1
Q
- A gas mixture contains 3 moles of O2 and 2 moles of N2 in
a 10 L container at 27°C. What is the partial pressure of O₂
in the mixture?
a. 2.46 atm c. 4.92 atm
b. 7.38 atm d. 6.15 atm
A
2
Q
- If the compressibility factor (Z) > 1 for a gas, what does this
indicate about the gas behavior?
a. The gas behaves exactly like an ideal gas.
b. The gas experiences more repulsive forces and occupies
a larger volume than an ideal gas.
c. The gas experiences strong attractive forces and
compresses more than an ideal gas.
d. The gas liquefies immediately.
A
3
Q
- Which element was first used in the experimental discovery
of the Bose-Einstein Condensate (BEC) in 1995?
a. Helium (He) c. Rubidium (Rb)
b. Sodium (Na) d. Cesium (Cs)
A
4
Q
- Which hydrocarbon has a vapor density of 29 relative to
hydrogen?
a. Butene c. Pentene
b. Pentane d. Butane
A
5
Q
- An ideal gas undergoes isothermal expansion at a
temperature of 350 K. The gas expands from an initial
volume of 2.0 L to a final volume of 5.0 L. The heat
absorbed by the gas during this process is 500 J. What is
the change in entropy (ΔS) of the system?
a. 1.25 J/K c. 1.43 J/K
b. 1.67 J/K d. 1.89 J/K
A
6
Q
- What is the change in internal energy of a closed system
after completing a cyclic process?
a. Equal to the heat added to the system
b. Equal to the work done by the system
c. Zero
d. Depends on the efficiency of the cycle
A
7
Q
- A 50 mL solution of 1 M HCl is mixed with 50 mL of 1 M
NaOH. The initial temperature of both solutions is 25.0°C,
and the final temperature after mixing is 31.2°C. Given that
the density of the solution is 1 g/mL and specific heat
capacity is 4.18 J/g-°C, calculate the heat of mixing.
a. -20880 J c. -51800 J
b. -10440 J d. -26040 J
A
8
Q
- When a system is at equilibrium, what is the value of Gibbs
free energy?
a. Maximum c. Zero
b. Minimum d. Undefined
A
9
Q
- What is the value of ΔG (Gibbs free energy change) when
a system is at equilibrium?
a. ΔG = 0 c. ΔG < 0
b. ΔG > 0 d. infinity
A
10
Q
- Given the following reactions and their enthalpy changes:
C + O₂ → CO₂ ΔH = -393.5 kJ/mol
CO + ½ O₂ → CO₂ ΔH = -283.0 kJ/mol
2C + O₂ → 2CO ΔH = -221.0 kJ/mol
What is the enthalpy of formation of CO in kJ/mol?
a. -283.0 kJ/mol c. +110.5 kJ/mol
b. -110.5 kJ/mol d. +283.0 kJ/mol
A
11
Q
- Which thermodynamic property does the ClausiusClapeyron equation relate to the slope of the vapor
pressure curve?
a. Temperature
b. Entropy change of vaporization
c. Pressure
d. Volume change during phase transition
A
12
Q
- A liquid solution follows Raoult’s Law, where the pure vapor
pressures of components A and B are: PA
0 = 80 kPa and
PB
0 = 60 kPa. If the mole fraction of A in the liquid phase is
0.4, what is the total vapor pressure of the solution?
a. 68 kPa c. 76 kPa
b. 72 kPa d. 80 kPa
A
13
Q
- For the reaction: 2A = 3B:
If the chemical potential of A is 15 J/mol, what is the
corresponding change in the chemical potential of B
assuming equilibrium conditions?
a. 10 J/mol c. 22.5 J/mol
b. -10 J/mol d. -22.5 J/mol
A
14
Q
- What process occurs at the anode during an
electrochemical reaction?
a. Reduction c. Electrodeposition
b. Oxidation d. Neutralization
A
15
Q
- Which colligative property explains why adding salt to ice
lowers its melting point, causing roads to remain unfrozen
in winter?
