NP II Flashcards by Kent Jan

Which of the following is a positive sign of pregnancy?

A. Positive pregnancy test
B. Amenorrhea
C. Fetal movement felt by the examiner
D. Quickening

C. Fetal movement felt by the examiner

RATIONALE
A Probable
B Presumptive
D Presumptive

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One of the earliest presumptive signs of pregnancy is:

A. Hegar’s sign
B. Missed menstruation period
C. Linea nigra
D. Braxton Hick’s contractions

B. Missed menstruation period

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A patient who is a mother of 5-year-old son and is now pregnant again should be classified as:

A. Gravida 1, para 1
B. Gravida 2, para 2
C. Gravida 2, para 1
D. Gravida 2, para 0

C. Gravida 2, para 1

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What is the major function of the placenta?

A. It passes medications from mother to fetus
B. It allows the fetus to develop more rapidly
C. Nutrients are passed from mother to fetus
D. It functions as kidney and the stomach of the fetus

C. Nutrients are passed from mother to fetus

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A young couple wants to know when the gender of the fetus is determined. The correct answer is

A. At birth
B. At conception
C. During an amniocentesis
D. From results of blood work after first prenatal visit

B. At conception

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A student nurse asks, “How is the baby’s gender determined?” The nursing instructor responds:

A. X chromosome from the ovum
B. A random number of chromosome
C. Y or X chromosome from the sperm
D. Genes that are carried by DNA and protein

C. Y or X chromosome from the sperm

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A patient whose LMP began May 18 should have an EDC of

A. February 9
B. February 11
C. February 15
D. February 25

D. February 25

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During a nutritional assessment, a nurse is concerned when the patient makes which of the following statements?

A. “I love vegetables, especially broccoli.”
B. “Some days I am so busy, so I eat fast food.”
C. “I take a lot of milk, but I guess I need it for the baby.”
D. “I take a lot of vitamins.”

D. “I take a lot of vitamins.”

RATIONALE
Vitamins are teratogenic to fetus especially during 1st trimester.

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The BMR of a prenatal patient generally increases. An explanation of this would be:

A. Hormone production is increased
B. The thyroid gland increases in size
C. Cardiac output and rate increases
D. The baby causes the need for excess energy

B. The thyroid gland increases in size

RATIONALE
BMR is determined by the thyroid gland.

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Prenatal care is considered the primary means of circumnavigating complications of pregnancy. What complication would you consider as most affected by good prenatal care?

A. Placenta previa
B. Hyperemesis gravidarum
C. PIH
D. Abortion

C. PIH

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A patient in prenatal class asks about whether Kegel exercises are beneficial in pregnancy. The most appropriate response by the nurse would be?

A. “Absolutely not! They are dangerous to your heart.”
B. “They help some people but the benefit is minimal.”
C. “Yes, they can help tighten the pelvic floor muscles.”
D. “Yes, these exercises will help with leg cramps.”

C. “Yes, they can help tighten the pelvic floor muscles.”

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A primigravida in the sixth month of pregnancy is complaining of indigestion. The nurse explains that this is caused by:

A. A growing uterus pushing on the diaphragm
B. Eating small, frequent meals that increase gastric acid secretions
C. An increasing BMR, leading to increases appetite
D. Increased nausea and vomiting, common in this trimester

A. A growing uterus pushing on the diaphragm

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A prenatal patient is experiencing leg cramps. A nursing intervention should include:

A. Advising hot compress daily
B. Instructing her to elevate her legs at least 15 minutes three times daily
C. Encouraging her to decrease intake of carbonated beverages
D. Advising her to chew Tums for calcium

C. Encouraging her to decrease intake of carbonated beverages

RATIONALE
A and B are not management for leg cramps.
D is a medical management

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A mother in her first trimester confides to the nurse that she is worried she will not be a good mother. She is disappointed that she will not be able to go back to school as she had planned, the nurse should:

A. Reassure the mother that her feelings of ambivalence are normal in the first trimester
B. Tell her that she has to let everyone in the family to help her
C. Instruct her that she made the baby and she has to take responsibility for it
D. Assure her that as the pregnancy progresses her feelings will become more positive

A. Reassure the mother that her feelings of ambivalence are normal in the first trimester

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A woman of reproductive age was immunized with rubella vaccine. Which of the following is an appropriate instruction of the nurse?

A. “Do not get pregnant within 3 months.”
B. “Do not engage in coitus for 3 days.”
C. “Avoid strenuous activities for one week.”
D. AOTA

A. “Do not get pregnant within 3 months.”

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The communicable childhood disease most likely to affect pregnancy with harmful effects to the fetus is

A. Chickenpox
B. Rubella
C. Varicella
D. Rubeola

B. Rubella

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A couple asks why is it important to the fetus for both of them to stop smoking. The nurse responds:

A. “Smoking and second hand smoke cause decreased oxygenation to the fetus.”
B. “Pregnant women who smoke or who are found around the smoke tend to have larger babies.”
C. “Pregnant women who smoke tend to have babies who are diabetic.”
D. “Pregnant women who smoke tend to have babies with cardiac anomalies.”

A. “Smoking and second hand smoke cause decreased oxygenation to the fetus.”

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A prenatal patient asks when she should stop working. The most appropriate response for the nurse is:

A. “Around the start of the eight months.”
B. “Everyone is different; it is up to you.”
C. “What do you do for a living?”
D. “Two weeks before your EDC.”

C. “What do you do for a living?”

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The patient is 4 weeks pregnant. She is gravida 2, para 1. Her 3 year old child was born with spina bifida. In addition to regular vitamin supplements, the health care provider prescribes an additional supplement. The nurse should know that this supplement would most likely be

A. Vitamin K
B. Thiamine
C. Vitamin E
D. Folic acid

D. Folic acid

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One of the important test during pregnancy is alpha-fetoprotein test, which

A. Determines fetal maturity
B. Detects neural tube defects
C. Detects Tay-Sachs disease
D. Detects respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)

B. Detects neural tube defects

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Which of the following statements is correct relative to differences between a stress test and nonstress test (NST)?

A. An NST is done by abdominal palpation by the physician
B. An NST is done early in the pregnancy to determine gender of the infant
C. A stress test is usually done late in pregnancy to measure fetal response to uterine contractions
D. A stress test is done after the mother has been given orange juice to drink

C. A stress test is usually done late in pregnancy to measure fetal response to uterine contractions

RATIONALE
Tip: Process of elimination.
A NST is done after mother has ingested food
B NST is not a gender identification test
D A stress test is done by stimulating the nipple

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Decreases in FHR during labor are called?

A. Accelerations
B. Decelerations
C. Baseline rate
D. Variability

B. Decelerations

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What is the period of rapid growth?

A. First trimester
B. Second trimester
C. Third trimester
D. Before pregnancy

C. Third trimester

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Cathy, 22 years old, has missed two of her regular menstrual periods. Her doctor confirms an early intrauterine pregnancy. This is her first pregnancy. To determine her expected due date, which of the following assessments is most important?

A. Date of first menstrual period
B. Date of last intercourse
C. Date of last normal menstrual period
D. Age at menarche

C. Date of last normal menstrual period

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25. The nurse learns that the woman's LMP was March 17. How many weeks is her AOG on her initial visit which is on June 10? A. 11-12 B. 12-13 C. 13-14 D. 10-11

B. 12-13 ``` RATIONALE Computation: March 31-17 = 14 April = 30 May = 31 June = 10 ``` 85 days x 1 week/7 days = 12.14 = 12-13

26. On which of the following areas would the nurse expect to observe chloasma? A. Breast, areola, and nipples B. Chest, neck, arms and legs C. Abdomen, breast, and thighs D. Cheeks, forehead, and nose

D. Cheeks, forehead, and nose

27. The nurse observes that Vikki's abdomen has irregular scar lines as a result of stretching of the skin due to pregnancy. This refers to: A. Linea nigra B. Chloasma C. Striae gravidarum D. Melasma

C. Striae gravidarum

28. Which of the following is not a positive sign of pregnancy? A. Fetal heart tones on auscultation B. Fetal movement felt by the examiner C. Fetal outline on ultrasound D. Positive pregnancy test

D. Positive pregnancy test RATIONALE A probable sign.

29. Which of the following urinary symptoms does the pregnant woman most frequently experience during the first trimester? A. Dysuria B. Frequency C. Incontinence D. Burning

B. Frequency

30. Which of the following drug is given to Carmina to relieve nausea and vomiting? A. Dry crackers B. Coffee C. Metoclopramide D. Furosemide

C. Metoclopramide RATIONALE A and B are not drugs D is a diuretic

31. Increase absorption of phosphorus is thought to be responsible for which of the following discomforts of pregnancy? A. Constipation B. Heartburn C. Back ache D. Leg cramps

D. Leg cramps RATIONALE ⬆️P=⬇️Ca=Leg cramps

32. A married 25 year old housewife is 6 weeks pregnant and is being seen for her first prenatal visit. In relation to normal maternal acceptance of pregnancy, the nurse would expect that the client feels: A. Some ambivalence now that the pregnancy is confirmed B. Overwhelmed by the thought of future changes C. Much happiness and enjoyment in the event D. Detached from the event until physical changes occur

A. Some ambivalence now that the pregnancy is confirmed RATIONALE B Happens in 2nd trimester C Happens in 3rd trimester D Happens in 2nd trimester

33. A client approximately 11 weeks pregnant and her husband are seen in the antepartal clinic. The client's husband tells the nurse that he has been experiencing nausea and vomiting and fatigue along with his wife. The nurse interprets these findings as suggesting that the client's husband is experiencing which of the following? A. Ptyalism B. Mittelschmerz C. Couvades syndrome D. Pica

C. Couvades syndrome

34. What is the most important information for the nurse to discuss with the pregnant woman during her first prenatal visit? A. Components of a balanced diet with increased intake of meat and poultry as well as whole grain products B. The importance of attending the childbirth programs and understanding the growth of the fetus and normal changes during the pregnancy C. It is important for the client to understand measures to decrease risk associated with pregnancy D. It is very important for her to report problems with swelling of hands and face, as well as increased vaginal discharge

B. The importance of attending the childbirth programs and understanding the growth of the fetus and normal changes during the pregnancy RATIONALE Tip: Umbrella effect

35. How often her pre natal visit will be at 7 months age of gestation? A. Every week B. Every 2 weeks C. Once a month D. It is not necessary

C. Once a month RATIONALE 1st-7th month: Once a month 8th month: Every 2 weeks 9th month: Every week

36. At 22 weeks AOG the nurse will palpate the fundus A. At the xiphoid process B. At the umbilicus C. At the symphysis pubis D. Not palpable

B. At the umbilicus ``` RATIONALE (Multiply by 4 to get weeks) 8 mos: xiphoid process 9 mos: just below xiphoid process (due to lightening) 7 mos: below xiphoid process 6 mos: above umbilicus 5 mos: umbilicus 4 mos: between umbilicus and symphysis pubis 3 mos: symphysis pubis ```

37. What is the normal weight gain during pregnancy? A. 10-15 lbs B. 15-25 lbs C. 25-35 lbs D. 35-45 lbs

C. 25-35 lbs ``` RATIONALE 1st trimester: 4 lbs 2nd trimester: 12 lbs 3rd trimester: 12 lbs TOTAL: 28 Range: 25-35 ```

38. The nurse discusses the importance of Vitamin C during her pregnancy. Her health teaching is effective when the client states that Vitamin C A. Prevents the fetus from neural tube malformation B. Helps metabolize fats C. Is required to promote blood clot and collagen formation D. Helps in fetal bone formation

C. Is required to promote blood clot and collagen formation RATIONALE A Folic acid B Liver enzymes D Calcium

39. Women who drink alcohol during pregnancy A. Often produce more alcohol dehydrogenase B. Usually become intoxicated faster than before C. Can give birth to an infant with fetal alcohol syndrome disorder D. Gain fewer pounds throughout the gestation

C. Can give birth to an infant with fetal alcohol syndrome disorder

40. TORCH is group of infections especially devastating to the fetus causing abortions, malformations and evem fetal death. This term includes A. Varicella, herpes, tetanus B. Rubella, herpes, hepatitis C C. Toxoplasmosis, hepatitis C, herpes, rubella D. Cytomegalovirus, herpes, rubella, toxoplasmosis

D. Cytomegalovirus, herpes, rubella, toxoplasmosis ``` RATIONALE TORCH stands for: • Toxosplasmosis • Other diseases: Hepatitis A and B; syphilis; HIV • Rubella (German Measles) • Cytomeglovirus • Herpes simplex ```

1. Which of the following is an incorrect statement comparing the differences between true and false labor? A. True labor discomfort is usually felt in the lower back and lower abdomen B. In false labor, walking tends to relieve or decrease contractions C. In false labor, bloody show is often present D. In true labor, contractions gradually develop a regular pattern

C. In false labor, bloody show is often present RATIONALE In false labor, bloody show is a sign of true labor.

2. A nurse is teaching a student how to palpate contractions. The correct position of the examiner's hand is A. On the symphysis pubis B. In the vagina C. On the fundus of the uterus D. On the woman's umbilicus

C. On the fundus of the uterus

3. The duration of contraction is defined as A. The time from the beginning of one contraction to the beginning of another B. The length of the contraction measured from the beginning to its completion C. The amount of indentation of the uterus D. The time labor started

B. The length of the contraction measured from the beginning to its completion RATIONALE A Frequency C and D Irrelevant

4. The primary power involved in labor and delivery is A. Bearing down ability of mother B. Valsalva technique C. Cervical effacement and dilatation D. Uterine contraction

D. Uterine contraction RATIONALE A and B are secondary power C Irrelevant

5. Which of the following techniques during labor and delivery can lead to uterine inversion? A. Fundal pressure applied to assist the mother in bearing down during delivery of the fetal head B. Applying light traction when delivering the placenta that has already detached from the uterine wall C. Strongly tugging on the umbilical cord to deliver the placenta and hasten placental separation D. Massaging the fundus to encourage the uterus to contract

C. Strongly tugging on the umbilical cord to deliver the placenta and hasten placental separation RATIONALE A, B and D may lead also to uterine inversion but at least chances.

