1
Q
Air has approximately how much oxygen?
A
21%
2
Q
What does CO = SV x HR mean?
A
Cardiac output = Stroke volume x Heart rate
3
Q
What does MV = TV x RR mean?
A
Minute volume = Tidal volume x Respiratory Rate
4
Q
When suctioning, how long can you suction an adult or a child?
A
Adult= 15 seconds max
Pediatric= 10 seconds max
5
Q
If someone has snoring respirations, what can you suspect is in the way?
A
The tongue
6
Q
What does Paradoxical motion mean of the chest?
A
When one side of the chest rises/falls, while the other doesn’t
7
Q
What is the phenomenon called when the chest is having paradoxical motion?
A
A flail segment, or a flail chest
8
Q
If a patient is having diminished lung sounds on one side of the chest, what should you suspect?
A
A pneumothorax
9
Q
If someone has cherry red skin and is at home with dizziness/lightheadedness, what respiratory issue should you be possibly concerned about?
A
Carbon monoxide poisoning
10
Q
What is croup and what is the noted symptom?
A
A viral infection, noted by a seal/bark like cough
11
Q
What is epiglottitis and what is it’s main symptom?
A
A bacterial infection, noted by drooling as well as a sore throat, a fever, and a tripod position
12
Q
If you see a patient with very deep and rapid respirations that are diabetic, what are these respirations called?
A
Kussmaul respirations
13
Q
Diabetic patients who are having kussmaul respirations are hypoglycemic or hyperglycemic?
A
Hyperglycemic
14
Q
If you are transporting a patient and they go into cardiac arrest, what do you do first?
A
Pull over, then CPR
15
Q
If the AED shocks the patient, what do you immediately do next?
A
CPR
16
Q
What depth do you want in compressions for an adult patient?
A
2-3 inches depth
17
Q
What depth do you want in compressions for a child/infant?
A
1/3 the depth of the chest
18
Q
How many compressions per minute during CPR?
A
100-120 compressions per minute
19
Q
CPR by yourself should be at what rate?
A
30:2 compressions to ventilations
20
Q
If you are with your partner and you have an infant, so 2 rescuers and an infant what rate can you do compressions to ventilations?
A
15:2 compressions to ventilations
21
Q
What do you do when you’re placing an AED on a patient and they have an implanted pacemaker or defibrillator?
A
Place the AED pads a couple inches away from the area of the implant
22
Q
What do you do when applying an AED and see a medication patch?
A
Remove the patch before applying the AED
23
Q
What is it called when we get a pulse back during CPR?
A
ROSC- Return of spontaneous circulation
24
Q
If we shock someone with the AED, what’s the very next thing we do?
A
Start CPR for 2 minutes
25
What is an Ischemic stroke?
Clot causing a lack of oxygen to part of the brain causing a stroke
26
What is a transient ischemic attack (TIA)?
Clot that dissipated by itself in less than 24 hours, reversing stroke like symptoms on its own
27
What is a Hemorrhagic stroke? What is the hallmark symptom?
A brain bleed, and the patient will generally have high blood pressure (think Cushing’s Triad)
28
What is the Cincinnati Stroke scale?
We look for facial droop, Arm drift, and abnormalities in speech
29
What is the FAST stroke assessment?
Look for facial weakness, arm weakness, their speech, and the time it occured
30
What is the VAN assessment?
Look for vision, aphasia (difficulty speaking), and Neglect (lost awareness of one side of the body)
31
What is aphasia?
Difficulty speaking
32
What is neglect in terms of stroke?
Lost awareness of one side of the body
33
What is important to conduct at the scene of a suspected stroke patient?
Gather when they were last seen normal and patient information from family members that may be present or the patient if they’re responsive
34
If someone is having a seizure as an EMT-B, what should you do?
Call ALS
35
IF a patient can protect their own airway, and they are A&O x4, what can you consider administering if the patient is hypoglycemic?
Oral glucose
36
If someone has RLQ abdominal pain, what should you always suspect?