a. Boiling point elevation
b. Freezing point depression
c. Osmotic pressure
d. Vapor pressure lowering
A
16
Q
- A solution has an osmotic pressure of 12 atm at a
temperature of 298 K. The solute is sucrose (molar mass =
342 g/mol. What is the mass fraction of sucrose in the
solution?
a. 0.085 c. 0.235
b. 0.125 d. 0.168
A
17
Q
- A 2 kg metal block is heated, increasing its temperature
from 25°C to 75°C. The specific heat capacity of the metal
is 104.5 J/kg-K. What is the amount of heat energy
absorbed by the metal?
a. 7450 J c. 10450 J
b. 8900 J d. 12500 J
A
18
Q
- In thermodynamics, exergy refers to:
a. Energy available for useful work
b. Total energy in a system
c. Heat capacity
d. Internal energy
A
19
Q
- If a reaction is exergonic, what can be said about ΔG?
a. ΔG > 0 c. ΔG = 0
b. G is maximum d. ΔG < 0
A
20
Q
- Which process is always exergonic?
a. Electrolysis of water
b. Photosynthesis
c. Combustion of methane
d. Formation of ozone
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printed formats, is strictly prohibited. For personal use only.
DAY 1 QUESTIONS PART 1
Physical and Chemical Principles
A
21
Q
- If ΔG is positive, what does it indicate about a reaction?
a. It is at equilibrium.
b. It is non-spontaneous.
c. It is spontaneous.
d. It releases energy.
Analytical Chemistry
A
22
Q
- If equal amounts of BaCl₂ and Na₂SO₄ solutions are mixed,
what will be the precipitate formed?
a. BaSO₄ c. NaCl
b. BaCl₂ d. Na2SO4
A
23
Q
- What is the purpose of digestion in gravimetric analysis?
a. To dissolve impurities in the precipitate
b. To increase the solubility of the precipitate in solution
c. To speed up the reaction by increasing temperature
d. To promote the growth of larger and purer precipitate
particles for easier filtration
A
24
Q
- Which of the following represents the gravimetric factor
used to convert the mass of a precipitate to the
concentration of the analyte in a sample?
a. Molar mass of precipitate / Molar mass of analyte
b. 0.1
c. 1
d. Mass of precipitate / Volume of analyte
A
25
25. A 0.03 mol solution of HCl is used to completely titrate an
unknown amount of NaOH. How many moles of NaOH
were present in the analyte?
a. 0.015 mol c. 0.030 mol
b. 0.045 mol d. 0.060 mol
26
26. A back titration is performed using potassium dichromate
(K2Cr2O7). If 50.0 mL of a 0.100 M solution is used in the
reaction, how many moles of Cr2O7
2- are present?
a. 0.00250 moles c. 0.0100 moles
b. 0.00500 moles d. 0.0500 moles
27
27. Which of the following best defines the equivalence point in
a titration?
a. The point where the amount of titrant added is
stoichiometrically equal to the analyte in the solution
b. The point where the color of the indicator changes
c. The point where the pH reaches 7
d. The point where no more titrants can be added
28
28. During the titration of a weak acid with a strong base, the
pH rises from 3.0 to 4.7. What primarily causes this
increase in pH?
a. The complete neutralization of the weak acid
b. The formation of its conjugate base, which partially
resists further pH changes
c. The rapid dissociation of water molecules
d. The presence of excess strong base in the solution
29
29. Which law describes the relationship between absorbance
and concentration in spectrophotometry?
a. Boyle’s Law c. Henry’s Law
b. Beer-Lambert Law d. Dalton’s Law
30
30. A sample solution is analyzed using a spectrophotometer.
If the concentration of the solution is doubled, what will
happen to its absorbance, assuming all other conditions
remain constant?
a. The absorbance will double.
b. The absorbance will decrease by half.
c. The absorbance will remain the same.
d. The absorbance will increase four times.
