path 2 exam 2 diseases Flashcards

(156 cards)

1
Q

what is utricaria?

A

hives
localized MAST CELL DEGRANULTION and increased vasc permeability causing pruritic, edematous plaque –> can vary from small pruritic papules to large edematous plaques

most occurs between 20-40, but all age groups can be affected

no epi involvement, just upper dermis

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2
Q

what are the types of acute eczematous dermatitis?

A

allergic contact dermatitis
atopic dermatitis (common in peds)
drug-related eczematous dermatitis
photoeczematous dermatitis
primary irritant dermatitis (make up, detergent)

all can be removed or resolve except ATOPIC DERMATITIS

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3
Q

what is acute eczematous dermatitis?

A

aka eczema
lesions are pruritic, varying forms include papules and vesicles
chronic can present as plaques

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4
Q

what is allergic contact dermatitis?

A

trigger could be a sensitizing agent like poison ivy
T cell mediated type IV hypersensitivity
process occurs in 24 hrs

LANGERHAN cells play an important role by taking up the sensitizing agent into the draining lymph node to the memory cells –> 2nd exposure will have a worsened manifestation than 1st because immune cells recognize agent and protect the body

chronic exposure to UV light can injure Langerhan cells, may alter the sensitization process

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5
Q

what is erythema multiforme?

A

uncommon self-limiting disorder appears to be caused by hypersensitivity reaction to certain drugs and infections

clinical presentation may vary depending on severity of disease

extensive form accompanied by FEVER = Stevens Johnson syndrome (skin manifestation, fever, dehydration due to loss of fluids, can undergo septicemic shock if untreated)

on histo, can see TARGETOID LESIONS, dead keratinocytes in basal layer as well as invasion by lymphocytes to layer

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6
Q

what is psoriasis?

A

common chronic inflam dermatosis affect 1-2% of ppl
sometimes associated iwth arthritis, myopathy, enteropathy, AIDS, and spondylitis

most frequently affect skin of elbows, knees, scalp, lumbosacral area and sometimes palms, soles, and back of neck

SALMON COLORED PLAQUE covered by SILVER-WHITE SCALES
can have pitting in nails
T cell mediated disease

on histo, shows psoriform hyperplasia (reg acanthosis), hyperkeratosis, parakeratosis, clusters of neutrophils trapped in hyperkeratosis, intense inflam infiltrate at dermo-epidermal jxn

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7
Q

what is lichen planus ?

A

pruritic, PURPLE, POLYGONAL papules, planar (5 P’2)
if in oral mucosa, can suspect squamous cell carcinoma
affects skin and mucous mem (mouth and genital area)

multiple lesions, SYMMETRICALLY distributed, particularly on extremities –> LEAF APPEARANCE or RETICULAR PATTERN

histo shows irreg, disorgranized hyperplasia of epi, HAPHAZARD unlike psoriasis which is organized, sawtooth dermo-epidermal jxn due to inflam

pathogenesis is unknown but possible cell mediated cytotoxic T cell response

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8
Q

what are the type of inflam blistering disorders?

A

subcorneal
suprabasal
subepidermal

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9
Q

what is pemphigus?

A

rare autoimmune disease
results from loss of integrity of norm intercell attachments in epi and mucosal epi

3 types
- vulagaris (most common)
- foliaceous
- paraneoplastic pemphigus

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10
Q

explain pemphigus vulgaris

A

most common one
involves mucosa and skin
bullae are SUPERFICIAL, rupture easily

IgG Abs against dsg 1 and 3

SUPRABASAL blisters in various stages of healing

histo shows FISHNET appearance of cells

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11
Q

explain pemphigus foliaceous

A

superficial blisters due to IgG Abs against dsg 1
SUBCORNEAL blisters

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12
Q

what is bullous pemphigoid?

A

range of clinical presentations

TENSAE BULLAE, do not rupture easily
HEAL W/O SCARRING
unusual to have mucous mem involvement
LINEAR DEPOSITION of IgG and complement in BM

Abs against BPAG2***

blisters at DERMO-EPIDERMAL jxns

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13
Q

explain paraneoplastic pemphigus

A

commonly seen in hematology malig
ex: lymphoma

Abs against dsg

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14
Q

what is dermatitis herpetiformis?

A

characterized utricaria and vesicles
associated with CELIAC DISEASE

lesions are pruritic, B/L, symmetrical

pxs who are genetically predisposed develop IgA Abs against GLUTEN and TISSUE TRANSAMINASES (epidermal keratinocytes also express transaminases)

DEPOSITION OF IgA in BM AT TIP OF DERMAL PAPILLAE

celiac = villus atrophy so there’s decrease absorptive surface leading to malabsorption, bloating, and diarrhea

histo shows blister in dermal papilla

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15
Q

what is epidermolysis bullosa?

A

non-inflam
groups of disorders characterized by bullous formation that is caused by trauma, at or soon after BIRTH

  • simplex type –> degen of BASAL CELL LAYER causing bullae, mut in gene encoding KERATIN 14 and 5
  • junctional type –> blisters at the level of the LAMINA LUCIDA
  • dystrophic type –> blisters occur under LAMINA DENSA, mut COL7A1 gene that encodes COLLAGEN type VII
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16
Q

what is porphyria?

A

caused by defective PORPHYRIN metabolism

utricaria and vesicles that heal W/ SCARRING (unlike bullous pemphigoid), exacerbated by SUN EXPOSURE

sub-epidermal vesicles with marked thickening of superficial dermal vessel walls

Dracula had this conditions

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17
Q

what is acne vulgaris?

A

disorder of epidermal appendages

common in middle to late teenage
affects both males and females

2 types
- non-inflam = closed (won’t see much on surface of skin, more at follicle level) and opened (pore like on skin with blackhead –> comedones)
- inflam = more severe, pustular formation and ulceration

possible pathogenesis = bacterial lipases breakdown sebaceous oils liberating highly irritant fatty acids

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18
Q

what is rosacea?

A

disorder of epidermal appendages

common among women

perifollicular inflam surrounded by dermal edema and telangiectasia

pustules can form within the hair follicle, leading to rupture

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19
Q

what is molluscum contagious?

A

infection

caused by POXVIRUS (pox in a box)
firm pruritis lesions in TRUNK and ANOGENITAL areas

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20
Q

what is verrucae?

A

infection

caused by HPV, benign
self limiting

common during summer when people are swimming
young children and adults

diff named baed on location like verruca vulgaris is on back of hanf and chest or verruca plantaris

in head, neck, oropharynx and tonsils, squamous cell carcinoma is benign but when it’s a non-HPV type then it will be malig

histo shows KOILOCYTIC CHANGES –> cells with cytoplasmic halos and proliferation toward surface

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21
Q

what is impetigo?

A

infection

caused by staph aureus
common in children
involves hands and face
lesions starts w/ pustule that breaks into an erosion, eventually gets covered by a golden honey crust

caused by bacterial toxin against DSG 1

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22
Q

what are superficial fungal infections?