Appendicitis
37
If someone has LUQ abdominal pain, what organ should you suspect?
The spleen
38
When someone is having a tearing sensation in their abdomen that radiates to their back, what should you consider that they’re experiencing? Or feel a pulsating mass in their abdomen?
Abdominal aortic aneurysm
39
When a patient has a STIFF NECK, fever, headache, what should you suspect?
Meningitis
40
If someone has Hepatitis C, what should you generally be looking for?
Jaundice
41
If somebody starts coughing up bloody sputum, what should you suspect?
Tuberculosis
42
Heat related emergency: The patient is still able to sweat with the body trying to cool itself off. What is this called?
Heat exhaustion
43
Heat related emergencies: Patient is no longer able to sweat. AMS may occur along with hypotension. What is this called?
Heat stroke
44
What is secondary drowning?
When individuals develop pulmonary edema (fluid in the lungs) from a near drowning experience. This can be fatal if not treated at a hospital
45
What to do if a patient has a snake bite
Keep arm at a lower level than their heart, DONT place ice on the bite, DONT use a tourniquet, circle the area affected
46
What diseases can ticks carry?
Mountain spotted fever causing nausea, vomiting, headache, weakness, and paralysis 7-10 days after bite. Or lyme disease (days to weeks after the bite causing joint pain and a ring around the bite)
47
What is Gravida?
How many times a patient has been pregnant
48
What is Parity (para)?
How many times a patient has given birth
49
What is placenta previa?
After 20 weeks of pregnancy where the placenta is formed in an abnormal location. The patient will present with PAINLESS bright red vaginal bleeding
50
What is abruptio placenta?
When the placenta separates itself from the uterine wall, usually found in traumas. PAINFUL abdomen with vaginal bleeding
51
What is an ectopic pregnancy?
When the fertilized egg implants on the fallopian tubes
52
What is pre-eclampsia?
When a pregnant female has hypertension. May see swelling of the limbs. Request ALS!
53
What is eclampsia?
Same symptoms as pre-eclampsia but the patient is seizing or had a seizure. Request ALS!
54
What is meconium staining?
Amniotic fluid that is greenish or brownish yellow as a result of fetal defecation that can appear on newborns face.
55
With meconium staining, do you suction the baby’s mouth or nose first?
Mouth
56
When a female patient is pregnant and has suspected imminent delivery with <2 minutes of contractions, what do you need to do if you’re driving to the hospital?
Pull over and prepare for imminent childbirth.
57
What is a nuchal cord?
The umbilical cord is wrapped around the baby’s neck, and if there’s enough slack, we can try unwrapping the cord from the baby’s neck. If we cant, we need to clamp and cut the cord appropriately
58
What is a prolapsed cord?
When the umbilical cord presents itself first and is being squeezed between the vaginal wall and the child’s head.
59
When is the ONLY time you can insert a gloved hand inside the vagina of a pregnant person?
When there is a prolapsed cord, you can insert a gloved hang inside the vagina and lift the baby’s head off the cord. We can also try raising mom’s pelvis slightly to try to alleviate some pressure.
60
What is limb presentation? What do you do if this presents in a patient?
If both legs or the buttocks present first, we can potentially deliver on field but its not ideal. We CANNOT deliver a single limb with one arm or one leg presenting. Raising mother’s pelvic can assist with providing you slightly more time
61
After a female patient gives birth to a child, when do you perform an APGAR score?
At 1st minute after birth, and 5 minutes after birth
62
What do you do with penetrating traumas?
Leave the impaled object in pace and stabilize it
63
What do you do if someone’s injured their eye?
Cover both eyes, helps keep affected eye from moving in the same direction when the unaffected eye looks around
64
What is important about traumatic injuries to the brain?
They can take several days to develop depending on the type of hematoma
65
What is croup injury of the brain?
THe anterior injury of the brain (Front)
66
What is countercoup injury of the brain?
The posterior injury of the brain (back)
67
What is a greenstick fracture?
