Non-Systems Flashcards by Lauren Addison

A patient diagnosed with lateral epicondylitis is referred to physical therapy. The physical therapist assistant elects too use iontophoresis over the lateral epicondyle. Which type of current would the assistant use to administer the treatment?
A. Direct
B. Alternating
C. Pulsatile
D. Interferential

A. Direct

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A physical therapist assistant treats a patient post Achilles tendon repair using cryotherapy. What cryotherapeutic agent would provide the greatest magnitude of tissue cooling?
A. Frozen gel packs
B. Ice massage
C. Vapocoolant spray
D. Cold water bath

B. Ice massage

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Are precautions to reduce the risk of transmission of infectious agents through evaporated droplets in air or dust particles containing infectious agents?
A. Droplet precautions
B. Contact precautions
C. Airborne precautions
D. Standard precautions

C. Airborne precautions (Measles, Varicella, tuberculosis, SARS)

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Are precautions to reduce the risk of transmission of infectious agents through contact of the mucous membrane of the mouth and nose, contact with the conjunctivae, and through coughing, sneezing, talking or suctioning. The transmission requires close contact.
A. Droplet precautions
B. Contact precautions
C. Airborne precautions
D. Standard precautions

A. Droplet precautions

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Are precautions that reduce transmission if infectious agents through direct or indirect contact?
A. Droplet precautions
B. Standard precautions
C. Airborne precautions
D. Contact precautions

D. Contact precautions

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When educating a patient on how to safely perform a balance exercise within the home, which would be the most appropriate?
A. Perform exercise while standing on a throw rug.
B. Perform exercise while multitasking.
C. Perform exercise within the corner of two walls.
D. Perform exercise with slippers on.

C. Perform exercise within the corner of two walls.

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The principle that healthcare providers have the responsibility to provide all of the necessary information that a patient requires to make a healthcare decision is most consistent with?
A. Nonmaleficence
B. Informed consent
C. Beneficence
D. Autonomy

B. Informed consent

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Which type of feeding is associated with the highest risk of aspiration?
A. Oral feeding
B. Nasogastric tube
C. Parenteral nutrition
D. Enteral nutrition

B. Nasogastric tube

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What is the term when two therapists measure drastically different values on the same patient?
A. Poor internal validity
B. Poor external validity
C. Poor interrater reliability
D. Poor intrarater reliability

C. Poor interrater reliability

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Which of the following is not a potential use of neuromuscular electrical stimulation?
A. Reduction of flexor tone and posturing of the hand.
B. Improvement of functional grasp.
C. Reduction of shoulder subluxation.
D. Improvement of sensation in an area of diminished sensation.

D. Improvement of sensation in an area of diminished sensation.

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What is the proper order of assistive devices from the greatest assistance to least assistance?
A. Parallel bars, walker, axillary crutches, Lofstrand crutches, cane.
B. Parallel bars, axillary crutches, walker, Lofstrand crutches, cane.
C. Parallel bars, Lofstrand crutches, walker, axillary crutches, cane.
D. Parallel bars, Lofstrand crutches, axillary crutches, walker, cane.

A. Parallel bars, walker, axillary crutches, Lofstrand crutches, cane.

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Which of the following terms best describes a set of beliefs that are meaningful in life and that act as a standard to guide behavior?
A. Behavior
B. Attitude
C. Values
D. Ethics

C. Values

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Which medical imaging technique would best detect an intracranial bleed such as a stroke?
A. Computed tomography scan
B. Functional magnetic resonance imaging
C. Positron emission tomography
D. Magnetic resonance imaging

A. Computed tomography scan

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How many inches above the seat should the top of the armrest be positioned in a standard wheelchair?
A. 5 inches
B. 7 inches
C. 9 inches
D. 11 inches

C. 9 inches

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A health care provider’s hypothesis why a patient’s heart rate may be elevated would occur in which section of a S.O.A.P. note?
A. Subjective
B. Objective
C. Plan
D. Assessment

D. Assessment

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Which type of monitoring device is inserted through a vein into the pulmonary artery?
A. Central venous pressure catheter
B. Indwelling right atrial catheter
C. Hickman catheter
D. Swan-Ganz catheter

D. Swan-Ganz catheter - (pulmonary artery catheter) is a soft, flexible catheter that is inserted through a vein into the pulmonary artery.

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This condition is commonly seen in patients spinal cord injury above the level of T6 in response to some noxious stimulus (e.g. bladder distention, tight clothing). Signs and symptoms include severe hypertension, bradycardia, perfuse sweating above the level of the lesion, headache, nausea, and red and blotchy skin.
A. Heart Attack
B. Autonomic Dysreflexia
C. Orthostatic Hypotension
D. Shock

B. Autonomic Dysreflexia

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Occurs when a patient attempts to stand from a sitting or supine position. As a result of reduced venous return, perfusion of the brain decreases and results in symptoms of dizziness or syncope. Other symptoms may include weakness, altered vision, nausea, and confusion.
A. Orthostatic hypotension
B. Stroke
C. Shock
D. Autonomic Dysreflexia

A. Orthostatic hypotension

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An emergent condition that typically include dropping or numbness on one side of the face, numbness or weakness of one arm, slurred speech, altered vision, headache, dizziness, lack of coordination, confusion, and loss of consciousness?
A. Orthostatic hypotension
B. Stroke
C. Shock
D. Autonomic Dysreflexia

B. Stroke

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Fluidotherapy would primarily be used for to deliver?
A. Deep heat using circulating silicate particles
B. Deep heat using circulating cellulose particles
C. Superficial heat using circulating silicate particles.
D. Superficial heat using circulating cellulose particles.

D. Superficial heat using circulating cellulose particles.

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When treating a patient with cold bath immersion, what water temperature would be most appropriate?
A. 45 - 54 degrees Fahrenheit
B. 55 - 64 degrees Fahrenheit
C. 65 - 74 degrees Fahrenheit
D. 75 - 84 degrees Fahrenheit

B. 55 - 64 degrees Fahrenheit - The water temperature for cold bath immersion should be between 55 - 64 degrees Fahrenheit. The body part should be immersed for 15 - 20 minutes to attain the desired therapeutic effects.

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Which variables are most relevant when administering hydrotherapy?
A. Elevation and time
B. Pressure and time
C. Temperature and pressure
D. Temperature and elevation

C. Temperature and pressure

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Which ion would most likely be used with iontophoresis to treat dermal ulcers and wounds?
A. Dexamethasone
B. Zinc oxide
C. Magnesium sulfate
D. Salicylates

B. Zinc oxide

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When guarding a patient during ambulation training, a therapist must consider all of the following except:
A. Height
B. Weight
C. Gender
D. Level of impairment

C. Gender

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The statement, "If I exercise five times a week, I will be healthier," is an example of a/an: A. Attitude B. Belief C. Value D. Moral

B. Belief

What level of physical assistance is best described by a patient that requires 25% assistance from the therapist to complete a sit to stand transfer? A. Contact guard B. Moderate assist C. Maximal assist D. Minimal assist

D. Minimal assist

What is the term for the approach to clinical decision making that integrates the best available evidence from research with clinical experience and patient preferences? A. Research utilization B. Evidence-based practice C. Nursing practice D. Experience-based practice

B. Evidence-based practice

Which massage technique is the most appropriate to loosen adhesions and to remove metabolic waste? A. Petrissage B. Friction C. Effleurage D. Vibration

A. Petrissage

If a patient is coking on a piece of food and coughing vigorously, what action should be taken by the health care provider? A. Provide abdominal thrusts just below the sternum. B. Provide abdominal thrusts just above the umbilicus. C. Provider abdominal thrusts just below the umbilicus. D. Stand by and monitor the situation.