A

confined to SC
caused by DERMATOPHYTES
diff parts of body affected

tinea capitis, pedis, corporis, cruris

common in really warm, humid climates like down S

histo shows neutrophilic inflam in corneal layer and epi hyperplasia

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23
Q

what are freckles?

A

aka ephelis
most common pigmented lesions of childhood, in light-skinned races

small, tan-red or light brown macules

appear following SUN EXPOSURE
increased amt of MELANIN PIG in keratinocytes
MELANOCYTES ARE NORMAL, may be slightly enlarged

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24
Q

what is benign lentigo?

A

MELANOCYTIC HYPERPLASIA

all ages affected, often seen in childhood

5-10 mm, tan-brown macules and pathces

NO COLOR CHANGE WHEN EXPOSED TO SUN

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25
what is pigmented levi?
tan-brown, UNIFORMLY pig, small (<6 mm) lesion 3 morphologic structures - junctional (clustering at dermal papilla tips) - compound (spreading toward dermis from tips) - intradermal (in dermis)
26
what is congenital nevus?
deep dermal involvement nevus cells around adenxae
27
what is halo nevus?
clear halo around nevus halo represented by intense infiltration of LYMPHOCTES at periphery or nevus
28
what is blue nevus?
dark blue/black nodules histologically heavily pigmented lesions with DENDRITIC CELLS located in dermis spindle cell arrangement
29
what is dysplastic nevi?
neither benign or malig sporadic or familial larger than most benign nevi usually multiple ireg organization seen in sun and non-sun exposed areas seen in families with DYSPLASTIC NEVUS SYNDROME - AD (high incidence of malig melanoma) histo shows most compound nevi nevus cells fuse together at upper dermis, CYTOLOGIC ATYPIA present in nevus cells upper dermis has chronic inflam, melanin pigment in dermal macrophages (melanin incontinence) and fibrosis most do not progress into malig melanoma but can transform into melanoma, however familiar syndrome have lifetime risk close to 100%
30
what is malignant melanoma?
growth phases are - radial = epi, at epi jxn - vertical = more likely to spread to other organs (lymph nodes) prognostic factors (know these) - depth of invasion - # of mitoses per square mm - evidence of tumor regression (bad bc it means tumor has moved) - ulceration - presence and degree of tumor infiltrating lymphocytes - gender (women do better than men) - location (more periphery, extremities better than trunk, head, and neck)
31
what is seborrheic ketratosis?
benign epi tumor most frequent in mid aged and older ppl round, flat plaques (coin shaped, stuck on lesions) tan to dark brown, UNIFORM in color in dark-skinned ppl, multiple small lesions on FACE are called DERMATOSIS PUPULOSA NIGRA can present as part of paraneoplastic syndrome --> LESER TRELAT SIGN histo shows KERATIN CYSTS, acanthosis
32
what is acanthosis nigricans?
thickened, hyperpigmented zones commonly seem in axillae, neck, groin and anogenital area 2 types - benign (majority) - malig (often associated with underlying GI carcinoma) --> not actually malig histo shows papillomatous hyperplasia
33
what is keratoacanthoma?
rapidly growing cutaneous tumor that can mimic well diff squamous cell carcinoma MEN are more affected than women flesh colored, dome shaped nodules with CENTRAL CRATER
34
what is actinic keratosis?
common seen in light skin races, older pxs usually to due chronic exposure to sunlight (DNA damage) usually <1 cm, tan brown or red lesions, may produce CUTANEOUS HORNS face, arms, and hands commonly affected
35
what is squamous cell carcinoma?
second most common tumor in sun exposed areas in older ppl sun exposure is major predisposing factor, others = chronic immunosuppression, chronic ulcers, industrial carcinogens, ingestion of arsenic (rice, wheat, legumes), ionizing radiation and tobacco, and BETEL NUT CHEWING
36
what is basal cell carcinoma?
slow growing commonly seen in sun exposed areas in light skin races PEARLY, raised papules basal cell nevus syndrome --> in addition to BCC can have abnorms of bone, CNS, eye, and reproductive organs (Gorlin syndrome) on histo you see a CLEFT between the basal cells due to edema, palisading basal cell arrangement
37
what is Gorlin syndrome?
nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome AD medulloblastoma, ovarian tumors and odontogenic keratocysts mut in PATCH gene sporadic BCC in abt 30% show PATCH gene mut
38
what is squamous cell carcinoma?
no single gene mut is detected but Tp53 mut has been seen in actinic keratosis that is a precursor of SCCA muts that increase RAS signaling and decrease Notch singling have been located in some of the tumors
39
what is benign fibrous histiocytoma?
tumors of dermis firm tan brown papules in adults, particularly young to mid aged WOMEN benign but recurs DERMAL HISTIOCYTE?FIBROBLAST origin
40
what is dermatofibrosarcoma protuberance?
tumor of dermis slow growing locally aggressive tumor (hardly metastasize) firm tan nodules, most frequently seen in TRUNK translocation of genes encoding COL1A1 and PDGFB***
41
what is mastocytosis?
involving skin, and some involve other organs like GI (systemic mastocytosis) infiltration of dermis by variable numbers of mast cells special stains like GIEMSA help id metachromatic nature of mast cell cytoplasm histo make look liked fried egg with halo
42
what is mycosis fungoides?
also called cutaneous T cell lymphoma scaly red brown patches, raised plaque sometimes confused with psoriasis histo can see atypical lymphocytes beneath the epi focally invading into dermis (Pautrier microabscesses) these lymphocytes are atypical --> convoluted nuclei (SEZARY LUTZNER cells, looks like walnuts) T helper cells that are CD4 pos
43
what are the benign RBC disorders?
decreased production = anemia increased production = polycythemia red cell morphology abnormalities red cell enzyme disorders disorders of Hb synthesis lytic disorders RBCs (PNH) RBC inclusions
44
what are the RBC morphological abnormalities?
spherocytosis elliptocytosis stomatocytosis acanthocytosis = spur cell echinocytosis = burr cell target cells schistocytes
45
what causes neutrophilia?
release from marrow stores = infections decreased margination = EXERCISE, epinephrine decreased extravasation into tissue = CORTICOSTEROIDS increased marrow precursors = chronic INFECTIONS, TUMORS, MYELOPROLIFERATIVE disorders
46
what causes neutrophilic leukocytosis?
ACUTE BACTERIAL INFECTIONS, esp those caused by PYOGENIC orgs STERILE INFLAM caused by TISSUE NECROSIS (MI, burns)
47
what causes neutropenia?
inadequate or ineffective production - suppression of pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell - suppression of committed granulocytic precursors - ineffective granulopoiesis - congenital/inherited disorders accelerated removal or destruction - overwhelming infections - immune mediated injury to neutrophils - splenic sequestration