31
31. A solution has an absorbance of 0.5 when measured in a 1
cm cuvette. If the concentration is doubled, what will be the
new absorbance?
a. 0.25 c. 1.00
b. 0.50 d. 2.00
32
32. A solution has an absorbance of 1.2 when measured in a 1
cm path length cuvette. What will happen to the absorbance
if the path length is increased to 2 cm while keeping the
concentration constant?
a. Absorbance will stay the same
b. Absorbance will be halved
c. Absorbance will double
d. Absorbance will decrease to 1.0
33
33. A solution with a molar absorptivity of 50 L/mol-cm has an
absorbance of 1.0 in a 1 cm cuvette. What is the
concentration of the solution?
a. 0.02 M c. 0.10 M
b. 0.05 M d. 1.00 M
34
34. A solution has an absorbance of 0.301 when measured
using a spectrophotometer. What is its transmittance (T)?
a. 25% c. 50%
b. 30% d. 75%
35
35. Determine the absorbance of a liquid solution whose
transmittance is 85%.
a. 0.0706 c. 0.1500
b. 0.9294 d. 0.1625
36
36. What is the main requirement for a precipitate to be suitable
for gravimetric analysis?
a. It must be highly soluble in water
b. It should be volatile at room temperature
c. It must be a pure, stable, and easily filterable solid
d. It should dissolve easily in strong acids
37
37. In gravimetric analysis, coprecipitation occurs when:
a. The desired analyte is fully precipitated without impurities
b. An impurity is trapped within the precipitate structure
c. The precipitate does not form at all
d. The analyte is lost due to excessive heating
38
38. In a redox titration using potassium permanganate, what is
the role of MnO₄⁻?
a. It acts as an oxidizing agent
b. It acts as a reducing agent
c. It stabilizes the pH of the solution
d. It neutralizes the acid in the reaction
39
39. In a complexometric titration, which reagent is commonly
used to determine the hardness of water?
a. Potassium permanganate
b. Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid
c. Silver nitrate
d. Sodium hydroxide
© 2025 Auxesis Review Center. All rights reserved.
This material is the property of Auxesis Review Center. Unauthorized reproduction, distribution, uploading, or sharing of this content in any form, including digital or
printed formats, is strictly prohibited. For personal use only.
DAY 1 QUESTIONS PART 1
Physical and Chemical Principles
Chemistry for Engineers
40
40. The unit of energy in the SI system is:
a. Joule c. Watt
b. Calorie d. Pascal
41
41. Which energy source is the most widely used worldwide
today?
a. Nuclear c. Solar
b. Wind d. Coal
42
42. What is the typical efficiency of a coal-fired power plant?
a. 10-20% c. 50-60%
b. 30-40% d. 80-90%
43
43. Which gas is commonly found in coal mines and is known
as "firedamp" due to its flammability?
a. Carbon dioxide (CO2)
b. Nitrogen (N2)
c. Methane (CH4)
d. Hydrogen sulfide (H2S)
44
44. The calorific value of methane (CH4) is approximately:
a. 20 MJ/kg c. 50 MJ/kg
b. 35 MJ/kg d. 70 MJ/kg
45
45. The combustion efficiency of a fuel is mainly determined by:
a. Color of flame c. Specific heat of fuel
b. Volume of fuel d. Air-fuel ratio
46
46. What is the air fuel volume ratio when methane is burned
with ideal air?
a. 2:1 c. 4.76:1
b. 9.52:1 d. 5:1
47
47. Syngas is a mixture of:
a. Hydrogen and methane
b. Carbon monoxide and hydrogen
c. Methane and oxygen
d. Carbon dioxide and nitrogen
48
48. Which type of reaction powers nuclear reactors?
a. Fission c. Combustion
b. Fusion d. Oxidation
49
49. How many sections are included in a standard Safety Data
Sheet (SDS) according to the Globally Harmonized System
(GHS)?
a. 8 c. 12
b. 16 d. 20
50
50. Identify the symbol
a. flammable c. oxidizing
b. corrosive d. toxic
Environmental Science and Engineering
51
51. What is the main function of Volatile Organic Compounds
(VOCs) in air pollution?
