Practice Test 1 Flashcards

(98 cards)

1
Q

The minimum age to hold a private pilot certificate for airplane is

A

B. 17 years. FAR 61.103(a): Applicant must be at least 17 years of age.

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2
Q

The minimum total flight time required for a private pilot certificate (airplane) is

A

B. 40 hours. FAR 61.109(a): At least 40 hours of flight time.

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3
Q

A private pilot flight review is required every

A

B. 24 calendar months. FAR 61.56(a): Every 24 calendar months.

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4
Q

To act as PIC carrying passengers at night, a private pilot must have made within the preceding 90 days

A

B. three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop at night. FAR 61.57(b): Three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop as sole manipulator, at night, carrying passengers.

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5
Q

A third-class medical certificate for a pilot under age 40 expires at the end of the

A

C. 60th month after issuance. FAR 61.23(d): 60 calendar months for operations requiring private pilot privileges if under age 40 at examination.

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6
Q

The documents required to be on board a U.S.-registered civil aircraft are

A

B. airworthiness certificate, registration, and operating limitations. FAR 91.203(a)(1): Airworthiness certificate; FAR 91.9 and 91.203: Registration and operating limitations.

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7
Q

No person may act as PIC of an aircraft carrying passengers for compensation or hire unless that person holds

A

B. a commercial pilot certificate. FAR 61.133(a): Commercial pilot certificate required for compensation or hire.

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8
Q

A recreational pilot may not act as PIC in airspace requiring

A

A. ATC communication. FAR 61.101(e): Recreational pilot limitations include no operations in airspace requiring communication with ATC.

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9
Q

The responsibility for ensuring an aircraft is airworthy before flight rests with

A

C. the pilot in command. FAR 91.7: Pilot in command responsible for determining airworthiness.

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10
Q

An aircraft accident must be reported to the NTSB if it results in

A

A. substantial damage or serious injury. FAR 830.5: Immediate notification for serious injury or substantial damage.

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11
Q

No person may operate an aircraft within 8 hours after consuming alcohol or with

A

B. 0.04% BAC. FAR 91.17(a): No operation with 0.04% or more BAC, or within 8 hours.

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12
Q

The minimum fuel required for VFR day flight in an airplane is

A

B. 30 minutes reserve. FAR 91.151(a): Enough fuel to reach destination plus 30 minutes at normal cruising speed, day VFR.

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13
Q

To carry passengers, a private pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and landings within the preceding

A

C. 90 days. FAR 61.57(a): Three takeoffs and landings within 90 days.

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14
Q

Deviation from an ATC clearance is authorized

A

A. only in an emergency. FAR 91.3(a): PIC may deviate in emergency; notify ATC ASAP per 91.123(c).

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15
Q

Light gun signal steady green on the ground means

A

B. cleared for taxi. AIM 4-3-13: Steady green – cleared to taxi.

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16
Q

A private pilot may not pay less than the pro rata share of operating expenses when carrying

A

C. passengers sharing expenses. FAR 61.113(c): Private pilot may share pro rata expenses.

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17
Q

The PIC must ensure all passengers are briefed on

A

B. seatbelts, no smoking, and emergency exits. FAR 91.107(b): Briefing on seatbelts; no smoking per 91.21.

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18
Q

ELT batteries must be replaced when

A

A. 50% of useful life expired. FAR 91.207(d): When 50% of useful life or 1 cumulative hour of use expired.

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19
Q

Transponder with Mode C is required

A

A. in all Class B airspace. FAR 91.215: Mode C required in Class A, B, C, and veil.

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20
Q

Supplemental oxygen is required above

A

A. 12,500 feet MSL for more than 30 minutes. FAR 91.211: Above 12,500 feet MSL up to 14,000 for over 30 minutes; above 14,000 always for crew; above 15,000 for passengers.

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21
Q

Basic VFR weather minimums in Class G airspace below 10,000 MSL, above 1,200 feet AGL, day are

