Translation Flashcards

(69 cards)

1
Q

What is the typical size range, in nucleotides, for a transfer RNA (tRNA) molecule?

A

tRNA molecules are typically between 73 and 93 nucleotides long.

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2
Q

Which RNA polymerase is responsible for the synthesis of tRNA molecules?

A

tRNA is synthesized by RNA Polymerase III (RNAP III).

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3
Q

What type of promoters does RNA Polymerase III use for tRNA synthesis?

A

RNA Polymerase III uses type 2 internal promoters for tRNA synthesis.

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4
Q

In the processing of tRNA, what modification does ‘D’ represent?

A

The letter ‘D’ represents the modified base dihydrouridine.

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5
Q

In tRNA and mRNA interactions, what modification does ‘I’ represent?

A

The letter ‘I’ represents the modified base inosine.

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6
Q

What modification in tRNA does the Greek letter Ψ (psi) represent?

A

The Greek letter Ψ (psi) represents the modified base pseudouridine.

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7
Q

How does splicing of tRNA introns occur if there is no consensus sequence for recognition?

A

Splicing depends on the recognition of a common secondary structure in the precursor tRNA molecule.

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8
Q

What enzyme is responsible for removing the 5’ leader sequence from a primary tRNA transcript?

A

The 5’ leader sequence is removed by RNase P.

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9
Q

What is the key difference between bacterial and eukaryotic RNase P?

A

Bacterial RNase P is a ribozyme, while eukaryotic RNase P is a nucleolar RNP enzyme.

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10
Q

After the 3’ trailer is removed, what sequence is added to the 3’ end of a tRNA molecule?

A

The sequence CCA is added to the 3’ end.

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11
Q

What enzyme catalyzes the addition of the CCA sequence to the 3’ end of tRNA?

A

The enzyme nucleotidyl transferase adds the CCA sequence.

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12
Q

What are the two primary functions of a tRNA molecule in translation?

A

To be linked to a specific amino acid and to recognize a corresponding codon in mRNA.

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13
Q

What is the name of the enzymes that attach amino acids to their corresponding tRNA molecules?

A

Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases (ARS) attach amino acids to tRNAs.

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14
Q

The process of attaching an amino acid to a tRNA is known as _____ the tRNA.

A

charging

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15
Q

What is the name for the three-nucleotide sequence on a tRNA that base-pairs with a codon on mRNA?

A

The anticodon.

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16
Q

Where on the tRNA molecule does the amino acid attach?

A

The amino acid attaches to the free 2’ or 3’ hydroxyl group of the adenosine at the 3’ CCA end.

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17
Q

What is the first step in the tRNA charging reaction catalyzed by aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase?

A

The adenylation of the amino acid, where ATP is used and pyrophosphate (PPi) is released.

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18
Q

What happens in the second step of tRNA charging, after the amino acid has been adenylated?

A

The adenylylated amino acid is transferred to the 2’ or 3’ OH of the terminal adenosine on the tRNA, releasing AMP.

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19
Q

How many different aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases exist in a cell?

A

There are 20 different synthetases, one for each amino acid.

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20
Q

What part of the tRNA complex does the ribosome primarily recognize during translation?

A

The ribosome recognizes the tRNA molecule itself, not the amino acid it carries.

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21
Q

What phenomenon allows a single tRNA to recognize more than one codon for a specific amino acid?

A

Non-standard base pairing in the “wobble position”.

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22
Q

In the codon-anticodon interaction, which nucleotide position on the mRNA codon is the “wobble” position?

A

The third nucleotide (at the 3’ end) of the mRNA codon is the wobble position.

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23
Q

In the codon-anticodon interaction, which nucleotide position on the tRNA anticodon is the “wobble” position?

A

The first nucleotide (at the 5’ end) of the tRNA anticodon is the wobble position.

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24
Q

What complex directs the elongation of a polypeptide chain by reading mRNA?

A

The ribosome.

