RNA Processing Flashcards

(71 cards)

1
Q

In eukaryotes, when does RNA processing occur relative to transcription?

A

It can happen both during transcription (co-transcriptional) and after termination (post-transcriptional).

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2
Q

Why do transcription and translation not occur simultaneously in eukaryotes?

A

There is spatial separation between the nucleus (transcription) and cytoplasm (translation), allowing for additional RNA processing to occur.

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3
Q

What are the three major ways eukaryotic pre-mRNA is processed before nuclear export?

A

Transcripts are capped at the 5’ end, introns are removed by splicing, and 3’ ends are cleaved and polyadenylated.

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4
Q

What part of RNA Polymerase II is required for recruiting factors for capping, splicing, and 3’-RNA processing?

A

The C-terminal domain (CTD) tail.

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5
Q

The _____ of the CTD in each heptapeptide repeat is required for transcript elongation and recruitment of processing factors.

A

phosphorylation

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6
Q

What general term describes the collection of all transcripts made by RNA Polymerase II in the nucleus?

A

Heterogeneous Nuclear RNA (hnRNA).

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7
Q

What is the name of the complex formed when hnRNA is covered with proteins during transcription?

A

Heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein (hnRNP).

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8
Q

What unique structural feature characterizes the 5’ 7-methylguanosine cap on eukaryotic RNAPII transcripts?

A

A 5’ to 5’ triphosphate linkage of 7-methylguanosine to the initial nucleotide of the RNA.

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9
Q

List two critical functions of the 5’ cap on eukaryotic mRNA.

A

It protects the mRNA from 5’-exoribonuclease degradation and stimulates translation.

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10
Q

At what point during transcription is the 5’ cap added to the nascent RNA chain?

A

It is added soon after RNAPII starts transcription, when the chain is about 20-30 nucleotides long.

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11
Q

Which enzyme removes the terminal γ-phosphate from the 5’ end of the growing RNA chain during the first step of capping?

A

RNA triphosphatase.

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12
Q

Which enzyme attaches GMP from GTP to the diphosphate at the 5’ end of the RNA, forming the 5’→5’ linkage?

A

RNA guanylyltransferase.

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13
Q

Which enzyme adds a methyl group to position 7 of the capping guanine nucleotide?

A

RNA (guanine-7) methyltransferase.

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14
Q

mRNA 3’ ends are produced by cleavage of the pre-mRNA between a conserved AAUAAA element and a _____ element.

A

G/U-rich sequence

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15
Q

What protein complex recognizes and binds to the AAUAAA polyadenylation signal on pre-mRNA?

A

Cleavage and polyadenylation specificity factor (CPSF).

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16
Q

What protein complex binds to the G/U-rich sequence downstream of the poly(A) site to aid in cleavage?

A

Cleavage stimulation factor (CstF).

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17
Q

What is the canonical polyadenylation signal (PAS) sequence found in most eukaryotic pre-mRNAs?

A

5’-AAUAAA-3’

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18
Q

How does the poly(A) tail protect mRNA from degradation?

A

It serves as a binding site for cytoplasmic poly(A)-binding protein I (PAB I), which resists 3’-exonuclease action.

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19
Q

Which enzyme is responsible for adding the adenine nucleotides to form the poly(A) tail?

A

Poly(A) polymerase (PAP).

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20
Q

The initial, slow phase of polyadenylation adds about 12 nucleotides. What protein is required for the subsequent rapid phase of polyadenylation?

A

Nuclear poly(A) binding protein II (PABII).

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21
Q

What is the ‘allosteric model’ of transcription termination?

A

It proposes that transcription through the PAS causes a conformational change in RNAPII, reducing its processivity and promoting termination.

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22
Q

What is the ‘torpedo model’ of transcription termination?

A

It proposes that after RNA cleavage, a 5’-3’ exoribonuclease degrades the remaining nascent RNA and collides with RNAPII, dislodging it.

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23
Q

What are the non-coding sequences within a gene that are removed from pre-mRNA during processing?

A

Introns.

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24
Q

What are the coding sequences within a gene that are joined together after splicing to form mature mRNA?

A

Exons.