48
what is neutropenia?
ANC <1500 cells severe infections typical <500 cells sepsis/postinfection, drugs (many, including chemotherapy), aplastic anemia, SLE, and radiation
49
what causes eosinophilia?
eosinophilic leukocytosis allergic disorders parasitic infections drugs rxns malignancies (Hodgkin and some non-Hodgkin lymphomas) autoimmune disorders and some vasculites
50
what causes basophilia?
basophilic leukocytosis rare, often indicative of MYELOPROLIFERATIVE DISEASE (CML, basophilic leukemia) infections = influenza, flu, chickenpox, TB allergy or inflam = ulcerative colitis, utricarial autoimmune disorders = SLE, juvenile rheumatoid arthritis endocrinopathy = diabetes, estrogen therapy, hypothyroidism
51
what causes monocytosis?
chronic infections (TB) autoimmune disorders inflam bowel disease malignancy
52
what causes monocytopenia?
inadequate or ineffective production - suppression of pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell - rare congenital/inherited disorders accelerated removal/destruction - infections - immune mediated - iatrogenic
53
what causes lymphocytosis?
accompanies MONOCYTOSIS in many disorders associated with CHRONIC IMMUNOLOGIC STIM viral ifnections bordetella pertussis infection lymphoproliferative diseases
54
what is lymphopenia?
ALC <1500 cells HIV, SLE, corticosteroids, radiation, sepsis, postop
55
what are the characteristics of anemia?
decreased RBC count, hemoglobin, and hematocrit decreased oxygen carrying capacity leading to tissue hypoxia pale, weakness, malaise easy fatiguability, dyspnea on mild exertion cardiac failure can develop at a result of tissue hypoxia with acute blood loss and shock, oliguria and anuria can develop CNS hypoxia causes HA, dimness of vision, and faintness
56
what is hereditary spherocytosis?
smaller and stain more darkly than normocytes and LARGE POLYCHROMATOPHILIC RED CELLS muts leading to insufficiency of MEMBRANE SKELETAL components --> decreased RBC life span to 10-20 days AD most common RBC disorder in N European descent mut = ANKYRIN EXTRAVASC hemolysis, JAUNDICE, SPLENOMEGALY dx = osmotic fragility test differential dx = AUTOIMMUNE HEMOLYTIC ANEMIA --> DAT+ and increase MCV clinical feats = anemia, splenomegaly, jaundice, APLASTIC CRISIS (parvovirus infection) tx = symptomatic, splenectomy anemia resolves but spherocytes persist, HOWELL JOLLY BODIES seen in blood
57
what is G6PD deficiency?
causes oxidative stress (meds, FAVA BEANS, infection) --> INTRAVASC and EXTRAVASC hemolysis XLR high prevalence in Africa, S. Europe, Middle East clinical feats - hemolysis = hemoglobinemia, hemoglobinuria, self-limited - precipitated by oxidative stress - PROTECTS AGAINST P. FALCIPARUM INFECTION
58
what is PKD?
hemolytic anemia in NEWBORNS AR PKD --> decreased ATP --> rigid RBCS --> EXTRAVASC hemolysis increase 2,3 BPG --> increase Hb affinity for O2
59
what is immunohemolytic anemia?
IHA dx requires detection of ABS and/or COMPLEMENT on red cells from px - done using DAT where px's RBCs are mixed with sera containing Abs that are specific for human Ig or complement - in INDIRECT COOMBS ANTIGLOBULIN test, px's serum is test for its ability to agglutinate commercially available red cells bearing particular Ags WARM AB TYPE --> MOST COMMON at 37 C most causative Ab = IgG idiopathic, CML, SLE, drugs see many SPHEROCYTES COLD AGGLUTININ TYPE caused by IgM that bind to red cells at low temps like 0-4 C cold agglutin Abs sometimes appear transiently following certain infections --> ***mycoplasma pneumoniae, EBV, CMV, or idiopathic, lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma cold agglutination can be reversed once warmed down and you can see very few spherocytes
60
what is microangiopathic hemolytic anemia?
RBCc damaged when passing thru narrowed or obstructed vessels intravasc hemolysis = DIC, TTP, HUS< HELLP syndrome, hypertensive emergency, SLE SCHISTOCYTES (helmets) on peripheral blood smear prosthetic heart valves and aortic stenosis hemolytic anemia due to mechanical destruction of RBCs
61
what is paroxysmal noctural hemoglobinuria?
PNH acquired PIG-A muts on X chromosome deficiency in GPI ANCHOR in all blood cells --> GPI anchor porteins deflect complement mediated destruction increased complement sensitivity --> increased INTRAVASC hemolysis nocturnal bc blood becomes slightly more acidic during sleep --> increased complement activity --> more RBCs get destroyed clinical feats - hemolytic anemia and hemoglobinuria - noctural hemoglobinuria - decreased iron due to intravasc hemolysis - THROMBOSIS is leading cause of death from disease (hepatic v thrombosis or Budd-Chiari syndrome) dx = flow cytometry shows LACK OF CD55 (DAF) evolution to APLASTIC ANEMIA and LEUKEMIA
62
what is paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria?
autoimmune hemolytic anemia where RBCs are destroyed because of Ab that reacts in cold most often seen in CHILDREN secondary to viral illnesses = measles, mumps, infectious mononucleosis paroxysmal episodes of hemoglobinuria associated COLD EXPOSURE IgG ABS***
63
what is the manifestation of anemia due to decreased RBC production?
pallor, tachycardia, systolic heart murmurs, irritably, restricted growth in children specific symps - ANGULAR CHEILOSIS or KOILONYCHIAS = iron deficiency - gallstones = chronic hemolytic anemia - bone deformities = severe thalassemia - hemoglobinuria in MORNING URINE = PNH
64
what are microcytic anemias?
- iron deficiency (hypochromic) - anemia of chronic disease (normochromic) - thalassemia - sideroblastic anemia (often dimorphic) - lead poisoning (often normocytic, normochromic)
65
what labs does iron deficiency show?
decrease serum iron decrease marrow iron store increase TIBC (transferrin) <10% sat decrease ferritin increase transferrin recep
66
what labs does anemia of chronic disease show?
decrease serum iron INCREASE marrow iron store DECREASE TIBC >15% sat INCREASE ferritin normal to increase transferrin recep
67
what labs does sideroblastic anemia show?
INCREASE serum iron INCREASE marrow iron store DECREASE TIBC sig increased % sat sig increased ferritin DECREASE transferrin recep
68
what are the macrocytic anemias?
B12 deficiency folate deficiency acquired defects in DNA synthesis inherited aplastic anemias acquired aplastic anemias direct alcohol effect
69
what are the normocytic anemia?
hypercellular - MDS hypocellular - aplastic anemias normocell - chronic disease - early iron deficiency - erythropoietin deficiency
70
what is iron deficiency anemia?
due to decreased dietary intake, impaired absorption, increased requirement, or chronic blood loss iron deficiency in adult men and postmenopausal women in W world must be attributed to GI blood loss until proven otherwise most common nutritional deficiency Fe is absorbed in DUODENUM transferrin transports iron in blood and takes it to liver and bone marrow macrophage for storage stored intracell iron is bound to ferritin (ferritin in erythroblasts and hemosiderin in macrophages)
