pg study number 2 Flashcards

(121 cards)

1
Q

Kingsbury type bearings are designed to accommodate:

a) axial and radial loads.
b) high speed and heavy loads.
c) high axial loads and small radial loads.
d) back to back mounting.

A

high speed and heavy loads

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2
Q

The last two digits of ISO standard bearing code are used to indicate:

a) the service rating.
b) the outside diameter.
c) the bore diameter.
d) the width.

A

bore diameter

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3
Q

Rubbing or lip seals on antifriction bearings are used to:

a) keep the spacing between the rolling elements.
b) keep lubricants and debris outside the bearing.
c) keep lubricants inside the bearing.
d) none of the items listed.

A

keep lubricants inside the bearing.

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4
Q

Pick the angular contact bearing by the bearing code.

a) 5208
b) 6208
c) 7208
d) 8208

A

7208

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5
Q

Bearings having the marking C3 have:2

a) a clearance greater than standard.
b) a clearance lesser than standard.
c) oil grooves and holes at 120 degrees.
d) all of the items listed.

A

a clearance greater than standard.

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6
Q

True or False In the bearing code, balls have a five digit code.

A

false

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7
Q

The withdrawal sleeve is secured in the bearing using:

a) the nut on the sleeve.
b) the lockwasher.
c) the nut on the shaft.
d) the hydraulic nut.

A

but on the shaft

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8
Q

The use of direct or indirect hydraulic fluid pressure, for bearing removal, can be applied by:

a) forcing oil beneath the inner ring.
b) using a puller.
c) using a hydraulic nut.
d) all of the items listed.

A

all of the items listed.

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9
Q

A 22208 bearing has:

a) a tapered bore.
b) two rows of rolling elements.
c) one row of rolling elements.
d) shields and seals on both sides.

A

two rows of rolling elements.

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10
Q

For general usage, bearing housings are packed with grease to a minimum quantity of:

a) 1/4 housing.
b) 1/3 housing.
c) 2/3 housing.
halfway up the lowest rolling element.

A

1/3 housing.

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11
Q

What will be the result of adding shims between the cover and housing?

a) bearing preload will be reduced or axial float will be increased
b) bearing preload will be increased or axial float will be decreased
c) bearing preload will be increased or axial float will be increased
d) bearing preload will be reduced and axial float will be reduced

A

bearing preload will be reduced or axial float will be increased

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12
Q

An 18” level requires shims of 12 mils (0.012”) to bring it to level when it is placed on a 14” wide mill fixture. What shimming will be required to bring the fixture level?

a) 0.009”
b) 0.014”
c) 0.012”
d) 0.036”

A

0.012”

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13
Q

A good rule of thumb for a bearing installed clearance is ___________ of initial clearance.

a) 10%
b) 30%
c) 40%
d) 50%

A

50%

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14
Q

What is the minimum length of the bent leg on a foundation anchor?

a) twenty five times the diameter
b) deep enough to remain secure
c) four times the diameter
d) four times the depth it will be set into the foundation

A

four times the diameter

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15
Q

For what reason would a plumb bob be suspended into a pail of oil?

a) to provide circuitry for ohmmeter or electrical contact indicators
b) to ensure grounding in the case of a lightning strike or electrical fault condition
c) to minimize the effects of draughts and vibration on the line
d) to upset Gordon

A

to minimize the effects of draughts and vibration on the line

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16
Q

Select the most suitable tools for completing a rough alignment procedure.

a) dial indicator and vernier caliper
b) straightedge and feeler gauges
c) laser alignment set
d) dial indicator and feeler gauges

A

straightedge and feeler gauges

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17
Q

Which anchor is best suited for the edge of a concrete foundation?

a) expansion bolt
b) fixed
c) drop-in
d) adhesive

A

adhesive

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18
Q

Which of these is a correct ratio of a 3-4-5 triangle?

a) 12-16-18
b) 9-12-15
c) 6-8-12
d) 27-36-47

A

9-12-15

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19
Q

What is the recommended range of minus elevation measurement for grouting machinery?

a) 3mm – 5mm
b) 1/2” – 3/4”
c) 1/2” – 1”
d) 3/4” – 1-1/2”

A

3/4” – 1-1/2”

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20
Q

A master precision level has a sensitivity of:

a) 5 microinches per foot per division.
b) 0.0001 inches per foot per division.
c) 0.0005 inches per foot per division.
d) 0.001 inches per foot per division.

