Physical flash cards

(74 cards)

1
Q

Which organ requires dialysis when it fails?

A

Kidneys

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2
Q

Respirations that are fast and deep, followed by a period of apnea?

A

Cheyne-Stokes

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3
Q

What position should you place a pregnant patient for transport?

A

on her left side

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4
Q

How long does it usually take for crush syndrome to occur?

A

4 hours

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5
Q

At what point in the assessment process will you first obtain a complete set of vital signs?

A

Secondary assessment

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6
Q

What conditions are associated with Acute Coronary Syndrome (ACS)?

A

Angina pectoris, Acute myocardial infarction

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7
Q

Besides guarding, what is a common sign in patients with peritonitis?

A

Abdominal distention

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8
Q

What is peritonitis and what are the common signs and symptoms?

A

-Inflammation of the peritoneum
-Can lead to ileus, which is paralysis of the intestines
-Signs and symptoms= nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, guarding, abdominal distention

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9
Q

What type of presentation is buttocks first during crowning of birth?

A

Breech

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10
Q

What is head first called during birth?

A

Vertex

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11
Q

How does deoxygenated blood from the body enter the right atrium of the heart?

A

through the vena cava

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12
Q

What conditions need to be met to receive protection under the Good Samaritan Law?

A

-you acted in good faith
-you rendered care without expecting compensation
-you acted within the scope of your training

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13
Q

What action is happening in the heart during the systolic reading?

A

contracting

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14
Q

Which method transmits disease from an infected patient via an inanimate object?

A

Indirect contact

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15
Q

Who develops local EMS protocols and support for EMS personnel?

A

medical director

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16
Q

What injury is responsible for nearly 1/3 of immediate deaths in vehicle collisions?

A

traumatic rupture of the aorta

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17
Q

How do you treat epistaxis?

A

-Have patient lean forward while sitting
-Apply direct pressure, pinching the fleshy part of the nostrils together
-Apply an ice pack to the nose

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18
Q

What components are included in BE-FAST stroke assessment?

A

B-Balance
E-Eyes
F-Face
A-Arms
S-Speech
T-Time (onset of symptoms)

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19
Q

You come across a person who is pulseless and apneic. What do you do first?

A

Start chest compressions

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20
Q

Patient reports a history of gallstones and pancreatitis. When palpating the abdomen, where do you expect the most pain if patient is experiencing pancreatitis?

A

the upper left and upper right quadrants

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21
Q

What best describes what a pulse oximeter is measuring?

A

Percentage of hemoglobin saturation

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22
Q

What are the characteristics of preeclampsia?

A

Hypertension, blurred vision, severe + persistent headache

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23
Q

Extrinsic factors that causes challenges to maintain airway?

A

-Airway obstruction by a foreign body
-Fractured jaw

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24
Q

What are considered intrinsic factors that cause challenges to maintain airway?

