1
Q
Maximum operating altitude
A
45,000
2
Q
APU maximum operating altitude
A
35,000
3
Q
APU maximum starting altitude
A
31,000
4
Q
Maximum altitude for flap and gear
A
18,000
5
Q
Maximum altitude with one engine in icing
A
15,000
6
Q
Altitude at which the passenger O2 masks will drop
A
14,800+ or -200
7
Q
Maximum altitude for an APU ground start
A
13,500
8
Q
Maximum altitude to takeoff and land as per Net Jets
A
10,000
9
Q
Minimum altitude to takeoff and land as per Net Jets
A
-1000
10
Q
Minimum altitude for speed brake extension
A
500
11
Q
Minimum altitude for auto pilot use in route
A
1000
12
Q
Minimum altitude for auto pilot use on approach
A
160
13
Q
Minimum altitude for auto pilot use in takeoff climb and missed approach
A
400
14
Q
Maximum altitude with a single source wing anti ice
A
25,000
15
Q
Maximum ramp and taxi weight
A
39,700
16
Q
Maximum takeoff weight
A
39,500
17
Q
Maximum landing weight
A
33,500
18
Q
Maximum zero fuel weight
A
26,800
19
Q
Maximum total weight in the baggage comp
A
1000 pounds
20
Q
Maximum weight on the floor of the baggage compartment
A
 750 pounds
21
Q
Maximum weight on the coat rod in the baggage compartment
A
50 pounds
22
Q
Maximum weight on the right shelf in the baggage compartment
A
250 pounds
23
Q
Maximum weight on the left shelf in the baggage compartment
A
55+55
24
Q
Maximum speed, Mach number MMO
A
.84
25
Maximum speed VMO
325
26
Maximum speed VMO below 8000 feet
290
27
Maximum flaps one speed, VFE
250
28
Maximum flaps two speed VFE
230
29
Maximum flaps full speed VFE
180 
30
Maximum landing gear operating and extended speed VLO and VLE
 230
31
Maximum turbulent air, speed, turbulent penetration speed
235/.75 M
32
Maximum glide speed
 190
33
Maximum tire ground speed
 195
34
Maximus speed in RVSM air space
190
35
Minimum speed in icing, (, except for takeoff, approach, landing )
200
36
Maximum tailwind for takeoff and landing
10
37
Maximum crosswind for takeoff and landing
25
38
Maximum crosswind for a contaminated runway that’s less than 150 feet wide
10
39
Maximum crosswind for a contaminated runway that’s more than 150 feet wide
15
40
Minimum manual speeds flaps up
175
41
Minimum manual speeds flaps 1
160
42
Minimum manual speeds flaps two
150
43
Minimum manual speeds flaps full
VREF +10
44
When are we allowed to arm the auto throttle’s?
When cleared for takeoff?
45
Engine starter limits
Three try’s and then 15 minute cooldown
46
Dry motor limit
 Five minutes then rest 15 minutes
47
Maximum time takeoff thrust all engines operating
5 minutes
48
Maximum time takeoff, thrust one engine in operative
10 minutes
49
Transient N2 percentage
99.9%
50
Minimum engine start pressure
32. Psi.
51
Maximum tail wind for engine start
16 kn
52
Minimum oil temperature for engine start
-40°C
53
Minimum oil temperature above idle
 10°C
54
Minimum oil, temperature, climb, thrust, or higher
15°C
55
What is the make and model of the APU?
Honeywell 36–150 EMB
56
What is the start limit on the APU?
 Six consecutive starts at 10 minute intervals and then one hour rest
57
What is the unsuccessful start limits on the APU?
Three consecutive starts 20 minutes off two consecutive starts one hour off
58
At what temperature is APU ground start prohibited?
-40°C SAT
59
For an APU fire if you don’t engage the fire bottle, when does it engage automatically?
