OD week11 Flashcards

(41 cards)

1
Q

⚡ What are the four levels of visual pathway lesions?

A

T1: Anterior eye/outer retina/choroid; T2: Optic nerve/inner retina; T3: Optic chiasm; T4: Retrochiasmal pathway (optic tracts, radiations, visual cortex).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What kind of visual field defects occur at the optic chiasm?

A

Bitemporal field defects (heteronymous), respecting the vertical midline.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What kind of visual field defects occur with retrochiasmal lesions?

A

Homonymous field defects; the more posterior the lesion, the more congruous the defect.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

⚡ What is the most common cause of chiasmal disease?

A

Compression of the chiasm by pituitary gland tumours.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the typical visual signs of chiasmal compression?

A

Progressive bitemporal visual field loss, possible VA reduction if macular fibres affected, colour desaturation, and sometimes diplopia from CN III/IV/VI involvement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is Pituitary Apoplexy?

A

Sudden haemorrhagic infarction of a pituitary adenoma causing severe headache, vision loss, ptosis, and ophthalmoplegia. Requires emergency admission.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the management for pituitary lesions compressing the chiasm?

A

Urgent referral for neuroimaging and surgical decompression. Regular visual field monitoring for recurrence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

⚡ What is a Pituitary Chromophobe Adenoma?

A

Most common tumour affecting the chiasm. Secretes prolactin → amenorrhoea, infertility, galactorrhoea in women; impotence, gynaecomastia in men.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is a Craniopharyngioma?

A

Slow-growing tumour from Rathke’s pouch remnants; causes IT then ST field loss by compressing the chiasm from above and behind.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is a Tuberculum Sellae Meningioma?

A

Compresses junction of optic nerve and chiasm, causing junctional scotoma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is a Sphenoid Ridge Meningioma?

A

Compresses optic nerve (ON) early if medial; later if lateral. Causes proptosis and hyperostosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is a Foster Kennedy Syndrome?

A

Optic atrophy in one eye and papilloedema in the fellow eye due to olfactory groove meningioma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What kind of field defect is caused by internal carotid aneurysm?

A

Binasal hemianopia, worse on the side of the aneurysm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

⚡ What are the main causes of retrochiasmal visual pathway disease?

A

Stroke (most common), brain tumour, MS, infection (TB), or vascular malformation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is a Wernicke Hemianopic Pupil?

A

Pupil light reflex absent when affected half of retina is stimulated (optic tract lesion).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What field defect results from temporal lobe (Meyer’s loop) lesion?

A

Contralateral superior quadrantanopia – ‘pie in the sky’.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What field defect results from parietal lobe lesion?

A

Contralateral inferior quadrantanopia – ‘pie on the floor’.

18
Q

What lesion causes macular sparing?

A

Occipital cortex lesion supplied by posterior cerebral artery, with macular area supplied by middle cerebral artery.

19
Q

What are key features of occipital lobe lesions?

A

Congruous homonymous hemianopia, macular sparing, formed visual hallucinations, Riddoch phenomenon (perceive moving but not stationary targets).

20
Q

What is the management of retrochiasmal lesions?

A

Urgent neuroimaging and neuro-ophthalmology referral. Low vision rehabilitation for field defects.

21
Q

⚡ What is the role of PPRF?

A

Horizontal gaze centre in pons that connects to ipsilateral CN VI nucleus and contralateral CN III via MLF for conjugate horizontal gaze.

22
Q

What is the role of riMLF?

A

Vertical gaze centre controlling subnuclei of muscles for upgaze and downgaze.

23
Q

What are supranuclear ophthalmoplegias?

A

Gaze palsies where voluntary eye movements (saccades, pursuit) are affected but vestibulo-ocular reflex (VOR) preserved.

24
Q

⚡ What is Parinaud’s Syndrome?

A

Dorsal midbrain syndrome with upgaze/downgaze palsy, Collier’s sign (lid retraction), convergence-retraction nystagmus, and light-near dissociation.

25
What are the causes of Parinaud’s Syndrome?
Pinealoma, hydrocephalus, meningitis, stroke, or MS.
26
What is Vertical Saccadic Palsy?
Lesion of riMLF causing impaired vertical saccades (down > up).
27
What is Horizontal Saccadic Palsy?
Pontine lesion affecting PPRF causing horizontal saccadic limitation.
28
⚡ What is PSP?
Degenerative brainstem disease in old age with supranuclear gaze palsy starting with downgaze, progressing to upgaze/horizontal gaze, dementia, ataxia. Fatal within a decade.
29
⚡ What is INO?
Lesion of the MLF. Ipsilateral adduction loss with contralateral abducting nystagmus. Convergence preserved.
30
What are causes of INO?
MS (bilateral), stroke, tumour, trauma, infection.
31
⚡ What is One-and-a-Half Syndrome?
Lesion involving both MLF and PPRF → ipsilateral gaze palsy and INO. Only contralateral eye abducts with ataxic nystagmus.
32
What is the management for INO or One-and-a-Half Syndrome?
Urgent referral to rule out stroke or MS; treat underlying cause.
33
⚡ What are the causes of LMN facial nerve palsy?
Vascular (diabetes), trauma, tumours, viral infection (Ramsay Hunt), sarcoidosis, Bell’s palsy.
34
What are ocular signs of facial nerve palsy?
Incomplete lid closure, paralytic ectropion, exposure keratopathy, punctate epithelial loss, epiphora.
35
What is the management for facial nerve palsy?
Protect cornea: lubricants, patching, taping lids, scleral CLs, tarsorrhaphy. Refer for underlying cause.
36
What is the treatment for Bell’s Palsy?
Systemic steroids (prednisone), possibly antivirals (acyclovir). Usually recovers in 3 weeks.
37
⚡ What is Myasthenia Gravis?
Autoimmune disease with antibodies blocking acetylcholine receptors at NMJ causing fatiguable weakness. 75% present with ocular signs (ptosis/diplopia).
38
What are the hallmark ocular signs of Myasthenia Gravis?
Variable, fatiguable ptosis and diplopia; worsens with fatigue, improves with rest. Pupil unaffected.
39
What are diagnostic tests for Myasthenia Gravis?
Fatigue tests (upgaze 2 mins), Cogan’s lid twitch, sleep/rest test, ice test, Tensilon/prostigmin test.
40
What systemic symptoms suggest severe Myasthenia Gravis?
Weakness in limbs, dysphagia, dysarthria, dyspnoea (respiratory risk).
41
What is the management for Myasthenia Gravis?
Urgent referral. Blood tests (AChR antibodies), EMG, thyroid tests, CT chest for thymoma. Tx: pyridostigmine, prednisone, immunosuppressants, thymectomy.