Other Systems Flashcards by Lauren Addison

Which of the following treatments is typically the least effective for managing edema associated with stage 2 lymphedema?
A. Short stretch bandages
B. Compression garments
C. Manual lymphatic drainage
D. Elevation of the involved limb

D. Elevation of the involved limb

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According to the Wagner Ulcer Scale Grade Classification Scale, an area that reveals a pre-ulcerative lesion without an actual open lesion would be most accurately classified as:
A. Grade 0
B. Grade 1
C. Grade 4
D. Grade 5

A. Grade 0

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According to the Wagner Ulcer Scale Grade Classification Scale, an area that reveals a superficial ulcer not involving subcutaneous tissue would be most accurately classified as:
A. Grade 0
B: Grade 2
C. Grade 1
D. Grade 4

C. Grade 1

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According to the Wagner Ulcer Scale Grade Classification Scale, an area that reveals a deep ulcer with penetration through the subcutaneous tissue; potentially exposing bone, tendon, ligament or joint capsule would be most accurately classified as:
A. Grade 0
B. Grade 1
C. Grade 2
D. Grade 3

C. Grade 2

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According to the Wagner Ulcer Scale Grade Classification Scale, an area that reveals gangrene of digit would be most accurately classified as:
A. Grade 0
B. Grade 2
C. Grade 5
D. Grade 4

D. Grade 4

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According to the Wagner Ulcer Scale Grade Classification Scale, an area that reveals deep ulcer with osteitis, abscess or osteomyelitis would be most accurately classified as:
A. Grade 1
B. Grade 3
C. Grade 2
D. Grade 5

B. Grade 3

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A burn that presents with significant pain and blistering is most likely to be classified as a:
A. Superficial burn
B. Superficial partial-thickness burn
C. Deep partial-thickness burn
D. Full thickness burn

B. Superficial partial-thickness burn

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Which of the following is an example of a class II drug?
A. Heroin
B. Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD)
C. Morphine
D. Sedative

C. Morphine

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Which of the following is a selective form of debridement?
A. Wet-to-dry dressing
B. Whirlpool
C. Pulsed lavage
D. Autolytic

D. Autolytic

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What term describes the highest level of a drug that can be obtained in the blood?
A. Onset of action
B. Peak plasma concentration
C. Elimination half-life
D. Plateau

B. Peak plasma concentration

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Which unit of measurement is used to help determine medication dosage?
A. Body fat percentage
B. Body mass index
C. Body weight
D. Body temperature

C. Body weight

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Which of the following medications is not commonly used to treat attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorders?
A. Antidepressants
B. Antihypertensives
C. Stimulants
D. Depressants

D. Depressants

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What enzyme, central to digestion, is produced by the gastric glands?
A. Trypsin
B. Chymotrypsin
C. Pepsinogen
D. Lipase

C. Pepsinogen

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Which route of drug delivery would be absorbed at the fastest rate?
A. Oral pill
B. Oral liquid
C. Intramuscular injection
D. Intravenous injection

D. Intravenous injection

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What structure plays an important role in regulating the body’s temperature?
A. Hypothalamus
B. Thalamus
C. Pituitary
D. Thymus

A. Hypothalamus

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What is the primary indication for bisphosphonates?
A. Congestive heart failure
B. Osteoporosis
C. Bronchodilation
D. Anticoagulation

B. Osteoporosis

Bisphosphonates are commonly prescribed to reduce the amount of bone resorption.

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Which of the following is not an indication for applying a wound dressing?
A. Protect the area from injury
B. Prevent contamination
C. Prevent scarring
D. Promote healing

C. Prevent scarring

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Which of the following factors will decrease a person’s metabolic rate?
A. Increase in muscle mass
B. Increase in physical activity
C. Increase in temperature
D. Increase in age

D. Increase in age

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Which of the following would be considered an appropriate compression pressure for use with a patient with a venous wound?
A. 10 mm Hg
B. 20 mm Hg
C. 30 mm Hg
D. 40 mm Hg

D. 40 mm Hg

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Excess growth hormone secretion from the pituitary gland can cause?
A. Dwarfism
B. Acromegaly
C. Marfan syndrome
D. osteogenesis Imperfecta

B. Acromegaly

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Which condition usually results from an infection of the dermis and subcutaneous tissue arising after an injury or infection?
A. Cystitis
B. Pyelonephritis
C. Cellulitis
D. Cholecystitis

C. Cellulitis

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What bony prominence would not be susceptible to pressure injury when a patient is sitting in a properly sized standard wheelchair?
A. Ischial tuberosity
B. Vertebral spinous processes
C. Spine of the scapula
D. Posterior superior iliac spines

C. Spine of the scapula

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During sharp debridement, caution should be taken with patients who are currently taking:
A. Antidiuretic
B. Anticoagulants
C. Antihypertensives
D. Antitussives

B. Anticoagulants

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Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome is defined as:
A. A fungal infection
B. A rare blood cancer caused by human immunodeficiency virus
C. A group of diseases caused by human immunodeficiency virus
D. The final stage of human immunodeficiency virus

D. The final stage of human immunodeficiency virus

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Which stage of malignancy is limited to the tissue of origin with no lymph node involvement or metastasis? A. Stage 1 B. Stage 0 C. Stage 2 D. Stage 3

A. Stage 1

Which of these wound dressing can be utilized to treat an infected pressure injury? A. Transparent film B. Hydrocolloiids C. Hydrogels D. Calcium alginates

D. Calcium alginates

Which objective finding is not one of the diagnostic criteria for metabolic syndrome? A. Elevated blood glucose B. Body mass index C. Elevated blood pressure D. Decreased high density lipoproteins

B. Body mass index

Which demographic has the greatest incidence of osteoporosis? A. Caucasian males B. African American males C. Caucasian females D. African American females

C. Caucasian females

A scant output of urine is referred to as? A. Oliguria B. Hematuria C. Incontinence D. Polyuria

A. Oliguria

What major hormone is secreted by the pancreas? A. Aldosterone B. Testosterone C. Insulin D. Estrogen

C. Insulin

Which of the following is an example of a Schedule 1 drug? A. Antidiarrheal B. Sedative C. Oxycodone D. Heroin

D. Heroin

Which type of incontinence would be demonstrated by a patient with a recent total hip arthroplasty being unable to male it to the bathroom in a timely manner? A. Stress incontinence B. Functional incontinence C. Urge incontinence D. Overflow incontinence

B. Functional incontinence - Is the loss of urine due to the inability or unwillingness of a person to use the bathroom facilities prior to involuntary bladder release.