D. Stand by and monitor the situation.

When using iontophoresis, which of the following medications would be indicated for treating a patient with shoulder adhesive capsulitis? A. Acetic acid B. Dexametthasone C. Iodine D. Lidocaine

C. Iodine

What level of physical assistance is most appropriate when a patient can perform an activity without assistance, but is often inconsistent, resulting in a potential loss of balance? A. Contact guard B. Minimal assistance C. Moderate assistance D. Maximal assistance

A. Contact guard

Which medical device is used to determine the oxygen saturation of blood? A. Arterial line B. Oximeter C. Pulmonary artery (Swan-Ganz) catheter D. Indwelling right atrial (Hickman) catheter

B. Oximeter

When considering wheelchair accessibility in the home, what is the minimum width needed for doorways? A. 26 inches B. 32 inches C. 38 inches D. 44 inches

B. 32 inches

Which precautions would be necessary when working with a patient with known influenza? A. Contact guard B. Airborne precautions C. Droplet precautions D. Neutropenic precautions

C. Droplet precautions

Which of the following diagnoses would require airborne precautions? A. Impetigo B. Cerebrovascular accident C. Clostridium difficile D. Tuberculosis

D. Tuberculosis

Which physiologic principle accounts for significantly reduced joint compression when walking in waist high water? A. Inertia B. Buoyancy C. Viscosity D. Hydrostatic pressure

B. Buoyancy

Under which precaution would a patient not be required to wear a mask when exiting their room? A. Contact precautions B. Standard precautions C. Droplet precautions D. Airborne precautions

A. Contact precautions

When documenting using a S.O.A.P note format, where would be the most appropriate place to document the expected frequency and duration? A. Subjective section B. Objective section C. Assessment section D. Plan section

D. Plan section

Which of the following is not an effect of hydrostatic pressure potentially experienced by a patient in an aquatic environment? A. Decreased edema B. Decreased weight bearing C. Decreased venous return D. Decreased heart rate for a given workload

C. Decreased venous return - Hydrostatic pressure enhances venous return, which decreases heart rate if the workload is held constant.

Which of the following precaution would be unnecessary in the presence of Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus? A. Mask B. Gloves C. Gown D. Private room

A. Mask

Which of the following conditions is an indication for massage? A. Cellulitis B. Edema C. Acute injury D. Malignancy

B. Edema

An informed consent form should discuss all of the following elements except: A. The nature of the decision/procedure. B. The risks and benefits. C. Alternatives to the proposed intervention. D. The financial cost of the proposed intervention.

D. The financial cost of the proposed intervention.

Which of the following is not considered an appropriate patient identifier? A. The patient's name B. The patient's room number C. The patient's date of birth D. The patient's identification number

B. The patient's room number

A Pavlik harness would result in the hip being positioned in: A. Hip flexion and adduction B. Hip extension and abduction C. Hip flexion and abduction D. Hip extension adduction

C. Hip flexion and abduction A Pavlik harness is thee primary method of treating developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH). DDH is a subluxed or dislocated hip in infancy as a result of abnormal congruency.

Which Medicare plan covers hospitalization for patients over the age of 65? A. Part A B. Part B C. Part C D. Part D

A. Part A

Which Medicare plan provides benefits for outpatient care, physician services, and services ordered by physicians such as diagnostic tests for patients over the age of 65? A. Part A B. Part B C. Part C D. Part D

B. Part B

Which Medicare plan provides as least a standard level of benefits for prescription drug coverage for patients over the age of 65? A. Part A B. Part B C. Part C D. Part D

D. Part D

Provides basic medical services to the economically indigent population who quality by reason of low income or who qualify for welfare or public assistance benefits in the state of their own residence. A. Medicare B. Children's Health Insurance Program C. Medicaid D. Department of Defense Military

C. Medicaid

Common devices used in healthcare facilities to prevent falls include all of the following except: A. Bed rails B. Restraints C. Nonskid slippers D. Locks on wheeled equipment

B. Restraints

Which term is best described as the complete collection of elements to be studied? A. Cohort B. Group C. Population D. Sample

C. Population

Which of the following would be an appropriate action for a syringe after a single injection? A. Re-cap and save for the next patient. B. Refill with another drug for the same patient. C. Discard into the trash. D. Discard into a clearly marked appropriate container.

D. Discard into a clearly marked appropriate container.

What position should an unconscious patient be placed in prior to performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation? A. Prone B. Supine C. Sidelying D. Fowler's

B. Supine

Which of the following should be performed first when using an automated external defibrillator? A. Power the defibrillator on. B. Prepare the patient by exposing the chest and attaching the electrodes. C. Place the patient in a prone position. D. Clear the patient's airway.

A. Power the defibrillator on.

Which of the following does not allow for independent or modified independent mobility? A. Sip-and-puff control B. Hemi-chair C. Transport chair D. Standard wheelchair

C. Transport chair A transport chair, pushchair or stroller requires assistance for mobility. Under appropriate circumstances, each of the others may be used for independent or modified independent mobility.

What type of heat transfer refers to the gain or loss of heat resulting from direct contact between two materials at different temperatures? A. Convection B. Conduction C. Evaporation D. Conversion

B. Conduction

What type of heat transfer refers to the gain or loss of heat resulting from air or water moving in a constant motion across the body? A. Convection B. Conduction C. Evaporation D. Conversion

A. Convection

What type of heat transfer refers to heating that occurs when non-thermal energy (e.g., mechanical, electrical) is absorbed into tissue and transformed into heat? A. Convection B. Conduction C. Evaporation D. Conversion

D. Conversion

What type of heat transfer refers to the transfer of heat that occurs as a liquid absorbs energy and changes form into a vapor? A. Radiation B. Conduction C. Evaporation D. Conversion

C. Evaporation

What type of heat transfer refers to the direct transfer of heat from a radiation energy source of higher temperature to one of cooler temperature? A. Radiation B. Conduction C. Evaporation D. Conversion

A. Radiation

The minimum electrical stimulation current amplitude required to produce an action potential is known as: A. Propagation B. Chronaxie C. Rheobase D. Accommodation

C. Rheobase - Rheobase refers to the minimum current amplitude of indefinite duration required to produce an action potential for any type of tissue. The relative ease by which a tissue can be stimulated is primarily determined by the strength of the stimulus and the duration the stimulus is applied.

A patient with a colostomy who expresses apprehension about participating in aquatic therapy should be educated by? A. Explaining that aquatic therapy is contraindicated for individuals with a colostomy. B. Explaining that aquatic therapy is appropriate for individuals with a colostomy. C. Explaining that the patient should participate in a different mode of exercise. D. Explaining that there is a high risk of the colostomy bag contaminating the pool

B. Explaining that aquatic therapy is appropriate for individuals with a colostomy.

What are the units associated with ultrasound frequency? A. cm2 B. W/cm2 C. Hertz D. Megahertz

D. Megahertz

Which mode of traction is indicated for an acute condition? A. Pulsed B. Static C. Intermittent D. Continuous

B. Static - Static traction is indicated for reduction of disk herniation, lengthening of soft tissue, and reduction of pain. This mode is chosen for more acute conditions to avoid the stretch reflex response and hypersensitivity of soft tissue that may be associated with intermittent traction.

In what section of a S.O.A.P. note should the results of a manual muscle test be recorded? A. Subjective B. Objective C. Assessment D. Plan

B. Objective

Which of the following temperatures represents an appropriate temperature setting for fluidotherapy? A. 105 degrees Fahrenheit B. 120 degrees Fahrenheit C. 135 degrees Fahrenheit D. 150 degrees Fahrenheit

A. 105 degrees Fahrenheit - Appropriate temperature for fluidotherapy should be between 100-118 degrees Fahrenheit. Fluidotherapy consists of a container that circulates warm air and small cellulose particles. The superficial heating modality generates dry heat through forced convection.

Which of the following electrical stimulation parameters would be the most appropriate when treating spasticity? A. Fast ramp time B. No ramp time C. Slow ramp time D. Constantly varying ramp time

C. Slow ramp time - A relatively slow ramp time with a low level contraction is the most appropriate when treating spasticity. A fast ramp time would likely trigger the spastic antagonist.

