Quiz 2 Flashcards

(156 cards)

1
Q

What is a capsule?

A

Powder or gel form of an active drug enclosed in a gelatinous container; may also be called liquigel.

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2
Q

What is an elixir?

A

Medication in a clear liquid containing water, alcohol, sweeteners, and flavor.

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3
Q

What does enteric coated mean?

A

A tablet or pill coated to prevent stomach irritation.

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4
Q

What is extended release (ER)?

A

Preparation of a medication that allows for slow and continuous release over a predetermined period; may also be referred to as CR or CRT (controlled release), SR (sustained or slow release), SA (sustained action), LA (long acting), or TR (timed release).

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5
Q

What is a liniment?

A

Medication mixed with alcohol, oil, or soap that is rubbed on the skin.

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6
Q

What is a lotion?

A

Drug particles in a solution for topical use.

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7
Q

What is a lozenge?

A

Small oval, round, or oblong preparation containing a drug in a flavored or sweetened base that dissolves in the mouth and releases the medication; also called troche.

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8
Q

What is an ointment?

A

Semisolid preparation containing a drug to be applied externally; also called an unction.

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9
Q

What is a pill?

A

Mixture of a powdered drug with a cohesive material; may be round or oval.

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10
Q

What is a powder?

A

Single or mixture of finely ground drugs.

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11
Q

What is a solution?

A

A drug dissolved in another substance (e.g., in an aqueous solution).

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12
Q

What is a suppository?

A

An easily melted medication preparation in a firm base such as gelatin that is inserted into the body (rectum, vagina, urethra).

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13
Q

What is a suspension?

A

Finely divided, undissolved particles in a liquid medium; should be shaken before use.

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14
Q

What is a syrup?

A

Medication combined in a water and sugar solution.

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15
Q

What is a tablet?

A

Small, solid dose of medication, compressed or molded; may be any color, size, or shape (e.g., caplets are elongated/oval in shape and are often coated); enteric-coated tablets are coated with a substance that is insoluble in gastric acids to reduce gastric irritation by the drug.

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16
Q

What is a transdermal patch?

A

Unit dose of medication applied directly to skin for diffusion through skin and absorption into the bloodstream.

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17
Q

What is a loading dose?

A

A big first dose to work fast.

Loading doses are used to rapidly achieve a therapeutic concentration of a drug in the bloodstream.

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18
Q

What is a maintenance dose?

A

Smaller daily doses to keep the medicine steady.

Maintenance doses are given after the loading dose to maintain the desired drug levels.

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19
Q

What does ‘onset’ refer to in pharmacology?

A

When it starts working.

Onset time varies depending on the route of administration and drug formulation.

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20
Q

What does ‘peak’ refer to in pharmacology?

A

When it’s strongest.

The peak concentration of a drug is when its effects are at their maximum.

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21
Q

What does ‘duration’ refer to in pharmacology?

A

How long it lasts.

Duration is the time period during which the drug’s effects are felt.

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22
Q

What did the Pure Food and Drug Act (1906) establish?

A

Set official U.S. drug quality standards (U.S. Pharmacopeia + National Formulary)

First law to ensure drugs were pure and safe, not fake or contaminated

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23
Q

Why is the Pure Food and Drug Act (1906) significant?

A

First law to ensure drugs were pure and safe, not fake or contaminated

All drugs must meet federal standards for safety/quality

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24
Q

What did the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (1938) ban?