Which type of incontinence is common in older adults and is associated with an overactive detrusor muscle? A. Stress incontinence B. Urge incontinence C. Overflow incontinence D. Functional incontinence

B. Urge incontinence

What type of cancer is fund in the bone marrow and is characterized by the production of abnormal white blood cells? A. Leukemia B. Lymphoma C. Multiple myeloma D. Hodgkin'sDisease

A. Leukemia

Which method is an example of mechanical debridement? A. Collagenases B. Maggots C. Film Dressings D. Pulsed Lavage

D. Pulsed Lavage

According too the rule of nines, a burn affecting the posterior trunk and posterior left arm, forearm and hand, would constitute what percentage of the total body surface area? A. 9% B. 22.5% C. 13.5% D. 185

B. 22.5% - The posterior trunk constitutes 18% of the total body surface area. The posterior surface of one arm, forearm and hand constitutes 4.5%.

What structure would most likely be impacted if a large brain tumor was creating numerous hormonal abnormalities? A. Cerebellum B. Parietal cortex C. Pituitary gland D. Occipital Lobe

C. Pituitary gland

What is the mechanism of action for antipsychotic drugs? A. Block central dopamine receptors B. Increase serotonin production C. Decrease serotonin production D. Activate central dopamine receptors

A. Block central dopamine receptors

When communicating with an older adult patient with hearing loss, which of the following recommendations is most critical to follow? A. Speak slowly in a lower pitched voice B. Speak slowly in a higher pitched voice C. Speak softly in a lower pitched voice D. Speak softly in a higher pitched voice

A. Speak slowly in a lower pitched voice

What is the target site for luteinizing hormone? A. Breast B. Kidneys C. Ovaries D. Uterus

C. Ovaries

Which of the following structures is responsible for digestion of food and absorption of nutrients into the bloodstream? A. Stomach B. Small intestine C. Large intestine D. Liver

B. Small intestine

Which of the following is considered the most occlusive of the moisture-retentive dressings? A. Transparent films B. Foams C. Hydrogels D. Hydrocolloids

D. Hydrocolloids - Are considered the most occlusive of the moisture-retentive dressings.

Which of the following would typically be the dressing of choice to treat a stage 1 or stage 2 pressure injury? A. Transparent film B. Hydrocolloids C. Calcium alginates D. Wet-to-dry dressings

A. Transparent film

Which personality disorder is characterized by social inhibition and hypersensitivity to negative evaluation? A. Paranoid personality disorder B. Borderline personality disorder C. Avoidant personality disorder D. Schizoid personality disorder

C. Avoidant personality disorder

Which of the following burn classification is characterized by complete destruction of the epidermal and dermal layers, in addition to the involvement of the subcutaneous fat or muscle? A. Superficial burn B. Full thickness burn C. Superficial partial-thickness burn D. Deep partial-thickness burn

B. Full thickness burn

Parenteral medication administration includes all of the following routes except: A. Oral B. Intradermal C. Subcutaneous D. Intramuscular

A. Oral

What is the "M" in the TNM cancer staging system used to describe when a patient has malignant melanoma? A. Regional lymph nodes and their level of metastasis B. Distant metastasis to other visceral sites C. Primary tumor thickness and presence of ulceration D. Layers of skin that are invaded by the melanoma

B. Distant metastasis to other visceral sites

Which characteristic of urine helps prevent bacterial growth? A. Color B. Odor C. pH D. Water content

C. pH

The islets of Langerhans are found in which organ? A. Liver B. Heart C. Pancreas D. Gallbladder

C. Pancreas

Which diagnosis is characterized by painful, tender points? A. Fibromyalgia B. Guillin-Barre Syndrome C. Multiple Sclerosis D. Venous stasis ulcer

A. Fibromyalgia

Apparent enlargement (or thickening) of long bones, vertebrae, pelvis, or skull would be most characteristic of? A. Paget's disease B. Osteoporosis C. Osteopenia D. Ricketts

A. Paget's disease

Which type of wound often occurs due to rubbing or scraping of the epidermal layer of the skin? A. Incision B. Contusion C. Abrasion D. Laceration

C. Abrasion

Which of the following is not a role of the kidneys? A. Balancing body fluids B. Secreting hormones C. Regulating blood pressure D. Removing waste products

B. Secreting hormones

Which structure in the epidermis serves as a barrier against fluid, electrolytes, and chemical loss? A. Basal cells B. Langerhans cells C. Stratum corneum D. Keratinocytes

C. Stratum corneum

The medial and lateral condyles of the tibia are areas that are likely to develop pressure injuries in which position? A. Sidelying B. Sitting C. Supine D. Prone

A. Sidelying

An injury to the skin that is characterized by pain, edema, and discoloration and typically results from trauma is termed: A. Contusion B. Desquamation C. Erythema D. Maceration

A. Contusion

Which of the following is not an example of mechanical debridement? A. Whirlpool B. Pulsed lavage C. Wet-to-dry dressings D. Hydrocolloids

D. Hydrocolloids

Which of the following terms describes skin that is yellow-orange in color? A. Pallor B. Jaundice C. Cyanosis D. Erythema

B. Jaundice

Which of the following wound dressings are most helpful in maintaining a moist wound bed in a superficial wound with minimal drainage? A. Transparent film B. Alginates C. Hydrogels D. Wet-to-dry dressings

C. Hydrogels

Which statement best describes a xenograft used to close a burn on a patient that sustained extensive tissue damage? A. A permanent graft made from the skin of the same species B. A temporary graft made from the skin of the same species C. A permanent graft made from the skin of another species. D. A temporary graft made from the skin of another species

D. A temporary graft made from the skin of another species

What condition is characterized by stomach pain that occurs repetitively several hours after a meal? A. Duodenal ulcer B. Appendiciiitis C. Gastroesophageal reflux disease D. Gastric ulcer

A. Duodenal ulcer

Which group of individuals is most at risk for systemic lupus erythematosus? A. African-American men B. African-American women C. Caucasian men D. Caucasian women

B. African-American women

A rubor of dependency test can help to identify which of the following risk factors for developing skin ulceration? A. Venous insufficiency B. Arterial insufficiency C. Neuropathy D. Insensate skin

B. Arterial insufficiency

Which of the following is a form of non-selective debridement technique? A. Autolytic debridement B. Enzymatic debridement C. Wet-to-dry dressing D. Sharp debdridement

C. Wet-to-dry dressing

What is the primary indication for a glucocorticoid medication being prescribed in chronic conditions? A. Gastric ulcers B. Osteoporosis C. Anxiety D. Inflammation

D. Inflammation

What is the primary site for drug storage in the body? A. Organs B. Adipose C. Bone D. Muscle

B. Adipose

Allopurinol, which reduces the production of uric acid in the body, is commonly used to treat what condition? A. Myocardial infarction B. Intermittent claudication C. Headaches D. Gout