A

-allergic reactions
-swollen tissue from infection
-airway obstruction by tongue

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25
What is the third stage of labor?
Delivery of placenta
26
What strap do you secure first using the Kendrick extrication device?
middle strap
27
What are the types of distributive shock?
Sepsis, neurogenic, anaphylactic
28
What conditions could cause a patient to hyperventilate?
-Hyperglycemia -Sepsis
29
You have delivered a newborn and notice a portion of the spinal cord protruding outside the body. What is the proper treatment for this patient?
-Ensure baby is dried and kept warm -Calculate an APGAR score at 1 and 5 minutes after birth -Cover the open area of the spinal cord with a moist, sterile dressing
30
Which structure of the upper chambers are responsible for receiving blood into the heart?
Atria
31
What signs + symptoms of cardiac tamponade are referred to as Beck's Triad?
-Narrowing pulse pressure -JVD -Muffled heart sounds
32
Which type of vaccine is recommended for people who may come in contact with blood?
Hep B
33
Signs + Symptoms of a hypertensive emergency
-Severe Headaches -Ringing in ears -AMS -Epistaxis (dizziness, nausea, vomiting, warm skin due to increased blood flow)
34
What is the most appropriate way to transport amputated limbs?
wrap the amputated parts in a sterile dressing, place them in a dry, plastic bag, and put the bag in a cooled container
35
When a patient has an ischemic stroke, how soon should the drug tissue plasminogen activator be given?
within the first 3 hours
36
What is the best protocol when a patient has an avulsion with a large flap of skin partially attached?
Position the flap of skin as close to normal as possible, then apply a dry, sterile dressing
37
What are steps in reassessment?
-Repeating primary assessment (ABC's) -Checking vital signs again -mental status (AVPU, orientation) -Verifying interventions
38
Which arteries supply the head and brain with blood?
Right and left carotid artery
39
What are 3 elements made up the pediatric assessment triangle?
Appearance, work of breathing, circulation of skin
40
How to proceed with managing an airway of a patient with dentures?
Leave the dentures in place
41
What is span of control?
3-7 people per leader, 5 is optimal
42
What is the proper hazmat response?
-EMS set up in COLD zone -Decontamination occurs in WARM zone -NEVER enter HOT zone! -Stay uphill, upwind
43
What is the acronym DUMBELLS?
Nerve agent poisoning D-Diarrhea U-Urination M-muscle twitching or miosis B-Bronchospasm E-Emesis L-Lacrimation S-Salivation
44
what is Miosis?
Constriction of pupils
45
What is epistaxis?
nosebleed
46
Ending of words with -itis mean what?
inflammation (Hepatitis, inflammation of the liver)
47
Jaundice
Yellowing of the skin and/or eyes (liver abnormality)
48
Hemiparesis
one-sided weakness
49
Priaprism
non-aroused erection
50
Diaphoresis
sweating
51
Urticaria
Hives
52
Ecchymosis
Bruising
53
Emesis
vomiting
54
Lacrimation
excessive tearing of the eyes
55
The acronym SLUDGEM
Nerve Agent Poisoning S-Salivation L-Lacrimation U-Urination D-Defecation G-GI (gastrointestinal) E-Emesis M-Muscle twitching or miosis
56
Mobile vs Portable radio
Mobile: mounted inside ambulance Portable: Carried on person
57
Advanced Directive
Instructions given in advance such as a DNR
58
What is Cushing's triad?
intracranial pressure -Hypertension -bradycardia -Irregular respirations
59
Rule of nine- Pediatric patients
head and neck: 18% Each arm: 9% (41/2% front, and back) Each leg: 13.5% Front torso: 18% (9% chest, abdomen) Back: 18% (9% top, bottom) Perineum: 1%
60
Rule of nine- Adult patients
Head and neck: 9% Each arm: 9% (41/2% front, and back) Each leg: 18% (9% front, and back) Front torso: 18% (9% chest, abdomen) Back: 18% (9% top, bottom) Perineum: 1%
61
Distal vs Proximal
Proximal: toward the trunk of the body Distal: away from the trunk of the body ex: Ankle is proximal to foot. Foot is distal to ankle
62
Toddlers age
1-3 yo
63
Adults age
18 yo and up
64
Adolescent age
13-18 yo
65
School age children age
6-12 yo
66
Preschoolers age
3-5 yo
67
Infants age
1 month to 1 year
68
Neonates/Newborn age
birth to 28 days
69
Implied consent
Patients with implied consent: Unconscious AMS Minors in life threatening emergency
70
Battery vs Assault
-Assault doesn't require physical contact, whereas battery does -Assault involves fear of harm
71
Simplex vs Duplex radio system
Simplex: Only 1 person can transmit at a time Duplex: Both people can transmit at the same time
72
What is a repeater
It receives signals from lower powered radios (either mobile or portable), then sends them out at higher strengths
73
Unified command
Several agencies working independently but cooperatively
74
Medial vs Lateral
Looking at someone head on, split their body into half called midline. each half having an arm and a leg each. Medial: toward midline Lateral: Away from midline Ex: nose is medial to eyes. Eyes are lateral to nose