One side of the bone is broken, the other side is not, known as a hairline fracture
68
If someone has a closed femur fracture, what can we consider to utilize?
Traction splint
69
When we see bright red blood spurting out of someone, what do we do first?
Compress! Then we tourniquet if it doesn’t work
70
What is cardiac tamponade?
When fluid builds up around the heart, making it more and more difficult for the heart to pump
71
What are first degree burns?
Think of a sunburn, displayed by red skin and pain
72
What is a second degree burn?
Redness and specifically blisters can appear, followed with pain
73
What is a third degree burn?
Skin appears white, grey, or even leathery, and individuals won’t feel pain directly at the area
74
What is ecchymosis?
Bruising
75
What does NFPA 704 Tetrahedron Blue mean?
Health hazard
76
What does NFPA 704 Tetrahedron red mean?
Fire hazard
77
What does NFPA 704 Tetrahedron Yellow mean?
Instability/Reactivity
78
What does NFPA 704 Tetrahedron White mean?
Specific hazard
79
What does NFPA 704 Tetrahedron scale look like?
Red, yellow, and blue go from 4 - 0 with 4 being the worst except for white which has special symbols
80
Where do most ambulance crashes occur?
Intersections
81
I should utilize what when reversing?
A spotter
82
How big should a helicopter landing zone be?
100 x 100
83
What is abandonment?
Initiating care then destoning patient-provider relationship, can also be
considered if you are an EMT-B and transfer your patient to an EMR since it’s lower-level care
technically.
84
what is negligence?
Deviation from accepted standard of care, resulting in injury to your patient
85
What is the complete hazmat response? (There are 4)
1. EMS should be set up in COLD zone
2. Decontamination occurs in WARM zone
3. NEVER enter HOT zone, thats only for hazmat technicians
4. Remember to stay uphill, upwind
86
What is considered the lower airway?
Trachea, Bronchi, Bronchioles, and the Alveoli
87
Which shock type presents with high HR, high RR, high temp, AMS, and low BP?
Septic shock
88
Which shock type presents with high RR, wheezing, urticaria?
Early stage anaphylactic shock
89
Which type of shock presents with low RR, wheezing, urticaria?
Late stage anaphylactic shock
90
Which type of shock presents with bradycardia, low BP?
Neurogenic shock
91
When assessing a newborn, you hear an “uh” sound during exhalation. What is the term for this abnormal breath sound?
Grunting
92
When an AED reads “no shock advised”, which heart rhythm might your patient be experiencing?
Pulseless electrical activity (PEA) or Asystole
93
What are the components of an APGAR score?
Appearance, Pulse, grimace, activity, respirations
94
Why is nitroglycerin indicated in chest pain patients?
It dilates coronary arteries
95
To maintain a cushion of safety, how many seconds is defined as a safe distance between the emergency vehicle and the vehicle in front of it?
Drive four to five seconds behind the vehicle in front of the emergency vehicle
96
Obstructive shock is caused by a physical obstruction that decreases venous return, leading to reduced cardiac output. Which of the following is not a cause of obstructive shock? Cardiac tamponade, myocardial infarction, tension pneumothorax, or pulmonary embolism?
Myocardial infarction
97
Your patient has a suspected cervical spine injury, so you and your partner have placed a cervical collar, and secured him to a long spine board for transport. En route to the hospital, he begins gurgling and making choking noises. What is your next course of action?
Roll the patient, with a spine board, and suction oropharynx
98
As you suction your patient's airway, their heart rate drops. What is most likely the cause of the drop in heart rate?
Vagus nerve stimulation
99
Your patient spilled an unknown powder on their arms. After completing your primary assessment, what should you do first?
Brush off the substance
100
Your patient has an open abdominal wound with a protruding bowel. What should you do first?
Cover the protruding bowel with moist dressings
101
what are the types of distributive shock?
Septic, Neurogenic, and anaphylactic
102
Your patient reports being stung by a bee, they report no symptoms. What do you do first?