6. A patient in labor is examined and is told that she is 100% effaced, 5cm dilated and at +1 station. Her husband asks what does this mean. The nurse explains: A. She is in active labor, but the head is not yet engaged B. She is in active labor, and the head is engaged C. She is in transitional labor and about to deliver D. She is in the latent phase, the head is fully engaged

B. She is in active labor, and the head is engaged RATIONALE Latent phase: 0-3 cm cervical dilatation Active phase: 4-7 cm cervical dilatation Transitional phase: 8-10 cervical dilatation +1 station means the presenting part of the fetus is 1 cm below the ischial spine; thus engaged.

7. A laboring patient is walking in the hallway. She is 80% effaced and at 0 station. She suddenly experiences a gush of fluid. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first: A. Have the patient return to her bed to assess the fetal heart B. Call the doctor C. Perform a vaginal exam to determine the dilatation D. Place the patient in Trendelenburg to prevent cord prolapse

A. Have the patient return to her bed to assess the fetal heart

8. Nurses should observe the amniotic fluid released by the rupture of the membranes for signs of meconium staining. Meconium staining is associated with which of the following situations would give the LEAST cause of alarm? A. Vertex presentation B. Transverse presentation C. Breech presentation D. Posterior presentation

C. Breech presentation RATIONALE Meconium staining happens on the area around the pelvic inlet where the presenting part is located. In Breech presentation, there is no alarm since the head is around the fundal area.

9. Lochia is a post partum vaginal discharge that contains 1. RBC 2. Mucus 3. WBC 4. Decidual remnants A. 134 B. 123 C. 14 D. All of these

D. All of these

SITUATION: Mrs. O, G2P1, is admitted to the labor and delivery area in labor. Initial assessment reveals cervical dilatation of 5cm; cervical effacement 80%; station negative 3; frequency of contractions every 5-8 minutes; duration of contractions 40 to 50 seconds; membranes ruptured spontaneously 1 hour before admission; presentation is vertex with LOA position. 10. Based on Mrs. O's initial assessment findings, the fetal presenting part is: A. At the level of the pelvic inlet B. At the level of the ischial spines C. 1 cm below the ischial spines D. At the perineum

A. At the level of the pelvic inlet RATIONALE B 0 C +1 D Irrelevant

SITUATION: Mrs. O, G2P1, is admitted to the labor and delivery area in labor. Initial assessment reveals cervical dilatation of 5cm; cervical effacement 80%; station negative 3; frequency of contractions every 5-8 minutes; duration of contractions 40 to 50 seconds; membranes ruptured spontaneously 1 hour before admission; presentation is vertex with LOA position. 11. The FHR should be most audible in which quadrant of Mrs. O's abdomen? A. LLQ B. LUQ C. RLQ D. RUQ

A. LLQ

12. During the labor, effacement of the cervix occurs. This is: A. Widening of the cervical os B. Turning "inside out" of the vertical os C. Molding and elongation of the cervix D. Thinning and shortening of the cervix

D. Thinning and shortening of the cervix

13. An IV drip pitocin 10 units in 1000 ml of D5 water is started for Andrea. Possible side effects of oxytocin administration include all of the following except: A. Water intoxication B. HPN C. Tonic uterine contractions D. Diuresis

D. Diuresis RATIONALE Posterior Pituitary Gland secretes both oxytocin and ADH. Thus, side effects of both hormones are expected.

14. If fetus is in LOA position during labor, you would interpret this mean the fetus is A. In a longitudinal lie facing the right posterior B. Facing the right anterior abdominal quadrant C. In a common breech delivery position D. Presenting with the face as the presenting part

A. In a longitudinal lie facing the right posterior RATIONALE B LOP C RSA/LSA/RSP/LSP D RMA/LMA/RMP/LMP

15. An assessment of a primigravida documents the following information; the patient is 2cm dilated with mild contractions every 15 minutes, lasting 40 seconds, she is alert and talkative. Which phase of labor is she in? A. Active B. Transition C. Latent D. Fourth

C. Latent

16. The HCP is evaluating whether the second stage of labor has begun. The nurse knows that this would be when A. The woman feels the urge to push B. The fetus is at station 1 C. The cervix is fully dilated at 10 cm D. The placenta is delivered

C. The cervix is fully dilated at 10 cm

17. The primary reason for having a Foley catheter inserted before a cesarean birth is A. To make certain that the urinary output is adequate during surgery B. To prevent infection C. To keep the bladder empty so that it does not interfere with surgery D. To eliminate the need for early ambulation after surgery

C. To keep the bladder empty so that it does not interfere with surgery

18. A woman who has just given birth is complaining of shaking and chills. The most appropriate nursing intervention is A. Provide a warm blanket B. Contact the physician C. Monitor vital signs D. Offer her a warm milk

A. Provide a warm blanket

19. Which of the following statements by a teenage mom would most indicate the nurse that the patient is accepting her new role? A. "My mom is taking care of the baby so that I can go to school." B. "The baby is going to cause many changes in my schedule." C. "She is so cute; I just love her so much." D. "My friends have all promised to help."

B. "The baby is going to cause many changes in my schedule."

20. When is the first stage of labor considered to be achieved? A. Presenting part is at station +1 B. Cervix is 10cm dilated C. Uterine contractions occur every 2-3 minutes interval D. Cervix is fully effaced

B. Cervix is 10cm dilated

21. The client is in active phase of labor. The physician has administered epidural anesthesia. Which of the following nursing actions should be given highest priority by the nurse? A. Ensuring patent IV access line B. Checking for rupture of membrane C. Monitoring duration of each contraction D. Providing food and fluids

A. Ensuring patent IV access line

22. Who among these pregnant clients is at risk for bleeding? A. The client who has history of preterm delivery B. The client who has twins in her present pregnancy C. The client who is 18 years of age and is pregnant for the first time D. The client who is pregnant for the third time

B. The client who has twins in her present pregnancy

23. The woman is in active labor. The presentation of the fetus is left occiput posterior (LOP). Which of the following measures should be included when caring for the client? A. Provide foods and fluids B. Assist the client to ambulate C. Provide back massage D. Allow the client to sleep

C. Provide back massage RATIONALE The back of the fetus in LOP/ROP position gives pressure to the back of the mother.

24. The postpartum client is bleeding heavily 2 hours after delivery. The fundus of the uterus is firm; uterus at the center of the abdomen. Which of the following actions should the nurse do next? A. Change the perineal pads B. Notify the physician C. Massage the uterus D. Check the perineum

D. Check the perineum RATIONALE There may be possible perineal laceration.

25. A pregnant woman on 36 weeks gestation experiences sudden gush of fluids from the vagina. Which of the following should be the initial action by the nurse? A. Notify the physician B. Check the fluid pH C. Prepare the client for delivery D. Place the client in knee-to-chest position

B. Check the fluid pH

26. A woman is in active labor. In what position does the nurse properly place the client? A. Semi-fowler's position B. Side-lying position C. Trendelenburg position D. Supine position

B. Side-lying position

27. A patient who is on her 39 weeks gestation comes to the hospital accompanied by her husband. She tells the nurse she thinks she is in labor. Which of the following questions should the nurse ask to help confirm if the patient is in true labor? A. Do your contractions feel like severe menstrual cramps? B. Do you feel pressure in your legs? C. Do you feel as if you can bathe easier? D. Does your pain increase in intensity when you are moving around?

D. Does your pain increase in intensity when you are moving around? RATIONALE In true labor, pain increases even during ambulation.

28. A nurse is reviewing the record of a client in the labor room and notes that the nurse-midwife has documented that the fetus is at negative 1 (-1) station. The nurse determines that the fetal presenting part is: A. 1 inch below the coccyx B. 1 inch below the iliac crest C. 1 cm above the ischial spine D. 1 finger breadth below the symphysis pubis

C. 1 cm above the ischial spine

29. Nurse is monitoring a client in labor. The nurse suspects umbilical cord compression. If which of the following is noted on the external monitor tracing during a contraction? A. Late decelerations B. Early decelerations C. Short-term variability D. Variable decelerations

D. Variable decelerations RATIONALE A Caused by uteroplacental insufficiency B Caused by head compression C Irrelevant

30. A nurse is assigned to care for a client with hypotonic uterine dysfunction and signs of slowing labor. The nurse is reviewing the physician's orders and would expect to note which of the following prescribed treatments for this condition? A. Increased hydration B. Oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion C. Medication that will provide sedation D. Administration of a tocolytic medication

B. Oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion RATIONALE Oxytocin promotes uterine contraction.

31. A prenatal patient who has had diabetes for 2 years is admitted to a maternity unit for hyperglycemia. She is 9 weeks pregnant and she admits to the nurse that she does not always take her diabetes medications. Which of the following would most likely be ordered for the patient? A. Oral hypoglycemic B. Regular insulin to cover elevated blood sugars C. Oral antibiotics to protect against infection D. NPH and regular insulin

D. NPH and regular insulin

32. A 28 years old has had diabetes mellitus since she was an adolescent. She is 8 weeks pregnant. Hyperglycemia during her first trimester will have what effect on the fetus? A. Hyperinsulinemia B. Excessive fetal size C. Malformed organs D. Abnormal positioning

C. Malformed organs RATIONALE During first trimester, there is organogenesis and the fetus is risk for maldevelopment when the mother is taking drugs.

33. A woman who is pregnant for the first time calls the clinic to say she is bleeding. To obtain important information, the nurse should next ask A. "When did you last feel the baby move?" B. "How long have you been pregnant?" C. "When was your pregnancy test done?" D. "Are you having any uterine cramping?"

B. "How long have you been pregnant?"

34. Bleeding during the first trimester can be caused by the following except: A. Abortion B. Ectopic pregnancy C. Premature labor D. NOTA

C. Premature labor RATIONALE Happens during third trimester, along with placenta previa and abruptio placenta.

35. In the Philippines, if a nurse performs abortion on the mother who wants it done and she gets paid for doing it, she will be held liable because A. Abortion is illegal because majority in our country are Catholics and it is prohibited by the church B. Abortion is both immoral and illegal in our country C. Abortion is immoral and prohibited by the church D. Abortion is considered illegal because you got paid for doing it

B. Abortion is both immoral and illegal in our country

36. In contrast to threatened abortion, inevitable abortion is characterized by: A. Closed cervix BOW (+) B. Closed cervix BOW (-) C. Less amount of vaginal bleeding D. Open cervix BOW (-)

D. Open cervix BOW (-)

37. The nurse assesses a client for signs and symptoms of ectopic pregnancy. What is the most common finding associated with this antepartum complication? A. Temperature elevation B. Vaginal bleeding C. Nausea and vomiting D. Abdominal pain

D. Abdominal pain

38. A woman is diagnosed with a possible ectopic pregnancy. Which of the following would not be possible cause? A. Inflammation of the fallopian tubes B. A congenital malformation of the fallopian tubes C. A history of infection in the fallopian tubes D. A chronic vaginal infection

D. A chronic vaginal infection

39. A patient is diagnosed with abruptio placenta. The physician orders fibrinogen levels every 15 minutes. The patient's husband is frightened and asks the nurse why the physician has to withdraw so much blood. The nurse best response should be: A. "You may ask the physician yourself." B. "Would you like me to inquire for you?" C. "This test determines the status of the clotting factor." D. "The physician is determining whether to give her a transfusion or whether to operate."

C. "This test determines the status of the clotting factor."

40. A patient who is in her third trimester of pregnancy suddenly notices that she is bleeding. At first, the bleeding was scanty, but it has become heavier. She reported that she has no pain. A nurse should suspect A. Abruptio placenta B. Placenta previa C. Ruptured uterus D. Ectopic pregnancy

B. Placenta previa RATIONALE A Abruptio placenta is painful C Irrelevant D Happens only on 1st trimester

41. A type of placenta previa where the placenta is implanted in the lower uterine segment is: A. Partial B. Marginal C. Total D. Low-lying

D. Low-lying

42. The etiology of placenta previa includes all of the following except A. Advancing age B. Multiparity C. Heredity D. Previous CS

C. Heredity

43. The MOST important sign of placenta previa is painless hemorrhage which: A. Does not appear until the near end of the second trimester B. Does not appear until labor begins C. Appears anytime during pregnancy D. Appears on the beginning of the second trimester

A. Does not appear until the near end of the second trimester RATIONALE Or happens on third trimester.

44. A woman is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of PIH. The nurse knows that the client is knowledgeable about the occurrence of PIH when she remarks A. "It usually appears anytime during pregnancy." B. "It is similar to cardiovascular disease." C. "PIH occurs during the first trimester." D. "PIH occurs after the 20th week of AOG."

D. "PIH occurs after the 20th week of AOG."

45. A client, gravida 2 para 1, is admitted with HPN and complains that her wedding band is tight. The nurse should expect to assess which of the following with early pre-eclampsia? A. Blurred vision and proteinuria B. Epigastric pain and headache C. Facial swelling and proteinuria D. Polyuria and hypertonic reflexes

C. Facial swelling and proteinuria

46. You prepared the set-up needed for her next attack (O2 tank, suction and emergency kit). As soon as she saw them, she asked, "What are the machines doing here, am I dying?" What will you tell her? A. "No, you are not dying. These machines are being prepared for future use; right now, we don't need it." B. "Why don't you ask Dr. A why he ordered for these machines?" C. "Don't worry about the machines; they have just to be there." D. "That one is oxygen to give you air, the other is a suction to remove your secretions."