If a patient is trying to move upward in bed, what should their starting position be? A. Scapulae depressed, feet close to buttocks B. Scapulae elevated, feet close to buttocks C. Scapulae depressed, feet far away from buttocks D. Scapulae elevated, feet far away from buttocks

B. Scapulae elevated, feet close to buttocks - If a patient wishes to move upward in bed, they should begin with their hips and knees flexed with their feet close to their buttocks and with their scapulae elevated and elbows bent at their sides.

Which medical device would be used to remove fluid from the pleural space after surgery? A. Central venous line B. Chest tube C. Intraventricular catheter D. Vascular access port

B. Chest tube

Recommendations for continuation of physical therapy services following the conclusion of an inpatient hospitalization would most likely appear in which type of documentation? A. Plan of care B. Daily note C. Initial evaluation D. Discharge note

D. Discharge note

What does the acronym RACE stand for regarding a “code red”? A. rescue, alarm, contain, extinguish B. run, alarm, contain, extinguish C. rescue, alarm, contain, exit D. run, alarm, contain, exit

A. rescue, alarm, contain, extinguish “Code red” is often used to announce situations involving fire and smoke. The acronym RACE is used to express the steps to take in the event of a fire. RACE stands for rescue, alarm, contain, and extinguish.

Which gait pattern is most closely associated with a patient ambulating by moving the left crutch forward while simultaneously advancing the right lower extremity and vice versa? A. one-point B. two-point C. three-point D. four-point

B. two-point

Which electrical stimulation term is most associated with any alteration in the amplitude, duration or frequency of the current during a series of pulses or a cycle? A. Current modulation B. Frequency C. Phase duration D. Rise time

A. Current modulation

What type of scale is used on the Berg Balance Scale? A. Interval B. Nominal C. Ordinal D. Ratio

C. Ordinal

Health literacy would be expected to be highest in individuals that: A. Are less than 65 years of age B. Speak English as a second language C. Do not have a high school diploma D. Are a minority group

A. Are less than 65 years of age

Ideally the height of a step should be no higher than? A. 4 inches B. 7 inches C. 10 inches D. 13 inche

B. 7 inches - Ideally a step should be no taller than 7 inches and at least 11 inches deep. A step that is over 8 inches tall is particularly problematic for many individuals. Typically there is a half-inch overhang on each step called a nosing which can result in an individual catching their toe.

Which two principles does electrical stimulation operate on in order to strengthen muscles? A. Rheobase and chronaxie B. Sensitivity and specificity C. Overload and specificity D. Overload and tetany

C. Overload and specificity

All of the following are cross-sectional imaging techniques except: A. Conventional radiography B. Magnetic resonance imaging C. Computed tomography D. Positron emission tomography

A. Conventional radiography - Conventional radiography, which uses an X-ray machine, is used for recording the internal defects of an object on a radiographic film. X-rays do not create cross-sectional images.

When providing patient care, the bed should be: A. Pulled away from the wall B. At a proper working height for the therapist C. At the level the patient wants it D. As low as possible

B. At a proper working height for the therapist

Which of the following is not a homebound qualification? A. The patient has difficulty driving to medical appointments. B. The patient requires physical assistance outside of the home. C. The patient goes out once a week to attend religious services. D. The patient requires taxing effort to leave the home.

A. The patient has difficulty driving to medical appointments.

Which of the following are benefits of superficial heating agents? A. Decreased nerve conduction velocity, increased pain threshold. B. Increased nerve conduction velocity, decreased pain threshold. C. Increased nerve conduction velocity, increased pain threshold. D. Decreased nerve conduction velocity, decreased pain threshold.

C. Increased nerve conduction velocity, increased pain threshold.

The risk of periosteal overheating using ultrasound can be reduced by not sonating over: A. Myotendinous junctions B. Muscle bellies C. Bony prominences D. Plastic implants

C. Bony prominences - Periosteal overheating can occur from overzealous application of ultrasound over bony prominences. The risk of this occurring is substantially increased by failure to maintain consistent movement of the ultrasound head over bony areas.

All of the following methods of heat transfer would be considered examples of radiation except: A. Infrared lamp B. Ultrasound C. Laser D. Ultraviolet light

B. Ultrasound - Ultrasound transfers heat through conversion. Radiation refers to the direct transfer of heat from a radiation energy source of higher temperature to one of cooler temperature.

Which muscle group is most important when ambulating with axillary crutches? A. wrist extensors B. wrist flexors C. scapular elevators D. scapular depressors

D. scapular depressors - When ambulating with axillary crutches, it is important to keep the superior surface of the crutches from forcefully rising into the axilla. To accomplish this, the scapular depressors, such as the latissimus dorsi, need to actively control this movement.

A patient who is aware that their heavy alcohol use is contributing to their health problems, but is not yet willing to consider quitting, is in which of the transtheoretical model - stages of change? A. Precontemplation B. Contemplation C. Preparation D. Action

B. Contemplation

Which electrical stimulation term is most associated with the amount of time it takes for one phase of a pulse? A. Amplitude B. Frequency C. Phase duration D. Rise time

C. Phase duration

Health promotion that is implemented prior to the individual being diagnosed with a disease is considered? A. Primary prevention B. Secondary prevention C. Tertiary prevention D. Quaternary prevention

A. Primary prevention - Primary prevention occurs as a form of health promotion prior to an individual obtaining an impairment or being diagnosed with a disease. Secondary prevention occurs promptly after an individual has been diagnosed with the goal of diminishing future health complications. Tertiary prevention occurs late in the disease state and focuses on returning the individual to an optimal level of functioning through restoration and rehabilitation.

Why is a slight anterior pelvic tilt important when positioning a patient in a wheelchair? A. Allows for weight bearing on the ischial tuberosities. B. Provides flexion in the low back and extension in the hips. C. Provides a stable base of support for control of the lower extremities. D. Allows for decreased lumbar lordosis

A. Allows for weight bearing on the ischial tuberosities.

Which of the following is a contraindication for the use of iontophoresis? A. Insensate skin B. Open wounds C. Adipose tissue D. Sensitive skin

A. Insensate skin -Insensate skin in the area to be treated is considered a contraindication for the use of iontophoresis since the patient cannot feel the current and provide accurate feedback related to intensity.

The loss of energy as ultrasound waves are transmitted through tissue best describes which term? A. Effective radiating area B. Attenuation C. Duty cycle D. Temporal average intensity

B. Attenuation

A physical therapist assistant reads a patient coverage form that indicates "ultrasound to the deep hip rotators of the right posterior hip for tissue heating." What are the MOST appropriate parameters to meet the identified objective? A. 1 MHz continuous ultrasound at 1.5 W/cm2. B. 1 MHz pulsed ultrasound at 0.8 W/cm2. C. 3 MHz continuous ultrasound at 1.0 W/cm2. D. 3 MHz continuous ultrasound at 2.0 W/cm2.

A. 1 MHz continuous ultrasound at 1.5 W/cm2. Continuous (i.e., 100% duty cycle) ultrasound should be used since the objective of the treatment is tissue heating. A frequency of 1 MHz would be appropriate since the hip rotators are deep structures (i.e., > 2 centimeters). When using 1 MHz, an intensity of 1.5 W/cm2 is sufficient to produce tissue heating.

A physical therapist assistant works with a patient on ascending and descending a ramp in the physical therapy gym. The patient is a 72-year-old female who recently fractured her left tibial plateau and, as a result, is using bilateral axillary crutches. When the patient is descending the ramp, where should the physical therapist assistant stand? A. In front of the patient toward the right side. B. Behind the patient toward the left side. C. Behind the patient toward the right side. D. In front of the patient toward the left side.

D. In front of the patient toward the left side. Standing in front of the patient toward the involved side (left side) is the most desirable position to guard the patient when descending the ramp.