In 11 seconds
60
When are the three times you’re not allowed to start the APU
During
engine shut down
fueling
or if you have a BATTERY OFF/VOLT CAS message
61
GPU voltage maximum
30 V
62
GPU maximum load in amps
1500 A
63
Minimum temperature for the battery for an APU battery start
-20°C
64
Maximum generator load
100%
65
Maximum APU generator load
 100%
66
Are you allowed to takeoff with a BATTERY OTEMP CAS message on ground
No
67
Where are the fuel tanks and what is their capacity?
In the wings and they are 14,511 pounds
68
What is the minimum and maximum temperature range for the fuel?
-37°C to +57°C
69
What is the fuel quantity for hot spare loads?
5400 pounds
70
What is the 45 minute reserve fuel load?
1627 pounds
71
What is the emergency fuel quantity?
1367 pounds
72
What is the fuel load when parking in inclement weather
 9500 pounds
73
What is the maximum fuel in balance?
500 pounds and 2000 pounds in an emergency
74
What is the pressure range for pressure fueling
10 to 55 psi
75
What is the pressure range for de fueling?
0 to 6 psi
76
What is the approach category?
Category C but if the approach speed is greater than 140 kn, it’s category D
77
Can you depart if any GDU is in reversionary mode?
No
78
Maximum differential overpressurization
10.3 psi
79
Normal differential
10.2 psi
80
What are the three things you need to check when operating above 41,000 feet?
Both PRESS SOURCE and ENG BLEED buttons and ECS should be in normal
81
What is the cabin pressure at 45,000 feet?
5950 feet
82
Explain high elevation Airfield mode
The aircraft pressurization system will go into high elevation Airfield mode automatically when the FMS destination or departure field elevation is greater than 8000 feet or the manually entered field elevation is greater than 8000 feet
83
When does the normal climb schedule start?
At 24,800 feet
84
What are the three limitations related to thrust reverses?
Must be idle by 45 kn are not allowed during touch and goes and should never be used to back up the aircraft
85
How do you know if you’re an icing conditions?
ICING CAS or
Temperature is below +10°C in visible moisture
86
Maximum temperature for wing ice protection
15°C SAT
87
Maximum temperature for stabilizer ice protection
25°C SAT
88
In cold weather, Operations, what should you do with pitot static heat just before taking off
One minute prior to takeoff select pitot static heat on for 15 seconds
89
What is the limit for pitot static heat on the ground?
Two minutes
90
What should you do when temperatures are between 35 and 45°C?
Close cabin door within 60 minutes
91
What should you do in temperature is about 45°C
 Close cabin door within 30 minutes
92
What is the brake cooldown after rejected takeoff?
 10 minutes
93
What is the overall operating temperature range of the aircraft
-77°C to 50°C SAT
94
What is the aircraft length?
 73’2”
95
What is the aircraft wingspan?
68’11”
96
What is the aircraft height?
19’5”
97
What is the wing sweep?
 31.8°
98
How many vortex generators per wing
12
99
How many static wicks on the aircraft?
 15
100
How many seat?
Eight
101
How many passenger oxygen masks?
8+2 lap babies
102
Minimum runway length dry
 4000 feet
103
Minimum runway length, wet contaminated with Ops review
5500 feet
104
Minimum runway width
65 feet
105
Maximum runway slope
Plus or - 2%
106
What is the capacity of the oxygen bottles in the nose?
The one on the left is 115 ft.³ and the one on the right is 77 ft.³
107
What is the altitude limit of the crew oxygen masks?
 40,000 feet
108
What is the altitude limit of the cabin oxygen mask?
25,000 feet
109
How many masks are in the galley in the laboratory?
Two masks in the galley and two in the laboratory
110
Which seats in the cabin have two oxygen masks?
Front two seat seats
111
When do the mask oxygen flow stop in the cabin automatically?