A. "No, you are not dying. These machines are being prepared for future use; right now, we don't need it."

47. The symptom that is often considered a warning sign of an impending convulsion in the mother with eclampsia is A. Headache B. Severe epigastric pain C. Scotoma D. Puffy face

B. Severe epigastric pain

48. A primigravida who is at 30 weeks gestation is admitted to the maternity unit after having been involved in an automobile accident. She is complaining of dull pain in her lower abdomen. Which of the following assessments would be of the most concern to the nurse? A. A fetal heart rate (FHR) of 140 to 180 beats/min B. Complaints of irregular contractions relieved by walking C. Regular contractions occurring at intervals unrelieved by walking D. Complaints of SOB

C. Regular contractions occurring at intervals unrelieved by walking RATIONALE Indicates True Labor.

49. A newly diagnosed Class I cardiac patient is 6 weeks pregnant. The patient asks the nurse to explain what this means. The nurse's nest response would be: A. This means that although there has been a cardiac problem identified, you will be able to continue with ordinary physical activity B. This means that you will require significant amounts of bed rest during your pregnancy C. This means that you will be on strict bed rest from 24th week on D. This means that your fetus has a cardiac defect

A. This means that although there has been a cardiac problem identified, you will be able to continue with ordinary physical activity RATIONALE B Class II or III C Class IV D Irrelevant

50. A patient in labor is experiencing dystocia. One possible cause for this is A. The cervix is just about to reach full dilatation B. The mother is experiencing extreme fatigue C. Excessive size of the fetus D. Prolapsed cord

C. Excessive size of the fetus

1. With the community health activities started during the entry phase, which of these activities should not be included: A. Conduct of deepening social investigation B. Core group formation C. Project management D. Information campaign on health programs

C. Project management

2. Identification of potential leaders is crucial during the entry phase. Which of the characteristics may not be necessary to an efficient and effective community leader? A. A college graduate with management skills B. Responsive and willing to work for change C. Must have relatively good communication skills D. A respected member of the community

A. A college graduate with management skills ``` RATIONALE Criteria for choosing community leader: • Responsible • Respected member of the community • Willingness to work and learn • Low economic status • No political position/apolitical • Good communication skills ```

3. In identifying potential leaders in the community, the best technique proven to be effective is to: A. Ask volunteers who are willing to become community leaders B. Review family background, properties and academic records of community residents C. Observe people who are active in small mobilization activities that motivate residents to start working D. Ask community residents to directly name person whom they consider as community leaders

D. Ask community residents to directly name person whom they consider as community leaders

4. The core group is composed of individuals in the community who possess leadership potentials organized into a cohesive working unit. The core group works with the team in: A. Monitoring the performance of the barangay officials B. Setting-up community organization that will serve the interest of a sector in the community C. Mobilizing the community to act on their most immediate felt needs and participate in the delivery of essential health services D. Selecting community activities according to their preferences

C. Mobilizing the community to act on their most immediate felt needs and participate in the delivery of essential health services

5. Nurse KC was informed that Magpantay Family is about to lose their home due to foreclosure. The nurse contacts the social service department of the home health care agency for assistance in finding housing for the family. The actions taken by the nurse best exemplify which of the following roles of the community health care nurse? A. Clinician B. Advocate C. Consultant D. Researcher

B. Advocate

6. The child's symptoms are under the classification of severe dengue hemorrhagic fever of the IMCI strategy. Which of the following treatments should be done immediately? A. Observe the patient at the health center and refer urgently if the condition worsens B. Give fluids or ORS and refer urgently to the hospital C. Immunize the child before referral D. Give the first dose of appropriate antibiotics and refer urgently to the hospital

B. Give fluids or ORS and refer urgently to the hospital ``` RATIONALE Classification: Pink Treatment: Urgent and referral needed • IVF/ORS • Paracetamol, no aspirin ```

7. A child needs urgent referral for mastoiditis. The following is a list of treatments for all ear problems in IMCI classification. Which among these pre-referral treatments should not be included: A. Give the child the appropriate antibiotics for 5 days B. Do not give any medications C. Give the child the first dose of antibiotics D. Give first dose of paracetamol for pain

B. Do not give any medications ``` RATIONALE Classification: Pink Treatment: Urgent and referral needed • 1st Line: Amoxicillin 2nd line: Cotrimoxazole • Paracetamol for pain ```

SITUATION: Carol is 15 months old, weighs 8.5 kg., is not eating well and is unable to breast feed. She is not vomiting, has no convulsion and not abnormally sleepy or difficult to awaken. Her temperature is 38.5 degree Celsius. Use the IMCI strategy. 8. If you were the nurse in charge of Carol, how will you classify her illness? A. A child with a general danger sign B. Very severe febrile disease C. Severe pneumonia D. Severe malnutrition

A. A child with a general danger sign RATIONALE B No such classification C ❌Severe pneumonia = ✅C[U]VA, ❌Chest indrawing/stridor D ❌Severe malnutrition = For ⬆️6 months old: ❌Visible severe wasting ❌Edema of both feet ❌

SITUATION: Carol is 15 months old, weighs 8.5 kg., is not eating well and is unable to breast feed. She is not vomiting, has no convulsion and not abnormally sleepy or difficult to awaken. Her temperature is 38.5 degree Celsius. Use the IMCI strategy. 9. Which of the following signs is considered to be a general danger sign in Carol's case? A. No vomiting B. Has no convulsion C. Temperature of 38.5°C D. Unable to breastfeed

D. Unable to breastfeed

10. Which of the following signs should not be included in deciding that "the child vomits everything"? A. Child experiences occasional vomiting B. When offered fluids, may not be able to drink C. Maybe too weak to drink and eat at all D. Child is not able to keep anything down at all (what goes down comes back)

A. Child experiences occasional vomiting

11. A child should be checked for capillary refill if: A. If the child has petechiae B. The child's extremities feel warm C. There is fever for more than 7 days D. If the extremities feel cold

D. If the extremities feel cold RATIONALE It may indicate poor circulation.

12. The case management process for a sick child age 2 months up to 5 years is presented on three charts. Which chart title is not included? A. Assess, classify and treat the sick young infant B. Assess and classify the sick child C. Counsel the mother D. Treat the child

C. Counsel the mother

13. If this is a follow up visit for the problem: A. Give follow up care B. Assess and treat the child C. Assess and classify the child D. Assess and give health technique

B. Assess and treat the child

14. An 8 month old child is brought to the health facility for "fast breathing". Your correct interpretation of "fast breathing" in this situation MEANS: A. 40 breaths per minute B. 45 breaths per minute C. 38 breaths per minute D. 55 breaths per minute

D. 55 breaths per minute RATIONALE 0-2 months: >60 cpm 2-12 months: >50 cpm 12-60 months: >40 cpm

15. Inspired by the singing jail inmates, the nurse suggests to the barangay chairman that the out of school teenagers may be encouraged to stay "out of trouble" by organizing activities that will occupy their time, use up their energy and unify them. To realize such goals/objectives, the nurse's and community's actions should proceed in which order? 1. Identify what manpower and money resources are needed to implement the program 2. Design the program that will meet goal/objectives 3. Identify support activities that will sustain the programs 4. Determine the program's impact on the target group A. 1234 B. 2134 C. 3214 D. 4321

B. 2134

16. At the formulation stage of the health program planning process, it is important for the community health nurse to know that: A. This is the time to make detailed program decisions B. This is the time where the geographic and population boundaries are kept open C. This is the time to consider several solutions to the problem D. This is the time for the client population to recognize the end for the program

A. This is the time to make detailed program decisions

17. Which of the following is true about program evaluation? A. Benefits include refunds of costs from the government B. The evaluation is designed and conducted by the community C. Program evaluation is a critical phase in the planning process D. It determines which program will be retained or stopped

D. It determines which program will be retained or stopped

18. Health problems beyond the capacity of PHC units are referred to the RHU. The intermediate health care workers consists of the following except: A. BHW B. Nurse C. Midwife D. Sanitary Inspectors

A. BHW RATIONALE Intermediate healthcare workers have license.

19. Which of the following are examples of structured standards that are critical to the success of different public health programs? 1. Cold chain in expanded program on immunization (EPI) 2. Essential drugs in maternal care health (MCH) 3. Nursing care of patients with acute respiratory infections = reflects the Process elements 4. TB control program management = process elements A. 1 and 2 B. 3 and 4 C. All except 3 D. AOTA

A. 1 and 2 RATIONALE 3 Correct: Nursing process is reflected on all nursing care in patients and in all setting 4 Correct: Nursing process is reflected on all nursing and health program management

20. A safe water supply is basic to environmental health. Sources of water pollution are: A. It is a recent phenomenon, coming about since the 1960's B. Groundwater coming from the surface through wells and springs C. Infective substances such as bacteria and parasites D. It results from industrial and automotive emissions

D. It results from industrial and automotive emissions

21. Aling Theresa brought in her infant Kaloy, for his OPV immunization. You have assessed that the infant has diarrhea. Which of the following is the correct action to take? A. Notify the physician B. Give the OPV C. Refer immediately D. Do not give the OPV

B. Give the OPV ``` RATIONALE Vaccines are allowed to give even the child has: • Diarrhea • Malnutrition • Cough/mild respiratory problem • Moderate fever ```

22. The vision of the DOH is: A. Health for all Filipinos by 2012 B. Leader, staunch, advocate and model in promoting health health for all in the Philippines C. Guarantee equitable and quality health for all Filipinos D. Equitable and sustainable health for all

B. Leader, staunch, advocate and model in promoting health health for all in the Philippines

23. Who is the Chairman of the Municipal Health Board? A. Mayor B. Municipal Health Officer C. Public Health Nurse D. Any qualified physician

A. Mayor

24. The strategy calls for promotion of exclusive breastfeeding for the first 6 months. Exclusive breast feeding means that: A. Giving only breast milk no other liquids, solids, not even water, vitamins and mineral supplements not permitted B. Giving only breast milk no other liquids, solids, not even water. Vitamins and mineral supplements permitted C. Giving only breast milk no other liquids, solids but water can be given; vitamins and mineral supplements not permitted D. Giving only breast milk no other liquids, solids but water can be given; vitamins and mineral supplements permitted

B. Giving only breast milk no other liquids, solids, not even water. Vitamins and mineral supplements permitted

25. Food fortification is one of the strategies to prevent micronutrient deficiency conditions. RA 8976 mandates fortification of certain food items. Which of the following is among these food items? A. Sugar B. Bread C. Margarine D. Fiiled milk

A. Sugar RATIONALE SECTION 6. Mandatory Food Fortification (a) The fortification of staple foods based on standards set by the DOH through the BFAD is hereby made mandatory for the following: (1) Rice - with Iron; (2) Wheat flour - with vitamin A and Iron; (3) Refined sugar - with vitamin A; and (4) Cooking oil - with vitamin A; and

26. A disease is said to be communicable if: A. It is capable of being transmitted from an infected person or species to a susceptible host B. It persists for a long period of time, usually with a duration greater than 3 months C. It is self limiting D. It may result from genetic or lifestyle factors

A. It is capable of being transmitted from an infected person or species to a susceptible host

26. Directly Observed Treatment Short Course (DOTS) can do all of the following except: A. Stop resistance to anti-TB drugs B. Cure TB patients C. Require hospitalization D. Prevent new infection among children and adult

C. Require hospitalization

27. Which vital statistics relating to TB in our country is INACCURATE? A. The Philippines is among the 22 highly burdened poor countries in the world B. TB is the 6th leading cause of illness among Filipinos C. TB is the 6th leading cause of deaths among Filipinos D. Most TB patients belong to the 0-15 age groups

D. Most TB patients belong to the 0-15 age groups RATIONALE Risk factors • ⬆️60 • ⬇️5

28. The elements of TB DOTS that needs to be fulfilled include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Regular supply of anti-TB drugs B. Supervised treatment by a treatment partner C. Regular chest X-ray for diagnosis D. Standardized recording and reporting of TB data

C. Regular chest X-ray for diagnosis

29. Which of the following statements about TB treatment is INCORRECT? A. Combination of 3-4 anti-TB drugs is the treatment of choice B. Single drug is appropriate C. Treatment renders patients non-infectious and cured D. Tuberculosis is a curable disease

B. Single drug is appropriate RATIONALE Drug combination is applied.

30. Drugs prescribed for Miyaka includes INH 300 mg OD with pyridoxine. What is the purpose of the latter drug? A. Enhance the action of INH B. Stimulate maturation of RBCs C. Prevent CNS side effects of INH

C. Prevent CNS side effects of INH RATIONALE INH side effect is peripheral neuritis. Prophylactic drug is Vit B6/pyridoxine for nerve transmission.