D. Gout

An artery and vein that are surgically connected in patients who are undergoing hemodialysis is termed: A. An arteriovenous fistula B. An arteriovenous graft C. An arteriovenous fusion D. An arteriovenous catheter

A. An arteriovenous fistula

Which scale would most likely be utilized to grade a diabetic foot ulcer based on wound depth and the presence of infection. A. Wagner ulcer grade classification system B. Red-yellow-black system C. National Pressure Ulcer Advisory Panel Pressure ulcer grading system D. Braden scale

A. Wagner ulcer grade classification system

The primary goal for managing s stage 1 pressure injury would be to: A. Remove or relive pressure from the affected area B. Protect the surrounding tissue by absorbing exudate C. Maintain a moist wound bed D. Increase circulation

A. Remove or relive pressure from the affected area

Which term best describe the drying out or dehydration of a wound? A. Dehiscence B. Desiccation C. Desquamation D. Maceration

B. Desiccation

Which of the following inflammatory mediators is responsible for causing pain in an acute wound? A. Histamine B. Prostaglandins C. Phagocytes D. Renin

B. Prostaglandins

Which segment of the population has the greatest risk of experiencing potentially adverse drug interactions? A. Infants B. Teenagers C. Young adults D. Elderly

D. Elderly

Which form of cancer develops from muscle, bone, fat, or connective tissue? A. Myeloma B. Lymphoma C. Carcinoma D. Sarcoma

D. Sarcoma

Which of the following correctly states the expected blood gas measurements in a patient with uncompensated metabolic acidosis? A. Decrease pH, decreased HCO3, and decrease PCO2 B. Elevated pH, elevated HCO3, and elevated PCO2 C. Elevated pH and elevated HCO3, normal PCO2 D. Decreased pH and decreased HCO3, normal PCO2

D. Decreased pH and decreased HCO3, normal PCO2

A lack of or inability to use vitamin D is often associated with? A. Osteoporosis B. Osteomalacia C. Osteopenia D. Chondromalacia

B. Osteomalacia

The technique of applying ointment to the skin without the use of dressings is known as: A. Sterile technique B. Clean technique C. Open technique D. Closed technique

C. Open technique

Intrathecal administration of baclofen requires the subcutaneous implantation of a pump into the: A. Upper arm B. Abdominal wall C. Thigh D. Chest wall

B. Abdominal wall

Which of the following pathologies is not associated with left upper quadrant pain? A. Kidney stone B. Spleen injury C. Pneumonia D. Gastric ulcer

A. Kidney stone

Which term is the most appropriate to describe the resection of a portion of the colon? A. Cholecystectomy B. Cholecystitis C. Cholostomy D. Colectomy

D. Colectomy

The embryonic layer that will become the skin during development is the: A. Ectoderm B. Endoderm C. Mesoderm D. Tegaderm

A. Ectoderm

Which term best describes the relative speed with which the skin resumes its normal appearance after being lightly pinched? A. Friable B. Turgor C. Desquamation D. Hyperrgranuulation

B. Turgor

Thinning of the cervix is most accurately called: A. Dilation B. Lochia C. Effacement D. Menstruation

C. Effacement

Which of the following would be the most appropriate type of wound dressing to place over an intravenous access site? A. Hydrocolloid dressing B. Transparent film dressing C. Non-adhereent gauze dressiing D. Foam dressing

B. Transparent film dressing

What is the term given to the kyphotic deformity resulting from postmenopausal osteoporosis? A. Round back B. Hump back C. Dowager's hump D. Gibbus deformity

C. Dowager's hump

What stage of lymphedema is characterized by the transition from pitting to non-pitting edema? A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3

C. 2 - Stage 2 lymphedema is known as the spontaneously irreversible lymphedema stage. In this stage, the edema is non-pitting and does not change with elevation or rest.

Which of the following is characterized by progressive, chronic inflammation of the liver with loss of normal tissue that is replaced by fibrosis? A. Cirrhosis B. Hepatitis C. Jaundice D. Hepatic Encephalopathy

B. Hepatitis

What is the bacterial agent commonly responsible for skin infection? A. Gonococcus B. Chlamydia C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis D. Staphylococcus aureus

D. Staphylococcus aureus

What type of drug binds to a specific receptor and initiates a maximal response within the body? A. Agonist B. Competitive antagonist C. Partial agonist D. Noncompetitive antagonist

A. Agonist

What is the term used to describe the thickening of the skin often seen in patients with lymphedema? A. Papilloma B. Hyperkeratosis C. Hemosiderin staining D. Keloid

B. Hyperkeratosis

What type of disorder is characterized by physical complaints of a neurological basis without any underlying cause? A. Anxiety disorder B. Conversion disorder C. Phobia disorder D. Schizophrenia disorder

B. Conversion disorder

A nonblanchable red area of intact skin over the sacrum is best described as? A. Stage 1 pressure injury B. High risk for pressure injury C. Stage 2 pressure injury D. Unstageable pressure injury

A. Stage 1 pressure injury

"Moon face" and "buffalo hump" fat deposits are characteristic of? A. Chronic alcohol abuse B. Chronic cardiovascular problems C. Excess corticosteroids D. Hypothyroidism

C. Excess corticosteroids

Which of the following conditions is commonly associated with Helicobacter Pylori? A. Gastroesophageal reflux disease B. Gastric ulcers C. Dysphagia D. Inflammatory bowel disease

B. Gastric ulcers

Dysfunction of the detrusor muscle is a common cause of: A. Urge incontinence B. Overactive bladder C. Anal incontinence D. Overdistended bladder

A. Urge incontinence

Which diagnosis would be most likely to negatively impact the healing of a pressure injury? A. Adhesive capsulitis B. Rotator cuff tendonitis C. Peripheral vascular disease D. Emphysema

C. Peripheral vascular disease

Which of the following conditions is not considered a risk factor for developing a cystocele? A. Childbirth (vaginal) B. Obesity C. Urinary tract infection D. Advanced age

C. Urinary tract infection

Which burn classification is most likely to result in hypertrophic and keloid scarring after the healing process is complete? A. Superficial B. Superficial partial-thickness C. Full-thickness D. Deep partial-thickness

D. Deep partial-thickness

Lower extremity pain that is most prominent during sleep and awakens the patient is most consistent with: A. Arterial insufficiency B. Venous insufficiency C. Diabetic neuropathy D. Venous reflux

A. Arterial insufficiency

A pressure injury that is covered with necrotic tissue would best be classified as: A. Stage 2 B. Stage 3 C. Stage 4 D. Unstageable

D. Unstageable

Stimulation to the posterior pituitary gland results in the secretion of which two hormones? A. Thyroid-stimulating hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone B. Antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin C. Luteinizing hormone and growth hormone D. Prolactin and adrenocorticotropic hormone

B. Antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin

Which of the following terms would best describe a cat scratch on the forearm of a patient? A. Excoriation B. Scar C. Fissure D. Desquamation

A. Excoriation

Is a dysfunction where there is damage to the cerebral control that allows for urinary dysfunction. Symptoms include frequent urinary tract infections, leakage of urine, and inability to empty bladder. A. Urinary incontinence B. Neurogenic Bladder C. Urinary Tract Infection D. Chronic Renal Failure

B. Neurogenic Bladder

The loss of urine due to activities that increase intra-abdominal pressure, such as sneezing, coughing, laughing, running, and jumping. A. Urge urinary incontinence B. Overflow urinary incontinence C. Stress urinary incontinence D. Functional urinary incontinence

C. Stress urinary incontinence

The loss of urine after a sudden, intense urge to void due to the detrusor muscle of the bladder involuntarily contracting during bladder filling. It is the most common incontinence in the geriatric population and among residents in long-term care facilities. A. Urge urinary incontinence B. Overflow urinary incontinence C. Stress urinary incontinence D. Functional urinary incontinence

A. Urge urinary incontinence

Is the loss of urine when the intra-bladder pressure exceeds the urethra's capacity to remain closed due to urinary retention. it is caused by outflow obstruction secondary to a narrowed or obstructed urethra that results from a prolapsed pelvic organ, a stricture, an enlarged prostate, chronic constipation or neurological disease. A. Urge urinary incontinence B. Overflow urinary incontinence C. Stress urinary incontinence D. Functional urinary incontinence

B. Overflow urinary incontinence

Which pharmacological agent works by binding to histamine receptors to prevent the activated release of gastric acid into the stomach? A. H2 receptor antagonists B. Proton pump inhibitors C. Antacids D. Antiemetic agents

A. H2 receptor antagonists

Which of the following is a common complication of systemic lupus erythematosus? A. Glaucoma B. Kidney inflammation C. Lung cancer D. Dislocated shoulder

B. Kidney inflammation

Fibromyalgia is most likely to affect? A. 60 year old woman B. 30 year old woman C. 30 year old male D. 15 year old girl

B. 30 year old woman

Which of the following pharmacokinetic parameters would be most influenced by decreased acidity in the stomach and slower emptying times associated with aging? A. Excretion B. Distribution C. Absorption D. Metabolism

C. Absorption

The structure that connects the kidney to the urinary bladder is the? A. Ureter B. Collecting duct C. Renal tubule D. Urethra

A. Ureter

Which diagnosis would tend to result in low cortisol levels? A. Cushing's syndrome B. Addison's disease C. Hashimoto's disease D. Grave's disease

B. Addison's disease

Which of the following has signs and symptoms that can mimic an abdominal aortic aneurysm? A. Nephritis B. Uremia C. Renal colic D. Phimosis

C. Renal colic

According to the rule of nines, what percentage of the total body surface area would be allocated to the posterior surface of the bilateral legs and feet? A. 9% B. 18% C. 27% D. 36%

B. 18%

Which demographic has the greatest incidence of osteoporosis? A. Caucasian males B. African American males C. Caucasian females D. African American females

C. Caucasian females

Exophthalmos is most commonly observed in a patient with? A. Graves Disease B. Addison's Disease C. Paget's Disease D. Sarcoidosis

A. Graves Disease

What type of cancer is found in the bone marrow and is characterized by the production of abnormal white blood cells? A. Lymphoma B. Leukemia C. Multiple myeloma D. Hodgkin's Disease

B. Leukemia

A physical therapist assistant works with a patient rehabilitating from a lumbar laminectomy. During the session the patient the patient suddenly becomes lightheaded and faint. The patient hypothesizes that this is likely a diabetic reaction since the morning was so hurried and there was not time to have breakfast. What is the MOST appropriate assistant action? A. Provide the patient with a glass of juice or candy B. Place the patient in a supine position and monitor the patient's vital signs C. Attempt to administer an insulin shot D. Call a code

A. Provide the patient with a glass of juice or candy

A physical therapist assistant inspects the skin of a 42-year-old patient diagnosed with multiple sclerosis. The physical therapist assistant identifies a pressure ulcer approximately two centimeters in diameter near the patent's left ischial tuberosity. The ulcer looks like an abrasion and appears to involve the entire epidermis. Which ulcer stage is MOST consistent with the described clinical presentation? A. Stage I B. Stage II C. Stage III D. Stage IV

B. Stage II - A stage II pressure ulcer is described as partial-thickness skin loss involving the epidermis or dermis. The superficial ulcer often presents clinically as a blister, abrasion or shallow crater. The scenario described refers to a stage II pressure ulcer.

A physical therapist assistant prepares a whirlpool treatment for a scheduled patient. Which treatment area would place the patient at the GREATEST risk for hyperthermia? A. Wrist and hand B. Elbow C. Thigh D. Foot and ankle

C. Thigh - Whirlpool treatment to the thigh would require the patient to be immersed up to the waist, possibly including a portion of the torso, depending on the configuration of the whirlpool tank. This level of immersion would place the patient at the greatest risk for hyperthermia.

A physical therapist assistant treats a female that is 24 weeks pregnant with complaints of pain in the area of the pubic bone. The physical therapist assistant suspects the pain may be related to the pubic symphysis due to hypermobility associated with pregnancy. Which hormones are MOST likely responsible for the ligamentous laxity? A. Relaxin and estrogen B. Relaxin and progesterone C. Progesterone and estrogen D.Estrogen and prolactin

B. Relaxin and progesterone

A physical therapist assistant advises a patient that she can safely begin performing pelvic floor contractions immediately after an uncomplicated, full-term, vaginal delivery. Which method would be MOST effective to decrease edema and stiffness of the perineal? A. Muscle strengthening B. Increased circulation C. Muscle relaxation D. Increased sensation

B. Increased circulation - Pelvic floor contractions act as a pumping mechanism which increases circulation to the perineal tissues, helping to reduce edema and stiffness while promoting healing.

A physical therapist assistant treats a patient with a neuropathic ulcer affecting their right lower extremity. Which area of the body would be MOST susceptible to this type of ulcer? A. Metatarsal heads B. Proximal to the medial malleolus C. Dorsal surface of the foot D. Distal toes

A. Metatarsal heads - Neuropathic ulcers are commonly located on areas of the foot susceptible to pressure or shear forces during weight bearing activities. The metatarsal heads are a common site of ulceration, particularly in the presence of a callus.

