1
Q
Where can the FARs for performance be found
A
- FAR 25
- FAR 121(i)
2
Q
What is a Transport category aircraft
A
- airplanes are either: Jets with 10 or more seats or a maximum takeoff weights (MTOW) greater than 12,500 lb
3
Q
What are the demonstrated speeds during certification
From these speeds operational speeds are _______
A
- Stall Speed: Vs
- Minimum unstick speed: Vmu
- Minimum controls speed on the ground: Vmcg
- Minimum control speed in the air: Vmca
o From these speeds operational speeds are derived: V1, Vr, V2
4
Q
Derived from Demonstrated speeds
A
- V1
- Vr
- V2
5
Q
Vs
Vs1g
Vs1g stands for ____ stall speed, _____equals______
Vs1g is _____ Vs
Vsr
Vsr must be greater or equal to _____
A
- Vs: the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable.
- Vs1g: the maximum coefficient of lift where the load factor is 1
Vs1g stands for 1g stall speed, lift equals weight
Greater
- Vsr: the reference stall speed defined by the applicant
o Vsr must be greater or equal to Vs1g
6
Q
Define Minimum unstick speed
A
- Vmu: the airspeed which the airplane can safely lift off the ground and continue the takeoff at the maximum angle of attack possible
7
Q
Define the minimum control speed – ground
Max ____ from rwy centerline
Max _____ of rudder force
A
- Vmcg: is the airspeed during the takeoff at which if the critical engine fails it is possible to control the airplane using the rudder.
o Max 30’ from runway centerline
Max 150lbs of rudder force
8
Q
How is Vmcg determined
A
- Remaining engine(s) at max takeoff thrust
- Aft CG: less tail force (150lbs max force)
- Most unfavorable weight: Lowest weight
o Less frictional forces as compared to the Max weight - Trimmed for takeoff
9
Q
Vmcg does not account for
A
- slippery runway or crosswinds
10
Q
How does Vmcg change with weight
A
- As the weight increases the Vmcg decreases due to the increase in frictional forces
11
Q
How can you reduce Vmcg
A
- The use of De-rated takeoff thrust
12
Q
Define Vmca - Minimum control speed – Air
Vmca is _____Vs
Max ____ def of heading change during recovery
Max _____ of rudder force
A
- The airspeed(1.2 Vs) at which if the critical engine becomes inoperative it is possible to maintain control of the aircraft in straight flight with a bank angle of not more than 5 deg.
o Max 20 deg of heading change during recovery - max 150 lbs of force on the rudder
13
Q
How is Vmca determined
increase in vmca out og ground effect is due to _______
A
- Max thrust
- Aft CG
- Max weight
o Increase in weight = Decrease in Vmca - Trimmed for takeoff
- Most critical configuration, with gear up
- Out of ground effect
o Increase in Vmca due to a decrease of lift and increase in drag
14
Q
What is V1
Max speed to _________
Min speed to ________
A
- Takeoff decision speed: used as reference speed in case of a failure in deciding to takeoff or reject
o Max speed to stop the airplane within the ASD
o Min speed to continue and takeoff
15
Q
What is the min V1 allowable
and max V1 allowable not to exceed ___
A
- Min: V1mcg
- Max: Vmbe(max brake energy absorption capability) not to exceed Vr
16
Q
Reasons to Reject Below 80kts and V1
A
- Before 80kts: o MUUSSTTFEWWP o Master Caution/Warning o Unusual Noise or vibration o Unsafe or unable to fly o System Failure o Slow Acceleration o Tire Failure o T/O Config warning o Fire or Fire warning o Engine Fail o Windshear o Window opens o Predictive Windshear - Above 80kts below V1: o FEUP o Fire or Fire Warning o Engine Fail o Unsafe or unable to fly o Predictive windshear
17
Q
What is Vr
Vr is ____Vmca
Vr is ____ Vs
A
- The speed at which the pilot starts rotation while accelerating to V2
- Vr must be grater than or equal to 1.05Vmca, 1.2Vs
18
Q
What is Vlof
Vlof is the greater of _____ Vmu (all engnie) or ______Vmu(OEI)
A
- Speed at which the airplane first become airborne
o Vlof must be greater than or equal to:
• 1.1 Vmu(all engine)
• 1.05Vmu(OEI)
19
Q
What is V2
V2 is greater or equal to _____Vs1g
Ve is greater or equal to ____ Vmca
A
- Speed obtained after liftoff to achieve the required OEI climb performance, Best OEI angle of climb
- V2 must be greater than or equal to 1.13 Vs1g
- V2 must be greater than or equal to 1.1 Vmca
20
Q
What is the max allowable takeoff weight
A
- Structural
- LDW + Trip Fuel
- Performance:
o Lowest of:
• Field Length, Climb, Obstacle Clearance, Tire speed, Brake Energy
21
Q
ASDR is the greater of _________
If runway is wet ______
No credit for ______ on a _____ Rwy
Credit for remaning ____ on _____ rwy
A
- The greater of the following:
o The distance required to accelerate to V1 have an engine failure and than come to a complete stop
o The distances required to accelerate, with all engines operating, to V1 and come to a complete stop with all engines still operating
o If the runway is wet the greater of ASD of a dry or wet runway
• No Credit for T/R on a dry runway
• Credit for remaining T/R on a wet runway
22
Q
What is the ASD Limit weight ______ = ______
ASDA may be increased
A
- ASDR = ASDA
o ASDA may be increased by a stopway
23
Q
The Takeoff Run Available (TORA) is ________
The TORA is typically the _________ of the runway but may be ___________
For example the TORA ______
A
- The runway length declared available and suitable for the ground run of an airplane taking off.