A physical therapist assistant reviews measurements obtained from a wheelchair assessment. Assuming an average adult size wheelchair, which wheelchair measurement would represent the GREATEST value? A. Back height B. Seat depth C. Seat width D. Seat height

D. Seat height - Seat height is measured from the user’s heel to the popliteal fold. Two inches is then added to the measured distance to determine the seat height. Seat height is 19.5-20.5 inches in an average size adult chair. (Pg. 601 PTA Review Book)

A patient status post right transfemoral amputation receives a wheelchair specific for a patient that has a lower extremity amputation. What is the MOST likely adaptation to a standard wheelchair? A. The seat is lowered two inches B. The rear wheel axle is positioned two inches posterior C. Two handrims are placed on one drive wheel connected by a linkage bar D. The seat back is positioned in a semi-reclining position of approximately 30 degrees

B. The rear wheel axle is positioned two inches posterior - Patients with lower extremity amputations require adjustment of the rear wheel axle posteriorly to widen the base of support of the chair and compensate for the loss of lower extremity weight.

A physical therapist assistant treats a patient with mechanical lumbar traction by positioning the patient in supine with the hips and knees flexed and the lower legs resting on a stool. Which medical diagnosis would MOST likely benefit from the described positioning? A. Spinal stenosis B. Herniated disk C. Osteoporosis D. Spondylolisthesis

A. Spinal stenosis - Spinal stenosis is a condition in which the spinal canal narrows and compresses the spinal cord and nerves. The condition is best treated with the patient positioned in flexion since the position maximizes opening of the intervertebral foramen.

A physical therapist assistant reviews the results of a wheelchair assessment and determines that the wheelchair back height was recorded as 17 inches. Which value would be the MOST consistent with the distance from the seat of the chair to the floor of the axilla? A. 15 inches B. 17 inches C. 19 inches D. 21 inches

D. 21 inches - A properly fitted wheelchair should have a final back height that is slightly below the inferior angles of the scapulae. An average back height for an adult wheelchair is 16-16.5 inches above the seat of the chair. To determine the back height, a therapist measures from the seat of the chair to the floor of the axilla and then subtracts four inches.

A physical therapist assistant plans to treat a patient diagnosed with a lower leg injury using superficial heat. While preparing a hot pack for treatment the physical therapist assistant notes that the water in the hydrocollator unit is 180 degrees Fahrenheit. What is the MOST appropriate action? A. Continue with treatment as planned B. Avoid using the hot packs C. Add more towels since the water temperature is too hot D. Use fewer towels since the temperature is not hot enough

B. Avoid using the hot packs -Commercially available hot packs are made with a hydrophilic silicate gel covered with canvas and are used when trying to administer superficial heat as a modality. Hot packs are stored in hot water kept at 158-167 degrees Fahrenheit. The most appropriate action would be to avoid using the hot packs since the elevated temperature would place the patient at an increased risk for burns.

A physical therapist assistant observes the gait of a 59-year-old male. The patient has a functionally fused ankle due to arthritic changes precipitated by a severe fracture sustained in a motor vehicle accident ten years ago. Which of the following shoe modifications would be the MOST beneficial to assist the patient? A. Cushioned heel B. Metatarsal bar C. Rocker bar D. Heel lift

C. Rocker bar - A rocker bar is a convex rigid strip placed across the sole just posterior to the metatarsal heads. It assists rollover during gait by shifting the rollover point posterior to the metatarsal heads. It is indicated for patients with limitations in ankle range of motion.

A 65-year-old male who underwent a posterior approach left total hip arthroplasty prepares to return home. Prior to discharge, the patient reviews safety recommendations with the physical therapist assistant. Which of the following activities involves the GREATEST risk for dislocation? A. Sleeping on the left side without lower extremity pillow support. B. Standing to don pants during lower extremity dressing using a reacher. C. Placing the left foot on a chair in order to tie a shoe. D. Sitting reclined with the left foot placed over the right knee.

C. Placing the left foot on a chair in order to tie a shoe. Patients are advised not to flex the hip beyond 90 degrees. Patients must understand that this also applies to a flexed hip position resulting from forward trunk flexion. The combined effect of the elevated lower extremity position and the trunk flexion required to reach the shoe laces would likely exceed the recommended range of motion.

A physical therapist assistant employed in a large acute care hospital notices that several of his colleagues are billing using individual current procedural terminology (CPT) codes, despite the fact that patients are participating in group activities. The physical therapist assistant is troubled by this since insurance companies and many patients are likely to incur unjustified fees. What is the MOST appropriate action? A. Confront the involved therapists and remind them of the need to follow established billing procedures. B. Inform the director of rehabilitation about the billing irregularities. C. Contact the involved insurance providers and patients about the noted events. D. Report the information to the state licensing agency.

B. Inform the director of rehabilitation about the billing irregularities. The physical therapist assistant is obligated to discuss the situation with the director of rehabilitation. If there was sufficient evidence to indicate that the director of rehabilitation was aware of the billing irregularities and did not take action, it may be appropriate to take more formal action.

A physical therapist assistant uses neuromuscular electrical stimulation to treat a patient rehabilitating from a lower extremity injury. The physical therapist assistant utilizes the exact parameters used by the supervising physical therapist on the patient's previous visit. However, after increasing the intensity of the current the patient complains of sharp pain under one of the electrodes. What is the MOST appropriate physical therapist assistant action? A. Modify the parameters of the stimulation to make it more comfortable. B. Discontinue electrical stimulation as an intervention. C. Consult with the supervising physical therapist. D. Contact the referring physician

A. Modify the parameters of the stimulation to make it more comfortable. A physical therapist assistant can modify the parameters of an existing intervention within the established plan of care. Modifying electrical stimulation parameters to improve patient comfort does not change the patient’s plan of care. The physical therapist assistant can make such adjustments without consulting the supervising physical therapist.

A physical therapist assistant administers an ultrasound treatment using water immersion on a patient rehabilitating from ankle surgery. During the session the physical therapist assistant notices that air bubbles tend to accumulate on the sonated area of the skin and face of the soundhead. What is the MOST appropriate action? A. Wipe off the air bubbles on the skin periodically. B. Wipe off the air bubbles on the face of the soundhead periodically. C. Wipe off the air bubbles on the skin and face of the soundhead periodically. D. Avoid wiping off any of the air bubbles.

C. Wipe off the air bubbles on the skin and face of the soundhead periodically. Air bubbles occurring on the transducer and the patient’s skin should be wiped away by the therapist since they will interfere with ultrasound transmission.

Which of the following measurements BEST indicate that axillary crutches have been fitted correctly? A. 20° to 25° of elbow flexion and 2 inches of space between the axilla and the axillary rest of the crutches. B. 20° to 25° of elbow flexion and 4 inches of space between the axilla and the axillary rest of the crutches C. 30° to 35° of elbow flexion and 2 inches of space between the axilla and the axillary rest of the crutches. D. 30° to 35° of elbow flexion and 4 inches of space between the axilla and the axillary rest of the crutches.

A. 20° to 25° of elbow flexion and 2 inches of space between the axilla and the axillary rest of the crutches.

Which of the following orthoses is MOST appropriate for a patient who has carpel tunnel syndrome? A. Hand-based thumb spica B. Hand-based resting splint C. Forearm-based thumb spica D. Forearm-based neutral wrist splint

D. Forearm-based neutral wrist splint. Carpal tunnel syndrome is often treated with splinting the wrist in neutral.

A physical therapist assistant is instructed to administer ultrasound for joint capsular tightness in a patient's hip. Which of the following settings is MOST appropriate? A. Continuous ultrasound at a frequency of 1 MHz. B. Continuous ultrasound at a frequency of 3 MHz. C. Pulsed ultrasound at a frequency of 1 MHz. D. Pulsed ultrasound at a frequency of 3 MHz.

A. Continuous ultrasound at a frequency of 1 MHz. 1 MHz is used to target deep tissue, and continuous ultrasound will have thermal effects.

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate duration for application of ice massage to treat a patient's lateral ankle? A. 10-15 minutes. B. 16-20 minutes. C. Until the patient reports a numb sensation. D. Until the patient reports a burning sensation.

C. Until the patient reports a numb sensation.

An electrical stimulator has an adapter applied to the plug so that it can be utilized in the two prong sockets in the clinic. Which of the following responses is MOST appropriate? A. Substitute a surge strip for the adapter. B. Discontinue use of the stimulator. C. Continue use of the stimulator. D. Monitor the stimulator for heat.