At 10 to 12,000 foot cabin altitude
112
When does the Emergency descent mode EDM engage
When the aircraft is above 30,000 feet and the auto pilot is on and the cabin altitude climbs above 14,700 feet
113
What actions does the EDM Emergency descent mode take
Aircraft pitches down
sets altitude to 15,000 feet
heading Bug turns 90° left
auto throttle go to idle
and speed is set at VMO or MMO MINUS 10 knots
and there’s a CAS message and aural voice
114
What type of toilet is it?
 Non-belted toilet
115
How much water is flushed in low and high flush mode
3 ounces in low flush flow mode and 6 ounces in high flesh flow mode
116
What is the wastewater reservoir capacity?
 6.4 gallons
117
What is the potable water reservoir capacity?
 12.5 gallons
118
What is the pressure of the engine driven hydraulic pumps?
3000 psi
119
What are the eight subsystem of the hydraulics?
Landing gear
emergency landing gear
spoilers
thrust reversers
rudder control
Nose wheel steering
brakes,
power transfer and conversion unit PTCU
120
What type of brakes are they?
Carbon
121
Does the emergency brake have anti-skid
No
122
When do you get locked wheel protection?
Above 25 kn
123
What is the pressure of the emergency brake
700 dry psi 400 wet
124
How many degrees does the Nose wheel steering and rudder give you?
The rudder gives you 7.5° and the tiller gives you 80.5° for a combination of 88°
125
Where does the windshield heater get its power from
The six electric inverters
126
The longitude can carry a maximum amount of how many people, including the flight crew
13
127
What does the INT BAG DOOR OPEN CAS message indicate
In the taxi takeoff or landing configurations, the door is not latched or has been open longer than 10 minutes in Flight
128
What are the required documents that have to be on the aircraft?
1 aircraft registration
2 FAA airworthiness certificate
3 airplane flight manual AFM
4 Garmin G5000 pilots guide
5 GH3900 electronic standby instrument system pilots guide
129
How do you drain the portable water tank in Flight?
GTC cabin management page
130
Where are three places that potable water is used in the Longitude?
Refreshment center
vanity center
toilet vacuum assist rinse/flush
131
What are the primary electrical power sources for the Longitude?
Two batteries and two generators
132
EPU power is available when the EXT PWR button says what
AVAIL
133
If the APU and left generator are on at the same time, electrical system, logic will give priority to which one
Left generator
134
What are three times that the bus tie relay will automatically open on the ground
Either Emergency bus senses a fault condition
or an engine start is complete and both generators are online
or a primary power source is active on both bus systems
135
What do generator control units GCU do
Protect electrical systems from momentary voltage drops
136
The APU generator provides power to which bus
Left Emergency bus
137
What are the two trigger points which caused the battery over temp CAS message to display and the respective AURAL alert to play for NICAD batteries
Greater than 63°C and greater than 71°C
138
What does the electrical system logic do if a generator is lost?
Closes the bus tie contactor
139
What two things happen if the output of one generator exceeds 525 A for 60 seconds or more
An automatic load shed function will be activated
and the LOADSHED L and/or R displays
140
If The LOADSHED L Andor R is displayed the automatic load shed function will remove power from what
The respective side window pane windshield heat
141
When does the interior bus automatic load shed functionality activate
When one generator is available and LOADSHED L and or R displays
142
Before connecting an external power unit to the aircraft, it must be set to
26 to 30 V DC and 1500 A maximum
143
What are two things we should do if an external power cart is used to charge the batteries
The pilot should monitor the charging process and the pilot should not leave the aircraft unattended
144
When external power is connected to the airplane and is powering the aircraft, the EXT PWR button indicates what
On
145
When the airplane is on the ground, the bus contactor is controlled manually or automatically
Automatically
146
What happens once the second battery is turned on with regards to the bus tie
It opens
147
When the airplane is in Flight, the bus tie contactor is controlled manually or automatically
Manually
148
What purposes do the generator control unit GCU provide
Generator regulation and control
Over voltage protection
Selective generator disengagement
149
Describe items on the mission bus
They are items that are sufficient to fly the airplane normally but without redundancy of multiple systems
150
The standby battery is charged by ____ bus and it supplies a minimum ____ minutes of electrical power to _____ bus in the event power to the_____ bus is lost
L MISSION
180
STBY
R MISSION
151
What does the amber light on the STBY PWR switch mean
The standby bus is no longer receiving power from the right mission bus
152
What condition will cause the bus tie to open automatically in the air?