- The TORA is typically the physical length of the runway, but it may be shorter than the runway length if necessary to satisfy runway design standards.
For example, the TORA may be shorter than the runway length if a portion of the runway must be used to satisfy runway protection zone requirements.
24
Q
Takeoff Distance Available is the _______ + ______
TODA may be ________ than the physical runway
A
- TORA + clearway
- TODA may be longer than the physical length of the runway with a clearway
25
the accelerate stop distance available is the ______ + _____
The ASDA may be _____ than the physical runaway when ________
The ASDA may be ______ than the physical runway when _____
For example the airport operator uses a portion of the runway ____________
- Runway + stopway
- The ASDA may be longer than the physical length of the runway when a stopway
- May be shorter than the physical length of the runway if necessary to use a portion of the runway to satisfy runway design standards;
o for example, where the airport operator uses a portion of the runway to achieve the runway safety area requirement.
26
What is a stopway
- Area beyond the runway, no less wide than the runway and centered upon the runway centerline, which is able to support the airplane during an RTO
27
A clearway is the _______
Min Width
Max Length
No objects above _____
Not allowed on a _____ runway due to ____
- Area beyond the liftoff end of the runway, centrally located about the extended centerline, free of objects included in the TODA
- Min width: 500’
- Max Length:
o Not more than ½ TORA
o Not more than ½ flare distance
• Distance from liftoff speed until the screen height
- No objects above 1.25% plane
- Not allowed on a wet runway due to lower screen height of 15’ w/ OEI
28
The landing distance available ______
LDA may be more than _____ if _______
- The runway length declared available and suitable for a landing airplane.
- LDA may be more than TORA due if there is a displaced threshold
29
TODR is the higher of
If the runway is wet ________
- TODR is the higher of:
o Distance to accelerate to Vef + the distance to accelerate with OEI to v2 at a screen-height of 35’ on a dry runway(15’ on a wet runway) above the takeoff surface
o 115% of the distance to accelerate with all engines to a screen-height of 35’ on a dry runway above the takeoff surface
o If the runway is wet the higher of the dry and wet calculations
30
The TOD Limit weight is _______ = _____
TODA may be increased by a _______
not to exceed ________
- TODR = TODA
o TODA may be increased by a clearway
• FAR 121.189: not to exceed ½ of the TORA or ½ flare distance
31
The Field limit weight is limited by _____ and ______
ASDR must be less than or equal to _____
TODR must be less than or equal to ______
TODR is also referred to as _________
TORR must be less than or equal to _____
TORA is _____________
- The lowest of: ASDR and TODR
- ASDR must be less than or equal to ASDA
- TODR must be less than or equal to TODA
o TODR is also referred to as Accelerate- GO Distance
- TORR must be less than or equal to TORA
o TORA: length of runway declared available
32
What is balanced field length
- ASDR equals TODR
33
A rebalancing of V1 will result in
- Weight reduction
34
Unbalancing V1 is caused by
- Not field length limited
- Clearway and Stopway not equal
- Increase V1 to above V1mcg
- Reduce V1 to below Vmbe
35
An unbalanced V1 allows an ______ and _____
- Increased TOW
| - DeRate and Higher Assumed Temp.s
36
How do you calculate takeoff/landing Performance for your jet?
