Recurrent 2024

Question 1

Is it permitted to refuel and board with a reduced crew complement?

Answer 1

No

Question 2

Which search is the minimum requirement for an airplane?

Security check
Security search
Or Enhanced security search?

Answer 2

Security Search

Question 3

If a door open indication is illuminated in the flight deck, a check of the handle can be made. If the door needs to be opened to check, what must you do?

Answer 3

Return to stand
Connect steps or airbridge

Question 4

What will happen if the energency code is entered into the FD keypad?

Answer 4

Amber 30s
Green 5s
Unlock 5s

Question 5

What is the cockpit keypad emergency code?

Answer 5

1242 ENT

Question 6

Missing crew member:

Can the flight depart?
What are the max pax?
What happens to an injured crew member?
What happens to a sick crew member?
Where can you find this info?

Answer 6

At base - No

Away from base - Yes
BUT
737 300 max pax = 100
737 800 max pax = 150

Injured - return as pax
Sick - offloaded (contact MedAire)

CSM

Question 7

What does a CLEAR brief stand for?

Answer 7

Crew name
Location
Event
Actions taken
Recommendations

Question 8

What call will be made by the Captain for a NITS brief?
What does it stand for?

Answer 8

Senior to Flight Deck

Nature
Intention
Time
Special instructions
…….
Readback

Question 9

What call will be made by the Captain for a NITS brief?
What does it stand for?

Answer 9

Senior to Flight Deck x 2

Nature
Intention
Time
Special instructions
…….
Readback

Question 10

What call out to use if you want the senior to report to the FD?

Answer 10

Senior to flight deck x 2
5 double chimes

Question 11

When is the call out “Cabin crew take your seats” used?

Answer 11

Replanned landing to let the cabin crew know that landing is imminent.

Question 12

What call out is made to evacuate?

Answer 12

Attention attention, this is the captain.
Evacuate, evacuate.
Water, water (ditching)
x2

Question 13

After “Cabin crew descent, cabin crew descent” is made and you have descended and levelled off. What call should be made next?

Answer 13

Senior to flight deck x 2

Question 14

What does a fire crew hands signal of an X above their head mean?

Answer 14

Stop

Question 15

What does a fire crew hands signal of sweeping their hands out from them low mean?

Answer 15

Emergency contained.

Question 16

If a disruptive passenger has been issued a warning letter and a data capture form has been completed, what must the flight crew do on landing?

Answer 16

Complete a report

Question 17

What are the ICAO 4 levels of disruptive behavior?

Answer 17

Level 1 - Disruptive behaviour
Level 2 - Physical abuse
Level 3 - Life threatening
Level 4 - Attempt or actual breach of FD

Question 18

How long will the ELT transmit for?

Answer 18

24h on 3 frequencies…
then another 24h continued only on 2 frequencies.

It doesn’t float

10m water depth

Question 19

How do you activate the ELT?

Answer 19

Raise aerial
Slide rage and press button
(GPS light will flash then go green)

Question 20

What are the 4 sources of AC power?

Answer 20

2x Integrated Drive Generators (IDG’s)
APU generator
Static Invertor
External Power Cart

Question 21

What are the 3 sources of DC power?

Answer 21

3x Transformer Rectifier Units (TRU’s)
2x batteries ()
2x battery chargers ()

(*) 1x for 737-300

Question 22

How is electrical power generated?

Answer 22

By IDG’s connected to each engine accessory gearbox

Question 23

What does an IDG comprise of?

What power supply does it provide?

Answer 23

A Constant Speed Drive (CSD) unit and a brushless AC generator.

3 phase, 115V power at 400hz

The CSD is used to maintain a constant generator speed

Question 24

What does the static inverter do?

What is it used for?

Answer 24

Converts 24V DC (battery power) to single phase 115V AC at 400hz

To power the AC standby bus, during loss of normal electrical power.

Question 25

What are Transformer Rectifiers (TRs)?

Answer 25

Primary source of DC power. Converts 3 phase, 115V AC to 28V DC - to power the normal DC loads of the aircraft.

Question 26

Which batteries does the 737 have? How long can each battery provide standby power for?

Answer 26

(800) 2x nickel-cadmium. (300) 1x 30m

Question 27

What are the aircraft batteries rated at?

Answer 27

24V

Question 28

What are the aircraft batteries connected to?

Answer 28

Hot battery bus

Question 29

In the 300 on the ground, if AC power is lost, there is no auto transfer to battery power, like the 800. What do you need to do?

Answer 29

The standby power switch needs to be positioned to BAT.