a. They react with nitrogen oxides (NOx) to form groundlevel ozone and smog
b. They directly contribute to global warming like CO₂
c. They absorb harmful UV radiation in the atmosphere
d. They help in neutralizing acidic pollutants in the air
52
52. Which gas is predicted to be the most dangerous to human
health and the environment in the next 100 years?
a. Carbon dioxide c. Methane
b. Nitrogen oxides d. Sulfur hexafluoride
53
53. Which of the following gases has the highest global
warming potential (GWP) over a 100-year period?
a. Carbon dioxide c. Methane
b. Nitrogen oxides d. Sulfur hexafluoride
54
54. Which gas is considered a “silent killer” due to its colorless,
odorless nature and ability to cause suffocation?
a. Carbon monoxide c. Sulfur dioxide
b. Ozone d. Hydrogen sulfide
55
55. What makes PM2.5 more dangerous to human health
compared to PM10?
a. PM2.5 is heavier and settles faster, causing more
localized damage.
b. PM10 is chemically inert, while PM2.5 is highly reactive.
c. PM2.5 is always composed of toxic substances, while
PM10 is not.
d. PM2.5 particles can enter deeper into the lungs and even
the bloodstream.
56
56. The concentration of methane in the atmosphere is 1875
ppb, and its concentration increases by 7 ppb per year. The
total mass of the atmosphere is 2.82×1018 kg. If global
methane emissions are 600 teragrams (TG) per year, what
is the lifetime of methane in the atmosphere in years?
a. 15.7 years c. 8.8 years
b. 12.0 years d. 6.8 years
57
57. What is the primary use of Greenhouse Gas (GHG)
accounting?
a. To measure and monitor greenhouse gas emissions
b. To predict future climate changes
c. To regulate air pollution levels
d. To improve industrial efficiency
58
58. What is a carbon footprint in the context of GHG
accounting?
a. The total amount of greenhouse gases emitted directly
or indirectly by an entity
b. The number of trees planted to offset emissions
c. The total weight of CO₂ in the atmosphere
d. The amount of carbon stored in fossil fuels
59
59. What is the standard framework used for corporate GHG
accounting?
a. Kyoto Protocol
b. GHG Protocol
c. Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC)
Reports
d. Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA)
© 2025 Auxesis Review Center. All rights reserved.
This material is the property of Auxesis Review Center. Unauthorized reproduction, distribution, uploading, or sharing of this content in any form, including digital or
printed formats, is strictly prohibited. For personal use only.
DAY 1 QUESTIONS PART 1
Physical and Chemical Principles
60
60. What is the Philippines' total greenhouse gas (GHG)
reduction target by 2030 under its Nationally Determined
Contribution (NDC)?
a. 100% reduction (Unconditional: 50%, Conditional: 50%)
b. 75% reduction (Unconditional: 2.71%, Conditional:
61
72.29%)
c. 50% reduction (Unconditional: 25%, Conditional: 25%)
d. 25% reduction (Unconditional: 5%, Conditional: 20%)
62
61. Which of the following is an example of a Scope 1
greenhouse gas (GHG) emission?
a. Emissions from electricity purchased from the grid
b. Methane emissions from a landfill owned by a company
c. CO₂ emissions from commuting employees' personal
vehicles
d. Carbon footprint from raw materials used in production
63
62. Which of the following is required to calculate Scope 2
greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions?
a. Electricity consumption and the emission factor of the
electricity source
b. Fuel combustion in company-owned vehicles
c. Employee commuting and business travel data
d. Industrial process emissions from chemical reactions
64
63. Company A consumes 300,000 kWh of electricity with an
emission factor of 0.60 kg CO₂/kWh, while Company B
consumes 250,000 kWh of electricity with an emission
factor of 0.24 kg CO₂/kWh. What is the total Scope 2 CO₂
emissions from both companies?
a. 180,000 kg CO₂ c. 220,000 kg CO₂
b. 200,000 kg CO₂ d. 240,000 kg CO₂
65
64. In the context of Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR)
laws, what does "take-back" mean?
a. Consumers must return products to manufacturers for
repair
b. Producers are responsible for collecting and managing
the disposal of their products after consumer use
c. Retailers must store used products before disposal
d. Government agencies must handle all waste collection
and recycling
66
65. Which property of wastewater is crucial for determining its
ability to support aquatic life and indicates the level of
organic pollution?