A

Unsafe or falsely labeled drugs

Enforced by the FDA

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25
What is a key requirement of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (1938)?
Drugs must be tested for safety before being sold ## Footnote Any drug you give today has been safety-tested under this law
26
What did the Durham-Humphrey Amendment (1952) separate?
Prescription drugs from over-the-counter (OTC) drugs ## Footnote Clarified who needs a doctor’s order
27
What is a nursing note regarding the Durham-Humphrey Amendment (1952)?
Nurses can only give prescription drugs with a provider’s order ## Footnote Important for medication administration
28
What did the Kefauver-Harris Amendment (1962) require?
Stronger safety checks, testing, and clear info about side effects/risks ## Footnote Patients must be told about adverse effects and contraindications
29
Why is the Kefauver-Harris Amendment (1962) important for patient care?
Reinforces patient teaching and informed consent about meds ## Footnote Essential for ethical nursing practice
30
What does the Controlled Substances Act (1970) regulate?
Narcotics and addictive drugs, creating drug schedules (I–V) by abuse potential ## Footnote Tight control over opioids and other habit-forming drugs
31
What is a nursing responsibility under the Controlled Substances Act (1970)?
Follow strict rules for storing, wasting, and documenting narcotics ## Footnote Important for legal compliance and patient safety
32
What agency was established by the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) (1983)?
The DEA as the only federal agency to enforce drug laws ## Footnote Handles drug abuse prevention and drug trafficking enforcement
33
What is required for providers prescribing controlled drugs according to the DEA (1983)?
DEA number ## Footnote Necessary for legal prescribing of controlled substances
34
What did the FDA Modernization Act (1997) allow for?
Faster approval for new/life-saving drugs ## Footnote Improved patient access to urgent treatments
35
What is one requirement of the FDA Modernization Act (1997) regarding drug companies?
Required drug company warnings if stopping production ## Footnote Ensures transparency for patients and healthcare providers
36
What did the Pediatric Research Equity Act (2003) require?
Drugs to be tested for children, not just adults ## Footnote Recognizes that children’s bodies process drugs differently
37
What is a key point about pediatric dosages according to the Pediatric Research Equity Act (2003)?
Pediatric dosages are safe and researched, not 'mini-adult doses' ## Footnote Important for ensuring effective and safe treatment for children
38
What did the Medicare Prescription Drug Improvement and Modernization Act (MMA) (2003) aim to do?
Help seniors pay for prescription medications ## Footnote Expanded access to needed drugs for elderly patients
39
Why is the Medicare Prescription Drug Improvement and Modernization Act (MMA) (2003) significant?
Expanded access to needed drugs ## Footnote Many elderly patients rely on this program for medications
40
What are the essential components required in medication orders?
The drug, dose, rate, route, frequency, and, when appropriate, duration ## Footnote Each component must be explicit and specific to the needs of the patient.
41
What is the oral route of drug administration?
Having patient swallow drug ## Footnote The oral route is one of the most common methods for administering medications.
42
What does the enteral route involve?
Administering drug through an enteral tube ## Footnote This route is often used for patients who cannot swallow.
43
Define sublingual administration.
Placing drug under tongue ## Footnote This method allows for rapid absorption into the bloodstream.
44
What is buccal administration?
Placing drug between cheek and gum ## Footnote This route also facilitates quick absorption.
45
What does the parenteral route refer to?
Injecting drug into the body ## Footnote This method bypasses the gastrointestinal tract.
46
What is a subcutaneous injection?
Injection into subcutaneous tissue ## Footnote This route is often used for vaccines and insulin.
47
Define intramuscular injection.
Injection into muscle tissue ## Footnote This method allows for larger volumes of medication.
48
What is an intradermal injection?
Injection into the corium (under epidermis) ## Footnote This route is commonly used for allergy tests.
49
What does intravenous injection involve?
Injection into a vein ## Footnote This method provides immediate effects.
50
What is intra-arterial injection?
Injection into an artery ## Footnote This route is often used in imaging studies.
51
Define intracardial injection.
Injection into heart tissue ## Footnote This is a rare route used in emergency situations.
52
What is intraperitoneal injection?
Injection into the peritoneal cavity ## Footnote This route is sometimes used for chemotherapy.
53
What does intraspinal injection refer to?
Injection into spinal canal ## Footnote This method is used for administering anesthetics.
54
What is intraosseous injection?
Injection into bone ## Footnote This route is typically used in emergency situations when intravenous access is not possible.