A patient with a long-term history of severe alcoholism reports that while spending a full day walking around a city with friends, he had a persistent but vague sense of foot discomfort. When he removed his shoes hours later, he discovered a pebble in his shoe and a sizable crater-like wound at the base of his great toe. Which type of ulcer is MOST consistent with the presented scenario? A. Pressure ulcer B. Arterial insufficiency ulcer C. Venous stasis ulcer D. Neuropathic Ulcer

D. Neuropathic Ulcer - Neuropathic ulcers are typically associated with repetitive shear or pressure forces on the foot’s weight bearing surfaces or surfaces in contact with irregular external pressures during weight bearing (e.g., poor fitting footwear, wrinkle in sock, loose object in shoe).

A 23-year-old male sustains serious burns to over 30% of his body in a house fire. The burns range from superficial partial-thickness to full-thickness and encompass the majority of the patient's lower extremities. What is the MOST appropriate therapeutic position for the patient? A. Supine with the knees extended and the toes pointing toward the ceiling. B. Prone with a pillow placed on the dorsum of the feet and ankles. C. Sidelying with the hips and knees slightly flexed using pillows between the legs. D. Hooklying with a pillow placed between the knees.

A. Supine with the knees extended and the toes pointing toward the ceiling. Positioning the patient in supine with the knees extended and the toes pointing toward the ceiling maintains the hips, knees, and ankles in an optimal position and therefore reduces the likelihood of lower extremity contracture.

A physical therapist assistant treats a 21-year-old male that sustained a burn to his entire right upper extremity. What would be the anticipated deformity at the elbow? A. Flexion and supination B. Extension and supination C. Flexion and pronation D. Extension and pronation

C. Flexion and pronation - Elbow contractures are characterized by a position of flexion and pronation. Positioning and splinting should be aimed at increasing extension and supination range of motion.

A physical therapist assistant treats a patient diagnosed with "whiplash" following a motor vehicle accident approximately two months ago. Prior to initiating a trial of manual traction the physical therapist assistant attempts to determine if the patient is an appropriate candidate. Which of the following findings would be considered a contraindication for the specified intervention? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Cervical hypomobility C. Headaches D. Neck pain

A. Rheumatoid arthritis - In patients with rheumatoid arthritis, the disease leads to weakened connective tissue. It would be contraindicated to use stretching techniques on these patients since tissue could become damaged and cause instabilities. Gentle manual traction may be used for pain relief as long as inflammation is not present.

Which of the following medications is likely to cause constipation? A. Penicillin B. Oxycodone C. Nicotine replacement therapy D. Oral contraceptives

B. Oxycodone

What is the name of the male sex gland that surrounds the neck of the bladder and the urethra? A. Scrotum B. Glans penis C. Urethra D. Prostate

D. Prostate

Which symptom is not commonly associated with a hypoglycemic state? A. Headache B. A fruity breath order C. Moist skin D. Anxiety

B. A fruity breath order

Which term best describes tissue that readily tears or fragments when it is touched? A. Edematous B. Turgor C. Keloid D. Friable

D. Friable

Are located in the epidermal layer and function in the sensation of light touch? A. Merkel cells B. Pacinian corpuscles C. Nerve endings D. Sweat glands

A. Merkel cells

Are receptors that are primarily located in the dermal layer and help to detect heat, pain, and other noxious stimuli? A. Merkel cells B. Pacinian corpuscles C. Nerve endings D. Sweat glands

C. Nerve endings

Which of the following is an example of catabolism? A. Dehydration synthesis B. Carbohydrate storage C. Hydrolysis D. Biosynthesis

C. Hydrolysis

What is the most common side effect associated with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs? A. Gastrointestinal irritation B. Cardiac abnormalities C. Depression D. Edema

A. Gastrointestinal irritation -Ingestion of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) can cause gastrointestinal effects, ranging from stomach discomfort to upper gastrointestinal hemorrhage and ulceration. NSAIDs inhibit the formation of prostaglandins which protect the gastric mucosa.

Which group of individuals is most at risk for systemic lupus erythematosus? A. African-American men B. African-American women C. Caucasian men D. Caucasian women

B. African-American women

Intrathecal administration of baclofen requires the subcutaneous implantation of a pump into the: A. Upper arm B. Chest wall C. Thigh D. Abdominal wall

D. Abdominal wall -Intrathecal administration of baclofen requires the subcutaneous implantation of a pump into the abdominal wall, with the tip of the catheter placed in the subarachnoid space. The catheter is usually placed between T12 and L1.

Which term best describes a diffuse redness of the skin which often results from capillary dilation and congestion or inflammation? A. Contusion B. Hematoma C. Ecchymosis D. Erythema

D. Erythema

Which of the following changes occur to the pupils as a person ages? A. They become smaller and more responsive to changes in light. B. They become smaller and less responsive to changes in light. C. They become larger and more responsive to changes in light. D. They become larger and less responsive to changes in light.

B. They become smaller and less responsive to changes in light.

Which layer of the skin contains melanocytes? A. Epidermis B. Dermis C. Hypodermis D. Subcutaneous

A. Epidermis

Which term best describes the separation, rupture or splitting of a wound closed by primary intention? A. Desiccation B. Maceration C. Dehiscence D. Ecchymosis

C. Dehiscence

A type of exudate classification that presents with a clear, light color and a thin, watery consistency? A. Sanguineous B. Purulent C. Seropurulent D. Serous

D. Serous

A type of exudate classification that presents with a red color and a thin, watery consistency? A. Sanguineous B. Purulent C. Seropurulent D. Serous

A. Sanguineous

A type of exudate classification that presents with a yellow or green and a thick, viscous consistency? A. Sanguineous B. Purulent C. Seropurulent D. Serous

B. Purulent

Are wounds resulting secondary to inadequate circulation of oxygenated blood often due to complicating factors such as atherosclerosis? A. Neuropathatic ulcers B. Arterial Insufficiency ulcers C. Venous insufficiency ulcers D. Pressure ulcers

B. Arterial Insufficiency ulcers

Which of the following systemic changes in an older adult can lead to issues with the distribution of a medication? A. Decrease in adipose tissue B. Increase in total body water content C. Decrease in muscle mass D. Increase in serum albumin levels

C. Decrease in muscle mass - Certain drugs are lipophilic or hydrophilic, and as such the distribution of a medication will be influenced based on the older adult’s body composition. Considering older adults demonstrate a decrease in total body water, an increase in adipose tissue, and a decrease in muscle mass, certain drugs will be influenced greater by their distribution characteristics than others.

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors are most commonly used to treat which disorder? A. Osteoporosis B. Emphysema C. Depression D. Arrhythmias

C. Depression - The primary use of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) is in the treatment of major depression.

The most common sign of kidney disease is? A. Sodium retention B. Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels C. Development of metabolic acidosis D. Inability to dilute or concentrate urine

B. Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels

Which condition would not increase the risk of developing a pressure injury during a prolonged hospitalization? A. Diabetic neuropathy B. Body mass index of 21 C. Incontinence D. Malnutrition

B. Body mass index of 21

Which vitamin is the skin responsible for synthesizing? A. Vitamin B B. Vitamin C C. Vitamin D D. Vitamin K

C. Vitamin D - Keratinocytes in the epidermis are responsible for synthesizing vitamin D. This process is stimulated by ultraviolet-B radiation. Vitamin D is essential for the regulation of epidermal proliferation and differentiation.