Question 30

Aside from the metering panel indications what indications or warnings would you expect if TR1 failed In-flight (300 only)?

Answer 30

There would be no indications or warnings at the point of failure however multiple system failures will be observed at Glideslope captured, during a flight director or auto pilot ILS approach, due to TR3 disconnect relay opening.

Question 31

Can you use aileron trim with the autopilot engaged?

Answer 31

No

Question 32

What is the minimum use height for single channel autopilot operation?

Answer 32

158ft AGL

Question 33

What are the Dual Channel max wind speeds?

Answer 33

Headwind 25kts Crosswind 20kts (15kts - 300) Tail 10kts

Question 34

What are the Glideslope angle limitations for dual channel ops?

Answer 34

Max 3.25 Min 2.5

Question 35

Do not use LVL CHG on final below…?

Answer 35

1000ft AFE

Question 36

How long after touchdown will the auto throttle disengage if it is engaged?

Answer 36

2 seconds

Question 37

Auto throttle take off: what would a second press of TOGA below 800ft field elevation do?

Answer 37

Change the mode to GA and Reference bugs to full GA thrust However thrust levers will not advance until above 800ft.

Question 38

If a missed approach is needed, when will TOGA be available?

Answer 38

When the aircraft is in approach logic.

Question 39

During takeoff, when does the N1 mode change to Throttle Hold? What happens? When does it arm again?

Answer 39

At 84kts The Autothrottle Servo Motors (ASMs) are isolated from the thrust levers - to prevent any uncommanded movement. At 800ft above aerodrome elevation, then becomes active again when N1 is selected.

Question 40

Should you reject a TO below 80kt with an A/T disconnect?

Answer 40

Yes

Question 41

What is Enhanced TOGA?

Answer 41

Availability above 2000ft with flaps not up or GS capture. With or without the AFDS engaged.

Question 42

What is an autopilot go around available?

Answer 42

After Flare armed is annunciated and before touchdown.

Question 43

What is the DGR?

Answer 43

Dangerous Goods Regulations

Question 44

ICAO provide worldwide legislation for dangerous goods. What are their guidelines called?

Answer 44

Technical Instructions

Question 45

What are IATAs Dangerous Goods Regulations?

Answer 45

Contain further information, taking into account industry practices, compared to the Technical Instructions.

Question 46

What does IATA stand for?

Answer 46

International Air Travel Association

Question 47

What does GHS stand for? What is it?

Answer 47

Globally Harmonised System of classification. Hazard labels.

Question 48

How many EMDs are allowed per flight?

Answer 48

3 Any more would need to be approved by the Dangerous Goods team.

Question 49

Are spillable wet cell batteries allowed to be carried.

Answer 49

No - majority are not allowed but case by case basis.

Question 50

If there is a loss of power on the ground, how long will the FMC retain all information?

Answer 50

Less than 10s

Question 51

What are the 2 fixed aerates on the N1 limit pg and how much reduction do they give?

Answer 51

CLB-1 is a 3% reduction in N1 and 10% reduction in thrust. CLB-2 is a 6% reduction in N1 and a 20% reduction in thrust. The reduced climb thrust gradually increases to full climb thrust by 15000ft

Question 52

What is the max reduction for sedate and assumed temperature?

Answer 52

25% below certified rating.

Question 53

What do derates do, in terms of cost?

Answer 53

Reduce engine maintenance costs but increase total trip fuel.

Question 54

How many gps do we have and how many satellites does a gps need to work?

Answer 54

2 gps 5 sats needed

Question 55

When would you hear the warning “Terrain, Terrain” ?

Answer 55

Excessive terrain closure rate. Away from terrain you could hear “ Sink Rate”.

Question 56

When would you hear the warning “Don’t sink” ?

Answer 56

Altitude loss after T/O or GA

Question 57

How does WX/T pickup turbulence? What colour? What range?

Answer 57

Detects horizontal precipitation movement. Magenta 40nm

Question 58

Weather avoidance: If storm clouds have to be overflown, what alt should you maintain above tops? Lat avoidance below 25000ft in miles? Lat avoidance between 25-30000ft? Lat avoidance above 30000ft?

Answer 58

5000ft 10 miles 15 miles 20 miles Avoid cb overhang

Question 59

What are the airspeed unreliable N1 and pitch settings?

Answer 59

Flaps extended - 10deg 80% Flaps up - 4deg 75%

Question 60

What is Flight Technical Error?

Answer 60

Difference between ANP and RNP

Question 61

What does NPS stand for?