- Weight
-Config
- inop equipment
Rwy length(ASDA/TODA)
- Obstacles
- Wind(50% of HW, 150% of TW)
- PA + OAT = DA
- Runway Slope
- Runway surface condition
37
Do you use charts or a program like APG?
- EMB charts
| - B737 OPT (On-board Performance Tool)
38
Define a wet runway
- Neither dry nor contaminated
| - Shiny appearance
39
# Define Contaminated runway
FAA ________
ICAO
Assumed Thrust is _______
```
- more than 25% is covered by:
o FAA: Water or slush more than 0.125" or
o FAA: accumulation of snow or ice
o ICAO: Water or slush more than 3mm
o ICAO: loose snow more than 20mm
o ICAO: accumulation of snow or ice
• Assumed Thrust is NOT allowed
```
40
What speeds will change with the runway change
Max takeoff weight is restricted by the ____ and _____
When changing runway why will V1 change due to the ______ length or ______ length
What conditions cause reduced stopping capability
- V1:
Maximum takeoff weight is restricted by the ASDR and TDR
o Runway length
o Stopway length
```
o Runway
• Slope
• HW/TW
• Runway condition
• MELs: Anti- Ski, TR, EEC in Alt mode
```
41
# Define the takeoff path
The takeoff path is divided into _________
- From a screen height of 35'(15 wet) until 1,500’ AFE or obstacles are clear
- The takeoff path is divided into 4 segments representing distinct changes in airplane configuration, airspeed, and engine thrust
42
Define takeoff distance
- start of takeoff until the aircraft reaches 35’/(15' wet) AFE
43
Define the takeoff flight path
- From 35’ AFE until 1,500’ AFE or until final segment speed is reached
44
The GROSS takeoff flight path Height
Gross height is used for calculating ________
- The actual height attained at any point in the takeoff flight path using gross climb performance.
Gross height is used for calculating ACTUAL altitude at which:
- obstacle clearance
- acceleration alt/flap retraction
- Thrust reduction
45
What is net takeoff path Height
Net takeoff path height accounts for
The net takeoff path must clear any obstacles by ________
- gross height reduced by
o 2 engines: 0.8%
o 3 engines: 0.9%
o 4 engines: 1.0%
Performance degradation and average pilot
must clear any obstacle by at least 35’ (15’ wet)
46
What is Reference Zero on the takeoff flight path
Used to reference _________
Aircraft reaches a screen height of 35'(15' wet)
used to reference terrain clearance
47
# Define Climb Limit weight_______
Climb/Obstacle limit TOW can be ________ by the use of _________by trading excess runway for ______ when not limited by ________
Increasing _____ and ____ will _________ in case of wshr
- A takeoff weight which is limited by the minimum climb gradient
o Climb/Obstacle limit TOW can be increased by the use of improved climb by trading excess runway for higher takeoff speeds, giving better climb performance, when not limited by field length, tire speed and brake energy speed
• Increasing Vr and V2 will increase climb performance in case of windshear
48
Advantages of Improved climb
- Increase TOW
- De-rate and/or increase assumed temperature (increase engine life)
- Increased Tail clearance, lower pitch attitude for same lift
- Reduces noise
- Higher 2nd Alt height at the end of 5 min (10 min if approved)
- Distance obstacles become less limiting
49
Disadvantages of Improved Climb
- RTO stopping margin is reduced
- Close-In obstacles become limiting
- Increased tire wear
- Decreased margin to Brake Energy and Tire limit speed
50
# Define Climb Gradient
Rule of thumb
- Alt gain/Dist. Travelled
| o Rule of Thumb: Vertical Speed/Ground Speed
51
What are the 4 segments of climb?