Which condition would be most likely associated with symptoms including cough, sputum, dyspnea, adventitious breath sounds, chest pain, and hemoptysis? A. Lung cancer B. Leukemia C. Brain cancer D. Pneumonia

A. Lung cancer

An enterostomy is a surgical procedure that creates an artificial stoma into which organ? A. Trachea B. Esophagus C. Stomach D. Small intestine

D. Small intestine - A stoma is an artificial opening of the intestine through the abdominal wall. An enterostomy is the procedure that creates a stoma in the small intestines.

Which of the following terms refers to an interaction that produces a decrease in drug effect? A. Additive drug reaction B. Synergistic drug reaction C. Antagonistic drug reaction D. Toxic reaction

C. Antagonistic drug reaction

Which test is used to diagnose chronic fatigue syndrome? A. Blood tests B. MRI brain scan C. Psychological tests D. There is no diagnostic test available

D. There is no diagnostic test available

Which of the following conditions is commonly associated with helicobacter pylori? A. Gastroesophageal reflux disease D. Dysphagia C. Gastric ulcers D. Inflammatory bowel disease

C. Gastric ulcers - Helicobacter pylori is a gram-negative bacterium found in the stomach. The bacterium is associated with chronic gastritis and gastric ulcers, and the development of duodenal ulcers and stomach cancer.

Stimulation to the posterior pituitary gland results in the secretion of which two hormones? A. Antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin B. Thyroid-stimulating hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone C. Luteinizing hormone and growth hormone D. Prolactin and adrenocorticotropic hormone

A. Antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin

What is the most common adverse effect of anti-anxiety medications? A. Rash B. Hypertension C. Anger D. Drowsiness

D. Drowsiness - Anti-anxiety medications commonly cause mild drowsiness in the first few days of treatment, although the effects tend to diminish over time. Other common adverse effects of anti-anxiety medications include apathy, fatigue, constipation, and dry mouth.

When initiating an exercise program with a patient with lymphedema, which of the following forms of exercise would be the most appropriate? A. Lower and upper extremity stretching B. Cycling on a stationary bike C. Jogging on a treadmill D. Core strengthening

B. Cycling on a stationary bike

A wound that causes trauma to the skin with the epidermis remaining intact, such as with a non-blistering sunburn. This wound will typically heal as part of the inflammatory process. A. Partial-thickness wound B. Full-thickness wound C. Superficial wound D. Subcutaneous wound

C. Superficial wound

What would a wound be classified that extends through the epidermis and possibly into, but not through the dermis, such as abrasions, blisters, and skin tears? A. Partial-thickness wound B. Full-thickness wound C. Superficial wound D. Subcutaneous wound

A. Partial-thickness wound

What would a wound be classified that extends through the dermis into deeper structures such as subcutaneous fat and typically heals by secondary intention? A. Partial-thickness wound B. Full-thickness wound C. Superficial wound D. Subcutaneous wound

B. Full-thickness wound

What would a wound be classified that extends through integumentary tissues and involve deeper structures such as subcutaneous fat, muscle, tendon or bone? A. Partial-thickness wound B. Full-thickness wound C. Superficial wound D. Subcutaneous wound

D. Subcutaneous wound

“Moon face” and “buffalo hump” fat deposits are characteristic of what endocrine pathology? A. Addison's disease B. Cushing's Syndrome C. Graves' disease D. Acromegaly

B. Cushing's Syndrome

Which type of dressing would be the least moisture retentive? A. Alginates B. Semipermeable foams C. Hydrocolloids D. Semipermeable films

D. Semipermeable films

Fibromyalgia is most likely to affect what population? A. 60-year-old woman B. 30-year-old woman C. 30-year-old man D. 10-year-old girl

B. 30-year-old woman

Which of the following interventions should be avoided when treating a patient with an arterial insufficiency ulcer on their lower leg? A. Compression dressings B. Gait training with an assistive device C. Applying a hot pack to the femoral triangle D. Bilateral heel raises

A. Compression dressings - Compression dressings can further impede the circulation of a patient with an arterial insufficiency ulcer. There is no restriction to therapeutic exercises and gait training as long as pressure is not applied to the wound.

Gastroesophageal reflux disease is often treated with which pharmacologic agent? A. Antacids B. Antimicrobials C. Coating agents D. Antiemetics

A. Antacids

A wound located over a bony prominence is most accurately identified as a: A. Venous ulcer B. Arterial ulcer C. Pressure ulcer D. Neuropathic ulcer

C. Pressure ulcer

Which condition would stimulate the secretion of parathyroid hormone? A. Hypocalcemia B. Hypercalcemia C. Hypokalemia D. hyperkalemia

A. Hypocalcemia

Based on the pressure injury staging, what stage would be a wound that is viable, pink or red, moist, partial-thickness skin loss with exposed dermis, and may also present as an intact or ruptured serum-filled blister? A. Stage 1pressure injury B. Stage 2 pressure injury C. Stage 3 pressure injury D. Stage 4 pressure injury

B. Stage 2 pressure injury

Based on the pressure injury staging, what stage would be a localized area of non-blanchable erythema of intact skin? A. Stage 1pressure injury B. Stage 2 pressure injury C. Stage 3 pressure injury D. Stage 4 pressure injury

A. Stage 1pressure injury

A pressure injury that involves full-thickness loss of skin, in which adipose is visible in the ulcer and granulation tissue and epibole (rolled edges) are often present. Fascia, muscle, tendon, ligament, cartilage, and bone are not exposed. Based on the description, what is the stage of the pressure injury? A. Stage 1pressure injury B. Stage 2 pressure injury C. Stage 3 pressure injury D. Stage 4 pressure injury

C. Stage 3 pressure injury

A pressure injury that involves full-thickness skin and tissue loss with exposed or directly palpable fascia, muscle, tendon, ligament, cartilage or bone in the ulcer. Based on the description, what is the stage of the pressure injury? A. Stage 1pressure injury B. Stage 2 pressure injury C. Stage 3 pressure injury D. Stage 4 pressure injury

D. Stage 4 pressure injury

What term describes the process of tissue growth and repair? A. Anabolism B. Catabolism C. Metabolism D. Alcoholism

A. Anabolism

The most appropriate action to temporarily relieve night pain due to an arterial insufficiency ulcer is to? A. Elevate the legs on pillows B. Place the legs in a dependent position C. Take an aspirin D. Use a heating pad

B. Place the legs in a dependent position - Arterial insufficiency can cause ulcers as a result of decreased blood flow or ischemia. Wounds caused by arterial insufficiency usually present in the distal leg where collateral circulation is limited. Patients often have an immediate reduction in pain when the legs are in a dependent position since this temporarily improves circulation.