Remove the stinger by gently scraping the skin with the edge of a card
103
Your patient was found lying in bed with labored, shallow respirations at a rate of 31 breaths per minute. He is responsive only to painful stimuli. What should you do?
Insert an NPA, and assist ventilations with a BVM and 100% O2
104
What is the correct ventilation rate for BVM on an adult?
One breath every six seconds
105
Negligence requires the establishment of four specific elements, what are they?
Duty, Breach of duty, damage, causation
106
What description of chest pain is most typical of an acute myocardial infarction?
Crushing chest pain not relieved with nitroglycerin
107
When is it acceptable for an EMT to disturb the crime scene?
When it is absolutely necessary to care for the patient
108
What are the main four sections that make up the Incident Command System (ICS)?
operations, logistics, finance, planning
109
What is the most effective way to control the transmission of infectious diseases?
Proper handwashing
110
Does methamphetamine trigger the sympathetic nervous system response or the parasympathetic?
The sympathetic nervous system response
111
What is the primary pacemaker of the heart?
SA node
112
A 78-year-old male patient woke from sleep due to a sudden onset of severe dyspnea, stating, "I feel like I'm drowning when I lie down." The patient is sitting on the side of the bed, leaning forward in obvious respiratory distress. Lung sounds reveal crackles in the base of the lungs bilaterally, and accessory muscle use is noted. Vital signs are pulse 118, respiratory rate 28 (labored), blood pressure 112/74, and SpO2 86% on room air.
What should be your first priority in treating this patient?
Place the patient on oxygen with CPAP
113
What are the 3 signs of cushings triad?
Hypertension, Bradycardia, and Irregular respirations
114
Your patient is a 68-year-old female in obvious respiratory distress. She is sitting in the tripod position on the side of the bed and is on home oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 liters per minute. You note diminished breath sounds bilaterally with audible wheezing. She appears malnourished and has a barrel chest.
What is she most likely suffering from?
COPD exacerbation
115
Your elderly patient was found lying on the cold ground outside the local nursing home. He has a history of dementia and walked away from the facility unnoticed over three hours ago. There are four inches of snow on the ground, and it is 34 degrees outside. After confirming the patient has a pulse and is breathing, what is your next step?
Remove the patient from the cold and place him in your ambulance
116
Your patient is a 45-year-old male found unresponsive by his family. His pulse is weak and rapid, and he has RAPID, SHALLOW respirations. His skin is cool, clammy, and diaphoretic. The family measures the patient's blood glucose while you assess him, and it reads 20 mg/dL. What is your next course of action?
Provide manual ventilations and transport rapidly to the hospital
117
The buildup of plaque inside the walls of blood vessels increases the risk of myocardial infarction and stroke. What is the name of this condition?
Atherosclerosis
118
What does Aortic dissection present with?
Sudden, tearing chest pain that may radiate to the back. BP difference between arms or hypertension.
119
What does unstable angina present with?
chest pain that is not relieved by rest. ST elevation on ECG, and ischemia
120
What is ischemia?
A condition where there is reduced blood supply to a tissue, leading to a shortage of oxygen and nutrients needed for cellular metabolism, often causing pain and dysfunction, especially in the heart
121
What is myocardial ischemia?
When blood flow to the heart is reduced, usually due to a partial or complete blockage of the heart's arteries. This can cause chest pain, known as angina, and if prolonged, can cause a heart attack
122
Are legal definitions of competence required documentation for a refusal?
no
123
Are offered alternatives required documentation for a refusal?
yes
124
A 48-year-old male farmer was working on his tractor when he was struck by lightning. The patient is alert and oriented and is experiencing tingling all over his body. How would this lightning injury be categorized?
mild
125
You are transporting a patient in labor when she states she feels the need to push. You tell your patient you need to check for the crowning of the baby's head. Upon inspection, you note crowning and prepare for imminent delivery. As you deliver the head, you note that the umbilical cord is wrapped around the baby's neck. What is your next step?
unwrap the cord from the baby's neck and continue the delivery
126
Your 54-year-old male patient is complaining of a headache. While speaking with the patient, you note he has left-sided facial drooping and slightly slurred speech.