55
What is the topical route of drug administration?
Applying drug onto skin or mucous membrane ## Footnote This method is often used for localized treatment.
56
Define vaginal administration.
Administration of drug into the vagina ## Footnote This route is often used for antifungal medications.
57
What is rectal administration?
Administration of drug into the rectum ## Footnote This route can be useful for patients who are vomiting.
58
What does inunction mean?
Rubbing drug into skin ## Footnote This method is often used for topical medications.
59
Define instillation.
Placing drug into direct contact with mucous membrane ## Footnote Commonly used for eye drops.
60
What is irrigation in drug administration?
Flushing mucous membrane with drug in solution ## Footnote This method is often used in wound care.
61
What does skin application refer to?
Applying transdermal patch ## Footnote This method allows for systemic drug delivery through the skin.
62
What is the pulmonary route of drug administration?
Having patient inhale drug ## Footnote This route is commonly used for asthma medications.
63
What are examples of high-risk drugs?
Anticoagulants, insulin, opioids, antibiotics, chemo ## Footnote High-risk drugs require careful handling due to their potential for harm.
64
What is the first check to perform with medications?
When you reach for the med ## Footnote This check ensures the correct medication is selected before retrieval.
65
What is the second check to perform with medications?
After retrieval, comparing to MAR/eMAR ## Footnote This check confirms that the right medication has been retrieved and matches the administration record.
66
What is the third check to perform with medications?
Before giving to patient ## Footnote This final check ensures that the medication is still correct before administration.
67
What is the storage requirement for controlled substances?
Stored in locked systems (double-lock for narcotics) ## Footnote This ensures security and prevents unauthorized access.
68
What must be done with controlled substances at the end of each shift?
Must be counted each shift and logged ## Footnote This is crucial for inventory control and accountability.
69
What is the procedure when wasting (discarding) controlled substances?
2 nurses witness & document ## Footnote This is to ensure proper documentation and accountability.
70
True or False: It is permissible to share your ID/password for automated cabinets containing controlled substances.
False ## Footnote Sharing ID/passwords compromises security and accountability.
71
What is the most common route of administration for medications?
Oral (PO) ## Footnote Do not crush enteric-coated or extended-release tabs.
72
What is the advantage of sublingual/buccal administration?
Rapid absorption ## Footnote Do not swallow.
73
What type of medications are preferred for enteral tube administration?
Liquid medications ## Footnote Crush only if allowed and mix with water.
74
What should be done before, between, and after administering medications via an enteral tube?
Flush the tube ## Footnote Ensures proper medication delivery and prevents clogging.
75
What is the procedure for topical/transdermal medication administration?
Apply to skin/mucosa and remove old patch before new one ## Footnote Includes patches, ointments, eye/ear drops, and nasal sprays.
76
What should be used when administering rectal or vaginal medications?
Use gloves and respect privacy ## Footnote Ensures safety and comfort for the patient.
77
Which devices are used for inhalation medication?
Inhalers and nebulizers ## Footnote Use spacers for metered-dose inhalers (MDIs).
78
What is the angle of administration for intradermal injections?
5–15° ## Footnote Used for TB/allergy tests with tiny volume.
79
What is the maximum volume for subcutaneous injections?
≤1 mL ## Footnote Administer at 45–90°; commonly used for insulin and heparin.
80
What is the preferred angle for intramuscular (IM) injections?
90° ## Footnote Up to 3 mL (1 mL max in deltoid); preferred sites include ventrogluteal, vastus lateralis, deltoid.
81
What type of injections should avoid the dorsogluteal site?
Intramuscular (IM) injections ## Footnote Use Z-track method for irritating medications.
82
What is the fastest route of medication administration?
Intravenous (IV) ## Footnote High risk; can be administered as push, piggyback, or continuous infusion.
83
How many micrograms are in 1 milligram?
1,000 micrograms
84
How many milliliters are in 1 teaspoon?
5 mL
85
How many milliliters are in 1 tablespoon?
15 mL
86
How many teaspoons are in 1 tablespoon?
3 tsp
87
How many ounces are in 2 tablespoons?
1 oz
88
How many milliliters are in 1 ounce?
30 mL
89
What is the function of Insulin Aspart, Insulin Glargine, and Regular Insulin?
Help sugar move from your blood into your body’s cells for energy.
90
What happens if you take too much insulin?
Your blood sugar gets too low (you feel shaky, sweaty, or confused).
91
What is one of the responsibilities of nurses when administering insulin?
Check your blood sugar and give insulin at the right times.
92
What does Metformin do?