What percentage of the total body surface area would be affected with a burn that covers the anterior portions of the bilateral lower extremities and the anterior portion of the right arm? A. 13.5% B. 18.0% C. 22.5% D. 23.0%

C. 22.5% - According to the rule of nines, the total surface area of the anterior portions of the bilateral lower extremities is 18% and the total surface area of the anterior portion of the right arm is 4.5%. The total surface area affected by the burn is equivalent to 22.5%.

The drying out or dehydration of a wound and often results from poor dressing selection that does not control the evaporation of wound bed moisture? A. Dehiscence B. Friable C. Keloid D. Desiccated

D. Desiccated

The discoloration occurring below intact skin resulting from trauma to underlying blood vessels and blood seeping into tissues. It is commonly referred to as a bruise. A. Ecchymosis B. Hematoma C. Erythema D. Maceration

A. Ecchymosis

Tissue loss that starts at the wound base and extends as a narrow passageway away from the wound into the subcutaneous tissues. A. Turgor B. Undermining C. Tunneling D. Keloid

C. Tunneling

Bone densitometry testing would be most commonly utilized with a patient diagnosed with what condition? A. Osteomyelitis B. Osteoporosis C. Spinal fracture D. Spondylolisthesis

B. Osteoporosis

What would a burn be classified as that involves only the outer epidermis and the area may be red with slight edema? A. Superficial burn B. Superficial partial-thickness burn C. Deep partial-thickness burn D. Full-thickness burn

A. Superficial burn

What would a burn be classified as that involves the epidermis and the upper portion of the dermis. The involved area may be extremely painful and exhibit blisters. A. Superficial burn B. Superficial partial-thickness burn C. Deep partial-thickness burn D. Full-thickness burn

B. Superficial partial-thickness burn

Which of the following skin conditions is characterized by small, pus-filled pimples surrounded by erythema? A. Tinea pedis B. Ringworm C. Impetigo D. Scabies

C. Impetigo - Impetigo is a common skin infection, especially among individuals living in close contact or in crowded housing (p. 173). It is characterized by small pus-filled pimples surrounded by erythema.

Which of the following interventions would be BEST for a patient who has a new diagnosis of lymphedema? A. Unna boot B. Long-stretch bandages C. Short-stretch bandages D. Four-layer bandage system

C. Short-stretch bandages. Short-stretch bandages provide low resting pressure and high working pressure. The higher working pressure increases the efficiency of the muscle pump during activity, and the lower resting pressures make the bandages more tolerable to wear.

Which of the following conditions is related to the presence of multiple myeloma? A. Edema B. Jaundice C. Headaches D. Osteoporosis

D. Osteoporosis - Multiple myeloma is a malignancy that affects bones including the spine and can result in diffuse osteoporosis and back pain.

A patient reports increased emotional stress during treatment. Which of the following physiological responses are MOST likely present in the patient? A. Decreased metabolic rate and decreased heart rate. B. Decreased metabolic rate and increased heart rate. C. Increased metabolic rate and decreased heart rate. D. Increased metabolic rate and increased heart rate.

D. Increased metabolic rate and increased heart rate.

A physical therapist assistant employed in an acute care hospital works with a patient three days status post abdominal surgery. While working bedside with the patient on lower extremity exercises in supine, the patient complains of mild dizziness, fatigue, and nausea. What is the MOST immediate physical therapist assistant action? A. Take the patient's vital signs B. Assist the patient to a sitting position C. Contact the supervising physical therapist D. Call a code

A. Take the patient's vital signs Physical therapist assistants should recognize common signs and symptoms associated with potentially emergent conditions. This patient’s symptoms are not unexpected; by taking the patient’s vital signs, further objective data can be obtained to clarify if assistance is needed.

A physical therapist assistant treats a patient status post open reduction internal fixation secondary to a hip fracture. While preparing to transfer the patient, the physical therapist assistant notes that the calf on the surgical side is swollen and extremely warm to touch. The patient complains of pain in the calf with passive dorsiflexion and reports mild discomfort to light touch. Which medical condition is MOST consistent with the patient’s clinical presentation? A. Compartment syndrome B. Deep vein thrombosis C. Infection D. Peroneal nerve palsy

B. Deep vein thrombosis Deep vein thrombosis is a common post-operative complication associated with limited functional mobility and diminished gastrocnemius muscle pumping activity. The described symptoms are considered hallmark signs of a deep vein thrombosis and should be reported immediately to a physician for further assessment and intervention.

A physical therapist assistant works with a patient in an acute care hospital to treat a painful, slow healing wound on the medial lower leg. The patient’s leg is swollen and appears dark red/purple in color with thickened skin. Which of the following conditions MOST likely contributed to this type of wound? A. Diabetes B. Arterial insufficiency C. Venous insufficiency D. Prolonged pressure

C. Venous insufficiency Wounds as a result of venous insufficiency occur when the venous system is not functioning properly, leading to poor nutrition to the tissues. Tissue damage results, eventually leading to tissue death and ulceration. These painful wounds often present on the medial malleolus. Hyperpigmentation of the skin and edema are present on the affected leg. The wound bed is shallow, the edges are irregular, and substantial drainage occurs.

Which of the following correctly describes Stage 2 lymphedema? A. Known as the latent (or preclinical) stage and there is no visible edema. B. Known as the spontaneously irreversible lymphedema stage. The edema is now non-pitting and does not change with elevation or rest. The skin begins to demonstrate fibrotic changes. C. Known as the reversible lymphedema stage and pitting edema is present. D. Known as the lymphostatic elephantiasis stage. It is characterized by extensive non-pitting edema, significant fibrotic changes to the skin, and the presence of papillomas, deep skinfolds, and hyperkeratosis. Infection is common at this stage.

B. Known as the spontaneously irreversible lymphedema stage. The edema is now non-pitting and does not change with elevation or rest. The skin begins to demonstrate fibrotic changes.

Which of the following correctly describes Stage 1 lymphedema? A. Known as the latent (or preclinical) stage and there is no visible edema. B. Known as the spontaneously irreversible lymphedema stage. The edema is now non-pitting and does not change with elevation or rest. The skin begins to demonstrate fibrotic changes. C. Known as the reversible lymphedema stage and pitting edema is present. D. Known as the lymphostatic elephantiasis stage. It is characterized by extensive non-pitting edema, significant fibrotic changes to the skin, and the presence of papillomas, deep skinfolds, and hyperkeratosis. Infection is common at this stage.