What should be your immediate next action?
Perform a pre-hospital stroke scale
127
An Acute Myocardial Infarction (AMI) can lead to what serious consequences? there are 3 answers
Sudden cardiac arrest, cardiogenic shock, congestive heart failure
128
A failure to match ventilation and perfusion, known as a V/Q mismatch, contributes to most abnormalities in oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange. What conditions can lead to a V/Q mismatch? There are 3 answers
COPD, pulmonary edema, and asthma
129
What are substernal chest discomfort and sour taste in mouth common in?
Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
130
What is the breathing pattern that is irregular, with an increasing rate and depth of respirations, followed by a period of apnea?
Cheyne-Stokes respirations
131
A three year old female patient with partial-thickness burns to bilateral forearms and bilateral thighs, would this be classified as a severe burn?
Yes
132
A 19 year old male patient with partial thickness chest burns covering 4% TBSA from a house fire, would this be classified as a severe burn?
No
133
What is the threshold for being classified as severe for burns in patients aged 10-50?
20% TBSA
134
What is the threshold for being classified as severe for burns in patients under 10 and over 50?
More than 10%
135
Increasing JVD, BP dropping, and heart rate steadily increasing is caused most likely by what?
Right sided heart failure, the tricuspid valve
136
A patient was a victim of a pipe bomb explosion. The patient has multiple pieces of shrapnel embedded in his arms, chest, and legs. Which category do these injuries fall under?
Secondary blast injuries
137
What are primary blast injuries?
Caused by the pressure wave produced by the explosion and typically affect gas-filled organs, such as the lungs and eardrums
138
What is tertiary blast injuries?
When the blast force throws a person, causing them to strike a solid surface.
139
What is Quaternary blast injuries?
Other injuries related to explosions, such as burns or exposure to toxic substances
140
When assessing for shock, which clinical finding is more critical to assess in pediatric trauma patients than in adult trauma patients?
Cap refill
141
What is a flail chest? What are the symptoms?
When multiple ribs fracture in at least two places per rib, causing a segment of the chest wall to move paradoxically with respiration. Cab cause difficulty breathing and chest pain, but does NOT cause unilateral diminished or absent lung sounds
142
What is everything included in the secondary assessment?
SAMPLE, OPQRST, Neurological assessment such as GCS score, and blood glucose level check
143
What phase is assessing interventions in?
Reassessment phase
144
What is not included in a DNR?
Advance directive orders, those are a separate document
145
What are symptoms of left sided heart failure?
Pink, frothy sputum. Wet lung sounds (crackles or rales). Productive cough, pulmonary edema
146
What is pulmonary edema?
A condition where fluid accumulates in the lung's air sacs (alveoli), making it difficult to breathe and often occurring in left sided heart failure
147
What is pericardial tamponade?
A life-threatening condition where fluid accumulates in the sac around the heart, compressing the heart and preventing it from pumping blood properly, often resulting from chest trauma
148
Your patient has just achieved ROSC after four minutes of chest compressions, ventilations, and two AED shocks. What is your immediate next step?
Monitor for spontaneous respirations; provide bag-valve mask ventilation
149
Describe the whole cycle of blood?
Blood enters R atrium, through the tricuspid valve, into the R ventricle. Then goes through the pulmonary artery into the lungs for oxygenation. Then goes back through the pulmonary vein into the L atrium, through the bicuspid/Mitral valve, into the L ventricle. Then through the aorta into the arteries and arterioles. Goes through capillaries for oxygenation. Deoxygenated blood then goes through the veins and venules to the Superior and inferior vena cava back into the R atrium.
150
What is the guidance on the use of supraglottic airways by EMTs?
The use of SGAs is not included as a minimum competency for EMTs but may be permitted with appropriate training and oversight at the local or state level
151
What is the most common cause of cardiogenic shock?