TOGA is limited to ____ min
Net Gradient is gross climb gradient reduced by _______
```
- First: From 35’ AFE to gear up at V2 with TO/GA thrust and T/O flaps
• Must reach V2 before 35’
o 2 Engines: positive climb gradient(>0)
o 3 Engines: min. 0.3% climb gradient
o 4 Engines: min. 0.5% climb gradient
```
- Second: From gear up to acceleration alt (min 400’ AFE) at V2 with T/O thrust and T/O flaps
o 2 Engines: min. 2.4% climb gradient
o 3 Engines: min 2.7% climb gradient
o 4 Engines: 3.0% climb gradient
```
- Third: Distance required to accelerate to final takeoff speed(Vfto) at T/O thrust while retracting the flaps
o Level off height:
• Min. 400’ AFE
• Company policy
• Obstacles
```
- Fourth: from final takeoff speed(Vfto) until 1,500’ AFE or higher if required due to obstacles
o 2 Engines: min. 1.2% climb gradient
o 3 Engines: min 1.5% climb gradient
o 4 Engines: 1.7% climb gradient
• TO/GA time limit of 5 min (10 min if approved)
2 - 0.8%
3 - 0.9%
4 - 1.0%
52
What is the Maximum Level-Off Height
- The maximum height at which the third segment can be completed before the time limit on the use of takeoff thrust expires 5/10 min
53
When limited by field length consider a _________ flap setting
- Higher
54
When Limited by obstacle clearance or climb requirement consider a _______ flap setting
- Lower
55
When you loose an engine what speeds are you thinking about?
Takeoff
Landing
- Vmcg: is the airspeed during the takeoff at which if the critical engine fails it is possible to control the airplane using the rudder.
- Vmbe: max speed for a given TOW at which the brakes are able to absorb the energy during an RTO. V1 is restricted by Vmbe.
- V1: Takeoff decision speed used as reference speed in case of a failure in deciding to takeoff or reject
o Max speed to stop the airplane within the ASD
o Min speed to continue and takeoff
- Vr: The speed at which the pilot starts rotation while accelerating to V2
o Must be grater than or equal to 1.05Vmca(OEI) and 1.2Vs
- Vmca: The airspeed(1.2 Vs) at which if the critical engine becomes inoperative it is possible to maintain control of the aircraft in straight flight with a bank angle of not more than 5 deg.
o Max 20 deg of heading change during recovery
- V2:Speed obtained after liftoff to achieve the required OEI climb performance
o Must be greater than or equal to 1.13 Vs1g
o Must be greater than or equal to 1.1 Vmca
- Final takeoff speed(Vfto): minimum clean speed, (Vx - L/D max speed)
- Vmcl: Min control speed during approach and landing when the critical engine is suddenly made inop
- Vmcl-2: Min control speed during approach and landing with OEI when 2nd critical engine is suddenly made inop
- Vapp speed: Vref(1.3Vs) + correction maintain speed with current flap setting or Select flap 15 + 20 kts if Engine fails on final
56
What Speeds change from a dry to wet/contaminated runway
V1, Vmcg, Vr, V2?
lift =
- V1
o Due to increased stopping distance
- V1mcg
o Does not account for a slippery runway
- Vr/V2 does not change
lift = Cl*A(D*v^2/2)
57
What Speeds change when the temperature and PA change
V1, Vr, V2?
Lift equation is: Lift = _________
- V1, Vr, V2
o V1
• Distance changes based on acceleration
o Vr/V2
• Lift = Cl((DA*v2)/2)A
58
Which Vmcg/V1/Vr/V2 is constant assuming weight/temp/pressure/alt are the same?
- Vmcg, Vr, V2 are constant
```
- V1 will change based on:
o Runway length
o Stopway length
o Runway
• Slope
• HW/TW
• Runway condition
o MELs: Anti- Ski, TR, EEC in Alt mode
```
59
Balanced Field Takeoff, if you have an engine failure on takeoff, how high must you cross over the end of the runway?
What if the runway is wet?
- Dry: 35’
| - Wet: 15’
60
The Max allowable Dispatch landing weight at the destination and Alternates is based on
When RVR is 4000 or less the runway is considered ________
- Max certified landing weight
- Landing field length
o Land within 60% of the runway. Increase landing distance by 115% if the runway is wet or slippery
- Approach climb
- Landing climb
o When RVR is 4,000 or less, runway is considered wet (AC 120-118)
61
The IN-FLIGHT landing requirements based on_____
LDR must not _____________
Required GA _____________
When RVR is _______ or less runway is ______ Increases LDR by _______ except during ________
- Based on actual inop. Equipment, configuration and current weather conditions
o LDR must not exceed LDA
o Required GA approach and landing climb gradient must be equal to or greater than the min.
- When RVR is 4,000 or less, runway is considered wet (AC 120-118)
- Increase LDR by 15%, recommended by the FAA/SAFO 06012
o Except during emergency
62
What are the missed approach climb gradients based on?
