Part 2 Flashcards

(50 cards)

1
Q

Inorganic cofactors include the following EXCEPT:

A. Ca2+
B. Mn2+
C. Zn2+
D. PO4 2-

A

D. PO4 2-

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2
Q

A CK assay using Oliver–Rosalki method gives an error flag indicating substrate depletion. The sample is diluted 1:2 and 1:4 and reassayed. After correcting for the dilution, the results are as follows: 1:2 dilution = 3,000 IU/L; 1:4 dilution = 3,600 IU/L. What is the most likely explanation?

A. The serum became contaminated prior to making the 1:4 dilution
B. The wrong pipet was used to make one of the dilutions
C. An endogenous competitive inhibitor is present in the sample
D. An error has been made in calculating the enzyme activity of one of the two dilutions

A

C. An endogenous competitive inhibitor is present in the sample

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3
Q

Which of the following types of inhibitors binds to allosteric sites causing a change in the enzyme’s conformation?

A. Competitive
B. Non-competitive
C. Uncompetitive
D. None of these

A

B. Non-competitive

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4
Q

Increasing the substrate concentration will increase ______ inhibition.

A. Competitive
B. Noncompetitive
C. Uncompetitive
D. End product

A

A. Competitive

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4
Q

Enzymes with macroforms include the following EXCEPT:

A. Amylase
B. CK
C. GGT
D. G6PD

A

D. G6PD

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5
Q

Which AMI marker becomes abnormal 4-6 hours postinfarction, peaks in 12–24 hours, and usually returns to normal within 2-3 days?

A. Troponin
B. AST
C. CK-MB
D. Myoglobin

A

C. CK-MB

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5
Q

Which of the following is the most abundant CK isoenzyme found in striated muscle and normal serum?

A. CK1
B. CK2
C. CK3
D. Macro-CK

A

C. CK3 (CK - MM)

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5
Q

A slow cathodic peak and an intermediate peak in CK isoenzyme fractionation are consistent with

A. Muscular dystrophy
B. Viral hepatitis
C. Brain tumor
D. Myocardial infarction

A

D. Myocardial infarction

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5
Q

Which is the most labile CK isoenzyme?

A. CK-BB
B. CK-MB
C. CK-MM
D. CK-Mi

A

A. CK-BB (CK-1)

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6
Q

The following are characterized by pronounced CK elevation EXCEPT:

A. Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy
B. Polymyositis
C. Myocardial infarction
D. Pulmonary infarction

A

D. Pulmonary infarction

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6
Q

Calculate the anion gap given the following information: glucose – 124 mg/dL; BUN – 22 mg/dL;
sodium – 138 mmol/L; potassium – 5 mmol/L; chloride – 105 mmol/L; bicarbonate – 25 mmol/L.

A. 13 mmol/L
B. 13 mOsm/kg
C. 290 mOsm/kg
D. 290 mmol/L

A

A. 13 mmol/L

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6
Q

Low anion gap may be caused by:

A. Decreased unmeasured cations and increased unmeasured anions
B. Increased unmeasured cations and anions
C. Increased unmeasured cations and decreased unmeasured anions
D. Decreased unmeasured cations and anions

A

C. Increased unmeasured cations and decreased unmeasured anions

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7
Q

The denominator in the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation represents the function of the:

A. Kidneys
B. Lungs
C. Blood
D. Heart

A

B. Lungs

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7
Q

Which of the following correctly describes the composition of a buffer solution?

A. Weak acid and its conjugate base
B. Strong acid and its conjugate base
C. Strong base and its conjugate acid
D. Weak base and its salt

A

A. Weak acid and its conjugate base

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7
Q

Which of the following correctly describes a base?

A. Yields hydrogen ions when dissolved in water
B. Donates proton in a reaction
C. Accepts a pair of electrons to form a covalent bond
D. Gives off hydroxyl ions in solution

A

D. Gives off hydroxyl ions in solution

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7
Q

Increased anion gaps can result from:
1. Lactic acidosis
2. Uremia
3. Salicylate toxicity
4. Hyponatremia

A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 4
C. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

A

C. 1, 2, and 3

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8
Q

Which of the following represents the metabolic component of acid-base status?