Acute myocardial infarction (AMI)
152
What are the 4 types of skull fractures?
linear, depressed, open, and basilar
153
A male patient dropped a knife on his leg, causing a large laceration to his inner thigh. First, responders placed a trauma dressing on the wound and applied direct pressure. Blood is soaking through the bandage and pooling on the ground. What do you do next?
Apply a tourniquet proximal to the wound
154
What is the difference between an open and tension pneumothorax?
Tension pneumothorax is caused by blunt trauma. Open pneumothorax is caused from a penetrating wound
155
Common signs and symptoms of asthma?
Wheezing, severe respiratory distress, mouth breathing, anxiety
156
Common signs and symptoms of Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?
Dyspnea, sputum production, chronic cough, long expiration phases, wheezing, barrel chest
157
Common signs and symptoms of Pneumonia?
Fever, chills, productive cough, clammy skin, shortness of breath
158
Common signs and symptoms of congestive heart failure (CHF)?
dyspnea (especially when lying down or upon exertion), wet lung sounds, edema, productive or non-productive cough with pink, frothy sputum
159
Common signs and symptoms of Croup?
Fever, labored breathing, wheezing, seal like barking cough
160
Common signs and symptoms of epiglottitis?
Shortness of breath, noisy breathing, drooling, fever, difficulty swallowing
161
Common signs and symptoms of Pulmonary embolism (PE)?
Fast breathing or shortness of breath (SOB), dry cough, chest pain
162
Common signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis?
Difficulty breathing, wheezing, hives, anxiety, poor skin signs, shock
163
What are the contraindications for assisting a patient with their MDI or nebulizer?
The patient is unable to follow commands, The nebulizer or MDI is not prescribed to the patient, the medication is expired, you did not receive permission from medical control, there are other contraindications specific to the medication, or the patient has already administered the maximum dosage before your arrival
164
What are common side effects you will see after patients use an inhaler or nebulizer?
Increased pulse rate, muscle tremors, nervousness, and coughing
165
What is the ventilation rate for infants and children?
1 breath every 2 to 3 seconds
166
What is the ventilation rate for adults?
1 breath every six seconds
167
Signs and symptoms of a patient who is not ventilating adequately?
AMS, inadequate minute volume, accessory muscle use, fatigue from labored breathing
168
Which organ requires dialysis when it fails?
Kidneys
169
Respirations that are fast and deep, followed by a period of apnea?
Cheyne-Stokes
170
What position should you place a pregnant patient for transport?
on her left side
171
How long does it usually take for crush syndrome to occur?
4 hours
172
At what point in the assessment process will you first obtain a complete set of vital signs?
Secondary assessment
173
What 2 conditions are associated with Acute Coronary Syndrome (ACS)?
Angina pectoris, Acute myocardial infarction
174
Besides guarding, what is a common sign in patients with peritonitis?
Abdominal distention
175
What is peritonitis and what are the common signs and symptoms?
-Inflammation of the peritoneum
-Can lead to ileus, which is paralysis of the intestines
-Signs and symptoms= nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, guarding, abdominal distention
176
What type of presentation is buttocks first during crowning of birth?
Breech
177
What is head first called during birth?
Vertex
178
How does deoxygenated blood from the body enter the right atrium of the heart?
through the vena cava
179
What conditions need to be met to receive protection under the Good Samaritan Law?
-you acted in good faith
-you rendered care without expecting compensation
-you acted within the scope of your training
180
What action is happening in the heart during the systolic reading?
contracting
181
Which method transmits disease from an infected patient via an inanimate object?
Indirect contact
182
Who develops local EMS protocols and support for EMS personnel?
medical director
183
What injury is responsible for nearly 1/3 of immediate deaths in vehicle collisions?
traumatic rupture of the aorta
184
How do you treat epistaxis?
-Have patient lean forward while sitting
-Apply direct pressure, pinching the fleshy part of the nostrils together
-Apply an ice pack to the nose
185
What components are included in BE-FAST stroke assessment?
B-Balance
E-Eyes
F-Face
A-Arms
S-Speech
T-Time (onset of symptoms)
186
You come across a person who is pulseless and apneic. What do you do first?