- Critical engine inop
- Operating engine at GA power
- Max landing weight
- Climb speed in normal landing procedures
- Landing Gear Retracted
63
What are the missed approach climb gradients
- Approach Climb for 2 engines
o Min of 2.1%
- Approach Climb Gradient 3 engines
o Min of 2.4%
- Approach Climb Gradient 4 engines
o Min of 2.7%
64
What is the landing climb gradient based on __________
From idle to GA within _______ seconds
Min Climb Gradietn ______
- Gear Down
- Engines at GA power
o From Idle to GA within 8 seconds
- Min Climb Gradient: 3.2%
65
Vref Depends on _______ and ______
____Vs
not less than ________
Provides _____ deg of bank
Vfas/Vapp is Vref +__________
Correction for wind _____
Varying winds can be treated as _____
Correction for _________ Configuration
Touchdown speed between ____ and _____
o Depends on landing weight and configuration
o 1.23Vs
o Not less than Vmcl (min landing control speed)
o Provides 40 deg bank
```
- Vfas: Final Approach Speed
o Vref + correction:
• Wind: 1/2 HW + Gust up to 15(B737) knots(limited by placard)
• Varying winds can be treated as gust
• Abnormal landing configuration
```
- Touchdown at a speed between Vref and Vref – 5kt
66
What is Vmcl
Max ______ of force on rudder
- Min control speed during approach and landing when the critical engine is suddenly made inop it is possible to maintain control of the airplane in straight and level flight with not more than 5 deg. of bank
Max 150lbs of force on rudder
67
How is Vmcl determined
- A/C is in the most critical configuration
- GA power on operating engine
- Unfavorable CG
- Trimmed for approach with all engines operating
- Unfavorable weight
68
What is Vmcl-2
- For airplanes with 3 or more engines
- Min control speed during approach and landing with OEI when the 2nd critical engine is suddenly made inop it is possible to maintain control of the airplane in straight and level flight with not more than 5 deg. of bank
69
How is Vmcl-2 determined
- A/C is in the most critical configuration
- Thrust on operating engines necessary to maintain a 3 deg approach path with OEI and after the loss of the 2nd engine the thrust is rapidly changed to min thurst or GA thrust
- Unfavorable CG
- Trimmed for approach with OEI
- Unfavorable weight
70
When RVR less than RVR 4000 the runway is considered
- Wet
71
What landing configuration is preferable when landing on a icy runway?
- Full Flaps
- Autobrakes 3
- Speed Brakes
- Full Reverse
72
Escape Routes are used for?
- Engine failure and/or cabin pressurization failure
73
Escape route for oxygen requirements require the aircraft to
- Descend to 14,000 within time allowed for Pax O2(12/22 min), followed by a descent to 10,000 within 30 min for a total of (42/52 min)
74
If after an engine failure the ____________
Driftdown at ______ to minimze _______
_______ to comply with terrain clearance if approved
If no OpSpec than ______ must be ______ to meet the ___ and _____ drift-down requirements.
Alternates airports must be ________ and airports must meet the ________
The dirftdown flight path is based on _______
- If after an engine failure the aircraft is unable to maintain terrain clearance, a driftdown procedure should be followed
o Driftdown at L/D max, to minimize vertical descent
o B029: fuel dumping to comply with terrain clearance requirements.
• If no OpSpec than weight must be reduced to meet the Net and Gross driftdown requirements
- Alternate airport must be listed on dispatch or flight release and meet the weather minimums and landing requirements
- The Flight path is based on:
o 1 or 2 critical engine failing at the most critical point en route
o Most unfavorable CG
o Remaining Engine at MCT
75
What is the gross Driftdown Flight path
- After an engine failure at the the most critical point
the actual flight path which must clear all obstacles by 2,000' within 5nm from the during the descent
must maintain level flight at least 1,500’ above the airport of intended landing(2 engines inop. Fly for 15 min at cruise thrust),
76
What is the Net Driftdown Flight path_________
The effect of _____ on the net flight patch must be _______
```
- The gross driftdown in NON-icing conditions flight path gradient diminished by the following:
o 2 engines: 1.1%
o 3 engines: 1.4%(OEI)
• 2 inop engines: 0.3%/1.7%
o 4 engines: 1.6%(OEI)
• 2 inop engines: 0.5%/2.1%
```
o The effect of A/I on the net flight path must be accounted for
Atlas
flashcards
Decks in class (16)
# Cards