A

0.0005 inches per foot per division.

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21
Q

A 12 inch master precision level requires 0.008” (8 mils) of shims under one end to bring it level when it is placed on a machine tool bed that is 8 feet long. What shimming is required to level the bed?

a) 0.002”
b) 0.064”
c) 0.012”
d) 0.024”

A

0.064”

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22
Q

The mechanics or machinists level has a graduated sensitivity of:

a) 0.0005” per foot.
b) 0.001” per foot.
c) 0.005” per foot.
d) 0.010” per foot.

A

0.001” per foot.

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23
Q

Moisture insensitivity, corrosion, impact and chemical resistance are properties of:

a) Polymeric grout.
b) Cementitious grout.
c) Thermosetting grout.
d) Portland cement.

A

Polymeric grout.

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24
Q

Grout forms a connection between bed or soleplates and foundations, and:

a) transfers compression loads to the machine.
b) maintains precise alignment.
c) will not accommodate vibration.
d) all items listed.

A

maintains precise alignment.

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25
Fixed, straight anchors are set to a depth of at least: a) 25 times the diameter. b) 25 inches. c) 2.5 from the foundation base. d) half the concrete thickness.
25 times the diameter.
26
The viscosity index of an oil is it’s: a) rate of flow. b) change of flow rate over a range temperatures. c) rate of flow at 0 deg F and 120 deg F. d) rate of flow over a given temperature range.
change of flow rate over a range temperatures.
27
The term viscosity means the oil’s: a) dynamic resistance coefficient. b) resistance to flow. c) resistance to cone penetration. d) temperature index.
resistance to flow.
28
If the adhesive forces are strong, the oil is high in: a) lubricity. b) film strength. c) viscosity. d) cohesion.
lubricity
29
The ability of molecules of like materials to stick together is: a) cohesion. b) adhesion. c) tenacity. d) directional fluidity.
cohesion
30
The definition of fluid friction is: a) the resistance of the oil to penetration. b) the resistance of the sliding action of the oil layers. c) the heat generated by the oil film. d) the space filled between the surfaces by oil.
the resistance of the sliding action of the oil layers.
31
An oil with a low viscosity rating would be: a) a medium weight oil. b) a heavy weight oil. c) a light weight oil. d) an all purpose oil.
a light weight oil.
32
Saybolt Universal Seconds is the term used to: a) measure the viscosity of oil at a given temperature. b) measure the temperature of oil at a given viscosity. c) measure the viscosity change in a oil over a temperature range. d) measure the temperature of oil over a viscosity.
a) measure the viscosity of oil at a given temperature.
33
With a increase in temperature the viscosity of oil: a) decreases. b) increases. c) fluctuates. d) remains the same.
decrease
34
The shearing of grease into layers is known as: a) directional fluidity. b) polar fluidity. c) sliding friction. d) fibre separation.
directional fluidity.
35
An anti-friction bearing with eight rolling elements has how many oil wedges? a) 12 b) 16 c) 24 d) 36
16
36
What does the term polar attraction mean? a) the property of the oil in the grease b) the property of the soap to attract oil c) the negative charge of the metal surface d) the property of the soap having an electric charge
the property of the soap having an electric charge
37
An antifriction bearing, which is lubricated by sitting in an oil bath, would have the oil level: a) above the second rolling element. b) at the center of the bearing. c) at the middle of the lowest rolling element. d) up to the top of the lowest rolling element.
at the middle of the lowest rolling element.
38
Which type of soap greases are often referred to as “multi-purpose” greases? a) Sulfur soap b) Lithium soap c) Calcium soap d) Sodium Soap
Lithium soap
39
A cutting oil described as being “active” is only used on certain groups of materials. These materials are: a) magnesium and its’ alloys. b) brasses and bronzes. c) ferrous metals. d) white metal bearing alloys.
ferrous metals.
40
. Where will a conveyor belt wear the most when loaded from a hopper above the belt? a) Right side b) Left side c) Middle or center d) On the turn
Middle or center
41
The roller design that can be used without side rails for directional change is: a) straight faced. b) differential. c) tapered. d) guard rails must be fitted to all conveyors.
tapered.
41