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25
What do the designations 70S and 80S refer to for ribosomes?
They are Svedberg units (S), which measure the sedimentation rate during centrifugation.
26
What are the subunits of a prokaryotic 70S ribosome?
The 30S (small) subunit and the 50S (large) subunit.
27
What are the subunits of a eukaryotic 80S ribosome?
The 40S (small) subunit and the 60S (large) subunit.
28
What are the rRNA components of the prokaryotic 50S large ribosomal subunit?
The 5S rRNA and 23S rRNA.
29
What is the rRNA component of the prokaryotic 30S small ribosomal subunit?
The 16S rRNA.
30
What are the rRNA components of the eukaryotic 60S large ribosomal subunit?
The 5S rRNA, 5.8S rRNA, and 28S rRNA.
31
What is the rRNA component of the eukaryotic 40S small ribosomal subunit?
The 18S rRNA.
32
What are the three main stages of the translation mechanism?
Initiation, elongation, and termination.
33
What is the function of the special initiator tRNA, tRNAᵢᵐᵉᵗ?
It is used exclusively for initiating protein synthesis at the start codon.
34
How is the initiator tRNA modified in bacteria after being charged with methionine?
A formyl group is added, creating formyl-methionine (fMet).
35
What is the name of the ribosome binding site in prokaryotic mRNA?
The Shine-Dalgarno sequence.
36
How does the prokaryotic ribosome correctly position itself at the start codon?
The Shine-Dalgarno sequence in mRNA base-pairs with a complementary sequence on the 16S rRNA of the 30S subunit.
37
In prokaryotic initiation, what is the function of initiation factor IF3?
IF3 binds to the free 30S subunit to prevent premature binding of the 50S subunit.
38
In prokaryotic initiation, what is the function of initiation factor IF1?
IF1 binds to the 30S subunit and prevents tRNA from binding to the A site.
39
In prokaryotic initiation, what is the role of initiation factor IF2?
IF2, a GTPase, helps guide the initiator fMet-tRNA to the P site of the 30S subunit.
40
What event triggers the release of IF1 and IF3 during prokaryotic initiation?
The binding of the 50S large ribosomal subunit to the 30S initiation complex.
41
What is the Kozak consensus sequence in eukaryotic translation?
It is a sequence context surrounding the start codon (AUG) that enhances the efficiency of initiation.
42
How does the eukaryotic 40S ribosomal subunit typically find the start codon?
It binds near the 5' cap of the mRNA and scans along the mRNA until it finds the first AUG in a suitable Kozak context.
43
In eukaryotic initiation, what forms the ternary complex?
The initiator tRNA (Met-tRNAᵢᵐᵉᵗ), eIF2, and GTP form the ternary complex.
44
What complex is formed when the ternary complex binds to the 40S ribosomal subunit along with other initiation factors like eIF3?
The 43S preinitiation complex.
45
Which eukaryotic initiation factor complex recognizes and binds to the 5' methyl cap of mRNA?
The eIF4F complex (containing eIF4E, the cap-binding protein).
46
What process, driven by ATP hydrolysis, does the 43S preinitiation complex use to find the start codon on eukaryotic mRNA?
Scanning.
47
What event leads to the formation of the 80S initiation complex in eukaryotes?
The 60S large subunit binds after the 43S complex finds the start codon, which is coupled with GTP hydrolysis and release of initiation factors.
48
During elongation, what factor delivers the charged aminoacyl-tRNA to the A site of a prokaryotic ribosome?
Elongation Factor Thermo-unstable (EF-Tu), complexed with GTP.
49
During elongation, what factor delivers the charged aminoacyl-tRNA to the A site of a eukaryotic ribosome?
Eukaryotic Elongation Factor 1A (eEF1A), complexed with GTP.
50
What is the name of the reaction that forms a peptide bond between amino acids during elongation?
The peptidyl transferase reaction.
51
Which part of the ribosome possesses peptidyl transferase activity?
The large ribosomal subunit (specifically, the rRNA within it acts as a ribozyme).
52
What is the process called when the ribosome moves one codon down the mRNA in the 3' direction?
Translocation.
53
What factor catalyzes translocation in prokaryotes and what energy source does it use?
Elongation Factor G (EF-G) catalyzes translocation, using energy from GTP hydrolysis.
54
What factor catalyzes translocation in eukaryotes and what energy source does it use?
Eukaryotic Elongation Factor 2 (eEF2) catalyzes translocation, using energy from GTP hydrolysis.
55
During elongation, the growing polypeptide chain is transferred from the tRNA in the _____ site to the aminoacyl-tRNA in the _____ site.
P; A
56
After translocation, the uncharged tRNA moves from the P site to which site before being released?
The E (exit) site.
57
What type of molecules recognize stop codons (UGA, UAA, UAG) in the A site of the ribosome?
Release factors (RFs).
58
What happens when a release factor binds to a stop codon in the A site?
It promotes the hydrolysis of the bond linking the polypeptide to the tRNA in the P site, releasing the new protein.
59
Under what condition is the eukaryotic initiation factor eIF2 often phosphorylated to inhibit translation?
During cellular stress, such as amino acid starvation.
60
How does phosphorylation of eIF2 inhibit translation initiation?
Phosphorylated eIF2 cannot be recycled by its exchange factor (eIF2B), thus preventing the formation of new ternary complexes.
61
What is 'leaky scanning' in eukaryotic translation?
A process where a weak Kozak sequence allows the scanning 40S ribosomal subunit to bypass the first AUG and initiate at a downstream AUG.
62
What is an upstream open reading frame (uORF)?
A short open reading frame located in the 5' UTR of an mRNA, upstream of the main protein-coding sequence.
63
What is the general effect of a uORF on the translation of the main coding sequence?
It typically stalls or decreases (down-regulates) the translation of the main downstream gene.
64
Under amino acid starvation, how is translation of the yeast GCN4 gene affected by its uORFs?
Translation of GCN4 is increased because fewer initiation complexes are available, allowing ribosomes to scan past the inhibitory uORFs and reach the main start codon.
65
What is an Internal Ribosome Entry Site (IRES)?
An RNA element within the 5' UTR that allows for cap-independent initiation of translation.
66
Under what conditions is IRES-mediated translation particularly important?
During viral infections, mitosis, or cellular stress, when cap-dependent translation is often inhibited.
67
How do some viruses shut down host protein synthesis while ensuring their own proteins are made?
They use viral proteases to cleave host eIF4G, inhibiting cap-dependent translation, while their own viral mRNAs are translated via IRES elements.
68
The 3D structure of tRNA is often described as an L-shape formed by the _____ of two arms.
coaxial stacking
69
What is the acceptor stem of a tRNA molecule?
The region at the 3' end, including the CCA sequence, where the amino acid attaches.