31. As an epidemiologist, the nurse is responsible for reporting cases or notifiable diseases. What law mandates reporting cases of notifiable diseases? A. RA 3573 B. RA 3753 C. RA 1054 D. RA 1082

A. RA 3573

32. The principle behind medical asepsis is: A. Sterile B. Cleanliness C. Free from contamination D. Absence of a disease

B. Cleanliness RATIONALE A and C refer to surgical asepsis D Irrelevant

33. A client has an order to receive Purified Protein Derivative (PPD), 0.1 ml, intradermally. A nurse administers the medication by using a tuberculin syringe with a: A. 26-gauge, 5/8 inch needle inserted almost parallel to the skin with the bevel side up B. 26-gauge, 5/8 inch needle inserted at 45 degree angle with the bevel side down C. 20-gauge, 1 inch needle inserted almost parallel to the skin with the bevel side up D. 20-gauge, 1 inch needle inserted at 30 degree angle with the bevel side down

A. 26-gauge, 5/8 inch needle inserted almost parallel to the skin with the bevel side up

34. Which among the following is appropriate for a client with rubeola? A. Put in quiet environment B. Put in dim lit room C. Put in private room vented outside D. Put in enteric isolation

C. Put in private room vented outside

35. A 33 year old male client has typhoid fever and the client asks you what the pathognomonic sign for Typhoid fever is. Your correct statement is based on your knowledge that the unique sign in typhoid fever is: A. Rose spot B. Koplik spot C. Forscheimer's spot D. Dick's spot

A. Rose spot

36. Leptospirosis caused by spirochete can be prevented by: A. Eradication of wild rats B. Destruction of breeding of flies C. Immunization D. NOTA

A. Eradication of wild rats

37. The characteristic stool of a patient with Amoebiasis A. Diarrhea with tenesmus B. Diarrhea with borborygmi C. Blood streak mucoid stool D. Rice watery stool

C. Blood streak mucoid stool

38. To prevent Schistosomiasis, it is important to provide the following instructions to people living in endemic areas: 1. Remove vegetation and use molluscicides on breeding places to immunize high risk group especially farmers 2. Immunize 3. Dispose feces and urine properties properly away from bodies of water 4. To minimize carcariae penetration on skin, apply petroleum jelly or any oil-based liniments thickly on skin before wading on suspected contaminated waters A. 1234 B. 13 C. 24 D. 134

B. 13 RATIONALE 2 There is no Schistosomiasis vaccination 4 Water-based liniments

39. In differentiating between Rubeola and Rubella, the nurse tells the mother that with Rubeola the child has A. Symptoms similar to colds followed by a rash B. A high fever and bluish specks on the buccal area C. An exanthem term as maculopapular rash for 3 days D. Abdominal cramps, nausea and vomiting with watery stools

B. A high fever and bluish specks on the buccal area RATIONALE Rubeola = Measles A high fever and bluish specks on the buccal area is otherwise known as Koplik's spot, a sign of Measles. A Both sign of Rubeola and Rubella C Refers to Rubella; Rubeola is 7-day rash D Not signs of Rubella and Rubeola

40. Which of the following is considered as infectious type leprosy? A. Tuberculoid and Lepromatous: 6-9 mos Treatment B. Lepromatous and Indeterminate: 6-9 mos Treatment C. Indeterminate and Borderline: 24-30 mos Treatment D. Borderline and Lepromatous: 24-30 mos Treatment

D. Borderline and Lepromatous: 24-30 mos Treatment ``` RATIONALE CLASSIFICATION of LEPROSY 1. Pancibacillary - mild, non-infectious - 5 lesion - (+) smear - Treatment: 24-30 mos - Types: Lepromatous and Borderline ```

41. A person can get leprosy through the following except: A. Repeated direct skin to skin contact with untreated patient B. Inhalation of the infectious organism through break into the skin C. Inhalation of the infectious organism from the nasal discharges of an untreated patient D. Contact with articles soiled with discharges from lesions of a leprosy patient

B. Inhalation of the infectious organism through break into the skin RATIONALE MOT of Leprosy: • Droplet • Direct Contact

42. A student nurse who is affiliating in your Health Center asks you this question, "What will you do when I will be assigned to HIV ward?" Which among the following is your appropriate response? A. Act casually just like you do when you go to other wards B. Likely certain the idea that all persons working inside will mostly likely be infected later C. Perform your task inside the ward but cover your nose and mouth D. Avoid touching any objects inside the ward including chairs and tables

A. Act casually just like you do when you go to other wards

43. A 5 year old boy was assessed And was found to have the following symptoms: nausea, anorexia, weakness, fever, abdominal pain, and jaundice. This is a case of: A. Typhoid fever B. Influenza C. Hepatitis B D. Acute diarrhea

C. Hepatitis B

44. Hinata, 19 years old, comes to clinic because of fever and appearance of vesicular skin eruptions on her chest and face. The physician gave a diagnosis of chicken pox. The nursing diagnosis to be considered in the presence of vesicle is/are the following: A. Disturbance in body image B. Disturbance in body image and impairment of skin integrity C. Alteration in fluid volume D. Actual impairment of skin integrity

B. Disturbance in body image and impairment of skin integrity

45. Which of the following statements is not correct? A. Pregnant woman with malaria can be given Primaquine B. Oral medications for malaria should be given on a full stomach C. In pregnant women, malaria may cause premature birth or miscarriage D. Mosquito nets can be treated with insecticides

A. Pregnant woman with malaria can be given Primaquine

46. A 28 year old client of Barangay X is admitted to the hospital with complaints of diarrhea, diagnosis Cholera. Which acid/base imbalance would the nurse expect the client to have? A. Respiratory alkalosis B. Metabolic acidosis C. Respiratory acidosis D. Metabolic alkalosis

B. Metabolic acidosis RATIONALE Diarrhea = metabolic aciDosis Vomiting = metabolic alkalosis

47. The DOH program for the control of rabies is responsible pet ownership, pets must be immunized as early as: A. First month B. Second month C. Third month D. Fourth month

C. Third month

48. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of meningitis. Which finding would the nurse expect while assessing the client? A. The jaws are locked and cannot be opened B. Flexion of hip and knees with passive flexion of the neck C. The lips protrude and the corners of the mouth are drawn out of shape D. Inability to close the eyelid

B. Flexion of hip and knees with passive flexion of the neck RATIONALE Known as Brudzinski's sign.

49. The tourniquet test is positive when: A. There are 20 or more petechiae per 1cm square B. There are 20 or more petechiae per 2.5cm square C. There are 10 or more petechiae per 1 inch square D. There are 10 petechiae per 2.5inches square

B. There are 20 or more petechiae per 2.5cm square RATIONALE Or 20 or more petechiae per 1 inch square

50. Which of the following types of Hepatitis is not translated via the parenteral route? A. Hepatitis A and B B. Hepatitis C and B C. Hepatitis D and E D. Hepatitis A and E

D. Hepatitis A and E RATIONALE Tip: Not Parenteral Route = Enteral route Hepatitis B, C, and D are transmitted via parenteral route. A Hepatitis ✅A and ❌B B Hepatitis ❌C and ❌B C Hepatitis ❌D and ✅E

1. Legal responsibilities of the nurse regarding protection and control of Communicable Disease 1. Isolation of the Communicable Disease case 2. Carry out of quarantine laws 3. Assist in surveillance and case finding 4. Report cases to the health authority A. Only 1 and 2 B. AOTA C. All except 2 D. NOTA

B. AOTA

2. It is a system that will isolate all moist and potentially infectious substance from all patient: A. Standard precaution B. Body substance isolation C. Handwashing D. Transmission base precaution

A. Standard precaution

3. Nurse CD as a care provider is in contact with the patient while on duty. What precautionary measures should be done in communicable diseases? A. Search for source of infection B. Quarantine C. Concurrent disinfection D. NOTA

C. Concurrent disinfection

4. What does herd immunity mean? A. Shorter incubation B. Immunity of all community members C. All to be vaccinated D. Interruption of transmission

B. Immunity of all community members RATIONALE Herd immunity or herd effect, also called community immunity, describes a form of immunity that occurs when the vaccination of a significant portion of a population (or herd) provides a measure of protection for individuals who have not developed immunity.

5. A heavily researched topic in infection control is about the single most important procedure for preventing hospital-acquired infections. What is this procedure called? A. Sterilization of all instrument B. Periodic fumigation of the health center C. Handwashing D. Proper gloving techniques

C. Handwashing

6. Villar develops a nosocomial respiratory tract infection. He asks you what does it mean. Your best response would be: A. As a result of medical treatment you have acquired a secondary infection B. The infection you had prior to hospitalization flared up C. This is a highly contagious infection requiring complete isolation D. You acquired the infection after you have been admitted to the hospital

D. You acquired the infection after you have been admitted to the hospital

7. Ber took of sister Jen at San Lazaro Hospital. She was exposed to viral hepatitis. Hence she was given an injection of gamma globulin by her physician. This is: 1. Natural immunity 2. Active immunity 3. Artificial immunity 4. Passive immunity A. 1 and 4 B. 2 and 3 C. 1 and 2 D. 3 and 4

D. 3 and 4 RATIONALE Two types of immunity I. Natural II. Acquired A. Natural 1. Active: (LONG TERM) Childhood measles, Chickenpox 2. Passive: (SHORT TERM:6 mos to 1 year) BF (IgA), Transplacental (IgG) B. Artificial 1. Active: (LONG TERM, SLOW ACTION: Weakened Antigen) LAV, IV Booster, Toxoid 2. Passive: (SHORT TERM, IMMEDIATE ACTION: Antibodies) Gammaglobulin, Immunoglobulin, Antitoxin, Antiserum

8. All of the following are possible ways of transmitting malaria except: A. Sexual intercourse B. Transfusing blood that is positive for malaria parasites C. Sharing of IV needles (especially among IV drug users) D. Transplacental (transfer of malaria parasites from an infected mother to her unborn child)

A. Sexual intercourse ``` RATIONALE MOT of Malaria • Vector Transmission (Female Anopheles) • BT • Transplacental • Contaminated needles and syringes ```

9. What is the host of Schistosoma japonicum? A. Mosquitoes B. Snails C. Rats D. Dogs

B. Snails RATIONALE A Dengue and Malaria C Leptospirosis D Rabies

10. Pathognomonic sign of cholera: A. Rose spots on abdomen B. Rice watery stools C. Bloody stool D. Nausea and vomiting

B. Rice watery stools

11. Nicole, one of the member of Pussy cat dolls is a 25 year old Fil-Am who is spending summer vacation in Manila with his Filipino relatives. A week before returning to the US he developed fever, diarrhea and Rose spots on her abdomen. Based on clinical findings, you suspect her to have contacted which infection? A. Dysentery B. Amoebiasis C. Cholera D. Typhoid

D. Typhoid

12. As a prevention for malaria, you educate people living in malaria endemic areas to do which of the following: 1. Avoid going out between 12nn to 3am 2. Take chloroquine tablets once a day 3. Apply insect repellant on house walls 4. Use long sleeved shirts when going out at night 5. Plant Neem Tree in their backyards 6. Clear hanging branches near rivers A. 123456 B. 23456 C. 3456 D. 2345

C. 3456 RATIONALE 1 Malaria host is night biting (between 9pm to 3am) 2 Refers to curing malaria, not prevention

13. Pokwang, diagnosed with Dengue is having high fever, abdominal pain and headache. When monitoring lab results, the most important parameter frequently checked in patient with Dengue is: A. Hematocrit B. Platelet C. Prothrombin time D. Rumple Leads Test

B. Platelet

14. Jumong, 23 years old, sought consultation due to high grade fever for 3 days unresponsive to oral paracetamol, severe nausea and vomiting, headache and malaise. After taking the vital signs, the nurse performs a tourniquet test. Jumong is positive if: A. There are 20 or more petechiae noted in 2.5 cm square B. There are 20 or more petechiae noted in 1 inch square C. There are 20 or more petechiae noted in 5 cm square D. Both a and b

D. Both a and b

15. You received a 10 year old patient diagnosed with dengue hemorrhagic fever. When you assessed him, he had cold clammy skin, a BP of 80/60 and a weak pulse. Based on three assessment findings, you would say that the child is in what grade of severity of the disease? ``` A. Grade I B. Grade II C. Grade III D. Grade IV E. IV fluids ```

C. Grade III RATIONALE Classification of Dengue severity GRADE 1: Fever, Headache, Chills, Body malaise, Herman's sign, Persistent abdominal pain, vomiting, (+) tourniquet test, ⬇️Platelets, ⬆️Hematocrit GRADE 2: Grade 1 + Bleeding S/Sx GRADE 3: Grade 2 + Circulatory Collapse S/Sx GRADE 4: Grade 3 + Profound shock (No BP at all)

16. Which of the following is not included in the nursing management of patient with dengue? A. During bleeding episodes, keep the client at rest B. Place the client in Trendelenburg position C. If the client's nose is bleeding, place icepacks on the bridge of the nose and forehead D. Give ASA for headache

D. Give ASA for headache RATIONALE ASA is aspirine; exacerbates bleeding.

17. Avatar is diagnosed to have measles. What will your protective personal attire include? A. Gloves B. Eyewear C. Face mask D. Gown

C. Face mask RATIONALE Measles is one of the 3 diseases under Airborne Precaution: Measles, TB, Varicella

18. To hasten the drying of the lesions and relieve in a child with chickenpox, the nurse suggests that the mother should try: A. Using wet to dry saline dressing over the oozing vesicles B. Rubbing tetramycin ointment into the lesions C. Having the child wear mittens and cutting the fingernails short D. Patting the lesions gently with a paste of baking soda and warm water

D. Patting the lesions gently with a paste of baking soda and warm water

19. Kin Chay has chicken pox. The school nurse has instructed her mother not to let Kin Chay go to school to prevent transmitting the infection to other children. Kin Chay's teacher asked the nurse when is chicken pox most communicable, the correct response is: A. When the blisters begin to heal and turn brownish B. From the day of the appearance of blisters until the child is febrile C. 2 days before and 5 days after the appearance of blisters D. Only before the appearance of blisters

C. 2 days before and 5 days after the appearance of blisters

20. Kin Chay's mother asks when Marie can go back to school. What would be the best repsonse? A. "When she no longer has fever." B. "In 2 weeks." C. "When all her lesions have dried." D. "When no new lesions have appeared for 24 hours."