Answer 61

Navigation Performance Scale

Question 62

If the role failure flag is shown on the PFD, what does this mean?

Answer 62

There is a difference of more than 5° between the row indications of the captain and first Officer

Question 63

What does IAS disagree on the PFD mean?

Answer 63

Indicates the captains and the first officers air speed indications disagree by more than 5k for more than five continuous seconds.

Question 64

If you switch one AC pack off, what will the other one do?

Answer 64

Go to high flow (this is inhibited In-flight with the flaps up to avoid excess demands during takeoff or go round)

Question 65

What must be above and left of thrust limit line?

Answer 65

TOM should be above and left of thrust limit line.

Question 66

What’s the saying with the process to complete an RCAM?

Answer 66

To on the words. Land on the numbers

Question 67

What condition codes is crosswind/deice performance required?

Answer 67

5 and 6

Question 68

Travelling to an airport with a contaminated RW requires what in the crew room?

Answer 68

Pre flight and in flight calculation. In flight may be more restrictive.

Question 69

What is the Tenerife SOP

Answer 69

Be fully configured by 2000ft

Question 70

What is the new Jet2 standard engine failure procedure leg for the hold?

Answer 70

3.5nm legs (Straight ahead to 20nm)

Question 71

When should temp corrections be applied?

Answer 71

When the surface temp is less than -10deg.

Question 72

Do you need to apply a temp correction to a BARO-VNAV app between F and DA (inclusive)?

Answer 72

No

Question 73

What is critical Mach number?

Answer 73

The free stream Mach number at which sonic flow is first achieved on an airfoil surface.

Question 74

What is Mach No?

Answer 74

The ratio of the speed of a body to the speed of sound.

Question 75

When does the Thermosphere begin?

Answer 75

280,000ft

Question 76

What are the 2 types of thunderstorm?

Answer 76

Air mass and frontal.

Question 77

EFP holds should be flown with…

Answer 77

3.5nm legs (not 1 min legs)

Question 78

When should you set standard after take off?

Answer 78

Only set standard when you don’t need reference to an altitude anymore.

Question 79

What does EFP stand for? What is it? Holds must have what legs?

Answer 79

EFP = Engine Failure Procedure Will be 1500ft above runway elevation before turning to a holding pattern Or Straight ahead to 20nm and join a hold there. (Holds must have 3.5nm legs)

Question 80

Going to Jersey, if TO PERF is good at 1 Alt, can you go?

Answer 80

Yes Bournemouth is a good one

Question 81

If a short runway like Jersey has heavy rain/standing water, what should you do?

Answer 81

Go Around Ask runway state on approach and what time was this taken?

Question 82

In LGIR (HER) on RNP R27, what should you be careful of?

Answer 82

Making sure you are 185kt by turning at IR402 - gear down if not.

Question 83

For LGKF (EFL) what is a gotcha and what should you do for R32?

Answer 83

ASTUS 1P - make sure you fly over AKETO; as it is a fly over waypoint. Use a lower speed, in FMC, near it or go heading select and fly over it. On VOR Y but 220k at the D13 point before you turn onto the arc, to take into account a likely tailwind. Prob should go F10 turning onto final.

Question 84

When do you not need to do Dispatch performance?

Answer 84

6-DRY ≥ 1800 5-WET ≥ 2100 Aerodrome Elevation ≤1000代 WIND CALM or HEADWIND OAT ≤ 37°C QNH ≥ 950 hPa FLAPS 40° MIN APR GRAD 2.5% BLEEDS - ON or OFF ANTI-ICE - As required LND METHOD Manual landing Residual Ice - NO More settings - Default MEL/CDL - NO

Question 85

On the EMB, If load factor is amber, what does this mean and what should you do?

Answer 85

It means the individual bays are less than 80% Check with the SCCM, to check load spread.

Question 86

What does NATO stand for?

Answer 86

North Atlantic Treaty Organisation

Question 87

What does JPEG stand for?

Answer 87

Joint Photographic Experts Group

Question 88

What does RADAR stand for?

Answer 88

Radio Detection And Ranging

Question 89

What does SCUBA stand for?

Answer 89

Self-Contained Underwater Breathing Apparatus

Question 90

What does UNICEF stand for?

Answer 90

United Nations International Children’s Emergency Fund

Question 91

What are the 5 Great Lakes of North America?

Answer 91

Superior, Michigan, Huron, Erie, Ontario

Question 92

What is the equation for Ohm’s Law?

Answer 92

V=IR

Question 93

What is Pi?

Answer 93

It is the ratio of the circumference of a circle to its diameter. 3.14