B. Discontinue use of the stimulator. Discontinuing use of stimulator is the safest course of action. A three-prong plug with a safety ground component should be utilized as it ensures that an electrical current from a device does not pass through the patient nor the clinician.

A patient with complete C7 tetraplegia has spasticity of the lower extremities. A physical therapist assistant is teaching the patient to transfer from bed to wheelchair using a sliding board. Which of the following positions is MOST appropriate for the assistant to use to guard and protect the patient? A. Slightly in front and to one side of the patient. B. Slightly behind and to one side of the patient. C. Behind the patient with one hand on the patient's anterior shoulder. D. To the side of the patient with one hand on the back side of the gait belt.

A. Slightly in front and to one side of the patient. A position slightly in front and to one side of the patient allows for controlling the patient's lower extremities (knees) and maximizes control of the patient's balance both anteriorly and posteriorly. If the patient falls backward away from the assistant, the wheelchair and bed are there. If the patient falls forward, they fall toward the assistant, who can help them regain balance.

A physical therapist assistant is treating a patient with a rotator cuff repair. The plan of care has consisted of passive range of motion. The physician has ordered progression to active range of motion with gentle strengthening. The assistant should: A. Treat as ordered by the physician and document that physical therapy evaluation will follow. B. Discontinue treatment until re-evaluation can be done by the physical therapist. C. Progress to low-level active range of motion exercises and request re-evaluation by the physical therapist. D. Proceed with passive range of motion and request re-evaluation by the physical therapist.

D. Proceed with passive range of motion and request re-evaluation by the physical therapist. A physical therapist assistant may not alter a treatment program without prior evaluation by and approval of the supervising physical therapist.

In a research study, visual analog scale ratings of pain were obtained after treatment with massage and either aerobic exercise for 20 minutes or aerobic exercise for 40 minutes. Which of the following study components is the dependent variable? A. Visual analog scale B. Pain C. Massage D. Heart rate

B. Pain This question requires the candidate to understand that the dependent variable (pain) is the measurable outcome that is being evaluated. It is the variable that is changed due to the application of the independent variables.

Which of the following settings is most appropriate when treating a patient with chronic lateral epicondylitis? A. Pulsed mode, 1 MHz B. Pulsed mode, 3 MHz C. Continuous mode, 1 MHz D. Continuous mode, 3 MHz

D. Continuous mode, 3 MHz Chronic injuries often require thermal effects in order to increase blood flow and promote healing. Due to the superficial layering of the involved structures, a frequency of 3 MHz would be the most appropriate.

A patient with low back pain should be instructed to attempt to move a heavy object with which of the following maneuvers first, prior to utilizing other techniques? A. Traditional lift B. Push and/or pull C. Deep squat lift D. Power lift

B. Push and/or pull

Which method of heat transfer would be considered a form of convection? A. Hot pack B. Diathermy C. Ultrasound D. Whirlpool

D. Whirlpool

Which of the following is not a parameter for iontophoresis? A. Amplitude B. Duration C. Total current dosage D. Duty cycle

D. Duty cycle. - Amplitude, duration, and total current dosage are all parameters of iontophoresis. Duty cycle is a parameter of ultrasound which is defined as the portion of the treatment time that ultrasound is generated during the entire treatment.

An injury or illness that occurs as the result of medical care is known as: A. Extrinsic B. Intrinsic C. Iatrogenic D. Teratogenic

C. Iatrogenic

What is the most appropriate initial action when treating a patient who is reporting shoulder pain radiating into their neck and shortness of breath? A. Passive range of motion B. Modalities to the shoulder C. Rotator cuff exercises D. Postpone treatment and refer the patient to a physician

D. Postpone treatment and refer the patient to a physician - The most appropriate action is to postpone treatment and refer the patient to a physician for further evaluation. The patient is experiencing signs of cardiac distress that would likely worsen with activity.

Which isolation precaution specifically mandates the designation that patient specific equipment must stay in the patient’s room? A. Contact precautions B. Droplet precautions C. Airborne precautions D. Transmission-based precautions

A. Contact precautions - Contact precautions necessitate that dedicated patient equipment (e.g., thermometer, stethoscope, blood pressure cuff) stay in the patient's room. If an item must be removed, it must be disinfected or placed in a bag labeled as a biohazard.

When lifting a heavy object off of the floor, a therapist should: A. Bend over to grasp the object. B. Maintain the object within the base of support. C. Lift with their arms. D. Keep the back bent throughout the lift.

B. Maintain the object within the base of support

In order to reach deeper structures with electrical stimulation, the electrodes should be placed: A. Close together B. Far apart C. On top of each other D. In parallel

B. Far apart - The closer together electrodes are configured, the more superficially the current travels. Conversely, the greater the distance between the electrodes, the deeper the current travels.

When documenting using a S.O.A.P. note format, the entry “ice massage applied to the lateral portion of the anterior tibia for 5 minutes” would be recorded in the: A. Subjective section B. Assessment section C. Objective section D. Plan section

C. Objective section

Which positioning would be the most critical when guarding a patient while they ascend stairs? A. To the right side of the patient B. To the left side of the patient C. In front of the patient D. Behind the patient

D. Behind the patient - The therapist should guard a patient from behind while they ascend stairs to promote a safe environment for both the patient and the therapist in the event of any loss of balance. In the case of unilateral weakness, the therapist is often positioned behind and slightly toward the patient’s affected side.

Which diagnostic test is an invasive test which utilizes isotopes to identify stress fractures, infection, and tumors? A. Fluoroscopy B. Computed tomography C. Bone scan D. Magnetic resonance imaging

C. Bone scan

Application of a topical medication using ultrasound is known as: A. Iontophoresis B. Phonophoresis C. Fluidotherapy D. Diathermy

B. Phonophoresis - Phonophoresis describes the use of ultrasound for the transdermal delivery of topical medication. Ultrasound enhances the distribution of medication through the skin, provides a high concentration of the drug directly to the treatment site, and avoids risks that may be associated with the injection of medication.

When fitting a patient with Lofstrand crutches, where should the arm cuff be placed to ensure proper fit? A. 1.5 inches distal to the olecranon process B. 4.5 inches distal to the olecranon process C. 6 inches distal to the olecranon process D. Mid forearm

A. 1.5 inches distal to the olecranon process

Which of the following is not a frequently used latex-containing product? A. Gloves B. Surgical masks C. Intravenous tubing D. Gowns

D. Gowns

What section of an initial examination would anticipated discharge plans most likely appear? A. Diagnosis B. Plan of care C. Prognosis D. Evaluation

B. Plan of care

Which electrical stimulation term is most associated with the “rate” of stimulation? A. Amplitude B. Frequency C. Phase duration D. Rise time

B. Frequency - Frequency controls are often labeled as rate and are expressed in pulses per second or Hertz.

When using an intermittent vasopneumatic compression device to treat a patient with lower extremity edema, which value best represents the upper pressure limit? A. 20 mm Hg B. 40 mm Hg C. 60 mm Hg D. 80 mm Hg

D. 80 mm Hg - When using an intermittent vasopneumatic compression device for the treatment of edema, 40-80 mm Hg is an appropriate pressure for the lower extremities, while 30-60 mm Hg would be appropriate for the upper extremities.

The point over a muscle where a contraction of a muscle may be elicited by a minimal-intensity electric stimulus is known as the: A. Motor point B. Axon potential C. Nerve trunk D. Lower motor neuron

A. Motor point

Where should the collection basin of a chest tube drain be placed when performing bedside exercises in a patient’s hospital room? A. on the IV pole B. at the head of the bed C. at the foot of the bed D. on the floor

D. on the floor

When using therapeutic ultrasound, what is the difference in size of the total treatment area compared to the effective radiating area of the transducer? A. Two times smaller B. Four times smaller C. Two times larger D. Four times larger

C. Two times larger

What is the ratio of cardiac compressions to breaths during two-person cardiopulmonary resuscitation? A. 5:1 B. 10:1 C. 15:1 D. 30:2

D. 30:2

Which of the following ultrasound parameters is the most appropriate when attempting to increase the elasticity of the biceps muscle in a slightly overweight individual? A. 3 MHz, pulsed B. 3 MHz, continuous C. 1 MHz, pulsed D. 1 MHz, continuous

D. 1 MHz, continuous - A 1 MHz frequency is preferred since the patient is slightly overweight and the targeted muscle is the biceps which requires deeper heating. A continuous mode is preferred over a pulsed mode since the goal is to increase muscle elasticity.