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25
One hypothesis for the origin of introns is that they represent sites of recombination between ancient mini-genes, which are today's _____.
exons
26
What is the term for splicing where the same introns are always removed to produce a single type of mRNA from a pre-mRNA?
Constitutive splicing.
27
What process allows different protein isoforms to be generated from a single gene by splicing the same pre-mRNA in different ways?
Alternative splicing.
28
What is the term for a rare splicing process where exons from two different pre-mRNA molecules are joined together?
Trans-splicing.
29
Self-splicing introns are also known as _____ because the RNA itself catalyzes the splicing reaction without proteins.
ribozymes
30
Group II self-splicing introns are removed as a _____ structure through two transesterification reactions.
lariat
31
In spliceosomal splicing, what are the five small nuclear RNAs (snRNAs) that assist in the process?
U1, U2, U4, U5, and U6.
32
A snRNA complexed with its associated proteins is called a _____.
small nuclear ribonucleoprotein (snRNP)
33
The first step in spliceosome assembly involves the _____ snRNP binding to the 5' splice site of the intron.
U1
34
The second step in spliceosome assembly involves the _____ snRNP binding to the branch point A, forming the A complex.
U2
35
In the spliceosome, which snRNA acts as an inhibitor of U6 until it is released during activation?
U4 snRNA.
36
After U1 and U4 are released, the activated spliceosome contains which three snRNPs?
U2, U5, and U6.
37
The catalytic core of the spliceosome, responsible for the transesterification reactions, is formed by the _____ complex.
U2-U6
38
Splicing activators, a type of SR protein, have an RNA-binding motif and a domain rich in what two amino acids that attracts the splicing machinery?
Arginine and Serine (an RS domain).
39
How do splicing repressors block the use of specific splice sites?
They bind to RNA at or near the splice sites but lack an RS domain, so they cannot recruit the splicing machinery.
40
In Drosophila, the Dscam gene can generate over 38,000 different protein isoforms through extensive _____.
alternative splicing
41
What is the term for the mechanism that generates different mRNA transcripts from the same gene by using different polyadenylation signals?
Alternative polyadenylation (APA).
42
How does the U1A protein autoregulate its own expression?
When in excess, it binds to its own pre-mRNA, inhibiting polyadenylation (but not cleavage), leading to the pre-mRNA's degradation.
43
During mRNA export, the 5' cap is recognized by the transport machinery. As the mRNP passes through the nuclear pore, what happens to its associated proteins?
Nuclear mRNP proteins are replaced with cytoplasmic mRNP proteins.
44
What is the function of the 'zipcode' element found in the 3' UTR of beta-actin mRNA?
It is a cis-element responsible for localizing the mRNA to the leading edge of fibroblasts.
45
What type of RNA editing involves the enzymatic conversion of adenosine to inosine (A-to-I) in dsRNA?
Deamination, catalyzed by the ADAR enzyme.
46
In translation, the edited base inosine (I) is read as which standard nucleotide base?
Guanosine (G).
47
The synthesis of two different apolipoprotein-B proteins (Apo-B100 and Apo-B48) from the same gene is an example of what process?
RNA editing (specifically, C-to-U deamination, which creates a premature stop codon in intestine cells).
48
In the mitochondria of protozoa, what type of RNA directs the addition or deletion of U residues in an extreme form of RNA editing?
guide RNAs (gRNAs).
49
What is the general term for the process where small RNA molecules induce sequence-specific gene silencing?
RNA interference (RNAi).
50
Which enzyme processes long dsRNAs or pre-miRNA hairpins into short, 21-25 bp sequences known as siRNAs or miRNAs?
DICER.
51
After processing by DICER, single-stranded siRNAs or miRNAs are incorporated into what nuclease complex to target complementary mRNA?
RNA-Induced Silencing Complex (RISC).
52
In C. elegans development, _____ complementary to the 3' UTR of LIN14 mRNA prevent its translation late in development.
lin-4 coded miRNAs
53
What is the name of the cis-regulatory sequence in the UTRs of certain mRNAs that controls their translation or stability in response to iron levels?
Iron Response Element (IRE).
54
The Iron-Responsive Element Binding Protein (IRE-BP) is active and binds to IREs under what cellular condition?
When iron levels in the cell are low.
55
When iron is low, IRE-BP binds to the 5' UTR of ferritin mRNA. What is the effect on ferritin synthesis?
Translation is stopped, preventing the synthesis of the iron storage protein.
56
When iron is low, IRE-BP binds to the 3' UTR of the transferrin receptor mRNA. What is the effect on the mRNA?
The mRNA is stabilized and protected from degradation, allowing the synthesis of the iron transport protein.
57
When iron levels are high, what happens to the IRE-BP that allows ferritin to be synthesized and transferrin receptor mRNA to be degraded?
IRE-BP binds iron, undergoes a conformational change, becomes inactive, and can no longer bind to the IREs.
58
Short-lived eukaryotic mRNAs often have multiple copies of what pentanucleotide sequence in their 3' UTR, which acts as an instability element?
The AUUUA sequence (part of an AU-Rich Element or ARE).
59
The overall level of a specific mRNA in a cell is determined by the balance between its _____ and _____.
synthesis (transcription) and degradation
60
What type of eukaryotic transcription unit undergoes constitutive splicing to produce only one type of mRNA?
A simple transcription unit.
61
What type of eukaryotic transcription unit can undergo alternative splicing to produce multiple mRNA isoforms?
A complex transcription unit.
62
Sequences within pre-mRNA that enhance splicing when bound by activator proteins are called exonic or intronic splicing _____.
enhancers (ESE or ISE)
63
What are SR proteins?
A class of splicing factors (often activators) that have an RNA-binding domain and a C-terminal domain rich in Arginine-Serine (RS) dipeptides.
64
In the minor spliceosome, what two snRNAs are the functional equivalents of U1 and U2 snRNAs?
U11 and U12.
65
Which snRNA is the only one shared between the major (GU-AG) and minor (AU-AC) spliceosomes?
U5 snRNA.
66
What is the first transesterification reaction in splicing?
The 2'OH of the branch point adenosine attacks the phosphate at the 5' splice site, forming the lariat intermediate.
67
What is the second transesterification reaction in splicing?
The freed 3'OH of the upstream exon attacks the phosphate at the 3' splice site, joining the two exons and releasing the intron lariat.
68
In the leading edge of fibroblasts, what protein binds to the 'zipcode' of beta-actin mRNA to facilitate its transport?
ZBP1 (Zipcode Binding Protein 1).
69
What is the function of TUTase (terminal uridyl transferase) in the RNA editing of protozoan mitochondria?
It adds Uridine (U) residues to the mRNA as directed by guide RNAs.
70
How does the RISC complex differentiate its action (cleavage vs. translational repression) when targeting an mRNA?
The degree of complementarity determines the outcome; high complementarity typically leads to cleavage, while partial complementarity often leads to translational repression.
71
The localization of _____ mRNA to the anterior part of the Drosophila egg is crucial for establishing axial polarity in the embryo.
bicoid