71
what are the hypoproliferative anemias?
nutritional deficiency anemia of chronic disease aplastic anemia other forms of bone marrow failure
72
what is megaloblastic anemia?
Vit B12 or folate deficiency CBC and PBS = macrocytic anemia, HYPERSEGMENTED NEUTROPHILS bone marrow = megaloblastic hyperplasia, giant metamyelocytes increase HOMOCYSTEINE in both, but increase in MMA only in vit B12 deficiency*** sig increased LDH
73
what is vit B12 deficiency?
inadequate uptake (vegetarianism) increased absorption = intrinsic factor deficiency (PERNICIOUS anemia, gastroectomy), malabsoprtion, ileal resection, intestinal disease, bacterial overgrowth, fish tapeworm increased required = pregnancy, hyperthyroidism, cancer clinical feats = megaloblastic anemia, atrophic glossitis, NEURO ABNORMALITIES tx = folate B12 supplements
74
what is folate deficiency?
inadequate uptake (alcoholism, infancy) decreased absorption (malabsorption, intestinal disease, drugs like anticonvulsants, oral contraceptives) increase loss (hemolysis) increased requirement (pregnancy, infancy, cancer, increased hematopoiesi) impaired use - folic acid antagonist (METHOTREXATE)
75
what is megaloblastic anemia?
pernicious anemia due to autoimmune attack on GASTRIC MUCOSA chronic atrophic gastritis due to loss of PARIETAL CELLS, prominent infiltrate of lymphocytes and plasma cells, and megaloblastic change about 75% of pxs have Ab that blocks binding of vit B12 to intrinsic factor other Abs prevent binding of intrinsic factor-vit B12 complex to its ILEAL RECEPTOR see HYPERCELLULAR bone marrow that, resembles AML seem megaloblastic erythroblasts, granulocytes, resembling MDS
76
what is anemia of chronic diseases?
anemia commonly associated with many systemic inflam conditions, including infection, rheumatologic disorders, and cancer ACD is anemia of UNDERPRODUCTION that is NORMOCYTIC, NORMOCHROMIC, mild, with Hb level >10 g/L bone marrow looks NORMAL PRUSSIAN BLUE IRON STAIN shows INCREASED IRON STORES w/ increased histiocytic iron but decreased sideroblastic iron marked by LOW SERUM IRON total IRON STORES ARE NORM OR ELEVATED
77
what is sideroblastic anemia?
CBC, smear, bone marrow = anemia, BASOPHILIC STIPPLING, RING SIDEROBLASTS causes - MDS with ring sideroblasts - genetic --> X-linked sideroblastic anemia (XLSA) shows microcytic anemia, responsive to PYRIDOXINE (B6) tx - toxic = lead, alcohol - meds = isoniazid, chloramphenicol, chemotherapy
78
what is aplastic anemia?
failure of multipotential stem cell = anemia, THROMBOCYTOPENIA, NEUTROPENIA idiopathic, inherited defects = fanconi anemia, defects in telomerase, VIRAL (EBV, HIV, hepatitis), RADIATION, DRUGS HYPOCELLULAR BONE MARROW clinical feats = weakness, pallor, dyspnea, bleeding, recurrent infections
79
what are the types of pure red cell aplasia?
congenital - DIAMOND BLACKFAN ANEMIA - CDA acquired - TEC - PARVOVIRUS B19 APLASTIC CRISIS - thyoma, spindle cell type - autoimmune = older children, adults - lymphoproliferative disease = CLL, LGL
80
what is parvovirus infection?
caused by parvovirus B19 humans are the only known host clinical feats = erythema infectiosum in CHILDREN (5th disease = SLAPPED CHEEK RASH), arthalgias and arthritis in adults bone marrow = GIANT PROERYTHROBLASTS
81
what is myelophthisic anemia?
shows circulating normoerythroblasts and RED CELL FRAGS, GIANT PLATELET can be associated with METASTATIC ADENOCARCINOMA
82
what is alpha thalassemia?
sub-saharan Africa, SE Asia PRESENT AT BIRTH CBC = microcytosis, RBC >5.5 x 10^12, MCV 65-75** NORMAL Hb A2 Hb quantitative defect silent carrier (minor)(-a/aa) = asymp with norm or decrease A2 alpha thal trait (major) (-a/-a, or --/aa) = microcytosis, mild anemia with norm or decrease A2 --> --/aa (asian) and -a/-a (black african and asian) HbH disease (--/-a) = CHRONIC HEMOLYTIC ANEMIA --> resembles beta thal intermedia Hb Bart's (--/--) = lethal, hydrops fetalis
83
what is Hb Barts?
hydrops fetalis MOST SEVERE alpha thal caused by DELETION OF ALL 4 ALPHA GLOBIN GENES excess gamma globin chain form TETRAMERS
84
what is beta thalassemia?
in Mediterranean seen 6-9 MONTHS after birth (after birth, begin to switch from gamma to beta) CBC = microcytosis, RBC >5.5x10^12, MCV 55-65** Hb quantitative defect beta thal minor (b/b0, b/b+) = mild anemia beta thal intermedia (b/b0, b+/b+) = SEVERE ANEMIA, no transfusion needed beta thal major (b0/b0, b+, b0) = SEVERE ANEMIA, REQUIRES TRANSFUSION b0 = absent beta globin synthesis b+ = reduced beta globin synthesis normal synthesis of alpha chains increased production of gamma and theta chains bone marrow HYPERPLASIA extramedullary hematopoiesis PROTECT AGAINST FALCIPARUM MALARIA
85
what is sickle cell disease?
deoxy --> aggregation and polymerization of HbS --> irreversible sickling --> hemolysis homozygous HbS/HbS --> sickle cell anemia heterzygous HbS/HbA --> sickle cell trait (8% of AAs) moderators of sickling = HbF, HbA decreases sickling while dehydration and lower pH increases sickling pt mut of valine for glutamic acid at 6th residue microvasc occlusion --> thrombosis infarction, autosplemectomy bone marrow HYPERPLASIA, extramedullary hematopoiesis, pigment gallstones tx = HYDROXYUREA to increase HbF
86
what is Hb C disease?
EXTRAVASC hemolysis, milder than HbSS MUTATION IN BETA CHAIN homozygotes (HBCC)form CRYSTALS in RBCS, target cells HbSC = milder disease than HbSS pxs
87
what are the different vessel wall abnormalities?
vasculitis - infections - drugs impaired collagen formation - scruvy - ehler danlos syndrome - cushing syndrome immune complex deposition (hypersensitivity) - henoch schonlein purpura hereditary hemorrhagic telangectasia amyloidosis
88
what is thrombocytopenia?
decreased plt survival - immunologic destruction - ITP, SLE, drug (heparin), infection (HIV) - non-immuno destruction - TTP, DIC, MAHA decreased production - bone marrow failure, drug, infection, megaloblastic anemia, PNH, MDS, marrow infiltration sequestration - hypersplenism
89
what is pseudothrombocytopenia?
plt clumping due to EDTA dependent-ab (lavendar top tube) --> abs to GPIIb/IIIa causes plt to clump plt satellitism = plt adherence to leukocytes in EDTA sodium citrate anticoagulant (blue top tube) instead of EDTA to correct
90
what is immune thrombocytopenic purpura?
ITP autoAbs against HPIb-IX or IIb-IIIa usually IgG anti-plt autoabs --> plt opsonization --> plt destruction in spleen --> thrombocytopenia findings - megathrombocytes - prolonged BT/PFA-100 - NORM PT/PTT - anti-plt abs - splenic congestion and lymphoid hyperplasia - increased bone marrow megakaryocytes clinical feats chronic ITP = more common in WOMEN (<40), mucocutaneous bleeding tx = steroids, splenectomy, immunosuppression acute ITP common in CHILDREN follows viral infection self-limited
