answer 435

The System Configuration Utility

Question 436

modifies settings affecting how the computer boots and loads Windows. It's primarily used for diagnostic testing rather than permanent changes, which are typically made using tools like Services.

Answer 436

The System Configuration Utility

Question 437

1. POST – Firmware checks hardware. 2. MBR read – BIOS reads the Master Boot Record (first sector of disk). 3. Active partition – MBR points to the boot sector of the active partition. 4. BOOTMGR.EXE - Loaded from the System Reserved partition - Reads BCD (Boot Configuration Data) 5. Boot menu (optional) – Shown if multiple OS entries exist. 6. WINLOAD.EXE – Loaded from the Windows system root. 7. Kernel initialization - Loads NTOSKRNL.EXE, HAL.DLL, boot drivers 8. WINLOGON – User authentication begins

Answer 437

Boot process - Legacy BIOS Boot (MBR-based)

Question 438

1. POST – Firmware checks hardware. 2. GPT read – Firmware locates the EFI System Partition (ESP). 3. BOOTMGFW.EFI - Located in \EFI\Microsoft\Boot\ - Reads the BCD stored on the ESP 4. Boot menu (optional) – Based on BCD entries. 5. WINLOAD.EFI – UEFI version of the Windows boot loader. 6. Kernel initialization - Same as BIOS from this point onward 7. WINLOGON – User authentication begins.

Answer 438

Boot process - UEFI Boot (GPT-based)

Question 439

Troubleshooting startup mode that loads a limited selection of drivers and services.

Answer 439

Safe Mode

Question 440

loads only basic drivers and services required to start the system. This is a useful troubleshooting mode as it isolates reliability or performance problems to add-in drivers or application services and rules out having to fully reinstall Windows.

Answer 440

Safe Mode

Question 441

Troubleshooting boot options that allow use of tools such as safe mode and recovery discs. If the boot files are damaged, you can use the ______ option to try to fix them

Answer 441

Startup Repair

Question 442

Windows troubleshooting feature that installs a command shell environment to a recovery partition to remediate boot issues. where you could run commands such as diskpart, sfc, chkdsk, bootrec, bcdedit, or regedit to try to repair the installation manually.

Answer 442

Windows Recovery Environment

Question 443

Windows System Protection feature that allows the configuration to be reverted to a restore point. allows you to roll back from system configuration changes

Answer 443

System Restore

Question 444

allows for multiple restore points to be maintained (some are created automatically) and to roll back from changes to the whole registry and reverse program installations and updates.

Answer 444

System Restore

Question 445

Windows troubleshooting feature that allows removal of an update or reversion to a previous driver version.

Answer 445

Roll Back Updates Drivers feature.

Question 446

What does the error message “No boot device found” or “Invalid boot disk” indicate?

Answer 446

The system has completely failed to boot.

Question 447

What is a common modern cause of an Invalid boot disk error?

Answer 447

System firmware is set to boot from USB or another removable device.

Question 448

What does a transitory Invalid boot disk error often indicate?

Answer 448

A failing disk or firmware difficulty detecting the drive.

Question 449

What does a “No OS found” message indicate?

Answer 449

The disk is detected but does not report the location of the OS loader.

Question 450

What does bootrec /fixmbr do?

Answer 450

Attempts to repair the Master Boot Record (MBR).

Question 451

When should bootrec /fixmbr not be used?

Answer 451

On disks using GPT partitioning.

Question 452

What does bootrec /fixboot do?

Answer 452

Repairs the boot sector.

Question 453

What does bootrec /rebuildbcd do?

Answer 453

Adds missing Windows installations to the Boot Configuration Database (BCD).

Question 454

What does it mean if Windows boots but the GUI does not load?

Answer 454

Likely corruption of drivers or system files.

Question 455

If Windows boots to a GUI in Safe Mode but not normally, what is the likely fix?

Answer 455

: Replace or update the graphics adapter driver.

Question 456

What commonly causes temporary black screen issues in Windows?

Answer 456

Windows updates installing in the background.

Question 457

What key combination tests system responsiveness during a black screen?

Answer 457

Windows + Ctrl + Shift + B

Question 458

How can you view more details during the Windows boot process?

Answer 458

Enable Display highly detailed (verbose) status messages.