Which factor may limit the efficacy of contrast baths in decreasing edema? A. Contact over irregular shaped surfaces B. Dependent positioning C. Alternating vasoconstriction and vasodilation D. Allowing movement during immersion

B. Dependent positioning

Which type of tank would require a patient sitting in water up to their mid-chest level to have their hips and knees fixed in flexion? A. Highboy tank B. Lowboy tank C. Extremity tank D. Hubbard tank

A. Highboy tank

Which gait pattern is described by a patient using crutches and advancing their lower extremities simultaneously only to the point of the assistive device? A. Swing-to B. Swing-through C. Two-point D. Three-point

A. Swing-to

Which of the following is a contraindication to using electrical stimulation? A. Fracture B. Edema C. Wound healing D. Infection

infection

How many inches should be added to the widest aspect of the user's buttocks when determining the seat width of a wheelchair? A. Two inches B. Three inches C. Four inches D. Five inches

A. Two inches

According to the Americans with Disabilities Act, what is the minimum hallway width required for two wheelchairs to pass? A. 54 inches B. 60 inches C. 66 inches D. 72 inches

B. 60 inches

What injury may occur if a patient bears weight through their axilla on their crutches when ambulating? A. Axillary nerve compression B. Pectoralis major strain C. Glenohumeral subluxation D. Anterior glenohumeral ligament sprain

A. Axillary nerve compression - The axillary nerve runs through the axilla of the upper extremity. If a patient applies excessive pressure through their axilla during ambulation with crutches they may develop an axillary nerve compression injury. Common symptoms of axillary nerve compression include numbness and/or tingling down the arm, weakness, and/or pain.

When ambulating with a patient using a Foley catheter, where should the collection bag be placed? A. at the level of the bladder B. above the level of the bladder C. below the level of the bladder D. on the floor

C. below the level of the bladder

A catheter inserted into a large vein and often referred to as a central line. Can be used to measure pressures in the right atrium or the superior vena cava by means of an indwelling venous catheter and a pressure manometer. A. Arterial line B. Central venous pressure C. Pulmonary artery catheter D. Intracranial pressure monitor

B. Central venous pressure

A plastic tube inserted through a nostril that extends into the stomach. Commonly used for short-term liquid feeding, medication administration or to remove gas from the stomach. A. Gastrostomy tube B. Jejunostomy tube C. Nasogastric tube D. Ostomy device

C. Nasogastric tube

A tube inserted through a small incision in the abdomen into the stomach. May also be referred to as a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube. Used for long-term feeding in the presence of difficulty with swallowing due to an anatomic or neurologic disorder or to avoid the risk of aspiration. A. Gastrostomy tube B. Jejunostomy tube C. Nasogastric tube D. Ostomy device

A. Gastrostomy tube

Catheter inserted into a vein in the upper extremity and terminating in the superior vena cava of the heart. Used for long-term administration of medications or fluids. A. Intravenous system B. Pulmonary artery catheter (Swan-Ganz catheter) C. Nebulizer D. Peripherally inserted central catheter

D. Peripherally inserted central catheter

Which method of heat transfer would be considered a form of conduction? A. Whirlpool B. Ultrasound C. Cryo Cuff D. Vapocoolant spray

C. Cryo Cuff - The Cryo Cuff transfers heat through conduction. Conduction refers to the gain or loss of heat resulting from direct contact between two materials at different temperatures.

Which ion is used clinically with iontophoresis to treat inflammatory conditions such as tendonitis and plantar fasciitis? A. Acetate B. Dexamethasone C. iodine D. Zinc

B. Dexamethasone - Dexamethasone is a corticosteroid with anti-inflammatory effects. The ion has a negative polarity and would therefore be carried into the body’s tissue from the negative pole (cathode) since like charges will repel.

Which of the following factors is of least importance when selecting an assistive device? A. the patient’s level of understanding B. the patient’s height and weight C. the patient’s upper and lower extremity strength D. the patient’s level of coordination

B. the patient’s height and weight

Which wheelchair component would most likely be utilized with a high cervical spinal cord injury? A. Toggle brakes B. Planar back insert C. Rim projections D. Sip and puff controls

D. Sip and puff controls

Is an invasive procedure that uses x-ray imaging and an injected contract dye to visualize blood vessels. Involves inserting a catheter into an artery, either at the groin or in the arm, and is guided up to the heart. The test can be used to identify arteriosclerosis, aneurysm, vascular malformations, tumors or blockages. A. Arteriography B. Arthrography C. Bone scan D. Venography

A. Arteriography

The most appropriate form of nutrition for a newborn whose mother is HIV positive would be: A. Intravenous feeding B. Parenteral nutrition C. Breast feeding D. Bottle feeding

D. Bottle feeding - If the mother is HIV positive, there is a risk for perinatal transmission through breast feeding. As a result, bottle feeding provides the most natural alternate form of meeting the infant’s nutritional needs.

What is the safest way for a patient in a wheelchair to descend a curb? A. Self-propel the chair off the curb while facing forward. B. Self-propel the chair off the curb while facing backward. C. Have an assistant control the chair off the curb while facing forward. D. Have an assistant control the chair off the curb while facing backward

D. Have an assistant control the chair off the curb while facing backward. When descending a curb, it is safest for the patient to have someone assist them off the curb. Though the patient can descend the curb either facing forward or backward, it is safest for the patient if it is performed backward. If the assistant loses control of the wheelchair in this position, they are still positioned behind the chair to prevent the patient from falling off the curb.

If a measure is consistent on the same individual on separate occasions, it is demonstrating: A. Internal validity B. Construct validity C. Test-retest reliability D. Inter-rater reliability

C. Test-retest reliability

Is an invasive procedure that uses x-rays imaging an injected contrast dye to visualize joint structures. A long needle is used to inject the dye directly into the joint. This diagnostic imaging is useful in identifying pathology of joint structures such as ligament damage and capsular tears. A. Arteriography B. Arthrography C. Bone scan D. Venography

B. Arthrography

Is a non-invasive imaging procedure in which x-ray images are taken from multiple angles using a large circular scanner. This diagnostic imaging is most commonly used to diagnose spinal lesions and in diagnostic studies of the brain. A. Bone scan B. Magnetic Resonance Imaging C. Computed Tomography D. Position Emission Tomography

C. Computed Tomography

Is a diagnostic imaging that is designed to show motion within the body with the use of x-ray imaging and injection of a contrast dye. This procedure can show motion within within joints or movement of the dye within the digestive tract. The procedure can also be used during the insertion of medical devices such as a pacemaker. A. Fluoroscopy B. Magnetic Resonance Imaging C. Bone Scan D. Computed Tomography

A. Fluoroscopy

When first utilizing electrical stimulation for muscle strengthening, what is the most appropriate on:off ratio? A. 1:1 B. 1:3 C. 1:5 D. 1:10

C. 1:5 - The long off time is required to minimize muscle fatigue. As the patient gradually gets stronger, the ratio may be decreased to 1:4 or 1:3.