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what is drug induced thrombocytopenia?
immunologic destruction of plts quinine, quinidine, sulfonamides heparin (HIT-heparin induced thrombocytopenia) - severe thrombocytopenia due to Abs against herparin-PF4 complex - paradoxical risk of thrombosis due to plt activation HIT aka HIT type II heparin-dependent Abs non-induced heparin associated thrombocytopenia aka HIT type I other factors causing thrombocytopenia
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compare and contrast HIT type I and II
type I no ab 5% incidence in heparinized pxs onset as eaerly as day i plt count = abt 100k, >50% of baseline rarely thrombosis tx = no contraindication to future heparin type II anti-PF4 abs 1% incidence in heparinized pxs onset around day 5-15 plt count = <50k, <50% basline thrombosis forms often, arterial > venous tx = STOP HEPARIN, WARFARIN, or PLTS consider argatroban
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what is Bernard-Soulier disease?
giant plts ADHESION problem, AR norm PT/PTT, INCREASED BLEEDING TIME norm plt aggregation to agonists ABNORMAL RISTOCETIN diff dx = von willebrand disease = norm plt count, increased PTT tx = plt transfusion
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what is von willebrand disease?
most common inherited bleeding disorder carrier for factor VIII, protecting it from inactivation and clearance AR or AD, norm PT and plt count, INCREASED aPTT AND BLEEDING TIME, ABNORMAL RISTOCETIN diff dx = bernard soulier syndrome = norm PT/aPTT, increased bleeding time, thrombocyopenia, and giant plts production endo cells and megakaryocytes --> large multimers cleaved by vWF cleaving protease (ADAMTS 13) fxns - plt adhesion --> binds plt GPIb and collagen - stabilization of FVIII --> non-covalent linkage prolongs FVIII half life from 2.4 to 12 hrs lab measurements quantitative = immunoassay qualitative = ristocetin co-factor activity clinical feats most cases are type 1 w/ mild or no bleeding mucocutaneous bleeding excessive bleeding from wounds tx = DDAVP (increase vWF and FVIII), vWF replacement
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what is Glanzmann thromboasthenia?
deficiency of GPIIb-IIIa AR plt aggregation defect norm PT/PTT prolonged BT/PFA-100 no GP for plt to bind to fibrinogen and aggregate to form clot tx = plt transfusion
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what are the acquired disorders?
aspirin and other NSAIDS - irreversible inhibition of COX 1 - plt aggregation defect uremia - both adhesion and aggregation impaired --> plt dysfxn in uremia --> tx = dialysis, DDAVP, or estrogen prolonged bleeding time, NORM PT/PTT
97
what does cardiopulm bypass circuits cause?
thrombocytopenia and plt dysfxn depletion of alpha and delta granules prolonged bleeding time abnorm plts fxn test
98
what is paraproteinemia?
plt dysfxn due to coating with IgA, IgM, or IgG
99
what is hemophilia A?
FVIII deficiency XLR males affected, females are carriers prolonged PTT norm plt count and PT clinical feats - massive hemorrhage after trauma - easy bruising - hemarthrosis (recurrent and spontaneous) tx - FVIII replacement --> recombo or plasma-derived comps = anti-FVIII abs in 15% and infectious disease transmission if plasma-derived product used
100
what is hemophilia B?
FIX deficiency XLR males affected, females are carriers prolonged PTT norm plt count, PT clinical feats - variable severity of bleeing tx = FIX replacement (recombo or plasma-derived)
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liver disease will show...
MULTIPLE factor deficiency PROLONGED PT/PTT norm plt count, BT/PFA4-100
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vit K deficiency will show...
PROLONGED PT/PTT norm plt count, BT/PFA4-100 vit K depedent factors deficient II, VII, IX, X, protein C, protein S WARFARIN produces vit K deficient state
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what is thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura?
TTP norm PT/PTT clinical PENTAD - fever - anemia (microangiopath hemolytic) - thrombocytopenia - renal failure - neuro deficit more common in WOMEN PBS = SCHISTOCYTES decreased vWF cleaving protease (ADAMTS 13) --> ultra high molecular weight vWF multimers --> plts activation and consumption --> thrombocytopenia and microvasc thrombi tx = plasma exchange with FFP +/- steroids and IVIG
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what is hemolytic uremic syndrome?
typically in CHILDREN shiga-like toxin from EHEC (serotype O157:H7) infection TRIAD = thrombocytopenia, microangiopath hemolytic anemia, AKI and blood diarrhea no neuro symps
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what is DIC?
systemic activation of coagulation system --> gen and deposition of fibrin microvasc thrombi in various organs --> multiple organ dysfxn syndrome ongoing activation of coag --> consumption and subsequent exhaustion of coag proteins and plts --> severe bleeding may present with SIMULTANEOUS THROMBOSIS AND BLEEDING clinical feats - bleeding diathesis - microagniopathic hemolytic anemia - multisystem involvement - circulatory failure and shock tx = treat underlying disorder, balanced use of anticoags and procoags based on clinical manifestations causes = obstetric comps, infections, neoplasms, massive tissue injury, other PROLONGED PT/PTT reduced fibrinogen ELEVATED D-DIMERS thrombocytopenia SCHISTOCYTES
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what is lymphadenitis?
inflam of lymph nodes caused by reactive processes like - infectious mononucleosis - HIV - cat scratch disease - hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis (HLH) - rheumatoid arthritis - toxoplasmosis on histo, see tingible body macrophages B cells located in the center, T cells located in periphery
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what is infectious mononucleosis?
EBV infection TRIAD = tonsillitis, fever, enlarge lymph nodes (neck, axilla, groin) transmitted by saliva + hepatosplenomegaly + MONOSPOT TEST + HETEROPHIL Ab + CD8+ cytotoxic cells in peripheral blood PBS shows ATYPICAL LYMPHOCYTES
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what is cat scratch disease?
caused by B henselae self-limited, primarily in childhood 2 wks after cat scratch regional lymphadenopathy - axilla, neck histo shows IRREG STELLATE NECROTIZING GRANULOMA
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what is hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis?