C. "When all her lesions have dried."

21. Which of the following describes Forscheimer's spots in German Measles? A. Buildup of keratin debris located superficially in the conjunctiva B. Discreet pink blanching lesions C. Benign flat congenital birthmark with wavy borders and irregular shape D. Small red papules on the area of the soft palate

D. Small red papules on the area of the soft palate

22. As a nurse, you must do assessment upon seeing a patient with leprosy. The following are early signs and symptoms except: 1. Change of skin color 2. Loss of sensation on skin lesion 3. Loss of eyebrow 4. Ulcers that do not heal A. 1 and 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 2 and 4

B. 3 ``` RATIONALE EARLY sign of Leprosy • Loss of skin sensation • Loss of sweating • Loss of hair growth • Extremities paralysis • Painful thickened nerve • Redness of eyes • Obstruction of nose • Skin color changes (Red or white) • Your ulcer does not heal ``` ``` LATEes sign • Large breast in male (Gynecomastia) • A chronic ulcer • Toes and fingers clawing • Eyebrow loss (Madarosis) • Eyelids can't close (Lagophtalmus) • Sinking of nose bridge ```

23. Lauriat asked if it is possible to be infected while swimming in public pools or rivers. The nurse replied that: A. This is not possible as long as he has no open wounds while swimming in public pools B. There is no danger during day time because Leptospirosis die when exposed to sunlight C. He can protect himself by applying 70% alcohol before swimming D. Infection with Leptospirosis is possible with recreational swimming in water contaminated with urine of human and animals having the infection

D. Infection with Leptospirosis is possible with recreational swimming in water contaminated with urine of human and animals having the infection RATIONALE MOT of Leptospirosis: • Direct contact (open wounds) • Fecal-oral route

24. A female client with gonorrhea informs the nurse that she has had sexual intercourse with her boyfriend and asks the nurse, "Would he have any symptoms?" The nurse responds that in men the symptoms of gonorrhea include? A. Impotence B. Scrotal swelling C. Urinary retention D. Dysuria

D. Dysuria ``` RATIONALE Male S/Sx are commonly symptomatic: • Yellow/Green discharge • Dysuria • Prostatitis • Pelvic pain • Impotence - chronic or late; some men ```

25. This is the law that protects AIDS patients, patients with HIV and health care workers: A. RA 8054 B. RA 7160 C. RA 4073 D. RA 8504

D. RA 8504

26. The collapse of the immune defenses in AIDS patient is from which defect? A. Insufficient amount of immunoglobulins B. Overproduction of immature B-lymphocytes C. Reduction in the number and change in the function of CD4 T cells D. Decrease amounts of tissue macrophage

C. Reduction in the number and change in the function of CD4 T cells

27. A patient with HIV is taking zidovidune (AZT). It is a drug that acts to: A. Destroy the virus B. Enhance the body's antibody production C. Neutralize toxins produced by the virus D. Slow replication of the virus

D. Slow replication of the virus

28. Santino is acutely ill of meningococcemia. Which of these measures will be essential in his care? A. Reducing environmental stimuli B. Maintaining optimum nutrition C. Exercising his extremities passively several times D. Provide hygienic care

A. Reducing environmental stimuli

29. Kitkat, 9 days old, child is brought yo the health center because of inability to suck since yesterday. You suspect that this is a case of neonatal tetanus. As you assess the child, which of these questions will you ask the mother in order to confirm your suspicion? A. "Did the child normally suck and cry 2-4 days before she was brought to the center." B. "Have you observed stiffness of the child's body?" C. "Did the child have convulsion?" D. All of these questions

D. All of these questions RATIONALE A, B, and C are S/Sx of tetanus.

30. Management for patients with rabies: A. Bathe the patient B. Cover the IV bottle with paper bag C. Restrain the patient D. Increase fluids

B. Cover the IV bottle with paper bag RATIONALE Patients with rabies are hydrophobic.

31. Nursing management is also focused on providing a restful environment for the patient with rabies. Which of the following measures is inappropriate in meeting this goal? A. Open windows to prevent drafts and chilling B. No faucets or running water should be heard C. IVFs should be placed behind the bed and cover with a paper bag or cloth D. Close windows

A. Open windows to prevent drafts and chilling RATIONALE Correct: Close windows.

32. What TB drug is not given to children under age 6 who are too young to report visual disturbances? A. INH B. Rifampicin C. Ethambutol D. PZA

C. Ethambutol RATIONALE Ethambutol side effect is optic neuritis.

33. The client, newly diagnosed with PTB is about to start his treatment regimen. What regimen is given for new-smear positive TB patients? A. 2 RIPE/2 RI or 2 HRZE/2 HR B. 2 RIPE/4 RI or 2 HRZE/4 HR C. 2 RIPES/4 RIE or 2 HRZES/4 HRE D. 3 RIPES/5 RIE or 2 HRZES/5 HRE

B. 2 RIPE/4 RI or 2 HRZE/4 HR RATIONALE CATEGORIES for RIPES treatment Category 1: Positive (+) sputum smear Immunocompromised Extrapulmonary TB (TB in ❤️, lungs, bones, brain: noncontagious) CXR: Extensive lesion Category 2: Relapse Treatment failure Category 3: Negative (-) sputum smear CXR: Minimal lesion Category 4: Resistance/Chronic Intensive TREATMENT: Category 1 = 3 • Intensive Phase: 2 RIPE / 2 HRZE • Maintenance Phase: 4 RI / 4 HR (for 6 months) Category 2 • Intensive Phase: 2 RIPES / 2 HRZES or 1 RIPE / 1 HRZE (for 3 mos) • Maintenance Phase: 5 RIE / 5 HRE (for 8 mos) Category 4 • Refer to DOTS Plus Center

34. Category 3 Treatment Regimen for TB is prescribed to: A. New pulmonary TB patients whose sputum is positive B. Previously treated patients who are on relapse C. New pulmonary TB patients whose sputum is serum negative for 3 times and a chest X-ray of PTB minimal D. Previously treated patients who are failed to continue the treatment regimen

C. New pulmonary TB patients whose sputum is serum negative for 3 times and a chest X-ray of PTB minimal RATIONALE CATEGORIES for RIPES treatment Category 1: Positive (+) sputum smear Immunocompromised Extrapulmonary TB (TB in ❤️, lungs, bones, brain: noncontagious) CXR: Extensive lesion Category 2: Relapse Treatment failure Category 3: Negative (-) sputum smear CXR: Minimal lesion Category 4: Resistance/Chronic Intensive A Category 1 B and D are Category 2

35. The nurse would expect the client to exhibit which of the following symptoms during icteric phase of viral hepatitis? A. Light, frothy urine B. Yellow sclera C. SOB D. Ferry stool

B. Yellow sclera RATIONALE Indicates jaundice. ``` HEPATITIS Stages 1. Pre-icteric stage • Abdominal pain • Fever • Anorexia • Fatigue • Chills ``` ``` 2. Icteric stage • Jaundice • Steatorrhea • Tea-colored urine • Bleeding • Pruritus • RUQ pain/tenderness ``` ``` 3. Post-icteric stage Convalescent stage (Gradual ⬇️ in S/Sx) ``` A Not expected; Tea-colored urine is expected C and D are not expected

36. Nurse Gorabels is developing a plan of care for the client with viral hepatitis, she should incorporate nursing orders that reflect the primary treatment. Emphasis will be on ensuring the client receives which of the following? A. Generous fluid intake B. Adequate bed rest C. Regular antibiotic therapy D. Regular check up

B. Adequate bed rest

37. Which of the following diets most likely be prescribed for clients with viral hepatitis? A. High fat, low protein, low carbohydrates B. Low sodium, low fat C. High carbohydrates, high calorie, low protein D. High protein, low carbohydrates

C. High carbohydrates, high calorie, low protein RATIONALE High CHO and calorie: Provides most energy Low protein: Prevents ⬆️ammonia in the blood (byproduct of CHON metabolism is ammonia and inflamed liver cannot convert well ammonia to urea, thus ⬆️ ammonia in the blood)

38. A client with jaundice-associated hepatitis tells the nurse about his concern regarding the change in skin color. The nurse can best respond by saying? A. The color change is due to the stimulation of the liver to produce an excess quantity of bile B. The color change is due to the increase destruction of the RBCs during the acute phase of the disease C. The color change is due to the decrease prothrombin levels which lead to the multiple sites of spontaneous bleeding D. The color change is due to the inability of the liver to remove normal amounts of bilirubin from the blood

D. The color change is due to the inability of the liver to remove normal amounts of bilirubin from the blood

39. What is the causative agent and incubation period of SARS? A. Corona virus: 2-10 days B. Retrovirus: 2-7 days C. Coronela virus: 7-10 days D. Influenza virus: 1-3 days

A. Corona virus: 2-10 days

40. All of the following are true about red tide poisoning except: A. Symptoms include tingling sensation and paresthesia B. A syndrome characterized by symptoms which occur within minutes after ingestion of poisonous shellfish C. The toxin is totally destroyed upon cooking D. It is caused by single cell organism called dinoflagellates

C. The toxin is totally destroyed upon cooking Tip: Totally is and extreme word, making it incorrect.

Identify the TARGET POPULATION (if there is a perceived causal relationship, identify the INDEPENDENT and DEPENDENT VARIABLE), then identify the possible SAMPLING METHOD, RESEARCH METHOD, TYPE OF DATA and RESEARCH PURPOSE. 1. The Live Experiences of Families left by the Malaysian Airlines Victims. Target Population: ________________________________ Variables: _______________________________________ • Independent (if present): _________________________ • Dependent (if present): ___________________________ Sampling Method: ________________________________ Research Method: ________________________________ Research Data: ___________________________________ Major Purpose(s): _________________________________

``` Target Population: Families of Malaysian Airlines Victims Variables: Live Experiences • Independent (if present): --- • Dependent (if present): --- Sampling Method: Non-Probability Research Method: Non-Experimental Research Data: Qualitative Major Purpose(s): Exploratory ```

Identify the TARGET POPULATION (if there is a perceived causal relationship, identify the INDEPENDENT and DEPENDENT VARIABLE), then identify the possible SAMPLING METHOD, RESEARCH METHOD, TYPE OF DATA and RESEARCH PURPOSE. 2. The Relationship of Condom Use to the Family Size in Sitio Paliparan, Cavite. Target Population: ________________________________ Variables: _______________________________________ • Independent (if present): _________________________ • Dependent (if present): ___________________________ Sampling Method: ________________________________ Research Method: ________________________________ Research Data: ___________________________________ Major Purpose(s): _________________________________

``` Target Population: Families in Sitio Paliparan, Cavite Variables: • Independent (if present): Condom use • Dependent (if present): Family Size Sampling Method: Probability Research Method: Non-Experimental Research Data: Quantitative Major Purpose(s): Exploratory ```

Identify the TARGET POPULATION (if there is a perceived causal relationship, identify the INDEPENDENT and DEPENDENT VARIABLE), then identify the possible SAMPLING METHOD, RESEARCH METHOD, TYPE OF DATA and RESEARCH PURPOSE. 3. The Incidence of HIV infection in Davao City. Target Population: ________________________________ Variables: _______________________________________ • Independent (if present): _________________________ • Dependent (if present): ___________________________ Sampling Method: ________________________________ Research Method: ________________________________ Research Data: ___________________________________ Major Purpose(s): _________________________________

``` Target Population: HIV patients in Davao City Variables: Incidence of HIV infection • Independent (if present): • Dependent (if present): Sampling Method: Probability Research Method: Non-Experimental Research Data: Quantitative Major Purpose(s): Descriptive ```

Identify the TARGET POPULATION (if there is a perceived causal relationship, identify the INDEPENDENT and DEPENDENT VARIABLE), then identify the possible SAMPLING METHOD, RESEARCH METHOD, TYPE OF DATA and RESEARCH PURPOSE. 4. The Effect of Radiation Therapy on the Tumor Size of Patients with Ovarian Cancer in San Lazaro Hospital. Target Population: ________________________________ Variables: _______________________________________ • Independent (if present): _________________________ • Dependent (if present): ___________________________ Sampling Method: ________________________________ Research Method: ________________________________ Research Data: ___________________________________ Major Purpose(s): _________________________________

Target Population: Patients with ovarian Cancer in San Lazaro Hosp. Variables: • Independent (if present): Radiation Therapy • Dependent (if present): Tumor Size Sampling Method: Probability Research Method: Experimental Research Data: Quantitative Major Purpose(s): Explanatory Descriptive

Identify the TARGET POPULATION (if there is a perceived causal relationship, identify the INDEPENDENT and DEPENDENT VARIABLE), then identify the possible SAMPLING METHOD, RESEARCH METHOD, TYPE OF DATA and RESEARCH PURPOSE. 5. Hepatitis C of Patient GR. Target Population: ________________________________ Variables: _______________________________________ • Independent (if present): _________________________ • Dependent (if present): ___________________________ Sampling Method: ________________________________ Research Method: ________________________________ Research Data: ___________________________________ Major Purpose(s): _________________________________

``` Target Population: Patient GR Variables: Hepatitis C • Independent (if present): • Dependent (if present): Sampling Method: Non-Probability Research Method: Non-Experimental Research Data: Quantitative Major Purpose(s): Descriptive ```

Identify the TARGET POPULATION (if there is a perceived causal relationship, identify the INDEPENDENT and DEPENDENT VARIABLE), then identify the possible SAMPLING METHOD, RESEARCH METHOD, TYPE OF DATA and RESEARCH PURPOSE. 6. The Use and Non-Use of Atis Leaves Concoction for High Grade Fever of Toddlers with Flu in Sto. Rosario BHU. Target Population: ________________________________ Variables: _______________________________________ • Independent (if present): _________________________ • Dependent (if present): ___________________________ Sampling Method: ________________________________ Research Method: ________________________________ Research Data: ___________________________________ Major Purpose(s): _________________________________