52. Which of the H class pintle chains is not designed to bend in both directions? a) WR or H 78 b) H class drag chain c) rooftop d) fabricated chain
roof top
41
What type of fan is used for moving fibrous material? a) Closed b) Double duct c) Open d) High speed
open
42
The heavier applications requiring the use of apron type conveyors use which type of chain? a) manganese chain on frame supported rollers b) manganese chain on chain supported rollers
manganese chain on frame supported rollers
43
The most suitable conveyor design for carrying hot, heavy, bulk materials is called a: a) bucket conveyor. b) steel belt conveyor. c) apron conveyor. d) vibrating conveyor.
apron conveyor.
44
Extended rim sprockets are used with chains for what purpose? a) adjust timing b) variable pitch c) prevent twisting d) maintain tension
prevent twisting
45
Which of the following connecting link methods is used to join long link chain? a) welding b) bolted c) clamped d) peened
welding
45
The most effective design of trough for use in a chain conveyor is: a) slight camber across the trough width. b) slight camber from head to tail sprocket. c) flat from head to tail sprocket. d) concave across the trough width.
slight camber from head to tail sprocket.
46
56. High pressure pneumatic systems operate using a compressor, receiver and blow tank(s). The operating pressures are between: a) 15-45 psig. b) 45-125 psig. c) 125-205 psig. d) 205-285 psig.
45-125 psig.
47
The best suited application for pneumatic conveying from many sources to one location is by using: a) pressure. b) vacuum.
vacuum
48
The most widely used system for introducing material into a pneumatic conveyor is by: a) screw conveyor. b) rotary feeder. c) surge bin. d) blow tank.
rotary feeder
49
Screw conveyor designations use codes that appear like the example shown. Identify the meaning of the first unit. (example: 12H512RH) a) flight type b) coupling size c) diameter d) flight tip thickness
diameter
50
When installing a new bucket elevator belt, the buckets are attached to the belt: a) before the new belt is mounted. b) after the new belt is mounted. c) half only to balance the belt. d) depends on belt length.
after the new belt is mounted.
51
Conveyors having lengths in excess of 100 feet are most suitable for belt tension devices knows as: a) carriage take up. b) gravity take up. c) screw take up. d) hydraulic/pneumatic take up.
gravity take up
52
Troughing idlers may be titled in the direction of belt travel to assist in centering the belt. The maximum recommended amount is: a) 1 degree. b) 2 degrees. c) 1 degrees per foot of width. d) 2 degrees per foot of width.
2 degrees.
53
63. Troughing idlers are used to contain loose material and increase the load carrying capability of a conveyor. Deep trough idlers are: a) angled at 35 degrees. b) angled at 40 degrees. c) angled at 45 degrees. d) angled at 50 degrees.
angled at 45 degrees.
54
A recognized method of keeping a belt tracked is by using a crowned pulley. The standard taper for this is: a) 1/16” per foot. b) 1/8” per foot. c) 3/16” per foot. d) 0.040” per foot.
1/8” per foot.
55
A belt suited for extreme operating tension or reduced take up travel is: a) multiple ply. b) steel cord. c) solid woven. d) synthetic core.
steel cord
55
The mechanical fastener most suitable for large diameter pulleys and heavy load is: a) two plate – riveted. b) two plate – stapled – hinged. c) two plate – stapled – hinged. d) metal lacing – hinged.
two plate – riveted.
56
Which is the best rope choice for corrosive or acidic environments? a) Fibre b) Improved plow grade c) Special improved plow grades d) Stainless steel
SS
56
Wire rope is measured across: a) the narrowest diameter. b) the widest diameter. c) strand diameter. d) strand diameter multiplied by number of strands.
the widest diameter.
57
Excessive fleet angle can be controlled by: a) moving the rope to the center of the winding drum. b) moving the winding drum closer to the head shieve. c) moving the head shieve further from the winding drum. d) replacing the rope with a rope of opposite lay.
moving the head shieve further from the winding drum.
58
The best rule to apply in determining SWL of a wire rope is: a) diameter in eighths squared times 8. b) diameter squared time 8. c) 1/4” increase in diameter. d) 3/8” SWL = 1 ton and add 1 ton of each 1/8” increase in diameter.
diameter squared time 8. 3/8” SWL = 1 ton and add 1 ton of each 1/8” increase in diameter.
59
Chain suitable for overhead lifting must be: a) welded link. b) marked with a SWL tag. c) marked with paint. d) marked with the numbers 12.9.
marked with a SWL tag. also marked A for overhead lifting
60