viral infection or other proinflam exposures trigger activation of MACROPHAGES throughout the body - phagocytosis of blood cells - cytopenias - symps related to systemic inflam and organ dysfunction inherited defects in genes that reg fxn of immune cells (perforins) or in T cell lymphomas defect of killer lymphocytes cytokines (TNF, IL-6) causing symps and signs similar to those seen in sepsis and SIRS FEVER, SPLENOMEGALY, PANCYTOPENIA, INCREASE FERRITIN, INCREASE TGs
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what is toxoplasmosis?
caused by toxoplasma gondii enlarge lymph nodes usually in neck by CONSUMING MEAT CONTAMINATED BY PARASITE or being in contact with CAT FECES preg women and immunocomp ppl are at risk
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what are lymphomas?
clonal prolif of lymphocytes usually arise from lymph nodes but can also be other organ of body some primarily involve peripheral blood of bone marrow like CLL variable clinical behavior
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what is follicular lymphoma?
2nd most common lymphoma in US mid to older adults generalized lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly indolent = chronic course, medial survival = 7-9 years nodal or extra-nodal, slow growing CD10+ t(14,18) IgH, BCL-2
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what is diffuse large B cell lymphoma?
most common lymphoma in US mid age to older adults lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly frequent EXTRANODAL presentaiton diffuse pattern of infiltration by large cells CD20+, CD10 +/-, BCL6+, CD5- molecular = BCL6 gene rearrangement, BCL2 rearrangement - t(14,18)
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what is primary CNS lymphoma?
adults EBV related associated w/ HIV/AIDS (considered AIDS defining illness) confusion, memory loss, serizures CNS mass, RING ENHANCING LESION on MRI ddx = toxoplasmosis
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what is primary mediastinal large B cell lymphoma?
PMLBCL usually affects YOUNGER ppl 25-40, more common in WOMEN than men neoplastic cells express B cell markers and CD30 oftens shows heterogeneous staining
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what is Burkitt lymphoma?
endemic = jaw sporadic = intestine adults = nodal disease AGGRESSIVE CD19+, CD10+, kappa or lambda light chain t(8,14), t(2,8), t(8,22) c-myc, 8q24 on histo, see STARRY SKY in lymph nodes endemic form in equartorial Africa --> primarily children, >95% associated with EBV, extranodal sites = mandible, ab sporadic in US --> children and adults, 15-20% associated with EBV, extranodal sites = ab HIB associated --> 25% associated with EBV highly aggressive course but high cure rates with chemotherapy
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what is chronic/small lymphocytic leukemia?
CLL or SLL neoplasm of mature lymphocytes - accum of mature B lymphocytes epidemiology - CLL = predom blood and bone marrow (MOST COMMON LEUKEMIA IN US) - SLL = predom lymph nodes older adults (median age 70) lymphocytosis >5000 per mL anemia, thrombocytopenia, bone marrow (diffuse and nodular infiltrate), lymph node (diffuse infiltrate of small lymph nodes) SMUDGED CELLS in PBS origin = B cells CD20+, CD5+, CD23+, CD10- prognosis = generally good, bad in 1-2% due to RICHTER TRANSFORMATION (2-8%, diffuse large B cell lymphoma)
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what is B-cell chronic lymphocytic leukemia?
>50 years asymp lymphocytosis lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly CD19+, CD5+, CD23+, clonval kappa or lambda light chain trisomy 12, 13q-
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what is mantle cell lymphoma?
adults nodal or extranodal, PAINLESS MORE AGGRESSIVE than CLL/SLL CD5+, cyclinD1+ t(11,14)
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what is marginal zone B-cell lymphoma?
adults extranodal, nodal, SPLENIC STOMACH, lung, intestine, eye H. pylori t(11,18) most common
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what is hairy cell leukemia?
adults pancytopenia, splenomegaly CD19+, CD11c+, CD25+, CD103+, Annexin A1+ (MOST SPECIFIC) good prognosis neoplasm of mature lymphocytes --> mature B-lymphocytes with villous cytoplasmic projections 2% of all leukemias mid to older adults (M>F) BRAF V600E muts are found in almos all cases on histo, looks like fried egg and dry tap
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what are plasma cell neoplasms?
neoplasms of terminally differentiated, immunoglobulin secreting B lymphocytes plasma cell prolif and M-component mid and older adults plasma cell myeloma (multiple myeloma) - 10% or >10% neoplastic plasma cells (PC) - multifocal destructive infiltration of plasma cells in bone marrow monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significant (MGUS) = <10% neoplastic PC solitary osseous plasmacytoma extraosseous plasmacytoma Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia = hyperviscosity
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what is multiple myeloma?
abnormal plasma cells hyperCalcemia Renal disease Anemia Bone lesions on X-ray, see PUNCHED OUT LYTIC BONE LESIONS blood - paraprotein = monoclonal Ig or light chain forms spike on serum protein electrophoresis (M SPIKES) - ROULEAUX FORMATION urine - Bence Jones protein (monoclonal free light chain)
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what is Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia?
monoclonal IgM symps related to monoclonal IgM protein are attributalbe to - characteristics in circ - interaction with various body tissues when depositied - autoab activity
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what is Classic Hodgkin lymphoma?
- neoplasm of B cells - REED STERNBERG CELLS (OWL EYES) in a mixed cell background --> derive from B cells nodular sclerosis, lymphocyte rich, mixed cellularity, lymphocyte depleted - bimodal age distribution (15-35 and >50) - can be related to EBV infection - CD30+, CD15+, PAX5+ in nodular sclerosis type --> broad collagen bands clinical feats = lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly, constitutional B symps (fever, night sweats, weight loss), immune dysfxn prognosis = excellent at early age (90% cure rate) risk of second malig in long-term survivors
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what is Nodular lymphocyte Predom Hodgkin Lymphoma?
CD30-, CD15- NO RS CELLS, eosinophils, plasma cells, or fibrosis L&H cells (POPCORN CELLS) with multilobed, folded nucleus in a background of lymphocytes
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what is angioimmunoblastic T cell lymphoma?
- EBV associated - older adults - abrupt onset with constitutional symps (fever, night sweats, weight loss) - gen lymphadenopathy, pruritic skin rash - diffuse nodal effacement with prominent vessels - ABSENCE OF FOLLICLES - CD4***, CD8-, CD10+ clinical feats = high grade fever, rash, anemia lymph node architecture = effaced by a cell infiltrate and marked vascular prolif