A

B. 3 SM visibility, 500 below, 1,000 above, 2,000 horizontal. FAR 91.155: 3 SM, 500-1,000-2,000.

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22
Q

The maximum indicated airspeed in Class B airspace below 10,000 feet MSL is

A

B. 250 knots. FAR 91.117(c): 250 knots below 10,000 MSL unless authorized.

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23
Q

Position lights are required

A

A. from sunset to sunrise. FAR 91.209(a): From sunset to sunrise.

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24
Q

An annual inspection is valid for

A

A. 12 calendar months. FAR 91.409(a): 12 calendar months.

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25
To act as PIC under BasicMed, a pilot must have held a valid medical after
B. July 15, 2016. FAR 68.3: Must have held valid medical after July 15, 2016, plus course and exam.
26
Class A airspace begins at
B. 18,000 feet MSL. FAR 71.33: 18,000 feet MSL to FL600.
27
Entry into Class B airspace requires
A. ATC clearance. FAR 91.131: Specific ATC clearance.
28
Class B airspace is individually charted with
A. solid blue lines. AIM 3-2-3: Solid blue lines.
29
The minimum visibility for VFR in Class B airspace is
B. 3 SM. FAR 91.155: 3 statute miles, clear of clouds (same as controlled airspace below 10,000).
30
Class E airspace at the surface is designated for airports with
A. instrument approaches. AIM 3-2-6: Surface Class E for instrument procedures.
31
Mode C transponder is required within
B. 30 NM of Class B primary airport. FAR 91.215(b): 30 NM Mode C veil.
32
Class D airspace requires
B. two-way radio communication. FAR 91.129: Establish two-way communication.
33
VFR cloud clearance in Class C airspace is
B. 3 statute miles of visibility. 500 below, 1,000 above, 2,000 horizontal. FAR 91.155: Standard controlled airspace minima.
34
Special VFR clearance allows operations in
B. surface Class D/E with 1 SM and clear of clouds. FAR 91.157: 1 SM visibility, clear of clouds in surface controlled airspace.
35
Class G airspace VFR minimums below 1,200 feet AGL, day are
A. 1 SM, clear of clouds. FAR 91.155: 1 SM clear of clouds daytime below 1,200 AGL in Class G.
36
ADIZ entry requires
A. filed DVFR flight plan. FAR 99.11: DVFR flight plan for ADIZ.
37
The floor of Class E airspace generally is
B. 1,200 feet AGL. FAR 71.71: Transition at 1,200 feet AGL unless designated lower.
38
Class C airspace outer shelf extends to
B. 20 NM. AIM 3-2-4: 10-20 NM shelf.
39
MOA activity status should be checked by
A. contacting FSS. AIM 3-4-4: Pilots should contact FSS for status.
40
Class A airspace requires
A. IFR only. FAR 91.135: Operations in Class A must be IFR.
41
The symbol for Class E transition (magenta vignette) is…
A. Magenta fade indicates class e. 700 AGL extension. 700 feet AGL floor.
42
VFR hemispheric rule above 3,000 AGL is
C. odd plus 500 east. FAR 91.159: Eastbound odd thousands +500; westbound even +500.
43
Prohibited areas are
A. for national security. AIM 3-4-2: No flight permitted.
44
Restricted areas contain
B. invisible hazards. AIM 3-4-3: Hazardous activities, entry with permission.
45
Warning areas are
A. over international waters. AIM 3-4-3: Offshore hazardous activities.
46
Alert areas have
A. high volume training. AIM 3-4-6: High volume pilot training, VFR advised caution.
47
Class F airspace is
A. not used in U.S. AIM: Class F not used in United States.
48
SFRA requires
C. both often. FAR 93 subpart V: Specific procedures for special flight rules areas.
49
Maximum speed below Class B shelf is
A. 200 knots.
50
METAR visibility is reported in
A. statute miles.
51
A SIGMET is issued for
A. severe icing or turbulence.
52
AIRMET Sierra is for
C. IFR/mountain obscuration.
53
Convective SIGMET implies
A. severe thunderstorms.
54
Standard temperature lapse rate is
A. 2°C per 1,000 feet.
55
A stable atmosphere is indicated by
A. smooth air, poor visibility.
56
Frontal passage cold front typically brings
A. gusty winds, good visibility.
57
PIREP turbulence moderate means
A. occupants feel strain.
58
Ceiling is defined as
A. height of lowest broken/overcast layer.
59
Standard pressure is
A. 29.92 in Hg.
60
Thunderstorms require
A. moisture, lift, instability.
61
Icing most likely in
A. cumuliform clouds.
62
Area forecast discusses
A. synopsis and VFR clouds/weather.
63
Winds aloft are forecast in
A. true direction, knots.
64
Angle of attack is the angle between
A. chord line and relative wind.
65
Load factor in a 60-degree bank turn is
B. 2 G.
66
Va (maneuvering speed) decreases with
A. decreased weight.
67
Ground effect reduces
A. induced drag.
68
Left-turning tendency from torque causes
A. left yaw in climb.
69
Stall occurs when
A. critical angle of attack exceeded.
70
Adverse yaw is caused by
A. aileron drag.
71
Vx is
A. best angle of climb.
72
Takeoff distance increases with
B. high density altitude.
73
Propeller efficiency highest at
B. design RPM.
74
True course is measured from
B. true north.
75
Magnetic variation 10° W means
A. magnetic heading 10° less than true.
76
Pilotage is navigation by
A. reference to landmarks.
77
Isogonic lines connect points of
A. equal variation.
78
Fuel consumption calculation uses
C. true airspeed.
79
E6B wind side solves for
A. wind correction angle.
80
Sectional chart scale is
A. 1:500,000.
81
VOR reverse sensing occurs when
A. flying TO with FROM flag.
82
Lost procedures include
A. climb, conserve, confess, comply.
83
Checkpoint selection for dead reckoning
A. prominent landmarks.
84
Carburetor heat causes
A. power loss initially.
85
Magneto check verifies
B. drop within limits.
86
Vacuum system drives
A. attitude indicator, heading indicator.
87
Pitot-static system supplies
A. airspeed, altimeter, VSI.
88
Electrical system failure, ammeter shows
A. discharge.
89
Normal takeoff uses
A. full rich mixture.
90
Flaps increase
A. lift and drag.
91
Detonation caused by
A. low octane, high temp.
92
Primer use is for
C. both.
93
Oil system maintains
C. both.
94
IMSAFE checklist includes
A. illness, medication, stress.
95
Hypoxia symptoms include
A. euphoria, impaired judgment.
96
Night scanning technique uses
A. off-center viewing.
97
Spatial disorientation countered by
A. trust instruments.
98
Carbon monoxide from
C. both possible.