Question 459

How are verbose status messages enabled in Windows?

Answer 459

by configuring a system policy or applying a registry setting.

Question 460

What typically causes delays before the Windows sign-in screen appears?

Answer 460

Loading drivers and services.

Question 461

Which file is most prone to corruption in a user profile?

Answer 461

NTUSER.DAT

Question 462

Which files should NOT be copied when rebuilding a user profile?

Answer 462

NTUSER.DAT NTUSER.DAT.LOG NTUSER.INI

Question 463

Situation where hosts on a network are not closely synchronized to the same date/time source.

Answer 463

time drift,

Question 464

is a safeguard or prevention method to avoid, counteract, or minimize risks relating to personal or company property.

Answer 464

A security control

Question 465

work in the built environment to control access to sites. Examples include fences, doors, and locks.

Answer 465

Physical controls

Question 466

are applied and enforced by people. Examples include incident response processes, management oversight, and security awareness training programs.

Answer 466

Procedural controls

Question 467

are applied and enforced by digital or cyber systems and software. Examples include user authentication, antivirus software, and firewalls.

Answer 467

Logical controls

Question 468

CIA triad

Answer 468

Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability:

Question 469

ensures that sensitive data is only accessible by authorized users.

Answer 469

Confidentiality

Question 470

ensures that the data is accurate and trustworthy.

Answer 470

Integrity

Question 471

means that resources are readily available for users to access when they need to.

Answer 471

Availability

Question 472

This framework ensures that only authorized users have the appropriate access to the right resources at the right time.

Answer 472

Identity and Access Management (IAM).

Question 473

This involves identifying and defining users, devices, and applications within the system.

Answer 473

Identification

Question 474

This identifies users attempting to access resources. This can be done with passwords, biometrics, and multi-factor authentication.

Answer 474

Authentication

Question 475

This determines what resources and actions a user is allowed to access based on their role, responsibilities, and permissions.

Answer 475

Authorization

Question 476

Enforces authorization policies and restricts access to resources based on predefined rules.

Answer 476

Access Control

Question 477

The collection of access control entries (ACEs) that determines which subjects (user accounts, host IP addresses, and so on) are allowed or denied access to the object and the privileges given (read-only, read/write, and so on).

Answer 477

access control list

Question 478

The basic principle of security stating that unless something has explicitly been granted access, it should be denied access.

Answer 478

implicit deny

Question 479

A basic principle of security stating that something should be allocated the minimum necessary rights, privileges, or information to perform its role.

Answer 479

least privilege.

Question 480

is a weakness that could be accidentally triggered or intentionally exploited to cause a security breach.

Answer 480

Vulnerability

Question 481

is the potential for someone or something to exploit a vulnerability and breach security. ____ may be intentional or unintentional.

Answer 481

A threat

Question 482

The person or thing that poses the threat is called a __________________

Answer 482

threat actor or threat agent.

Question 483

The path or tool used by a malicious threat actor can be referred to as the _______________

Answer 483

attack vector or threat vector.

Question 484

is the likelihood and impact (or consequence) of a threat actor exercising a vulnerability.

Answer 484

Risk

Question 485

cipher uses a single secret key to both encrypt and decrypt data.

Answer 485

A symmetric encryption cipher

Question 486

A symmetric cipher, such as the_____________, can perform bulk encryption and decryption of multiple streams of data efficiently.

Answer 486

Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)

Question 487

uses a key pair. A key pair is a private key and a public key that are mathematically linked.

Answer 487

An asymmetric encryption cipher

Question 488

is known only to the holder and is linked to, but not derivable from, a public key distributed to those with whom the holder wants to communicate securely. ________ can be used to encrypt data that can be decrypted by the linked public key or vice versa.

Answer 488

A private key

Question 489

this key is freely distributed and is used to encrypt data, which can only be decrypted by the linked private key in the pair.

Answer 489

public key

Question 490

is a short representation of data. ____ function takes any amount of data as input and produces a fixed-length value as output. A cryptographic ____ performs this process as a one-way function that makes it impossible to recover the original value from_______

Answer 490

A hash SHA-256 and SHA-3 are the most used version of the SHA algorithms.

Question 491

proves that a message or digital certificate has not been altered or spoofed.