Target Population: Toddlers with Flu in Sto. Rosario BHU Variables: • Independent (if present): Atis Leaves Concoction • Dependent (if present): High Grade Fever Sampling Method: Probability Research Method: Experimental Research Data: Quantitative Major Purpose(s): Explanatory

Identify the TARGET POPULATION (if there is a perceived causal relationship, identify the INDEPENDENT and DEPENDENT VARIABLE), then identify the possible SAMPLING METHOD, RESEARCH METHOD, TYPE OF DATA and RESEARCH PURPOSE. 7. The Spiritual Behavior of Igorots after the Death of a Family Member. Target Population: ________________________________ Variables: _______________________________________ • Independent (if present): _________________________ • Dependent (if present): ___________________________ Sampling Method: ________________________________ Research Method: ________________________________ Research Data: ___________________________________ Major Purpose(s): _________________________________

``` Target Population: Igorots Variables: Spiritual Behavior after the death of family member • Independent (if present): • Dependent (if present): Sampling Method: Probability Research Method: Non-Experimental Research Data: Qualitative Major Purpose(s): Descriptive ```

Identify the TARGET POPULATION (if there is a perceived causal relationship, identify the INDEPENDENT and DEPENDENT VARIABLE), then identify the possible SAMPLING METHOD, RESEARCH METHOD, TYPE OF DATA and RESEARCH PURPOSE. 8. The Life and Contributions of Nelson Mandela. Target Population: ________________________________ Variables: _______________________________________ • Independent (if present): _________________________ • Dependent (if present): ___________________________ Sampling Method: ________________________________ Research Method: ________________________________ Research Data: ___________________________________ Major Purpose(s): _________________________________

``` Target Population: Nelson Mandela Variables: Life and Contributions • Independent (if present): • Dependent (if present): Sampling Method: Non-Probability Research Method: Non-Experimental Research Data: Qualitative Major Purpose(s): Exploratory ```