a. Chemical oxygen demand
b. Dissolved oxygen
c. Total suspended solids
d. Turbidity
67
66. What is the primary purpose of the cold lime process in
water treatment?
a. To remove temporary and permanent hardness from
water
b. To disinfect water by killing bacteria
c. To increase the solubility of calcium and magnesium salts
d. To reduce the pH of water for industrial use
68
67. What is the primary purpose of an equalization pond in
wastewater treatment?
a. To balance flow rate and pollutant concentration before
further treatment
b. To remove suspended solids through sedimentation
c. To disinfect wastewater by killing bacteria and viruses
d. To completely remove organic matter before discharge
69
68. What is the driving force in the reverse osmosis process?
a. Pressure difference
b. Gravity
c. Concentration gradient
d. Temperature difference
70
69. Which of the following is an effective method for removing
phosphorus from water in wastewater treatment?
a. Boiling the water to evaporate phosphorus
b. Adding chlorine to oxidize phosphorus
c. Chemical precipitation using aluminum or iron salts
d. Using UV radiation to break down phosphorus
compounds
71
70. Which formula is used to calculate chlorine demand in
water treatment?
a. Chlorine demand = Chlorine residual - Chlorine applied
b. Chlorine demand = Chlorine residual × Chlorine applied
c. Chlorine demand = Chlorine applied + Chlorine residual
d. Chlorine demand = Chlorine applied - Residual chlorine
72
71. A water treatment tank has a volume of 48,000 liters, and
the flow rate of water entering the tank is 12,000 liters per
hour. What is the retention time in hours?
a. 2 hours c. 3 hours
b. 4 hours d. 6 hours
72. An ion exchange system is used to soften 200 L of water,
which has a hardness of 100 mg/L as CaCO3. The system
requires 1000 L of regeneration water to restore the resin
using a salt (NaCl) solution. If 2.5 mg of NaCl is required
per mg of CaCO3, how many kg of salt are needed for
regeneration?
a. 0.10 kg c. 0.25 kg
b. 1.00 kg d. 2.50 kg
73
73. A water treatment system uses an ion exchange resin to
remove contaminants. The initial concentration of a
pollutant is 800 ppm. The concentration decreases by half
for every 2 cm of resin bed length. If the water passes
through a 6 cm resin bed, what will be the final
concentration of the pollutant?
a. 100 ppm c. 200 ppm
b. 400 ppm d. 800 ppm
74
74. Which parameter would be most affected by oil
contamination in water?
a. Temperature c. Turbidity
b. pH d. Total dissolved solids
75
75. How does thermal pollution affect aquatic life?
a. Increases dissolved oxygen
b. Speeds up photosynthesis
c. Reduces oxygen solubility in water
d. Lowers water pH
76
76. Which water source is most at risk of nitrate contamination?
a. Deep aquifer c. Well in a farming area
b. Sealed reservoir d. Municipal piped supply
77
77. The ozone layer is mainly found in which part of the
atmosphere?
a. Troposphere c. Mesosphere
b. Thermosphere d. Stratosphere
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printed formats, is strictly prohibited. For personal use only.
DAY 1 QUESTIONS PART 1
Physical and Chemical Principles
78
78. Which of the following is not a primary air pollutant?
a. Carbon monoxide c. Nitrogen dioxide
b. Sulfur dioxide d. Ozone
79
79. Which of the following pollutants is a major contributor to
the formation of ground-level ozone?
a. Sulfur dioxide c. Carbon monoxide
b. Nitrogen oxides d. Methane
80
80. Which international agreement aims to reduce emissions of
substances that deplete the ozone layer?
a. Kyoto Protocol c. Montreal Protocol
b. Paris Agreement d. Basel Convention
81
81. Which technique is used for removing nitrogen oxides from
flue gases?