Start chest compressions
187
Patient reports a history of gallstones and pancreatitis. When palpating the abdomen, where do you expect the most pain if patient is experiencing pancreatitis?
the upper left and upper right quadrants
188
What best describes what a pulse oximeter is measuring?
Percentage of hemoglobin saturation
189
What are the characteristics of preeclampsia?
Hypertension, blurred vision, severe + persistent headache
190
Extrinsic factors that causes challenges to maintain airway?
-Airway obstruction by a foreign body
-Fractured jaw
191
What are considered intrinsic factors that cause challenges to maintain airway?
-allergic reactions
-swollen tissue from infection
-airway obstruction by tongue
192
What is the third stage of labor?
Delivery of placenta
193
What strap do you secure first using the Kendrick extrication device?
middle strap
194
What are the types of distributive shock?
Sepsis, neurogenic, anaphylactic
195
What conditions could cause a patient to hyperventilate?
-Hyperglycemia
-Sepsis
196
You have delivered a newborn and notice a portion of the spinal cord protruding outside the body. What is the proper treatment for this patient?
-Ensure baby is dried and kept warm
-Calculate an APGAR score at 1 and 5 minutes after birth
-Cover the open area of the spinal cord with a moist, sterile dressing
197
Which structure of the upper chambers are responsible for receiving blood into the heart?
Atria
198
What signs + symptoms of cardiac tamponade are referred to as Beck's Triad?
-Narrowing pulse pressure
-JVD
-Muffled heart sounds
199
Which type of vaccine is recommended for people who may come in contact with blood?
Hep B
200
Signs + Symptoms of a hypertensive emergency
-Severe Headaches
-Ringing in ears
-AMS
-Epistaxis
(dizziness, nausea, vomiting, warm skin due to increased blood flow)
201
What is the most appropriate way to transport amputated limbs?
wrap the amputated parts in a sterile dressing, place them in a dry, plastic bag, and put the bag in a cooled container
202
When a patient has an ischemic stroke, how soon should the drug tissue plasminogen activator be given?
within the first 3 hours
203
What is the best protocol when a patient has an avulsion with a large flap of skin partially attached?
Position the flap of skin as close to normal as possible, then apply a dry, sterile dressing
204
What are steps in reassessment?
-Repeating primary assessment (ABC's)
-Checking vital signs again
-mental status (AVPU, orientation)
-Verifying interventions
205
Which arteries supply the head and brain with blood?
Right and left carotid artery
206
What are 3 elements made up the pediatric assessment triangle?
Appearance, work of breathing, circulation of skin
207
How to proceed with managing an airway of a patient with dentures?
Leave the dentures in place
208
What is span of control?
3-7 people per leader, 5 is optimal
209
What is the proper hazmat response?
-EMS set up in COLD zone
-Decontamination occurs in WARM zone
-NEVER enter HOT zone!
-Stay uphill, upwind
210
What is the acronym DUMBELLS?
Nerve agent poisoning
D-Diarrhea
U-Urination
M-muscle twitching or miosis
B-Bronchospasm
E-Emesis
L-Lacrimation
S-Salivation
211
what is Miosis?
Constriction of pupils
212
What is epistaxis?
nosebleed
213
Ending of words with -itis mean what?
inflammation (Hepatitis, inflammation of the liver)
214
Jaundice
Yellowing of the skin and/or eyes (liver abnormality)
215
Hemiparesis
one-sided weakness
216
Priaprism
non-aroused erection
217
Diaphoresis
sweating
218
Urticaria
Hives
219
Ecchymosis
Bruising
220
Emesis
vomiting
221
Lacrimation
excessive tearing of the eyes
222
The acronym SLUDGEM
Nerve Agent Poisoning
S-Salivation
L-Lacrimation
U-Urination
D-Defecation
G-GI (gastrointestinal)
E-Emesis
M-Muscle twitching or miosis
223
Mobile vs Portable radio
Mobile: mounted inside ambulance
Portable: Carried on person
224
Advanced Directive
Instructions given in advance such as a DNR
225
What is Cushing's triad?