Answer 491

A digital signature

Question 492

allows two hosts to know the same symmetric encryption key without any other host finding out what it is.

Answer 492

Key exchange

Question 493

is the principal means of controlling access to computer and network resources and assigning rights or privileges.

Answer 493

A user account

Question 494

User account that can be authenticated again and allocated permissions for the computer that hosts the account only. is defined on that computer only

Answer 494

A local account

Question 495

is managed via an online portal (account.microsoft.com) and identified by an email address.

Answer 495

A Microsoft account

Question 496

is a collection of user accounts. __________ are used when assigning permissions and rights, as it is more efficient to assign permissions to a group than to assign them individually to each user.

Answer 496

Security groups

Question 497

can perform all management tasks and generally has very high access to all files and other objects in the system.

Answer 497

A user account that is a member of the administrator group

Question 498

is a member of the Users group. This group is generally only able to configure settings for its profile. However, it can also shut down the computer, run desktop applications, install and run store apps, and use printers.

Answer 498

A standard account

Question 499

is only present for legacy reasons. It has the same default permissions and rights as the User group.

Answer 499

The guest group

Question 500

is present to support legacy applications. Historically, this group was intended to have intermediate permissions between administrators and users.

Answer 500

The power user group

Question 501

provides an interface for managing both user and group accounts. Use the shortcut menus and object Properties dialogs to create, disable, and delete accounts, change account properties, reset user passwords, create custom groups, and modify group membership.

Answer 501

The Local Users and Groups management console

Question 502

is a security practice in which users are granted access to resources only when needed and for only as long as it takes to complete the needed task.

Answer 502

Just-in-Time (JIT) access

Question 503

focuses on securing, controlling, and monitoring access to privileged accounts.

Answer 503

Privileged Access Management (PAM)

Question 504

is a Windows security feature designed to protect the system against malicious scripts and attacks that could exploit the powerful privileges assigned to accounts that are members of the Administrators group.

Answer 504

User account control

Question 505

is a security framework that is used in many organizations. This means that no user or device should ever be automatically trusted, regardless of their location or previous authentication.

Answer 505

Zero trust

Question 506

requires that all users and devices are authenticated, authorized, and continuously validated before being granted access

Answer 506

zero trust

Question 507

The format of a credential is called an

Answer 507

authentication factor

Question 508

authentication factor - something you know, such as a password

Answer 508

knowledge

Question 509

authentication factor -something you have, such as a smart card or smartphone

Answer 509

possession

Question 510

authentication factor -something you are, such as a fingerprint. This will typically involve biometrics

Answer 510

inherence

Question 511

means that the user must submit at least two different types of credentials, such as something you know and something you are.

Answer 511

Multifactor-authentication (MFA)

Question 512

Authentication mechanism that uses a separate channel to authorize a sign-on attempt or to transmit an additional credential. This can use a registered email account or a contact phone number for an SMS or voice call.

Answer 512

2-step verification

Question 513

The soft tokens may also be referred to as a __________. ______ is only valid for a single login session and a new unique passcode is generated for each login attempt.

Answer 513

one-time password (OTP)

Question 514

This OTP is only valid for a set amount of time, such as 1 minute, before it expires. If the OTP is not entered within the specified timeframe, a new OTP will need to be requested.

Answer 514

Time-based OTP (TOTP)

Question 515

This method uses an algorithm that generates the OTP using a counter-based approach. This means that each time the OTP is requested, the counter is increased which ensures that every password is unique and can only be used once.

Answer 515

Hash-based Message Authentication Code OTP (HOTP)

Question 516

In this method, the server sends a challenge, such as a random number, to the user. This challenge is entered into the OTP generator which uses that to generate a unique OTP.

Answer 516

Challenge-Response

Question 517

Software that allows a smartphone to operate as a second authentication factor or as a trusted channel for 2-step verification.

Answer 517

An authenticator ap

Question 518

works in the same sort of way as an authenticator app but is implemented as firmware in a smart card or USB thumb drive rather than running on a smartphone. ________ is first registered with the service or network. When the user needs to authenticate, he or she connects the token and authorizes it via a password, PIN, fingerprint reader, or voice recognition. The token transmits its credentials to the service, and the service grants the user access.

Answer 518

The hard token