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what is peripheral T cell lymphoma?
PTCL prolif of MATURE T lymphocytes clinical feats - gen lymphadenopathy - FEVER, PRURITUS, weight loss - EOSINOPHILIA prognosis worse than similar B cell lymphomas majority are CD4+ (lack one or more of T cell markers, most often CD7) norm T lymphocytes = CD2, CD3, CD4, CD5, CD7, CD8 path findings - architectural effacement - vasc prolif immunophenotype - CD2, CD5, CD3, TCR alpha beta or gamma delta genetics = T cell receptor gene rearrangement
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what is adult T cell lymphoma/leukemia?
ATLL SKIN LESIONS, LYTIC BONE LESIONS, gen lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, lymphocytosis, HYPERCALCEMIA S. Jana, Caribbean regions mid to older adults VERY AGGRESSIVE FLOWER CELLS CD3, CD4, CD25, CD7- HTLV-1 associated poor prognosis, esp in leukemic phase
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what is anaplastic large cell lymphoma?
in CHILDREN and YOUNG ADULTS nodal or extranodal sinusoidal/subcapsular infiltration LARGE ANAPLASTIC CELLS (HALLMARK) CD30, EMA+, CD25+, T cell markers variable t(2,5) ALK POSITIVE nuclear staining, good prognosis ddx = HODGKIN LYMPHOMA cells look like HORSESHOE in older age ALK NEG, no t(2,5), WORSE prognosis
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what is mycosis fungoides/sezary syndrome?
older adults CUTANEOUS PATCH, PLAQUE, and NODULE stages lymphadenopathy UNUSUAL lymphocytes CD3, CD4, CD7- indolenet, chronic course = 90% 5 year survival EXTRACUTANEOUS INVOLVEMENT indicates worse prognosis see epidermotropism, papillary dermal fibrosis, PAUTRIER MICROABSCESSES sezary syndrome --> circulating tumor/lymphoid cells (CEREBRIFORM NUCLEI), unfavorable prognosis leukemic phase of mycosis fungoides
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what is large granular lymphocytic leukemia?
LGLL unexplained sustained increase in peripheral blood LGLs may be T cytotoxic or NK cells CD4-/CD8+ NEUTROPENIA, SPLENOMEGALY, HYPERGLOBULINEMIA OLDER MALES (median age = 60) incidence higher in RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS usually indolent
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what is extranodal NK/T cell lymphoma?
nasal type more prevalent in ASIA NASAL LESIONS, but may present at non-nasal sites AGGRESSIVE clinical courses ANGIOINVASIVE, MARKED VASCULATURE CD16, CD56, CD57, granzyme, TIA1, perforin+ EBV+ most cases often in adults (M>F) site of involvement - upper aerodigestive tract (NASAL CAVITY) - extranasal including skin, soft tissue, GI tract prognosis = aggressive lymphoma poor response to chemotherapu medial survival 1 year high local recurrence rate
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what is acute lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma?
neoplasm of lymphoid stem cell, leukemia, lyphoma path findings - leukocytosis with lymphoblasts - norm or decreased WBCs - anemia, thrombocytopenia bone marrow - hypercell - sheets of lymphoblasts - high mitotic index lymph nodes - architectural effacement by sheets of lymphoblasts clinical feats = anemia, neutropenia, thrombocytopenia, hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, bone pain B cell = CD10, CD19, TdT+, PAX5 T cell = CD2, CD5, CD7, cCD3, TdT+ genetics - favorable prognosis = hyperdiploidy (51-65 chr), t(12, 21) - poor prognosis = t(4,11) and t(9,22)
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explain precursor B cell ALL
85% of ALL children > adults anemia, infections, bleeding, adenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly TdT+, CD19+, CD10 +/- t(12, 21)
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explain precursor T cell ALL
15% of ALL MEDIASTINAL mass and NECK node enlargement TdT+, CD3, CD5, CD7, (CD4+/CD8+ or -) TCR gene rearrangement
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what is splenomegaly?
spleen >1000 g moderate splenomegaly = 500-1000 g -chronic congestive splenomegaly (portal HTN as in cirrhosis, splenic v obstruction) - acute leukemias - diseases with extramedullary hematopoiesis mild splenomegaly = <500 g - acute splenitis - acute splenic congestion - infectious mononucleosis - septicemia - SLE - intraab infections hypersplenism = chronically enlarged spleen that removes blood cells --> anemia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia
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what is thymic hyperplasia?
enlargement of thymus contains lymphoid follicles or germinal centers (reactive B cells) within medulla in px with myasthenia gravis, autoimmune diseases removal of hyperplastic thymus is beneficial in early MG
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what is thymoma?
tumors of thymic epi cells, mostly in mid aged adults benign (encapsulated thymoma) = cytologically and biologically benign malig type I = cytologically benign but infiltrative and locally aggressive type II (thymic carcinoma) = cytologically and biologically malig
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what is MDS?
ineffective proliferation absent splenomegaly cytopenia (unilineage or multilineage) with dysplasia hypercell present in one or more lineages high risk of AML peripheral pancytopenia despite of hypercell marrow due ineffective hematopoiesis blasts <20% cytogenic prognosis favorable = norm karyotype, or isolated Y-, 5q-, 20q- intermediate = 8+, mostly in males, higher risk for acute leukemia unfavorable = COMPLEX KARYOTYPE, 7- clinical feats = anemia, thrombocytopenia, neutropenia related to pancytopneia variable course - may smolder for years, some transfusion depedent, 10-40% transform to AML, therapy related MDS has worse prognosis path findings blood - variable cytopenias - macrocytic anemia - granulocytes --> hypolobulated nuclei, hypogranular cytoplasm - PSEUDO PELGER HUET CELL bone marrow - hypercell - variable increased blasts - dysplastic maturation
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what is MDS associated with isolated 5q- syndrome?
elderly women, 2:1 female predominance pxs have MACROCYTIC ANEMIA, norm or increased plts, MONOLOBATE or SMALL MONONUCLEAR MKCs, and norm granulopoiesis and peripheral counts survival in this subset of MDS is exceptional, approaching that of age-matched peers
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what is MDS with ring sideroblasts?
congenital and acquired form (including reversible) 65-70 years at presentation (acquired) DIMORPHIC ANEMIA with anisocytosis (increased RDW) RING SIDEROBLASTS >/= 15% of BM erythroid precursors leukocytes and plts are normal associated with SF3B1 mutation in most cases prolonged survival (5-10 years)
143
what is AML?