Helps your body use sugar better and lowers blood sugar.
93
What are common side effects of Metformin?
Upset stomach; rare but dangerous if it makes acid build up in your blood.
94
What do nurses need to check when a patient is taking Metformin?
Check your kidneys, tell you to take it with food.
95
What is the function of Glipizide?
Helps your body make more insulin.
96
What side effect can Glipizide cause?
Can make blood sugar too low.
97
What do nurses do when a patient is on Glipizide?
Check blood sugar and remind you to eat on time.
98
What is the main pathway for most drugs leaving the body?
Kidneys (urine) ## Footnote The kidneys filter the blood to produce urine, which contains waste products and excess substances, including drugs.
99
Which pathway is used for gases, such as anesthesia, to leave the body?
Lungs (breath) ## Footnote Gases are expelled from the body through respiration.
100
How do some drugs leave the body through bile?
Bile/feces (poop) ## Footnote Drugs can be secreted into bile, then enter the intestines and exit through feces.
101
What is the role of skin in drug elimination?
Very small role ## Footnote The skin primarily eliminates drugs through sweat, but this is minimal compared to other pathways.
102
What is an anaphylactic reaction?
Emergency, treat immediately ## Footnote Anaphylaxis is a severe, potentially life-threatening allergic reaction requiring prompt treatment.
103
What does cumulative refer to in medication management?
Watch closely in older adults; monitor labs ## Footnote Cumulative effects can lead to toxicity, especially in older patients.
104
Define idiosyncratic reactions in drug administration.
Unique and unpredictable; document carefully ## Footnote These reactions do not occur in most patients and require careful monitoring and documentation.
105
What is the meaning of synergistic effects in medication?
Can be helpful or harmful; monitor for exaggerated effects ## Footnote Synergistic effects occur when two drugs enhance each other's effects.
106
What does antagonistic mean in the context of drug interactions?
May reduce effectiveness; check for drug interactions ## Footnote Antagonistic interactions occur when one drug reduces the effect of another.
107
What is the first step in the nursing process for medication administration?
Assessment: Medication history, allergies, current health status, labs ## Footnote This step involves gathering information to ensure safe medication administration.
108
What is involved in the diagnosis step of medication administration?
Identify actual or potential problems (e.g., nonadherence, knowledge deficit) ## Footnote This step assesses the patient's needs related to medication.
109
What are the goals during the planning/outcomes phase of medication administration?
Relief of symptoms, therapeutic levels maintained, patient understands meds ## Footnote This phase focuses on setting realistic goals for medication therapy.
110
What should a nurse do during the implementation phase of medication administration?
Stay with patient until med is taken; document immediately after giving ## Footnote This ensures patient safety and proper record-keeping.
111
What is evaluated after medication administration?
Monitor effectiveness and side effects ## Footnote This step assesses the outcome of the medication given.
112
What does erythema indicate in skin findings?
Redness → fever, inflammation, trauma ## Footnote Erythema is often a sign of underlying conditions requiring further assessment.
113
What does cyanosis indicate?
Blue → low oxygen ## Footnote Cyanosis is a sign that indicates insufficient oxygen in the blood.
114
What does jaundice indicate in skin findings?
Yellow → liver disease ## Footnote Jaundice is often associated with liver dysfunction or bile duct obstruction.
115
What does pallor indicate?
Pale → anemia, shock ## Footnote Pallor can be a sign of various conditions, including blood loss or low blood pressure.
116
What are the common vascular changes observed in skin findings?
Bruising, bleeding spots (ecchymosis, petechiae) ## Footnote These can indicate trauma or clotting disorders.
117
What is a pressure injury?
Localized skin/soft-tissue damage, usually over a bony prominence or under a device ## Footnote Pressure injuries result from prolonged pressure on the skin.
118
What are the three mechanisms that cause pressure injuries?
* Pressure * Friction * Shear ## Footnote These mechanisms contribute to tissue damage leading to pressure injuries.
119
What are common sites for pressure injuries?
* Sacrum/coccyx * Heels (calcaneus) * Trochanters (hips) ## Footnote Pressure injuries frequently occur over bony prominences.
120
Who is at risk for developing pressure injuries?
* Immobility * Moisture * Nutrition/Hydration * Sensation/Mental status * Age/Comorbidities ## Footnote Various factors increase the risk of pressure injuries.
121
What is reactive hyperemia?
Red, warm area that blanches and resolves within 60–90 min after off-loading ## Footnote This is an early sign of pressure injury risk.
122
What characterizes non-blanchable redness?
Stage 1 red flag ## Footnote Non-blanchable redness indicates potential tissue damage.
123