a. Catalytic reduction c. Scrubbing
b. Filtration d. Electrostatic precipitation
82
82. The solid waste management hierarchy (arranged from
most preferred to least preferred) is as follows:
a. Disposal à Recycle à Reuse à Reduce
b. Recycle à Reuse à Reduce àDisposal
c. Reduce à Reuse à Recycle à Disposal
d. Disposal àRecycle à Reduce àReuse
83
83. For a solution containing 200 mg/L of glycine, find the
theoretical oxygen demand.
a. 402 ppm c. 138 ppm
b. 367 ppm d. 299 ppm
84
84. Suppose a wastewater has a BOD5 equal to 180 mg/Land
a reaction rate constant of 0.22/d. Find the remaining BOD
after five days have elapsed.
a. 90 mg/L c. 50 mg/L
b. 60 mg/L d. 80 mg/L
85
85. Calculate the “approximate” alkalinity (in milligrams per liter
as CaCO3) of a water containing 120 mg · L−1 of bicarbonate
ion and 15.00 mg · L−1 of carbonate ion.
a. 257 mg/L c. 123 mg/L
b. 186 mg/L d. 209 mg/L
Material Science and Engineering
86
86. What is the major factor that affects the rate of electron
conduction in a material?
a. The number of free electrons available for conduction
b. The density of the material
c. The atomic mass of the conductor
d. The color of the material
87
87. What is the ratio of stress to strain in a material known as?
a. Toughness
b. Modulus of elasticity
c. Plasticity
d. Shear strength
88
88. What is the unit of the modulus of elasticity?
a. Joule (J) c. Watt (W)
b. Newton (N) d. Pascal (Pa)
89
89. What is the ratio of shear stress to shear strain called?
a. Young’s modulus c. Bulk modulus
b. Shear modulus d. Poisson’s ratio
90
90. What property of a material does a higher modulus of
elasticity indicate?
a. The material is more flexible.
b. The material is more brittle and rigid.
c. The material absorbs more energy before breaking.
d. The material has a higher thermal expansion.
91
91. The modulus of elasticity is highest in which type of
material?
a. Polymers c. Metals
b. Ceramics d. Rubber
92
92. Which material typically has the highest modulus of
elasticity?
a. Rubber c. Steel
b. Aluminum d. Plastic
93
93. Which of the following best defines elastomers?
a. Polymers that permanently deform when stretched
b. Polymers with high flexibility that return to their original
shape after deformation
c. Rigid polymers used in structural applications
d. Thermoplastics that soften when heated and harden
when cooled
94
94. At which point on a stress-strain curve can the yield
strength be found?
a. The point where stress reaches its maximum before
failure
b. The point where the material permanently deforms after
elastic behavior
c. The point where the material fractures
d. The point where stress is directly proportional to strain
95
95. What is a key advantage of thermoplastics over
thermosetting plastics?
a. Higher resistance to heat and chemicals
b. Stronger mechanical properties
c. Ability to be remolded multiple times
d. Permanent cross-linked structure
96
96. Which method is the most economical to produce aluminum
matrix composites?
a. Stir casting c. Tungsten infiltration
b. Powder metallurgy d. Extrusion
97
97. What is the primary purpose of adding carbon to iron in
steel production?
a. To increase hardness and strength
b. To improve corrosion resistance
c. To make the steel more ductile
d. To reduce the melting point significantly
98
98. Why is cast iron preferred over steel in the construction of
chemical reactor vessels in certain applications?
a. better moldability
b. higher corrosion resistance
c. higher tensional strength
d. higher ductility
99
99. How does the resistivity of a typical metal change with
increasing temperature?
a. It increases due to more frequent electron collisions.
b. It decreases as the metal expands.
c. It remains constant because resistivity is a material
property.
d. It fluctuates randomly with temperature changes.
© 2025 Auxesis Review Center. All rights reserved.
This material is the property of Auxesis Review Center. Unauthorized reproduction, distribution, uploading, or sharing of this content in any form, including digital or
printed formats, is strictly prohibited. For personal use only.
DAY 1 QUESTIONS PART 1
Physical and Chemical Principles
100
100.What type of materials typically shows a decrease in
resistivity as temperature increases?
a. Metals
b. Semiconductors
c. Insulators
d. Superconductors above critical temperature
101
101.A composite material consists of 40% matrix by weight.