Identify the TARGET POPULATION (if there is a perceived causal relationship, identify the INDEPENDENT and DEPENDENT VARIABLE), then identify the possible SAMPLING METHOD, RESEARCH METHOD, TYPE OF DATA and RESEARCH PURPOSE. 9. Validation of Law: Criminal Punishments for LGBTs in Uganda. Target Population: ________________________________ Variables: _______________________________________ • Independent (if present): _________________________ • Dependent (if present): ___________________________ Sampling Method: ________________________________ Research Method: ________________________________ Research Data: ___________________________________ Major Purpose(s): _________________________________

``` Target Population: LGBTs in Uganda Variables: Criminal Punishments • Independent (if present): • Dependent (if present): Sampling Method: Non-Probability Research Method: Non-Experimental Research Data: Qualitative Major Purpose(s): Descriptive ```

Identify the TARGET POPULATION (if there is a perceived causal relationship, identify the INDEPENDENT and DEPENDENT VARIABLE), then identify the possible SAMPLING METHOD, RESEARCH METHOD, TYPE OF DATA and RESEARCH PURPOSE. 10. The Effects of Autoclave Method on the Number of Post-Op Infection in the OR of UP-PGH. Target Population: ________________________________ Variables: _______________________________________ • Independent (if present): _________________________ • Dependent (if present): ___________________________ Sampling Method: ________________________________ Research Method: ________________________________ Research Data: ___________________________________ Major Purpose(s): _________________________________

Target Population: Patients of UP-PGH who underwent in the OR Variables: • Independent (if present): Autoclave method • Dependent (if present): Number of Post-op infection Sampling Method: Probability Research Method: Experimental Research Data: Quantitative Major Purpose(s): Explanatory Exploratory

SITUATION: Nurse Alejo has just developed a research on the relationship of population growth and socio-economic status of families in Municipal G in Iloilo City for the year 2009-2010. He is new processing the study for publishing. 11. After identifying the problem on socio economic status, Alejo would do which if the following steps? A. Literature review B. Delimitation Process C. Data gathering D. Framework Formulation

B. Delimitation Process

SITUATION: Nurse Alejo has just developed a research on the relationship of population growth and socio-economic status of families in Municipal G in Iloilo City for the year 2009-2010. He is new processing the study for publishing. 12. Alejo is also trying to layout the thesis for his research, he must include the Tabulated Data in which chapter? A. Chapter 2 B. Chapter 6 C. Chapter 4 D. Chapter 1

C. Chapter 4

SITUATION: Nurse Alejo has just developed a research on the relationship of population growth and socio-economic status of families in Municipal G in Iloilo City for the year 2009-2010. He is new processing the study for publishing. 13. What is the most ideal research problem statement for the given research topic chosen by Alejo? A. The Correlational Study Between Population Growth and Socio-Economic Status of Families in Municipal G of Iloilo City, year 2009-2010 B. The Relationship Between the Population Growth and Socio-Economic Status of Families in Municipal G of Iloilo City in year 2009-2010 C. This study primarily aims to determine the demographic difference between Population and Socio-Economic Status of families in Municipal G of Iloilo City in 2009-2010 D. How is population growth related to socio-economic status of families in Municipal G of Iloilo City for the year 2009-2010

D. How is population growth related to socio-economic status of families in Municipal G of Iloilo City for the year 2009-2010 RATIONALE Although all answers are correct, the question specifically asks about the PROBLEM STATEMENT. A and B Possible Title of the Research C Objective of the Study

B. Population Growth RATIONALE Causal Variable = Independent Variable

15. The most appropriate type of research design in this particular research study would be? A. Correlational Design B. Descriptive Normative Design C. Descriptive Alternative Design D. Comparative Design

A. Correlational Design

SITUATION: Nurse Michelle is now trying to come up with a research study on Nosocomial Infection. She must be guided with a logical and empirical process to make the research study valid. 16. Initially, Michelle would pursue which of the following activities? A. Develop research framework to finally explain possible relationship between the phenomena being studied in the course of the process which involves a thorough probing B. Identify what should be the main focus of the research study to be considered as the jumpstart of the overall course of process C. Gather pertinent data for tabulation and analysis D. Develop the statistical design and the systematic plan on how to gather and analyze the data from the patient

B. Identify what should be the main focus of the research study to be considered as the jumpstart of the overall course of process

SITUATION: Nurse Michelle is now trying to come up with a research study on Nosocomial Infection. She must be guided with a logical and empirical process to make the research study valid. 17. Michelle has finally formulated the research title "The Significant Effects of Routine Room Cleaning on the Incidence of Nosocomial Infection brought by Streptococcus aureus seen on the patients in surgical ICU of Bataan General Hospital in Year 2007". In this particular situation, Michelle just aims to evaluate the room-cleaning habits done by the nurse in the SICU and see its effects on the rate of Nosocomial Infection in one specific year. What is the most appropriate type of research design will she use? A. Experimental B. Correlational C. Descriptive Survey D. Quasi-Experimental

B. Correlational RATIONALE Michelle just wants to EXPLORE the effects of room-cleaning habits on the incidence of Nosocomial Infection, hence Correlational Design is the best Research design that would best fit on this situation. A and D Experimental or Quasi Experimental are incorrect since Michelle does not manipulate the Independent Variable, hence she is not trying to EXPLAIN (as in, Explanatory which is a common purpose of Experimental Research). C Incorrect, since Michelle does not describe, but rather she wants to explore.

SITUATION: Nurse Michelle is now trying to come up with a research study on Nosocomial Infection. She must be guided with a logical and empirical process to make the research study valid. 18. After formulating the research problem, Michelle must do which of the following task? A. Review of related literature B. Delimitation Process C. Data Collection D. Revision of Care

A. Review of related literature

SITUATION: Nurse Michelle is now trying to come up with a research study on Nosocomial Infection. She must be guided with a logical and empirical process to make the research study valid. 19. After formulating the framework of her research study, Michelle is now more focused on formulating momentary answers for her research question. These predictive anticipation is otherwise known as: A. Hypothesis B. Assumption C. Theories D. Metaparadigm

A. Hypothesis

SITUATION: Nurse Michelle is now trying to come up with a research study on Nosocomial Infection. She must be guided with a logical and empirical process to make the research study valid. 20. Michelle is now finished with her projective guesses. She is now going to construct the Research Methodology. She knows that the Methodology is guided by which among the following: 1. Theories 2. Hypothesis 3. Statement of the Problem 4. Assumption A. 1 & 4 B. 3 & 2 C. 2 & 4 D. 3 & 4

B. 3 & 2

SITUATION: Rachel is a post graduate student taking up Master of Science in Nursing, Major in Maternal and Child Nursing. She is now finalizing her Research study to be submitted for her thesis. 21. As a criterion for choosing her problem, she must bear in mind that the study she is conducting must have appropriate funding and support from her adviser, accessibility of her samples and respects the dignity in protecting the rights of her samples while conducting the research. What is the common definition of this particular criterion? A. Potentials of the Researcher B. Feasibility of the Study C. Significance of the Problem D. Researchability of the Study

B. Feasibility of the Study RATIONALE A Refer to the researcher's/s' personal/internal characteristics that may affect the outcome of study C Refers to the importance or impact of the research study to the subjects or to the society D Refers to the available information that are needed to suffice the research study

SITUATION: Rachel is a post graduate student taking up Master of Science in Nursing, Major in Maternal and Child Nursing. She is now finalizing her Research study to be submitted for her thesis. 22. All of the following might be a good source of Rachel's problem for her research, except: A. From her clients in the hospital or clinical specialization she pursues B. Literature Review and past research data C. Ideas of conflict or current issues she encounters in the hospital D. Data taken from an erroneous theses which she can replicate

D. Data taken from an erroneous theses which she can replicate RATIONALE Erroneous theses will always yield erroneous results.

SITUATION: Rachel is a post graduate student taking up Master of Science in Nursing, Major in Maternal and Child Nursing. She is now finalizing her Research study to be submitted for her thesis. 23. As a part of her thesis for defense, she must include all the flaws of her research design or inappropriate sample size and anything that can weaken the validity of her research study. All of these shall be included in which part of her thesis? A. Scope and Coverage B. Expected Manageability C. Limitations of the Study D. Literature Review

C. Limitations of the Study

SITUATION: Rachel is a post graduate student taking up Master of Science in Nursing, Major in Maternal and Child Nursing. She is now finalizing her Research study to be submitted for her thesis. 24. Rachel must give the operational definition for each variable she investigates. Which of the following is the main reason why she must use operational terms for her research? A. Universal meaning is necessary to be sure that the terms used are appropriate B. Giving "dictionary meanings" would avoid misinterpretation C. Concrete terms used in research would avoid confusion and ensure measurability D. A research variable or term must be abstract and the real concept should be rhetorically stated

C. Concrete terms used in research would avoid confusion and ensure measurability

SITUATION: Rachel is a post graduate student taking up Master of Science in Nursing, Major in Maternal and Child Nursing. She is now finalizing her Research study to be submitted for her thesis. 25. She must protect the subjects under study. Which among the following ensures that the personal identities of her subjects will not be reflected in the actual thesis and makes sure that the personal data from the subjects remains unknown? A. Confidentiality B. Privacy C. Autonomy D. Anonymity

D. Anonymity

SITUATION: Hazel is now formulating anticipated outcomes and relationship between her variables in research. Her research study is entitled "The Use of Lagundi Concoction as PAI on the respiratory rate of Patients with COPD in Bataan General Hospital". 26. She knows that Hypotheses are important in the conduct of her research study. Which among the following is not the purpose of hypothesis formulation in her research? A. It suggests the type of analysis that must be done in order to measure the relationship B. It guides the researcher in formulating the research design C. It is the temporary answer to the established research problem D. It anticipates the undeviating outcomes of the research study

D. It anticipates the undeviating outcomes of the research study

SITUATION: Hazel is now formulating anticipated outcomes and relationship between her variables in research. Her research study is entitled "The Use of Lagundi Concoction as PAI on the respiratory rate of Patients with COPD in Bataan General Hospital". 27. Hazel stated that "The Use of Lagundi Concoction has just similar effects with the use of usual PAI medication". What type of hypothesis did she utilize? A. Directional Hypothesis B. Alternative Hypothesis C. Research Hypothesis D. Null Hypothesis

D. Null Hypothesis RATIONALE Null hypothesis is a negative statement, often stated as no, not, never, same, similar, or constant.

A. Directional RATIONALE Directional type of Hypothesis states the extent of relationship between variables and often stated as "directly or inversely".

C. Experimental

30. In which of the following undertakings can a researcher omit the formulation of Hypothesis? A. Descriptive Survey B. Phenomenological C. Quasi-Experimental with Random Group D. Post Test Only Research

A. Descriptive Survey

SITUATION: In selecting the appropriate topic for his research, Eli finally decided to focus on the degree of affectation on the thermoregulation of patients with hyperthermia using fresh Lagundi concoction. 31. Eli selected the prospective samples to be subjected for Lagundi concoction consumption. However, due to time constraints, he just selected the subjects according to availability. Which among the four elements of True Experimental research is missing in this particular research? A. Manipulation B. Randomization C. Control D. Validity

B. Randomization

SITUATION: In selecting the appropriate topic for his research, Eli finally decided to focus on the degree of affectation on the thermoregulation of patients with hyperthermia using fresh Lagundi concoction. 32. Basing on the method done by Eli, what type of research design did he use? A. Intervention Research B. Randomized Block Design C. Solomon four group design D. Quasi Experimental

D. Quasi Experimental RATIONALE The question specifically asks about the TYPE OF RESEARCH DESIGN which could only either be Experimental (True or Quasi) or Non-Experimental.

SITUATION: In selecting the appropriate topic for his research, Eli finally decided to focus on the degree of affectation on the thermoregulation of patients with hyperthermia using fresh Lagundi concoction. 33. In conducting the research study, Eli did not specifically, determine the type of cause of the patients fever. He divided the subjects into 2 groups with no specific equal characteristics. He just made sure that both groups have "fever", whether from bacterial, viral, fungal or parasitic infection. What specific type of experimental research did he use? A. Post Test Only Design B. Multifactor Design C. Non-Equivalent Control Group Design D. Time Series Design

C. Non-Equivalent Control Group Design

SITUATION: In selecting the appropriate topic for his research, Eli finally decided to focus on the degree of affectation on the thermoregulation of patients with hyperthermia using fresh Lagundi concoction. 34. If ever Eli decided not to divide the subjects into 2 groups and only have a single group which will be given Lagundi, what specific element of Experimental research did he forfeit? A. Randomization B. Manipulation C. Validity D. Control

D. Control

35. In conducting experimental research, whether True or Quasi Experiments, manipulation is necessary. What is the essential purpose of manipulation that is vital for conducting an experiment? A. To ensure the most important reason establishing the causality of relationship B. To ensure a basis for comparison between the usual intervention compared with the new treatment C. To ensure that impartiality is eradicated D. To ensure acceptable findings and valid generalizations

A. To ensure the most important reason establishing the causality of relationship RATIONALE Manipulation is all about the CAUSALITY, wherein it is the process of exposing or not exposing the cause to find its effect; or whether a particular variable is really the cause of a certain phenomenon.

A. Probability Sampling

SITUATION: Nurse Vincent is now on the planning phase of his research study. His research is entitled "The Relationship between the Study Habits and Final Exam Result of 4th Year Nursing Students of UP Manila Batch 2011". He is now on Sampling Process. 37. Vincent realizes that there are only 3 sections in the 4th Year College of Nursing of the aforementioned school. He knows that the characteristic of his samples has limited variety. Therefore, how will Vincent proceed with the sampling process? A. He expects to get a much larger sample size due to homogeneity of the subjects' characteristic B. He will probably be getting a smaller group of samples due to homogenous traits C. He anticipates to collect a sample group using quota design D. He will be gathering a larger group to ensure the external validity

B. He will probably be getting a smaller group of samples due to homogenous traits RATIONALE ⬆️Population=⬆️Sample ⬇️Population=⬇️Sample

38. Which among the following is considered as the advantage of Probability Sampling? A. It is not convenient to conduct B. It is faster to be accomplished compared with Non-Probability C. It ensures representativeness to further validate the conclusion D. It ensures convenience in conducting because it allows access to any available sample

C. It ensures representativeness to further validate the conclusion

SITUATION: Nurse Vincent is now on the planning phase of his research study. His research is entitled "The Relationship between the Study Habits and Final Exam Result of 4th Year Nursing Students of UP Manila Batch 2011". He is now on Sampling Process. ``` 39. Vincent must follow the logical steps in gathering his samples. Rearrange the steps of the Sampling Process accordingly: I. Calculate the Sample Size II. Identify the Target Population III. Select Appropriate Design IV. Determine the Inclusion Criteria V. Get the Samples ``` A. II, I, IV, III, V B. II, III, IV, I, V C. I, III, IV, V, II D. II, IV, III, I, V

A. II, I, IV, III, V ``` RATIONALE Sample Process proceeds in: 1. Identify Target Population - if population is Homogenous : few sample is expected - if population is Heterogenous : bigger sample is expected 2. Calculate Sample Size - uses SLOVEN FORMULA 3. Set Inclusion Criteria - characteristics that samples must possess 4. Select Appropriate Sampling Design - Probability or Non-Probability 5. Get the Sample ```

SITUATION: Nurse Vincent is now on the planning phase of his research study. His research is entitled "The Relationship between the Study Habits and Final Exam Result of 4th Year Nursing Students of UP Manila Batch 2011". He is now on Sampling Process. 40. Representativeness Sampling must be ensured by Vincent. What is the major goal of representativeness in research? A. To make sure that each element of the target population is equally represented B. To make certain that the conclusion will be valid since each member of the target population is equally represented C. To make better subjective analysis during the interpretation phase D. To formulate reliable instrumentation in gathering the data

B. To make certain that the conclusion will be valid since each member of the target population is equally represented

1. There are 4 cornerstones/pillars in PHC. Of the following, which is not included? A. Active community participation B. Multi sectoral linkages C. Use of appropriate technology D. Support mechanisms made unavailable

D. Support mechanisms made unavailable RATIONALE Options A to C are correct. The word "unavailable", instead of "available" makes option D incorrect,

2. The initiation of new techniques and equipments that are not scientifically sound but also suitable to the community like "Botika sa Baryo" is being described in the essential elements of PHC as: A. Multi-sectoral approach B. Inter-sectoral approach C. Intra-sectoral approach D. Appropriate technology

D. Appropriate technology

3. Intersectoral linkages refer to: A. Coordination among government and non-government agencies in providing health services to the people B. Effective referral system among the different units of the DOH C. Discouraging outside help to encourage self-reliance among the community members D. Linking the people to the services provided by the government

A. Coordination among government and non-government agencies in providing health services to the people

4. The aim of PHC is to evolve a total community health care system, integrated in people's way of life. What did the government do? A. Mandate of devolution B. International Acceptance C. Soliciting from NGOs D. Linkage with WHO

A. Mandate of devolution RATIONALE It is through the Local Government Code known as Devolution of Health under Republic Act 7160.

5. The health actions and technical components should not absorb a disproportionate share if the community resources such as the money coming from the resident's own pocket. This criterion relates to: A. Effectiveness and safety B. Feasibility C. Complexity D. Cost

D. Cost

6. The following would characterize PHC, except: A. Focus of health care on the well person B. Reliance of the community on the health professionals C. Acceptance of indigenous practice D. Decision making is from bottom going up

B. Reliance of the community on the health professionals RATIONALE It is the primary goal of CHN.

7. In order for PHC to succeed, the community has to participate actively. Which of the following characterizes this? A. The people of community X always make sure that they attend community meeting when the nurse presents their health problems B. Community K always participates in the implementation of health programs that have been made by doctors in the DOH C. Community B helps organize and mobilizes its members for health activities D. Community N lets the public health nurse evaluate the result of the progress by herself to ensure objectivity

C. Community B helps organize and mobilizes its members for health activities RATIONALE Community: Doing most of the tasks PHN: Facilitator only.

8. Which of the following is not an element of PHC? A. Availability of essential drugs in the community B. Treatment of non-communicable disease C. Responsible parenthood D. Health public policy

D. Health public policy RATIONALE PHC Elements: E-education/health education L-locally endemic disease E-EPI (PD 996) M-maternal/child health; Family planning/responsible parenthood E-essential drugs N-nutrition T-treatment of communicable/non-communicable diseases S-Sanitation/Environmental sanitation (PD 856)

9. Other sectors like agriculture, education, and the local government should be involved in health plans to ensure total community development. This approach to primary health care is: A. Intra-sectoral B. Inter-sectoral C. Active community participation D. Multi-sectoral