When chains break they tend to show: a) a sign or warning of failure. b) evidence of excessive stretching. c) none of the items listed. d) no warnings or sign of failure.
no warnings or sign of failure.
61
Sling angles of less than 30 degrees from the horizontal should be: a) used where possible to reduce load on each leg. b) used where possible to balance the load. c) used only for single part lifts. d) avoided unless engineered excess load on each leg.
avoided unless engineered excess load on each leg.
62
75. Cable clips of the U bolt type are available with: a) left hand design only. b) right hand or left hand design. c) right and left and alternate design. d) right hand design only.
right hand or left hand design.
63
Four leg bridle hitch lifts should have the load calculated for the strain or tension using: a) all the sling legs. b) only the sling legs carrying the load. c) two sling legs only, as others may only balance the load. d) one sling leg, as others may only balance the load.
two sling legs only, as others may only balance the load.
64
Cable clips, when fitted to ropes, should be fitted at distances and quantities accepted: a) by general practices. b) in the WCB regulations. c) using/rules of thumb. d) depends on amount of rope available
in the WCB regulations.
65
True or False Eye bolts should be fitted with loads applied in the plane of the eye.
true
65
Turnbuckles when used for rigging and hoisting should: a) have the hooks closed. b) be locked using locknuts. c) be locked using locknuts and wire. d) be locked using lock wire.
locked using wire
66
Which knots should not be used in rigging? a) overhand and figure-of-eight knots b) bowline and rolling hitches c) clove hitch and single dutchman d) granny and thief
granny and thief
67
Thimbles are used in rope eyes to: a) protect the hook under load. b) protect the cable from crushing. c) make the correct size loop. d) enable easy replacement.
protect the cable from crushing.
68
Most rigging accessories are produced by: a) welding. b) machining. c) forging. d) casting.
forging
69
Hoisting and crane hooks are recommended to have: a) a becket and wedge socket fitted. b) Crosby clips fitted to the dead side of the line. c) headache balls and swivels. d) headache balls and shackles.
headache balls and swivels.
70
Which of the following is used when pull direction needs to be changed or dragging objects using a crane? a) tackle block b) snatch block c) fall block d) riggers block
snatch block
71
The spacing distance between cable clips is specified in regulations, the rule of thumb used to calculate this is: a) 4 times clip diameter. b) 6 times clip diameter. c) 8 times clip diameter. d) 4 times cable diameter.
6 times clip diameter.
71
When the crane operator and signaler cannot see each other: a) the lifting procedure should be stopped. b) a second crane should be used. c) a two way radio can be employed. d) tag lines are attached to the load.
a two way radio can be employed.
72
A steel component having a volume of three and a half cubic feet weighs: a) 1800 pounds. b) 1625 pounds. c) 1780 pounds. d) 1715 pounds.
1715 pounds.
73
When using the recommended safe lifting angle, determine the distance between the lift points on the load using two twelve foot slings. a) 6 feet b) 8 feet c) 10 feet d) 12 feet
12 feet
74
Why should the operator memorize the control button positions of a pendant type hoist control, before using the crane? a) to be able to give hand signals b) the labels wear away c) to watch the load during a lift d) all pendant controls are the same
watch load during lift
74
The safest procedure to follow if required to operate a crane near overhead power lines is: a) request the power be cut off. b) do not operate closer than ten feet. c) consult limit of approach charts. d) do not touch any part of crane or load.
request the power be cut off.
75
The construction design of a wire rope sling for exposure or use at temperatures in excess of 100 degrees C (212 F) must be: a) wire core. b) fibre core. c) strand core. d) sisal core.
wire core.
76
When lifting a heavy block, when is “birdcaging” most likely to be observed? a) when the hook is partially loaded b) when the hook is fully loaded c) when the hook is unloaded d) during operator daily inspection
when the hook is unloaded
76
Solid metal ring gaskets are used in extreme pressure and temperature applications and require a: a) specially designed groove. b) flat face gasket. c) full face gasket. d) thin rubber type gasket
specially designed groove.
77
The force exerted on a pressurized joint having a tendency to push the joint faces apart is known as: a) internal pressure. b) hydrostatic end force. c) compression loading. d) radial pressure.