A. Carbonic acid
B. Bicarbonate
C. Hydrogen
D. Carbon dioxide

A

B. Bicarbonate

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8
Q

The following are associated with decreased anion gap EXCEPT:

A. Hypoalbuminemia
B. Multiple myeloma
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Ethylene glycol poisoning

A

D. Ethylene glycol poisoning

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8
Q

Which of the following represents the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation as applied to blood pH?

A. 6.1 + log HCO3

–/(0.03 x PCO2)

B. 6.1 + log HCO3
–/PCO2
C. 6.1 + log DCO2/HCO3
D. 6.1 + log (0.03 x PCO2)/HCO3

A

A. 6.1 + log HCO3

–/(0.03 x PCO2)

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9
Q

The pressure of dissolved CO2 (pCO2) represents the concentration of:

A. Hydrogen ions
B. Dissolved oxygen
C. Carbonic acid
D. Bicarbonate

A

C. Carbonic acid

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10
Q

The term pharmacodynamics is an expression of the relationship between:

A. Dose and physiological effect
B. Drug concentration at target sites and physiological effect
C. Time and serum drug concentration
D. Blood and tissue drug levels

A

B. Drug concentration at target sites and physiological effect

10
Q

Which of the following statements best describes the TD50 of a compound?

A. The dosage of a substance that would be predicted to cause a toxic effect in 50% of the population
B. The dosage of a substance that would produce therapeutic benefit in 50% of the population
C. The percentage of individuals who would experience a toxic response at 50% of the lethal dose
D. The percentage of the population who would experience a toxic response after an oral dosage of 50 mg

A

A. The dosage of a substance that would be predicted to cause a toxic effect in 50% of the population

10
Q

Select the pharmacological parameters that determine plasma drug concentration.

A. Absorption, anabolism, bioactivation, excretion
B. Equilibration, biotransformation, reabsorption, elimination
C. Absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion
D. Ingestion, assimilation, metabolism, elimination

A

C. Absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion

10
Q

The phrase “first-pass metabolism” means that:

A. One hundred percent of a drug is excreted by the liver
B. All drug is inactivated by hepatic enzymes after passing through the liver
C. Some drugs are metabolized from the portal circulation, reducing bioavailability
D. The drug must be converted in the liver to an active form