An overcurrent condition on one of the buses
153
Which rheostat controls all instrument panel lighting
Panel
154
Which electrical source does not power emergency lighting
Standby battery
155
What are two features of the Longitude taxi light?
It illuminates airborne as a landing light in case the landing lights are iced over, and it turns as the nose wheel turns
156
Provided the GTC beacon button is in normal when will the beacon flash
When the run/stop switch is in run
157
What lights do the recognition lights use
Low power, landing lights
158
What is the power on default for pulse lights
Pulse with TCAS TA/RA ON
159
What happens if cabinet entry lights are left on with Main DC power removed?
They are automatically turned off after 10 minutes
160
Which area of the aircraft is interior touch panel lighting provided for
Refreshment center
161
A flashing master warning button will remain illuminated until when
The button is pressed
162
What is the difference in a caution CAS message And advisory CAS message
Caution requires immediate awareness and subsequent response while an advisory requires awareness and may require subsequent response
163
How long will a CAS message remain displayed?
Until the associated condition is resolved
164
How are fake CAS messages prevented
inhibits
165
Where are auto test results displayed
Pre-Flight synoptic page
166
Can a caution CAS trigger a voice alert
No
167
What is the difference in the AURAL alert associated with a warning CAS and a caution CAS
The warning CAS is a double chime and then a spoken message that it says three times and a caution. CAS is a single chime and has no spoken message.
168
How does the Crew acknowledge an AURAL alert
By pressing the master warning button
169
If you suppress an alert and then shut the aircraft down, what happens when you power the aircraft back up
All alerts are reset to display mode after landing.
All alerts are reset to display mode when the G5000 avionic suite Powers up
and all alerts are reset to display mode when auto test type one is running.
170
What happens if a higher level warning activates when a lower level AURAL alert is in progress
The lower level voice alert will finish the current segment of the AURAL alert then the higher level voice alert will begin
171
How are multiple AURAL alerts handled at the same time
They are played in their prioritized order
172
How many fuel quantity probes are in each wing and what type are they?
11 and they are capacitance type
173
Where does motive flow pressure for the primary ejector pump come from?
Engine driven fuel pump
174
Each side of the fuel system includes how many motive flow pumps
Four
175
When is boost pump operation not automatic with the switch in normal
Low fuel level
176
Maximum fuel capacity of the Longitude
14,511 pounds
177
Where does the APU get its fuel from?
Right side boost pump
178
What does FUEL GRV XFLOW ON mean
It means both gravity cross flow valves are not closed with the button in the closed position and fuel may still flow between the tanks
179
When does the fuel quantity show in amber
When total fuel level drops below 1000 pounds or either wing fuel level drops below 500 pounds
180
When do you get the FUEL LEVEL LOW CAS message
When fuel in either wing is below approximately 500 pounds
181
If a fuel quantity signal is lost or invalid what does the engine indicated system indicator show?
Fuel quantity is replaced by amber dashes
182
What happens when the red APU FIRE light illuminates
APU automatically shuts down and the APU fire bottle discharges if the APU FIRE button is not pushed
183
What does the APU provide?
DC electrical power and bleed air
184
How is the APU oil level check during preflight?
Is checked through the single point refueling panel
185
APU bleed air is available for what
Cockpit and cabin environmental systems
186
How does the FADEC prevent stalls and surges during engine start?
By controlling the surge bleed valves
187
During normal operations, the FADEC is powered by what?
A permanent magnet alternator
188
ENG DRY MTR PROC L/R displayed to Signal the Flight crew that the engine was previously shut down how long ago
Within 15 and 180 minutes ago
189
During the ENG DRY MTR PROC L/R procedure. The engine will be motored up to what N2 or how many seconds whichever occurs first.