C. Known as the reversible lymphedema stage and pitting edema is present.

Which of the following correctly describes Stage 0 lymphedema? A. Known as the reversible lymphedema stage and pitting edema is present. B. Known as the spontaneously irreversible lymphedema stage. The edema is now non-pitting and does not change with elevation or rest. The skin begins to demonstrate fibrotic changes. C. Known as the latent (or preclinical) stage and there is no visible edema. D. Known as the lymphostatic elephantiasis stage. It is characterized by extensive non-pitting edema, significant fibrotic changes to the skin, and the presence of papillomas, deep skinfolds, and hyperkeratosis. Infection is common at this stage.

C. Known as the latent (or preclinical) stage and there is no visible edema

Which of the following correctly describes Stage 3 lymphedema? A. Known as the reversible lymphedema stage and pitting edema is present. B. Known as the spontaneously irreversible lymphedema stage. The edema is now non-pitting and does not change with elevation or rest. The skin begins to demonstrate fibrotic changes. C. Known as the latent (or preclinical) stage and there is no visible edema. D. Known as the lymphostatic elephantiasis stage. It is characterized by extensive non-pitting edema, significant fibrotic changes to the skin, and the presence of papillomas, deep skinfolds, and hyperkeratosis. Infection is common at this stage.

D. Known as the lymphostatic elephantiasis stage. It is characterized by extensive non-pitting edema, significant fibrotic changes to the skin, and the presence of papillomas, deep skinfolds, and hyperkeratosis. Infection is common at this stage.

Which of the following best describes Diastasis Recti? A. A separation of the external oblique muscles due to excessive abdominal pressure. B. A herniation of abdominal contents through the linea alba requiring surgical intervention. C. A separation of the rectus abdominis muscles along the linea alba that can occur during pregnancy. D. A weakening of the transversus abdominis leading to spinal instability and back pain.

C. A separation of the rectus abdominis muscles along the linea alba that can occur during pregnancy.

Is a form of adrenal dysfunction that presents with hypofunction of the adrenal cortex. There is decreased production of both cortisol (glucocorticoid) and aldosterone (mineralocorticoid). A. Cushing's Syndrome B. Addison's Disease C. Graves' Disease D. Hashimoto's Thyroiditis

B. Addison's Disease

A patient with Graves' disease is being treated in outpatient physical therapy. Which of the following signs or symptoms would be most expected during your session? A. Bradycardia, weight gain, and cold intolerance B. Nervousness, heat intolerance, tremor, and tachycardia C. Joint pain, dry skin, and low blood pressure D. Edema, fatigue, and constipation

B. Nervousness, heat intolerance, tremor, and tachycardia

This pathology is the most specific cause of hyperthyroidism and is most common in women over age the age of 20. The classic sign of this pathology is a mild enlargement of the thyroid gland? A. Cushing's Syndrome B. Addison's Disease C. Hashimoto's Thyroiditis D. Graves' Disease

D. Graves' Disease

A physical therapist assistant notes that a patient has scored 60% on a 5.07 monofilament test of bilateral feet and ankles. Which of the following interventions would be MOST beneficial for the patient? A. Ankle-foot orthosis B. Desensitization techniques C. Balance training D. Education regarding skin integrity

D. Education regarding skin integrity. An individual's protective sensation is intact when the 5.07 monofilament can be felt. With loss of protective sensation, the individual cannot sense trauma to the foot, often leading to foot ulceration.

Which of the following positions is BEST for a patient who has burns to the anterior aspect of the neck while lying in bed? A. Prone position with the head supported in neutral. B. Sidelying position with the head supported in neutral. C. Supine position with the neck supported in slight flexion. D. Supine position with the neck supported in extension.

D. Supine position with the neck supported in extension. Supine position with the neck in extension places the neck in the elongated state and will prevent flexion contractures. Prevention of flexion contracture is one of the main goals of a successful positioning program for a patient with burns to the anterior aspect of the neck. Supine position with the neck in slight flexion, although more comfortable, places the neck in a position that may contribute to development of flexion contractures.

Which of the following techniques is MOST appropriate for measuring wound depth? A. Tracing B. Use of tape measurement guides C. Use of the soft end of a cotton-tipped applicator D. Grid documentation

C. Use of the soft end of a cotton-tipped applicator. Measuring of wound depth can best be accomplished by putting a cotton-tipped applicator into the base of the wound and measuring the depth of the wound from the lowest point of insertion to the wound surface.

When completing the plan of care, it is MOST important to monitor for which of the following conditions if a patient has Lymphedema in left lower quadrant and lower extremity? A. Cellulitis B. Hemosiderin staining C. Dermal fibrosis D. Lipodermatosclerosis

A. Cellulitis Cellulitis is a common health condition in patients who have lymphedema and early recognition and treatment of cellulitis helps to reduce further tissue damage.

In a person with normal pelvic floor muscle function, urination typically occurs at which of the following frequencies within a 24-hour period? A. 3 times B. 5 times C. 7 times D. 9 times

C. 7 times It is normal to urinate 6-8 times per day in 2-5 hour intervals.

Which of the following modes of aerobic exercise would be BEST for a patient who has coronary artery disease and lumbar stenosis? A. Aquatic therapy B. Walking on a treadmill C. Use of an elliptical machine D. Use of a recumbent bicycle

D. Use of a recumbent bicycle. Patients with lumbar stenosis have less pain in the flexed position a recumbent bike would provide.

A 46-year-old patient is receiving chemotherapy for the treatment of cancer. The patient should limit participation in strenuous aerobic exercise if which of the following laboratory test values is obtained? A. White blood cell count = 8000 cells/mL B. Hemoglobin = 8 g/dL C. Fasting plasma glucose = 100 mg/dL D. High-density lipoprotein = 60 mg/dL

B. Hemoglobin = 8 g/dL Effects of chemotherapy often include fatigue and cardiotoxicity. It is important to monitor hematology values. For a patient who has a hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL, guidelines are to participate in only light exercise. With a value less than 8 g/dL, the patient should not exercise.

A patient has redness on the dorsal aspect of the feet, as well as palpable purpura, cyanosis of the lower extremities, and bilateral Raynaud phenomenon. The patient denies itching in the affected area. Which of the following conditions does the patient MOST likely have? A. Granulomatosis B. Cryoglobulinemia C. Vasculitis D. Cutaneous sarcoidosis

B. Cryoglobulinemia

Which of the following effects should be expected from the use of short stretch compression bandaging? A. Elasticity provides a less rigid supporting structure. B. High working pressure increases the efficiency of muscle pump during activity. C. High resting pressure makes the bandages more tolerable to wear. D. Low working pressure increases the efficiency of muscle contraction at rest.

B. High working pressure increases the efficiency of muscle pump during activity.

Other Systems Flashcards

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