intracranial pressure
-Hypertension
-bradycardia
-Irregular respirations
226
Rule of nine- Pediatric patients
head and neck: 18%
Each arm: 9% (41/2% front, and back)
Each leg: 13.5%
Front torso: 18% (9% chest, abdomen)
Back: 18% (9% top, bottom)
Perineum: 1%
227
Rule of nine- Adult patients
Head and neck: 9%
Each arm: 9% (41/2% front, and back)
Each leg: 18% (9% front, and back)
Front torso: 18% (9% chest, abdomen)
Back: 18% (9% top, bottom)
Perineum: 1%
228
Distal vs Proximal
Proximal: toward the trunk of the body
Distal: away from the trunk of the body
ex: Ankle is proximal to foot. Foot is distal to ankle
229
Toddlers age
1-3 yo
230
Adults age
18 yo and up
231
Adolescent age
13-18 yo
232
School age children age
6-12 yo
233
Preschoolers age
3-5 yo
234
Infants age
1 month to 1 year
235
Neonates/Newborn age
birth to 28 days
236
Implied consent
Patients with implied consent:
Unconscious
AMS
Minors in life threatening emergency
237
Battery vs Assault
-Assault doesn't require physical contact, whereas battery does
-Assault involves fear of harm
238
Simplex vs Duplex radio system
Simplex: Only 1 person can transmit at a time
Duplex: Both people can transmit at the same time
239
What is a repeater
It receives signals from lower powered radios (either mobile or portable), then sends them out at higher strengths
240
Unified command
Several agencies working independently but cooperatively
241
Medial vs Lateral
Looking at someone head on, split their body into half called midline. each half having an arm and a leg each.
Medial: toward midline
Lateral: Away from midline
Ex: nose is medial to eyes. Eyes are lateral to nose
242
What is cardiogenic shock? What are the signs and symptoms?
Inadequate heart function. S/S: Chest pain, irregular/weak pulse, low blood pressure
243
What is emphysema?
Emphysema is a type of COPD
244
What is obstructive shock? What are the signs and symptoms?
Mechanical obstruction of the cardiac muscle (Tension pneumo, Cardiac tamponade, or pulmonary embolism). S/S: JVD, Low blood pressure, Rapid or weak pulse. Defer to beck's triad for cardiac tamponade
245
What is septic shock? What are the signs and symptoms?
Severe infection. S/S: Warm skin or fever, tachycardia, low blood pressure
246
What is neurogenic shock? What are the signs and symptoms?
Damaged cervical spine, which causes widespread blood vessel dilation. S/S: Bradycardia, Low BP, signs of neck injury
247
What is psychogenic shock? What are the signs and symptoms?
Fainting due to temporary, generalized vascular dilation. S/S: Rapid pulse, normal or low blood pressure
248
What is hypovolemic shock? What are the signs and symptoms?
Loss of blood or fluid. S/S: Rapid, weak pulse. Low BP, AMS
249
What is a level 1 trauma center?
Capable of providing total care for every aspect of injury, from prevention through rehabilitation
250
What is a level 2 trauma center?
Able to initiate definitive care to all injured patients
251
What is a level 3 trauma center?
Able to provide prompt assessment, resuscitation, and stabilization of injured patients and emergency operations
252
What is a level 4 trauma center?
Able to provide advanced trauma life support before transfer of patients to a high level trauma center.
253
What is hemoptysis?
Coughing up bright red blood
254
What is Hematuria?
Blood in the urine
255
What is compartment syndrome?
when edema and swelling result in increased pressure within a closed soft tissue compartment.
256
What are considered minor burns?
Partial-thickness burns covering less than 10% TBSA
257
What are considered moderate burns?
Partial-thickness burns covering 10 to 20% TBSA
258
What are considered severe burns?
Any total-thickness burns, Partial-thickness burns covering more than 20% TBSA
259
EMT
flashcards
Decks in class (9)
# Cards