hydrostatic end force.
78
When semi-fluids or slurries are being pumped, the seal fluid should: a) be internally supplied. b) be externally supplied. c) not be used. d) be cooled.
be externally supplied.
78
The stuffing box code 4-L-3-G indicates the order of the packings to be fitted. The # 4 in this code indicates: a) 4 packing rings before the seal cage. b) 4 packing rings after the seal cage. c) 4 packing rings before the throat bushing. d) 4 packing rings after the extrusion ring.
4 packing rings before the seal cage.
79
Which of the following mechanical seals is considered hydraulically balanced? a) pusher b) u - cup c) chevron d) bellows
bellows
80
True or False Thinner flanges require fewer bolts to hold the gasket.
false
81
In cases where “O” rings are exposed to high pressures, they should be equipped with: a) adhesives. b) extrusion washers. c) set screws. d) lock tight.
extrusion washers.
82
Metal gaskets used in high temperature, high pressure as well as corrosive environments are made of: a) aluminum. b) stainless. c) cobalt. d) kevlar.
stainless
83
Before any maintenance is started on a pump, _________ must be installed. a) barriers b) plates c) caps d) blinds
blinds
83
The numbered class of fits available for key fitting is: a) two. b) three. c) four. d) five.
3
84
Rectangular keys are also described as: a) square. b) flat. c) woodruff. d) taper.
flat
85
For permanent assembly the class of fit for keys and keyways is: a) Class 1. b) Class 2. c) Class 3. d) Class 4.
3
86
Stepped keys are also known as: a) feather. b) saddled. c) inset. d) offset.
offset
87
The rule of thumb for determining the diameter of a woodruff key is: a) shaft circumference. b) shaft diameter. c) keyseat depth divided by 2. d) keyseat length.
shaft diameter.
88
The taper on a imperial taper key is: a) 1/16 per foot. b) 1/8 per foot. c) 1/100 d) none of the items listed.
1/8 per foot.
89
Which two factors most affect the keyseat location in hubs or sprockets? a) length and width b) hub strength and timing c) taper or straight d) size and weight
hub strength and timing
90
What is the generally accepted maximum clearance over a key? a) 0.0025” b) 0.010” c) 0.015” d) 0.005”
0.005”
91
Final fitting tolerances of tapered keys is achieved using a file and: a) chalk. b) a slide hammer. c) anti-seize compounds. d) prussian blue.
prussian blue.
92
When more than one setscrew is used in a hub they are usually set at: a) 180 degrees. b) 60 degrees. c) 90 degrees. d) 45 degrees.
90 degrees.
93
True or False Fillet radii should be as large as can be accommodated by attachments or bearings.
true
94
128. Name the two common types of coupling. a) taper and straight b) internal and external c) rigid and flexible d) browning and dodge
rigid and flexible
95
. What size broach does not require shims placed behind it to cut a keyway in one pass? a) 1/8” broach b) 1/16” broach c) 1/4” broach d) 1/32” broach
1/8” broach
96
. A rule of thumb used when determining linear expansion in steel is: a) 0.001” per 150 degrees F. b) 0.006” per 150 degrees F. c) 0.001” per 150 degrees C. d) 0.000633” per 150 degrees F.
0.001” per 150 degrees F.
97
The Woodruff key requires a specific assembly and disassembly procedure. This is most accurately indicated by which of the following statements? a) That the key is the same diameter as the shaft. b) That the key will have a three or four digit identification code. c) That components must be disassembled before the key can be removed. d) That the key is manufactured using a woodruff key cutter.
That components must be disassembled before the key can be removed.
98
Friction bearings are best suited for applications having: a) high loads and slow to medium speed. b) high loads and high speeds. c) no means of lubrication. d) heavy loads in one direction only.
high loads and slow to medium speed.
99
One piece bearing housings are suitable for accepting: a) limited side and top loads. b) loading through the base only. c) thrust loading in axial direction. d) loading in all radial directions.
loading in all radial directions.
100
Water and heat have the greatest effect on bearings manufactured from: a) Tin-Babbitt. b) Nylons. c) Laminated phenolics. d) Lead-Babbitt.
nylons
101
Babbitt pouring is generally carried out using temperatures: a) at the complete melting point. b) 20 to 50 degrees below melting point. c) 20 to 120 degrees above solidification point. d) 150 to 200 degrees above melting point.
150 to 200 degrees above melting point.
102
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