What massage technique provides stimulation through rapid alternating movements such as tapping, hacking, cupping, and slapping? A. Vibration B. Tapotement C. Friction D. Petrissage

B. Tapotement

Is an invasive procedure that combines x-ray/fluoroscopy or computed tomography with use of a contrast dye to evaluate spinal structures, specifically the spinal cord, nerve roots, and meninges. Is used to identify bone displacement, spinal stenosis, disk herniation, spinal cord compression, infection/inflammation of the meninges or tumors. A. Fluoroscopy B. Lumbar puncture C. Electromyography D. Myelography

D. Myelography

A procedure used to determine the extent of nerve damage by measuring the speed of an electrical impulse through the nerve. Two surface electrodes are attached on the skin over the course of the nerve. This procedure is helpful in the diagnosis of conditions such as Guillain-Barre syndrome, carpal tunnel syndrome, and peripheral neuropathy. A. Nerve Conduction Velocity Test B. Electrocardiography C. Electromyography D. Electroencephalography

A. Nerve Conduction Velocity Test

Which method of heat transfer would be considered a form of evaporation? A. Whirlpool B. Ultrasound C. Cryo Cuff D. Vapocoolant spray

D. Vapocoolant spray

Which method of heat transfer would NOT be considered a form of Radiation? A. Infrared lamp B. Laser C. Ultrasound D. Ultraviolet light

C. Ultrasound

A patient receiving dialysis for end-stage renal disease would most likely be covered by what type of health insurance? A. Medicare B. Medicaid C. Workers’ Compensation D. Private insurance

A. Medicare

Which electrical stimulation term is most associated with the time it takes for the current to move from zero to the peak intensity within each phase? A. Amplitude B. Frequency C. Phase duration D. Rise time

D. Rise time

Cold packs are typically stored in a specialized, cooling unit at what temperature? A. 40 degrees F B. 25 degrees F C. 60 degrees F D. 15 degrees F

B. 25 degrees F

All of the following are considered indications for ultrasound use except: A. Vascular insufficiency B. Calcium deposits C. Dermal ulcers D. Pain

A. Vascular insufficiency - Vascular insufficiency is considered a contraindication for ultrasound therapy. Other contraindications include malignancy, infection, over areas of decreased temperature sensation, and over the eyes, heart, genitals or breast implants.

A cold bath is being used as a therapeutic modality to treat a distal extremity of a patient. How long should the body part be immersed for in order to attain the desired effects? A. 5 - 10 minutes B. 20 - 30 minutes C. 15 - 20 minutes D. 10 - 20 minutes

C. 15 - 20 minutes

Vapocoolant spray should be applied at what angle of degrees in order to treat a patient with trigger points? A. 20 degrees B. 30 degrees C. 40 degrees D. 45 degrees

B. 30 degrees

When applying vapocoolant spray to a patient with trigger points in the upper trapezius, how far from the skin should the spray be held? A. 2 to 4 inches B. 6 to 8 inches C. 12 to 18 inches D. 24 to 30 inches

C. 12 to 18 inches

In order to reach deeper structures with electrical stimulation, the electrodes should be placed: A. Close together B. Far apart C. On top of each other D. In parallel

B. Far apart The closer together electrodes are configured, the more superficially the current travels. Conversely, the greater the distance between the electrodes, the deeper the current travels.

When performing an independent standing pivot transfer, what would be the appropriate positioning of the therapist’s knees? A. Both knees on the outside of the patient’s knees. B. Both knees on the inside of the patient’s knees. C. One knee on the inside of the patient’s knee with a foot on the outside of the patient’s foot. D. Therapist only uses standby assistance without physical contact.

D. Therapist only uses standby assistance without physical contact. When performing transfers, a therapist should give as little assistance as necessary to complete the transfer. If a patient is able to perform a transfer independently, then the therapist should only provide standby assistance and allow the patient to complete the transfer on their own.

A physical therapist decides to use mechanical lumbar traction to treat a patient with an L4 disk herniation. Which of the following patient positions and treatment parameters would be the most appropriate? A. Patient in prone with a force of 25% of total body weight. B. Patient in prone with a force of 50% of total body weight. C. Patient in supine with a force of 25% of total body weight. D. Patient in supine with a force of 50% of total body weight.

A. Patient in prone with a force of 25% of total body weight.

Which patient position is most appropriate for a patient with orthostatic hypotension? A. Prone B. Supine C. Sidelying D. Sitting

B. Supine Orthostatic hypotension occurs due to a loss of sympathetic control of vasoconstriction in combination with absent or severely reduced muscle tone. Management of orthostatic hypotension includes positioning the patient in a supine position.

Which imaging technique provides the best view of a disc protrusion, differentiating between the nucleus pulposus and the annulus fibrosus? A. Computed tomography B. Plain film radiography C. Magnetic resonance imaging D. Xeroradiography

C. Magnetic resonance imaging

Hot packs are typically stored in a thermostatically controlled container at what temperature? A. 100 and 120 degrees Fahrenheit B. 135 - 145 degrees Fahrenheit C. 178 - 186 degrees Fahrenheit D. 158 - 167 degrees Fahrenheit

D. 158 - 167 degrees Fahrenheit

How many layers of towels or equivalent insulation should be placed between a patient's skin and a standard hot pack to prevent burns? A. 1–2 layers B. 3–4 layers C. 6–8 layers D. 10–12 layers

C. 6–8 layers

How long should a therapist leave a hot pack on a patient in order to achieve its therapeutic effects? A. 15 - 20 minutes B. 5 - 10 minutes C. 20 - 35 minutes D. 25 - 30 minutes

A. 15 - 20 minutes

When treating a patient using a Cryo Cuff, how high above the level of the sleeve should the container be elevated for proper cooling and compression? A. 8-10 inches B. 11-14 inches C. 15-18 inches D. 19-21 inches

C. 15-18 inches

What is the typical wavelength range of infrared lamps used in clinical settings? A. 100–400 nm B. 400–700 nm C. 780–1500 nm D. 2000–5000 nm

C. 780–1500 nm

When administering infrared (IR) heat therapy, what is the recommended distance between the patient's skin and the infrared lamp to ensure safe and effective treatment? A. 5 inches B. 10 inches C. 20 inches D. 30 inches

C. 20 inches

What is the typical duration for an infrared lamp treatment in a physical therapy setting? A. 5–10 minutes B. 10–20 minutes C. 30-60 minutes D. 15 - 30 minutes

D. 15 - 30 minutes

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of paraffin wax used as a superficial heat modality? A. Low melting point B. Low specific heat C. Even distribution of heat D. Capable of reaching deeper tissues

D. Capable of reaching deeper tissues

What is the recommended temperature range for paraffin wax used as a superficial heat modality? A. 90°F to 100°F B. 130°F to 140°F C. 113°F to 122°F D. 100°F to 110°F

C. 113°F to 122°F

Which of the following modalities is an example of a deep heating agent? A. Ultrasound B. Infrared Lamp C. Fluidotherapy D. Hot packs

A. Ultrasound

All of the following are examples of nonthermal effects of therapeutic ultrasound except: A. Increased cell membrane permeability B. Alteration of nerve conduction velocity C. Facilitation of tissue repair D. Increased intracellular calcium levels

B. Alteration of nerve conduction velocity

During an ultrasound treatment, at what approximate rate should the transducer be moved? A. 1 cm/second B. 2 cm/second C. 4 cm/second D. 6 cm/second

C. 4 cm/second

How many patient identifiers are recommended in order to verify the identity of a patient? A. None B. at least two C. at least one D. at least three

B. at least two

As a physical therapist, you are monitoring a patient during exercise when they suddenly report symptoms. Which of the following is NOT a typical sign or symptom of a myocardial infarction (heart attack)? A. Chest pain/discomfort that may feel like pressure B. Shortness of breath C. Abnormal heart rate and blood pressure D. Dilation of the pupils

D. Dilation of the pupils

Which medical device is used for long-term administration of substances into the venous system such as chemotherapeutic agents, total parenteral nutrition, and antibiotics? A. Indwelling right atrial (Hickman) catheter B. Intracranial pressure monitor C. Pulmonary artery (Swan-Ganz) catheter D. Arterial line

A. Indwelling right atrial (Hickman) catheter

What type of current modulation occurs when pulsed current flows for several milliseconds and then ceases to flow for several milliseconds in a repeated cycle? A. Phase duration B. Burst C. Interrupted pulse D. Ramp