19% or 15 seconds
190
Why should aircraft battery power not be turned off until three minutes after engine shut down
To allow the FADEC to complete self test and data acquisition
191
How can you activate an engine igniter?
On the Garmin touchscreen controller GTC
192
What does the thrust mode indicator TMI indicate
The value of the N1 V bug
193
What are the two ways in engine start process can be aborted at any point during an engine start
The FADEC detects a start issue during start
or the Flight crew pushes the respective RUN/STOP button to STOP
194
What does the T bug on the EIS show?
It correlates the throttle lever and angle to N1
195
Is the FADEC still operable if aircraft electrical power is lost
Yes
196
What uses throttle position and airspeed to determine the appropriate reverse thrust setting
FADEC
197
During an engine start on the ground using the APU the FADEC cuts off APU bleed air to the air turbine starter at what N2
46%
198
What do you see if the FADEC detect an issue during start and terminate the engine start
START ABORTED L and R
199
How does the engine fire protection system detect fire?
Fire detection elements
200
What is the extinguisher agent in the engine fire bottle?
Halon
201
What can’t the Garmin touchscreen controller GTC engine fire test check for 
HALON status
202
What is used to extinguish a cabin fire?
A portable HALON extinguisher
203
What does pressing a ENG FIRE button do with respect to the generator
It disabled the corresponding generator
204
A BOTTLE ARMED button will extinguish when what happens
When the button is pushed
205
When the respective engine fire extinguisher bottle pressure is low the FIRE BOTTLE LOW 1 and or 2 CAS message displays what colors on the ground and in Flight
Amber on the ground and White in Flight
206
Does pressing a ENG FIRE button close the engine, bleed, air firewall shut off valve
No
207
Where is the cockpit handheld fire extinguisher located?
On the cockpit, bulkhead outboard aft of the co pilot seat
208
What is the first step in responding to a ENGINE FIRE CAS message
Call for the ENGINE FIRE checklist
209
How are TT two probes heated
Electrically
210
How are PITOT static tubes and ports heated
Electrically
211
When do you check engine oil?
Within 30 minutes of running
212
What does no N1 usually indicate?
Ice at engine inlet
213
Which battery do you disconnect first?
Right one
214
Under which FAA part is the aircraft certified
Part 25
215
How many rafts are there and how many people do they hold?
 Two rafts eight people per but can go to 24 max
216
When do you get the AVAIL EXT light 
When external power is connected and is within parameters
217
What is the purpose of the down wash lights?
Identify the wing tip at night
218
If you don’t latch the main cabin door within 10 seconds of closing, what happens
Opens again
219
What does the green blowout disc on the bottom of the aircraft being blown out indicate
Indicates that the other disc has blown out on the oxygen regulator
220
Which is the only lock on the aircraft that’s monitored
Tail cone door
221
What do bleed air temperature control valves do
Keep bleed air temperature within acceptable temperatures
222
What does the manifold isolation valve do?
Closes when needed to isolate bleed air to be restricted from engine starts
223
How are bleed air leaks detected
Leak detect loops and resistance temperature devices RTD
224
Where is the engine bleed air taken from on the engine?
High stage engine compressor, intermediate stage engine compressor and engine fan bypass duct
Netjets
flashcards
Decks in class (20)
# Cards
-
Precision Runway Monitor6
-
Cold Weather, Operations13
-
Upset Extended Envelope Training6
-
HAZMAT2
-
General Emergency Training10
-
GNSS and GPS interference4
-
International Operations31
-
Flight Planning And Runway Analysis2
-
Meteorology4
-
PBCS5
-
Chp 12 Limitations Red Bold Items33
-
Chp 2 Longitude AOM20
-
CPDLC8
-
Chp 12 Limitations Non Red78
-
Flows12
-
Ground School60
-
Fire CAS23
-
Actions And Callouts89
-
Oral Initial224
-
IOE25