D. Multi-sectoral

10. The community health nurse is actively involved in training of the community in leadership and management skills and the incorporation of income generating projects. She is supporting which principle of PHC? A. Social mobilization B. Availability of accessibility of services C. Self-reliance D. Decentralization

C. Self-reliance

11. Which of the following health care facilities offer service to patients with symptomatic stages of disease? A. Primary level B. Secondary level C. Tertiary level D. National level

C. Tertiary level

12. This refers to the level of health care facilities wherein the health services are highly technical and sophisticated? A. Primary level B. Secondary level C. Tertiary level D. National level

C. Tertiary level

13. Which of the following health care facilities is primarily responsible for the delivery of basic health services in the community? A. Brgy. Centers and Health Stations B. Private and Government Hospitals C. Private Clinics and Laboratories D. All of the choices

A. Brgy. Centers and Health Stations

14. The Barangay Health Center is which of the following levels of health care facilities? A. Primary level B. Secondary level C. Tertiary level D. National level

A. Primary level

15. The school nurse contributes to the health care and education of the school population through which of the following: A. Health assessment measures B. Managing school health services C. Health counseling and coordination with the community D. All of these

D. All of these

16. The school nurse keeps a list of enrolled students who have medical or religious objections to immunizations and those who are likely to have decreased immunity. The nurse likely keeps this list to: A. Provide statistics for the DOH B. Reassure the family that the nurse will respect the family's wishes at all times C. Meet national government requirements D. Facilitate exclusion in case of an outbreak of a highly communicable disease in the school

D. Facilitate exclusion in case of an outbreak of a highly communicable disease in the school

17. As a supervisor, which task can you delegate to a barangay health worker? A. Provide maternal care at home B. Identify pregnant women in the community C. Conduct thorough physical assessment in the clinic D. Health teaching to pregnant women

B. Identify pregnant women in the community

18. The CH nurse as health monitor: A. Participates in development and distribution of IEC materials B. Provides technical and administrative support to midwives C. Ensures continuity of care to clients/patients D. Detects deviations from health

D. Detects deviations from health

19. The CH nurse as health educator: A. Participates in development and distribution of IEC materials B. Provides technical and administrative support to midwives C. Ensures continuity of care to clients/patients D. Detects deviations from health

A. Participates in development and distribution of IEC materials

20. The CH nurse as provider of care: A. Participates in development and distribution of IEC materials B. Provides technical and administrative support to midwives C. Ensures continuity of care to clients/patients D. Detects deviations from health

C. Ensures continuity of care to clients/patients

21. Which of the following is being done to determine the family's nursing problems and needs? A. Goal setting B. Family health care plan formulation C. Assessment D. Evaluation

C. Assessment

22. In assessing the patient's condition using the IMCI approach strategy, the first thing that the nurse should do is to: A. Ask what are the child's problem B. Check the patient's LOC C. Check for the main symptoms D. Check for general danger signs

A. Ask what are the child's problem

23. Which of the following behavior best suggest that the child is experiencing ear pain? A. Voracious appetite B. Frequent tugging of the ear C. Irritability D. Sleepiness

B. Frequent tugging of the ear

24. The implementation of the IMCI as a strategy in child health care aims to: A. Promote fragmented approach to childhood illness B. Reduce incidence of deaths in sick infants and children C. Improve quality health care for young people D. AOTA

B. Reduce incidence of deaths in sick infants and children RATIONALE A Correct: integrated, not fragmented C Young people is vague

25. If the child presents with swelling and tenderness behind the ear, how would you classify this child? I. Green II. Yellow III. Pink IV. Urgent referral plus a dose of antibiotic and paracetamol V. Treat with the same 5 days antibiotic treatment as pneumonia VI. Dry the ear by wicking A. 1, 6 B. 2, 5 C. 1, 4 D. 3, 4

D. 3, 4

26. If the child has severe classification because of ear problem, what would be the best thing as you, the nurse, can do? A. Dry the ear by wicking B. Refer urgently C. Give an antibiotic D. Instruct the mother when to return immediately

B. Refer urgently

27. If the child has pneumonia, the mother is instructed to return to the health center after: A. One day B. Two days C. 30 days D. 14 days

B. Two days

28. When a sick infant or child is brought to the health center for consultation, the initial action of the nurse is to assess for danger signs which include checking the following, except: A. Is the child able to drink or breastfeed B. Does the child vomit everything C. Has the child had convulsion D. Is the child passing watery stool frequently

D. Is the child passing watery stool frequently

29. Which of the following is considered as safe remedy to soothe the throat and relieve cough? A. Codeine, cough syrup B. Tamarind, Calamansi and Ginger C. Oral decongestants D. Glucose water

B. Tamarind, Calamansi and Ginger

30. An ear discharge that has been present for more than 14 days can be classified as: A. Chronic ear infection B. Acute ear infection C. Complicated ear infection D. Mastoiditis

A. Chronic ear infection

31. Which of the following is included that would best qualify as a potential site for COPAR? I. Lack of income opportunities for the residents II. Existence of accessible health services III. Poor health status of the community IV. Unmanned barangay health station V. Currently being served by other agency with the same program VI. With relative peace and order A. 1,2,5,6 B. 1,2,4,5 C. 2,3,4,6 D. 1,3,4,6

D. 1,3,4,6

32. The nurse decides to make an ocular survey in the said barangay. Upon entrance to the barangay, she should: A. Conduct community assembly B. Courtesy call to the Barangay Captain C. Identify the presence of the community D. Encourage community participation

B. Courtesy call to the Barangay Captain

33. Nurse Berna is choosing an activity that will facilitate integration into the community. The appropriate activity for this is to: A. Organize a mahjong session B. Participate during harvesting C. Encourage clinic visits to every people D. Act like a visitor

B. Participate during harvesting

34. Nurse Berna is training a group of community health officers and conducting action-reflection-action session. She is in what phase of COPAR process? A. Pre-entry phase B. Sustenance and strengthening phase C. Entry phase D. Community organization and capability building phase

D. Community organization and capability building phase

35. The number of midwives needed in a community with a population of 35,000 is? A. 3 B. 5 C. 6 D. 7

D. 7

36. A 3-year-old child (14kg) has anemia with some pallor and needs iron and mebendazole. The card shows he was not given mebendazole previously. As the nurse, you should give the child iron folate and mebendazole in what dosage? A. 7.5 ml or 1 tsp daily for 14 days and mebendazole 500 mg single dose B. 10 cc or 2 tsp daily for 30 days and mebendazole 500 mg single dose C. 10 cc or 2 tsp daily for 30 days and mebendazole 250 mg single dose D. 5 ml or 1 tsp daily for 30 days and mebendazole 500 mg single dose

A. 7.5 ml or 1 tsp daily for 14 days and mebendazole 500 mg single dose RATIONALE GIVE IRON AGE or Weight Tablet Syrup Drops 2 mos up to 4 mos (4-

37. The following are covered by the Reproductive Health Bill: 1. Information and access to natural and modern family planning 2. Maternal, infant, and child health and nutrition 3. Promotion of breast feeding 4. Prevention of abortion and management of post-abortion complications 5. Adolescent and youth health 6. Prevention and management of reproductive tract infections, HIV/AIDS and STDs 7. Elimination of violence against women 8. Counseling on sexuality and sexual and reproductive health 9. Treatment of breast and reproductive tract cancers 10. Male involvement and participation in RH 11. Prevention and treatment of infertility and (12) RH education for the youth A. 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,11 B. 1,2,3,5,6,7,8,9,10,11 C. All of these D. 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,9,10,11

C. All of these

38. The ENC Protocol is a step-by-step guide for health workers and medical practitioners issued by the DOH. It emphasizes the four simple time-bound interventions which include the following: 1. Immediate drying 2. Uninterrupted skin-to-skin contact 3. Proper cord clamping and cutting 4. Early breastfeeding and rooming-in 5. Early infant crying A. All of these B. 1,2,3,4 C. 1,3,4,5 D. 2,3,4,5

B. 1,2,3,4

39. The objective of IMPAC is in line with the 5th objective of MDG which is: A. Reduce maternal mortality by 1/2 by 2015 B. Reduce maternal mortality by 3/4 by 2015 C. Totally eradicate maternal mortality by 2015 D. Maintain the present maternal mortality rate of 11%

B. Reduce maternal mortality by 3/4 by 2015

40. Absence of efficient referral system that covers access to transportation and communications contributes to delay in: A. Receiving quality health care B. Reaching the health facility C. Deciding to seek medical care D. Providing medical interventions

A. Receiving quality health care

1. Where is the site of fertilization? A. Uterus B. Fallopian tube C. Ovary D. Cervix

B. Fallopian tube

2. Which term refers to the upper triangular portion of the uterus? A. Cervix B. Fundus C. Isthmus D. Corpus

B. Fundus

3. Basing on the female reproductive system, which of this type of pelvis is considered normal female pelvis and considered most favorable and for successful labor and birth: A. Transversely rounded type B. Wedge shaped or the angulated type C. Oval shaped with moderately narrow pubic arch D. Flat shape with an oval inlet

A. Transversely rounded type RATIONALE B Android C Anthropoid D Platypelloid

4. Ella tells you that she is confused about the role of estrogen and progesterone. Which of the following is the function of estrogen hormone? A. Inhibits uterine contractility B. Elevates body temperature during ovulation C. Promote female secondary sex characteristics D. Promotes lactation

C. Promote female secondary sex characteristics RATIONALE A Progesterone B Progesterone D Prolactin

5. She reports an increase in BBT on December 16. Which hormone brings about this change in her BBT? A. Estrogen B. Progesterone C. Gonadotropin D. Follicle stimulating hormone

B. Progesterone

6. Which phase of menstrual cycle is characterized by a surge in leuteinizing hormone (LH) from the pituitary gland? A. Proliferative B. Menstrual C. Ischemic D. Secretory

D. Secretory RATIONALE A ⬆️FSH, ⬆️estrogen B ⬇️estrogen, ⬇️progesterone C ⬇️estrogen, ⬇️progesterone

7. At the beginning of the menstrual cycle, the following physiologic changes occurs except: A. An ovum begins to mature in the graafian follicle B. Estrogen and progesterone are at their lowest level C. Leuteinizing hormone level is at its peak D. Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) has just begun to rise

C. Leuteinizing hormone level is at its peak RATIONALE Happens later, specifically on the third phase of menstrual cycle.

8. The time of ovulation can be determined by taking the basal body temperature. During ovulation, the basal temperature: A. Drops markedly B. Drops slightly and then rises C. Rises suddenly and them falls D. Rises markedly and remains high

B. Drops slightly and then rises

9. Ella states that she gets her menstrual period every 18 days. She states that her flow is very heavy and lasts 6 days. The nurse identifies this pattern as A. Dysmennorhea B. Dyspareunia C. Menorrhagia D. Metrorrhagia

C. Menorrhagia RATIONALE A Painful menstruation B Painful coitus D Bleeding in between periods

10. When counseling a woman for primary dysmennorhea, which of the following nonpharmacologic interventions would be used? A. Increasing intake of red meat and simple carbohydrates B. Reducing intake of diuretic foods such as peaches and asparagus C. Temporarily substituting sedentary activity for physical activity, including exercise D. Using a heating pad on the abdomen to relieve cramping

D. Using a heating pad on the abdomen to relieve cramping ``` RATIONALE Dysmenorrhea management includes: • fetal position • heat on abdomen • abdominal breathing • rest • DOC: Ibuprofen ``` A and B Unrelated C Correct: Rest

11. A woman complains of severe abdominal and pelvis pain around the time of menstruation that has gotten worse over the last five years. She also complains of pain during intercourse and has tried unsuccessfully to get pregnant for the past 18 months. These symptoms are most likely related to: A. Endometriosis B. PMS C. Primary dysmenorrhea D. Secondary dysmenorrhea

A. Endometriosis ``` RATIONALE S/Sx include: • pain • dyspareunia • difficulty getting pregnant • ectopic pregnancy ```

12. Amenorrhea is most commonly the result of: A. Stress B. Excessive exercise C. Pregnancy D. Eating disorder

C. Pregnancy

13. When assessing a woman for menopausal discomforts, the nurse would expect the woman to describe the most frequently reported discomfort, which would be A. Headaches B. Hot flashes C. Mood swings D. Vaginal dryness with dyspareunia

B. Hot flashes

14. Clomiphen is a drug to treat infertile women. It is effective because it plays the role in stimulating A. Fertilization B. Ovulation C. Tubal patency D. Endometrial proliferation

B. Ovulation

15. Jordan tells you that he is considering vasectomy after the birth of their new child. Vasectomy involves the incision of which organ? A. The testes B. The vas deferens C. The epididymis D. The scrotum

D. The scrotum RATIONALE Incision: scrotum Excision: vas deferens

16. Supposed that Nene, 14 years old, tells you she wants to use fertility awareness method of contraception. How will she determine her fertile days? A. She will notice that she feels hot as if she has an elevated temperature B. She should assess whether her cervical mucus is thin, copious, clear and watery C. She should monitor her emotions for sudden anger or crying D. She should assess whether her breasts feel sensitive to cool air

B. She should assess whether her cervical mucus is thin, copious, clear and watery

17. Oral contraceptives prevents pregnancy by: A. Changing the character of the cervical mucus B. Preventing implantation C. Suppressing ovulation D. Impending fertilization

C. Suppressing ovulation

18. Mrs. Ramos has questions about the amniotic fluid and sac. The nurse teaches correctly that they serve all of the following functions except: A. Helping to dilate the cervix B. Protecting the fetus from injury C. Providing the fetus with immune bodies D. Keeping the fetus at an even temperature

C. Providing the fetus with immune bodies RATIONALE Immune bodies transfer is through the placenta.

19. The nurse explains correctly to the Ramos family when she teaches that the umbilical cord contains blood vessels, the total number normally being: A. One vein and one artery B. Two veins and one artery C. One vein and two arteries D. Two veins and two arteries

C. One vein and two arteries

20. During a presentation, a student asks, "How many days after conception does the fertilized ovum implants in the uterine wall? The nurse's best response is that this process normally takes A. 3 days B. 7 days C. 11 days D. 15 days

B. 7 days RATIONALE Zygote (fertilized ovum) to morulla: 3-4 days Morulla to blastocyst: 3-4 days Implantation after fertilization: 6-10 days

21. A client has positive pregnancy test. Which hormone is related to this finding? A. Luteinizing hormone B. Follicle stimulating hormone C. Human chorionic somatomammotropin D. Human chorionic gonadotropin

D. Human chorionic gonadotropin

22. A couple planning their first pregnancy asks the nurse about the accuracy of home pregnancy tests. The nurse replies, "Home pregnancy tests are widely used today." However, it is most important those perspective parents: A. Wait at least 3 weeks after the first missed periods B. Wait at least 9 days after the first missed periods C. Make certain that the blood is correctly placed on the stick D. Use a sterile urine specimen to complete the test

B. Wait at least 9 days after the first missed periods RATIONALE A Too early C Correct: Specimen is urine, not blood D Correct: Sterile technique is not necessary. Clean technique can be utilized

23. To confirm a patient's pregnancy, the nurse should give which of the following instructions regarding the required urine specimen? A. Give a voided specimen during her first visit B. Instruct her on how to give a sterile specimen in the office C. Tell her to withhold fluid intake during the night and bring in the first voided specimen in the morning D. A catheterized specimen will be required

C. Tell her to withhold fluid intake during the night and bring in the first voided specimen in the morning

24. What is the narrow space seen when labia minora are separated that also contains the vaginal orifice, Bartholin's gland, Skene's gland and urinary meatus? A. Fourchette B. Vaginal orifice C. Vestibule D. Perineum

C. Vestibule

25. A Class I Pap smear result means A. There is cervical inflammation B. It is probably malignant C. It is possibly malignant D. It is normal

D. It is normal RATIONALE A Class II B Class IV C Class V

26. What are the two hormones produced by the ovaries? A. FSH and LH B. T3 and T4 C. Estrogen and progesterone D. Insulin and glucagon

C. Estrogen and progesterone

27. The sperms can survive in the female reproductive tract for how long? A. 24 hours B. 48-72 hours C. 48-72 days D. 1 week

B. 48-72 hours

28. Semen's analysis of Fara's husband is requested. Which of the following should NOT be a part of the instruction to be given to the husband? A. Abstain from intercourse for several days then collect fresh ejaculate for testing B. Immerse the specimen in a tumbler of ice cubes and transport it immediately to the testing facility C. Keep the specimen warm by placing the container under the arm or close to the skin D. Entire specimen is collected in a clean, dry container and immediately transported to the laboratory

B. Immerse the specimen in a tumbler of ice cubes and transport it immediately to the testing facility RATIONALE Options A, C, and D are proper techniques in collecting semen specimen.

29. What is the periodic uterine bleeding in response to cyclic hormonal changes? A. Fertilization B. Ovulation C. Implantation D. Menstruation

D. Menstruation

30. The couples are undergoing testing for infertility. Infertility is said to exist when A. The woman has no uterus B. A woman has no children C. A couple has been trying to conceive for 1 year D. A couple has wanted a child for 6 months

C. A couple has been trying to conceive for 1 year

31. Another client named Linda is diagnosed as having endometriosis. This condition interferes with fertility because A. Endometrial implants can block the fallopian tubes B. The uterine cervix becomes inflamed and swollen C. The ovaries stop producing adequate estrogen D. Pressure on the pituitary leads to decreased FSH levels

A. Endometrial implants can block the fallopian tubes

32. If a person finds sexual fulfillment with a member of the opposite sex, he is a A. Heterosexual B. Homosexual C. Bisexual D. Transsexual

A. Heterosexual

33. The involuntary contraction of the muscle at the outlet of the vagina when coitus is attempted is called A. Premature ejaculation B. Vaginismus C. Impotence D. Dyspareunia

B. Vaginismus

34. While talking with Joy, 2 new patients arrived and they are covered with large towels and the nurse noticed that there are many cameraman and news people outside of the OPD. Upon assessment, the nurse noticed that both of them are still nude and the male client's penis is still inside the female client's vagina; and the male client's said that, "I can't pull it." Vaginismus was your first impression. You know that psychological cause of vaginismus is related to: A. The male client inserted the penis too deeply that it stimulates vaginal closure B. The penis was too large that's why the vagina triggered its defense to attempt to close it C. The vagina does not want to be penetrated D. It is due to learning patterns of the female client where she views her act as bad or sinful

D. It is due to learning patterns of the female client where she views her act as bad or sinful RATIONALE Tip: The focus of the problem is psychological cause. Options A, B, and C, regardless if they are correct, are all physiological causes.

35. A pregnant woman is curious about certain things related to her pregnancy. She asked the nurse, "In which portion of the fallopian tube does fertilization normally occurs?" A. Ampulla B. Interstitial segment C. Isthmus D. Infundibulum

A. Ampulla

36. What is the immune globulin that crosses the placenta? A. IgA B. IgG C. IgE D. IgZ

B. IgG RATIONALE A Saliva/Body fluids C Allergic reactions D No such thing as IgZ

37. Which finding would normally be achieved at 12 weeks gestation? A. FHT can be heard upon Doppler B. Fetal movement can be felt by Julia C. Sex well differentiated D. Lanugo covers the entire body

A. FHT can be heard upon Doppler RATIONALE B 5th month/20 weeks C 4th month/16 weeks D 5th month/20 weeks

38. Upon assessment, which of the following findings would normally be achieved at 5 months gestation? A. FHT can be heard upon Doppler B. Fetal movement can be felt by Julia C. Braxton Hicks contraction D. Sex differentiation begins

B. Fetal movement can be felt by Julia RATIONALE Otherwise known as Quickening. A 3rd month/12 weeks D 2nd month/8 weeks

39. Which finding would normally be achieved at 24 weeks gestation? A. FHT can't be heard using a Doppler B. No fetal movement C. The fetus can hear D. Lanugo disappears

C. The fetus can hear RATIONALE A 3rd month/12 weeks B 1st to 4th month/4 to 16 weeks D 9th month/36 weeks

40. Linda, knowing nurse Josh's specialization asks what artificial insemination by donor entails. Which would be your best answer if you were Nurse Josh? A. Donor sperm are introduced vaginally into the uterus or cervix B. Donor sperm are injected intra-abdominally into each ovary C. Artificial sperm are injected vaginally to test tubal pregnancy D. The husband's sperm is administered intravenously weekly

A. Donor sperm are introduced vaginally into the uterus or cervix

NP II Flashcards

(301 cards)