What is Stage 1 of pressure injury staging?
Intact skin, non-blanchable erythema; may feel different (painful, firm/soft) ## Footnote Stage 1 indicates early signs of pressure injury.
124
What does Stage 2 of pressure injury staging indicate?
Partial-thickness skin loss; pink/red viable wound bed or serum blister ## Footnote Stage 2 shows more significant tissue damage.
125
What is indicated by Stage 3 in pressure injury staging?
Full-thickness skin loss; fat visible, may undermine/tunnel ## Footnote Stage 3 indicates deeper tissue damage and potential complications.
126
What characterizes Stage 4 of pressure injury staging?
Full-thickness with exposed fascia, muscle, tendon, ligament, cartilage, or bone ## Footnote Stage 4 indicates severe tissue destruction.
127
What is unstageable in pressure injury staging?
Full-thickness obscured by slough/eschar; cannot see depth ## Footnote Unstageable injuries require careful management and assessment.
128
What are the types of drainage from wounds?
* Serous: clear, watery * Sanguineous: red, bloody * Serosanguineous: pink, thin * Purulent: thick, odorous, yellow/green ## Footnote Different drainage types indicate varying conditions of the wound.
129
What are isotonic exercises?
Muscle shortens, active movement (walking, swimming) ## Footnote Isotonic exercises involve muscle contraction and movement.
130
What are isometric exercises?
Contract, no movement (yoga pose) ## Footnote Isometric exercises focus on muscle tension without significant movement.
131
What are isokinetic exercises?
Contraction + resistance (rehab devices, weight lifting) ## Footnote Isokinetic exercises involve controlled movement against resistance.
132
What are the benefits of exercise?
* Heart efficiency * Lung function * Stronger muscles/bones * Better digestion * Improved sleep * Mood * Appearance ## Footnote Regular exercise contributes to overall health and well-being.
133
What are the risks of immobility to the heart?
↑ workload, orthostatic hypotension, clots ## Footnote Immobility can lead to serious cardiovascular issues.
134
What are the risks of immobility to the lungs?
↓ depth, secretions pool → pneumonia ## Footnote Reduced lung function due to immobility can lead to respiratory complications.
135
What are the gastrointestinal risks of immobility?
↓ appetite, constipation ## Footnote Immobility can negatively affect digestion and nutrient absorption.
136
What are the urinary risks associated with immobility?
Stasis, kidney stones ## Footnote Immobility can lead to urinary complications due to reduced bladder function.
137
What are the risks of immobility to muscles and bones?
Atrophy, contractures, osteoporosis ## Footnote Prolonged immobility weakens the musculoskeletal system.
138
What is a psychological risk of immobility?
Depression, helplessness ## Footnote Immobility can significantly impact mental health.
139
What is the volume range for the Deltoid site?
0.5-1 mL ## Footnote The Deltoid site is typically used for small volume injections.
140
What is the gauge range for the Deltoid needle?
22-25 ## Footnote The gauge refers to the thickness of the needle.
141
What is the needle length for the Vastus lateralis in infants under 12 months?
1 inch ## Footnote This site is suitable for infants and children for intramuscular injections.
142
What is the needle length range for adults using the Vastus lateralis site?
1-1½ inches depending on muscle size ## Footnote Muscle size can vary significantly among individuals.
143
What volume is recommended for the Ventrogluteal site?
2.5-3 mL ## Footnote This site allows for larger volume injections.
144
What is the gauge range for the needle used in the Ventrogluteal site?
20-25 ## Footnote A finer gauge may be used for larger muscle masses.
145
Is the Rectus Femoris site recommended for injections?
NOT recommended ## Footnote This site is generally avoided due to potential complications.
146
What is the needle length range for infants and children using the Rectus Femoris site?
5/8-1 inch ## Footnote This length is appropriate for intramuscular injections in smaller patients.
147
What is the recommended volume for infants and children aged 1-12 years using the Rectus Femoris site?
1 mL ## Footnote Smaller volumes are typically administered to younger patients.
148
What is the volume range for adults using the Rectus Femoris site?
1½-3 mL depending on muscle size ## Footnote Dosage adjustments may be made based on individual muscle mass.
149
Fill in the blank: The needle length for infants under 12 months in the Vastus lateralis site is _______.
1 inch
150
True or False: The Deltoid site is suitable for volumes larger than 1 mL.
False ## Footnote The Deltoid site is limited to small volume injections.
151
What is the abbreviation for Subcutaneous?
Subcut
152
What are the common needle lengths for Subcutaneous injections?
* 5/16" * 1/2" * 5/8"
153
What is the abbreviation for Intradermal injections?
ID
154
What are the common needle lengths for Intradermal injections?
* 3/8" * 1/2"
155
What is the abbreviation for Intramuscular injections?
IM
156
What are the common needle lengths for Intramuscular injections?
* 1" → IM * 1 ½" → IM * 2" → Deep IM