A

C. Some drugs are metabolized from the portal circulation, reducing bioavailability

11
Which statement about steady-state drug levels is true? A. The absorbed drug is greater than the amount excreted B. Steady state can be measured after three elimination half-lives C. Constant intravenous infusion will give the same peaks and troughs as an oral dose D. Oral dosing intervals give peaks and troughs that are within the therapeutic range
D. Oral dosing intervals give peaks and troughs that are within the therapeutic range
11
A drug has a half-life of 6 hours. If a dose is given every 6 hours, a steady-state drug level would usually be achieved in: A. 3-6 hours B. 6-12 hours C. 30-42 hours D. 48-60 hours
C. 30-42 hours
12
Which of the following chemicals selectively inhibits bone ALP isoenzyme? A. Levamisole B. Phenylalanine C. Urea D. Leucine
C. Urea
12
When a therapeutic drug is suspected of causing toxicity, which specimen is the most appropriate for an initial investigation? A. Trough blood sample B. Peak blood sample C. Urine at the time of symptoms D. Gastric fluid at the time of symptoms
B. Peak blood sample
12
When should blood samples for trough drug levels be collected? A. 30 minutes after peak levels B. 45 minutes before the next dose C. 1–2 hours after the last dose D. Immediately before the next dose is given
D. Immediately before the next dose is given
12
For which drug group are both peak and trough measurements usually required? A. Antiarrhythmics B. Analgesics C. Tricyclic antidepressants D. Aminoglycoside antibiotics
D. Aminoglycoside antibiotics
12
Increased trough levels of aminoglycosides in the serum are often associated with toxic effects to which organ? A. Heart B. Kidney C. Pancreas D. Liver
B. Kidney
13
Which of the following characterizes uncompensated respiratory alkalosis? A. Decreased HCO3 - reabsorption B. Increased CO2 elimination C. High pCO2 D. High HCO3-
B. Increased CO2 elimination
13
Which of the following are considered primary tissue sources of alkaline phosphatase? A. Kidney, pancreas, heart B. Bone, liver, intestine C. Prostate, liver, bone D. Liver, heart, spleen
B. Bone, liver, intestine
13
Individuals who have B or O blood group and are secretors are more likely to have which ALP fraction? A. Liver B. Bone C. Intestinal D. Placental
C. Intestinal
13
The intestinal and placental isoenzymes of ALP are both strongly inhibited by A. L-leucine B. Phenylalanine C. Urea D. Levamisole
A. L-leucine
13
Which of the following isoenzymes of ALP will retain its activity after heating at 65°C for 10 min? A. Pancreatic B. Liver C. Bone D. Regan
D. Regan
14
Which of the following enzyme assays requires freezing or acidification of the specimen in case of delay in the analysis? A. LD B. ACP C. amylase D. GGT
B. ACP
14
What is the substrate used in the Bowers-McComb assay? A. α-naphthylphosphate B. β-glycerophosphate C. phenylphosphate D. p-nitrophenylphosphate
D. p-nitrophenylphosphate
14
Which of the following is the compensatory mechanism in respiratory acidosis? A. Decreased renal production of ammonia B. Decreased bicarbonate reabsorption C. Increased CO2 retention D. Increased bicarbonate retention
D. Increased bicarbonate retention
15
Hypoventilation is the body’s compensatory mechanism for: A. Metabolic acidosis B. Respiratory alkalosis C. Respiratory acidosis D. Metabolic alkalosis
D. Metabolic alkalosis
16
In uncompensated metabolic acidosis, which of the following will be normal? A. Bicarbonate B. pCO2 C. pH D. Total CO2
B. pCO2
17
What condition is indicated by the following results: pH= 7.28; PCO2= 48 mmHg; HCO3-= 24 mmol/L? A. Uncompensated metabolic acidosis B. Uncompensated respiratory acidosis C. Acute respiratory alkalosis D. Acute metabolic alkalosis
B. Uncompensated respiratory acidosis
17
A patient’s arterial blood gas results are: pH = 7.48; pCO2 = 54 mmHg; HCO3- = 38 mmol/L. These values are consistent with: A. Uncompensated respiratory alkalosis B. Partially compensated respiratory alkalosis C. Uncompensated metabolic alkalosis D. Partially compensated metabolic alkalosis
D. Partially compensated metabolic alkalosis
18
Which of the following is not consistent with respiratory acidosis? A. Hypercapnia B. Increased pCO2 C. Increased pH D. Increased HCO3
C. Increased pH
18
A child presents with microcytic, hypochromic anemia. A urinary screen for porphyrins was positive. Erythrocytic basophilic stippling was noted on the peripheral blood smear. Which of the following laboratory tests would be best applied to this case? A. Whole blood lead B. Urinary thiocyanate C. Blood carboxyhemoglobin D. Serum iron
A. Whole blood lead
19
When screening urine for toxic concentrations of certain substances, which of the following will not be identified by the Reinsch test? A. Bismuth B. Arsenic C. Mercury D. Cyanide
D. Cyanide (Measured by Pheron Menthod)
20
Clinical assays for tumor markers are most important for: A. Screening for the presence of cancer B. Monitoring the course of a known cancer C. Confirming the absence of disease D. Identifying patients at risk for cancer
B. Monitoring the course of a known cancer
20
CYFRA 21-1 is most likely to be produced in a malignancy involving the: A. Colon B. Urinary bladder C. Breast D. Lung
D. Lung
20
Which tumor marker is associated with cancer of the urinary bladder? A. CA-19-9 B. CA-72-4 C. Nuclear matrix protein D. Her2/neu
C. Nuclear matrix protein
20
Which hormone normally produced by the placenta may be detected in significant amounts in males with testicular tumor or seminoma? A. HCG B. HPL C. Estriol D. Progesterone
A. HCG