B. Burst

A positioning terminology that places a patient in supine with the head of the bed elevated between 45-60 degrees with the knees supported in flexion or straight depending on the amount of lumbar curve. A. Semi-Fowler's position B. Fowler's position C. Fowler's position and its variations (low, semi, high) D. Trendelenburg position

B. Fowler's position

A positioning terminology that describes a patient who is in supine with the head of the bed elevated between 30-45 degrees with the knees supported in flexion or straight to maintain a neutral lumbar spine. A. Semi-Fowler's position B. Fowler's position C. Fowler's position and its variations (low, semi, high) D. Trendelenburg position

A. Semi-Fowler's position

A positioning terminology that places a patient in supine with the foot of the bed elevated higher than the head of the bed and is used for appropriate postural drainage positions, hypotension, and certain medical emergencies as it promotes venous return to major organs such as the heart. A. Semi-Fowler's position B. Fowler's position C. Fowler's position and its variations (low, semi, high) D. Trendelenburg position

D. Trendelenburg position

Requires that the wishes of competent individuals must be honored and is often referred to as self-determination? A. Autonomy B. Beneficence C. Confidentiality D. Duty

A. Autonomy

Is a moral obligation of health care providers to act for the benefit of others. A. Autonomy B. Beneficence C. Confidentiality D. Duty

B. Beneficence

The holding of professional secrets or discussions. Keeping client information within appropriate limits. A. Autonomy B. Beneficence C. Confidentiality D. Duty

C. Confidentiality

The obligations that individuals have to others in society. A. Autonomy B. Beneficence C. Confidentiality D. Duty

D. Duty

Related to confidentiality and is defined as the moral duty to keep commitments that have been promised. A. Fidelity B. Justice C. Duty D. Veracity

A. Fidelity

The quality of being just and fair; righteousness. A. Fidelity B. Justice C. Duty D. Veracity

B. Justice

The obligation of health care providers to above all else, do no harm. A. Fidelity B. Justice C. Nonmaleficence D. Veracity

C. Nonmaleficence

Is the obligation of health care providers to tell the truth. A. Fidelity B. Justice C. Nonmaleficence D. Veracity

D. Veracity

Is the professional organization that represents physical therapists, physical therapist assistants, and physical therapy students. The goal of this organization is to advance physical therapist practice, education, and research and increase the awareness of how physical therapy can play a role in health care. A. American Physical Therapy Association (APTA) B. Federation of State Boards of Physical Therapy (FSBPT) C. State licensing boards D. The Joint Commission

American Physical Therapy Association (APTA)

Is an organization that aims to protect the public by ensuring that physical therapists and physical therapist assistants provide safe and competent physical therapy services. A. American Physical Therapy Association (APTA) B. Federation of State Boards of Physical Therapy (FSBPT) C. State licensing boards D. The Joint Commission

B. Federation of State Boards of Physical Therapy (FSBPT)

Which organization is responsible for creating the National Physical Therapy Examination and determining the scoring requirements for PTs and PTAs to obtain licensure. A. American Physical Therapy Association (APTA) B. State licensing boards C. Federation of State Boards of Physical Therapy (FSBPT) D. The Joint Commission

C. Federation of State Boards of Physical Therapy (FSBPT)

Is a nonprofit organization that provides accreditation and certification services to a variety of health care organizations, which may include hospitals, doctor's offices, nursing homes, home care companies, and behavioral health facilities. A. American Physical Therapy Association (APTA) B. Federation of State Boards of Physical Therapy (FSBPT) C. State licensing boards D. The Joint Commission

D. The Joint Commission

Responsible for providing professional licenses to physical therapists and physical therapist assistants. This regulatory group creates and maintains the rules surrounding licensure renewal. A. State licensing boards B. The Joint Commission C. American Physical Therapy Association (APTA) D. Federation of State Boards of Physical Therapy (FSBPT)

A. State licensing boards

Following a cycling accident while on vacation, a 36-year-old man with no significant medical history underwent surgical repair of an ankle fracture. On the flight home a few days later, the patient began to experience significant chest pain and was transported to the emergency department immediately after landing. What is the MOST likely cause of the patient’s emergent condition? A. Pneumothorax B. Myocardial infarction C. Pulmonary embolism D. Hemothorax

C. Pulmonary embolism Pulmonary embolism may occur in otherwise healthy individuals and with numerous recognized etiologies. The onset of pulmonary embolism is frequently associated with some precipitating event or risk factor. Recent surgical intervention, extended periods of immobilization, and air travel are such factors, all of which are likely contributors to the patient’s current condition.

A physical therapist assistant prepares to apply a heating agent to a patient recently referred to physical therapy. Which heating agent would require the physical therapist assistant to use the GREATEST temperature? A. Diathermy B. Paraffin C. Ultrasound D. Whirlpool

B. Paraffin The temperature of the paraffin mixture (paraffin wax and mineral oil) should be 113-126 degrees Fahrenheit. Paraffin wax has a low specific heat which means that it does not feel as hot as water at the same temperature. In addition, paraffin wax conducts heat more slowly than water which diminishes the risk of burns.

A patient who has a transtibial prosthesis walks with excessive knee flexion during early stance phase. Which of the following prosthetic adjustments is MOST appropriate for the patient? A. Move the socket anteriorly. B. Add firmness to the heel cushion. C. Increase the height of the shoe heel. D. Increase plantar flexion of the ankle-foot assembly

D. Increase plantar flexion of the ankle-foot assembly. Excessive knee flexion when walking with a transtibial prosthesis can result from insufficient plantar flexion.

A platform walker would be MOST appropriate for a patient who has which of the following conditions? A. Radial fracture B. Humeral fracture C. Rotator cuff repair D. Acromioclavicular joint separation

A. Radial fracture

When using intermittent mechanical lumbar traction, which of the following parameters would BEST achieve joint surface separation for a 100-lb (45.4-kg) patient who has L1–L2 facet joint dysfunction? A. With the patient in prone position, use 25 lb (11.3 kg) of pull. B. With the patient in supine position and the hips flexed, use 25 lb (11.3 kg) of pull. C. With the patient in prone position, use 50 lb (22.7 kg) of pull.\ D. With the patient in supine position and the hips flexed, use 50 lb (22.7 kg) of pull.

D. With the patient in supine position and the hips flexed, use 50 lb (22.7 kg) of pull. Symptoms caused by facet joint dysfunction are most reduced when the patient is positioned supine with the hips flexed, the lumbar spine is flexed, and the facet joints are most separate. A force equal to 50% of the patient's body weight has been found to be necessary to distract the lumbar apophyseal joints (p. 362). A pull of 50% of body weight is appropriate when the goal of treatment is joint distraction.

When applying manual cervical traction to a patient in supine position, which of the following neck positions would provide the MOST effective force for a right radiculopathy at the C6–C7 level? A. Flexion to 30°, lateral flexion left B. Flexion to 30°, lateral flexion right C. Neutral position, lateral flexion left D. Neutral position, lateral flexion right

A. Flexion to 30°, lateral flexion left. Placing the cervical spine in a flexed position focuses the traction forces on the lower cervical spine. Lateral flexion to the left could open the right-sided intervertebral foramen and is indicated when radicular symptoms are present on the righ. tA neutral position is indicated for pain in the upper cervical spine, not the lower cervical.

A physical therapist assistant is asked to administer an ultrasound treatment at 1.0 W/cm2 for 6 minutes at 100% duty cycle to the deltoid area. During treatment, the patient tells the assistant that the area feels warm. The assistant should immediately: A. decrease the duty cycle. B. turn down the intensity. C. stop the treatment and check the machine. D. assess whether the temperature is within normal limits.

D. assess whether the temperature is within normal limits. A gentle warmth is to be expected. The assistant should further assess intensity of the warmth felt by the patient.

A physical therapist assistant dons only the personal protective equipment shown in the photograph before entering a patient's room to provide patient and family education. The assistant is MOST likely treating a patient who has which of the following conditions? A. Mumps B. Clostridioides difficile C. Chickenpox D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

B. Clostridioides difficile

Non-Systems Flashcards

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