What is the weight fraction of the reinforcement in the
composite?
a. 40% c. 60%
b. 50% d. 75%
102
102.What type of bond is found between carbon atoms in
diamond?
a. ionic c. non-polar covalent
b. polar covalent d. metallic
103
103.Which bond type is typically associated with the highest
melting points?
a. Hydrogen bonding c. Metallic bonding
b. Ionic bonding d. van der Waals bonding
104
104.Which element pairing would produce a bond with the
highest ionic character?
a. C and H c. Na and Cl
b. O and N d. Si and P
105
105.Estimate % ionic character of KF.
a. 82% c. 92%
b. 85% d. 95%
106
106.In nylon and proteins, what secondary bonding contributes
to structure and stability?
a. Ionic bonding c. Hydrogen bonding
b. Dipole-dipole d. Metallic bonding
107
107.Which crystal system has three unequal axes, all at right
angles?
a. Tetragonal c. Monoclinic
b. Orthorhombic d. Triclinic
108
108.The coordination number of atoms in a face-centered cubic
(FCC) crystal lattice is:
a. 4 c. 12
b. 6 d. 14
109
109.Why is the face-centered cubic (FCC) structure more
densely packed than body-centered cubic (BCC)?
a. FCC has larger atoms
b. FCC has higher atomic mass
c. FCC atoms are arranged to occupy more volume
d. FCC has atoms at face centers, increasing packing
efficiency
110
110.Which of the following correctly ranks crystal structures by
atomic packing factor (APF), from highest to lowest?
a. BCC > FCC > Simple cubic
b. FCC > BCC > Simple cubic
c. Simple cubic > FCC > BCC
d. HCP > FCC > BCC
111
111.Which metal is known to have an HCP structure and poor
ductility at room temperature?
a. Lead c. Zinc
b. Iron d. Copper
112
112.What do Miller indices represent?
a. Interatomic spacing
b. Crystal defects
c. Crystallographic planes and directions
d. Bond energy levels
113
113.Which Miller index represents a plane that cuts the x-axis
at 1 and is parallel to y and z axes?
a. (1 0 0) c. (1 1 1)
b. (0 1 1) d. (1 0 1)
114
114.In X-ray diffraction, the condition nλ = 2d sin θ represents:
a. Laue equation c. Fick’s first law
b. Bragg’s law d. Hall–Petch relation
115
115.For BCC iron, compute the interplanar spacing if the lattice
parameter for Fe is 0.2866 nm.
a. 0.1 nm c. 0.3 nm
b. 0.2 nm d. 0.4 nm
116
116.The metal niobium has a BCC crystal structure. If the angle
of diffraction for the (211) set of planes occurs at 75.99
degrees (first order reflection) when monochromatic xradiation having a wavelength of 0.1659 nm is sued,
compute the interplanar spacing for the niobium atom.
a. 0.13 nm c. 0.25 nm
b. 0.38 nm d. 0.44 nm
117
117.The term anisotropy in crystalline materials indicates that:
a. Properties are the same in all directions
b. Properties vary with crystallographic direction
c. Material contains glassy regions
d. Defect density is uniform
118
118.Schottky defects in ionic crystals involve:
a. A cation vacancy paired with an interstitial cation
b. A paired set of cation and anion vacancies
c. An anion vacancy and adjacent electron in the lattice
d. Dislocation loops around impurity atoms
119
119.Which crystal defect is classified as a line defect?
a. Vacancy c. Schottky defect
b. Interstitial atom d. Edge dislocation
120
120.Calculate the number of vacancies per cubic meter in gold
at 9000C. The energy for vacancy formation is 0.98
eV/atom, Furthermore, the density and atomic weight for
gold are 19.32 g/cm3 and 196.9 g/mol, respectively.
a. 3.7x1024 atoms/m3 c 1.2x1026 atoms/m3
b. 2.9x1021 atoms/m3 d. 4.6x1023 atoms/m3