pxs with AML present with anemia, thrombocytopenia, and WBC dysfunction also extramedullar tumor prolif (myeloid sarcoma, more common in childhood AML) dx morphology, immunohistochem, immunophenotypic (flow cytometry), cytogenetics (karyotype, FISH, molecular studies) most AMLs have mutations in genes encoding transcription factors required for norm myeloid cell diff fine/immature/smooth nuclear chromatin large in size and high N/C ratio neoplasm of myeloid stem cell or early lineage-specific precursor cell >/= 20% blast in bone marrow patho = acquired genetic alterations - disrupt maturation = PML-RARalpha - activate transcription factors = FLT3 peak incidence = after 6 years of age, also in older adults and infants
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what is APL?
with t(15,17)(q22,q12) (PML-RARA) t(15,17) due to fusion of promyelocytic gene (PML) on chr 15 with retinoic acid recep (RARA) gene on chr 17 usually has an abrupt onset, and constitutes 5-8% of AML cases most common in YOUNG ADULTS, rarely occurring before 1- y/o and diminishing in incidence after 60 y/o prompt dx is ESSENTIAL bc of high freq of LIFE THREATENING DIC blasts are highly sensitive to ANTHRACYCLINE BASED THERAPY and differentiate in response to ATRA and ARSENIC TRIOXIDE TX characteristic myeloid lineage immunopehnotype, w/ weak or ABSENT HLA-DR and ABSENT CD34 common association w/ DIC favorable prognosis = FLT3 neg and treated w/ combo chemotherapy that includes ATRA hypergranular type exhibits abundant cytoplasmic granules and bundles of AUER RODS
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what is AML with mutated NPM1?
frequently has myelomonocytic or monocytic feats de novo in older adults with norm karyotype good prognosis if not associated with FLT3-ITD mut
146
prognosis of AML with multilineage dysplasia
previous MDS = very poor w/o previous MDS = poor
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prognosis of AML, therapy-related
alkylating agent related = very poor epipodophyllotoxin related = very poor
148
explain how MPN is diff from MDS?
effective and over prolif splenomegaly is present with extramedullary hematopoiesis cytosis (uni or multilineage), NO DYSPLASIA hypercell with prolif of one or more lineages no overt dysplasia in granulocytes and erythroid precursors AML risk is low
149
what are the types of MPN?
chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) polycythemia vera (PV) essential thrombocythemia (ET) primary myelofibrosis (PMR)
150
what is CML?
adults, 25-60 years with peak around 4th and 5th decade nautral history of untreated CML is bi- or triphasic = initially indolent chronic phase (CP) followed by accelerated phase (AP) or blast phase (BP) or both chimeric BCR-ABL1 gene derived from BCR gene (chr 22) and ABL1 gene (chr 9) t(9,22), BCL/ABL1 fusion gene encodes abnorm oncogene and constitutively active tyrosine kinase activity gene is present in granulocytic, erythroid, megakaryocytic B cell precursors +/- T cells, tumor origin is TRANSFORMED HEMATOPOIETIC STEM CELL BCR-ABL does NOT inhibit differentiation --> early disease course, excessive porlif of norm cells Ph chr is highly characteristic of CML, present in 25% of ALL and in small sub of AML clinical feats = fatigure, weight loss, fever, splenomegaly (can cause ab symps), 20-40% pxs are asymp at initial dx peripheral blood = increased WBC, often exceeding 100k cells (predom neutrophils, metamyelocytes, myelocytes, basophils, and eosinophils) bone marrow = hypercell, increased MYELOID to ERYTHROID RATIO, blases usually <5%, always <10%, megakaryocytes are norm or increased with DWARF morphology genetics = 100% have Ph chr or BCR-ABL1 fusion gene
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what is the ddx of CML in early phase?
leukemoid rxn = increased WBC in response to - infection - stress - chronic inflam - certain neoplasms BCR-ABL fusion gene detection by karyotyping, FISH, or PCR assay
152
what is polycythemia vera?
rare disease clonal prolif of erythroid precursors, granulocytes, and megakaryotes in bone marrow (PANMYELOSIS), in addition to POLYCYTHEMIA there's also LEUKOCYTOSIS and THROMBOCYTOSIS strongly associated with activating pt muts in TYROSINE KINASE JAK2 (causes panmyelosis) clinical feats = increased RBC mass, splenomegaly, thrombosis or bleeding, low or norm serum erythropoietin clinical manifestations are usually due to increased red cell mass or thrombosis and hemorrhage 3 phases of PV - mild erythrocytosis (with prominent thrombocytosis) - overt polycythemic phase - postpolycythemic phase characterized by cytopenias and bone marrow fibrosis tx = phlebotomy, hydroxyurea or INFalpha as cytoreductive therapy, Ruxolitinib JAK2 inhibitor
153
what is essential thrombocythemia?
involves megakaryocytic lineage characterized by sustained THROMBOCYTOSIS and episodes of THROMBOSIS OR HEMORRHAGE JAK2 mut is present in abt 50% of cases, and MPL mut in 1-2% these muts lead to constitutive activation of paths that stimulate megakaryocyte prolif and plt production
154
what is primary myelofibrosis?
PMF clonal myeloid neoplasm characterized by neoplastic prolif of predom MEGAKARYOCYTES and GRANULOCYTES, accompanied by increase in bone marrow CT and often by EMH --> basically neoplasm of myeloid stem cell with reactive fibrosis patho = pro-fibrotic growth factors from megakaryocytes --> PDGF and TGF-beta blood = leukoerythroblastosis with prominent DACROCYTES bone marrow = hyper cell in early phase and hypocell in late phase (marked reticulin and collagen fibrosis and osteosclerosis) spleen = expanded red pulp with EMH genetics - JAK2 V617F adults >60 medial survival = 3-5 years --> transformation to AML 5-20% 2 phases - PREfibrotic stage, often accompanied by peripheral blood thrombocytosis - fibrotic stage (HYPOCELL bone marrow with marked RETICULIN or COLLAGEN FIBROSIS, often OSTEOSCLEROSIS) on histo, see TEAR DROPS
155
what are histiocytic neoplasms?
prolif disorders of DCs or MACROPHAGES, derived from bone MARROW MONOCYTES most of histiocytic prolifs in lymph nodes are BENIGN and REACTIVE rarely highly malig LANGERHAN CELLS are DCs found in SKIN and multiple ORGANS --> capture Ags and present them to T cells
156
what is Langerhan Cells histiocytosis?
in CHILDREN LYTIC BONE LESIONS skin rash, recurrent OTITS MEDIA BIRBECK GRANULES (TENNIS RACKET) Letterer-Siwe disease - malig prolif of Langerhans cells = SKIN RASH, cystic skeletal defects in INFACTS <2 years old, involves MULTIPLE organs and is FATAL IF NOT TREATED eosinophilic granuloma (SOLITARY OSTEOLYTIC BONE LESION IN CHILDREN) - benign prolif of Langerhans cells in bone = path fracture in an adolescent, NO SKIN involvement, biopsy with Langerhan cells and lots of eosinophils Hand-Schuller-Christian disease - malig prolif of Langerhans cells, SCALP RASH, LYTIC SKULL DEFECTS, DIABETES INSIPIDUS, EXOPHTHALMOS in child