1
Q
what is the name of the plane that divides the body into left and right halves
A
midsagittal plane
2
Q
what is the name of the plane that divides the body into anterior and posterior halves
A
midcoronal plane
3
Q
what is the name of the plane that divides the body into superior and inferior portions
A
transverse plane
4
Q
what is the name of the plane formed by the biting surfaces of the upper and lower teeth
A
occlusal plane
5
Q
what term refers to the front of the body
A
anterior/ventral
6
Q
what term refers to the back part of the body
A
posterior/dorsal
7
Q
what term is used to describe a projection that projects a part in profile by skimming the surface
A
tangential
8
Q
which body system functions to permit movement, produce blood cells (hematopoiesis), support and protect body organs, and store calcium
A
skeletal
9
Q
which body system supplies oxygen to the blood and eliminates carbon dioxide from the blood
A
respiratory system
10
Q
which body system functions to regulate fluid and electrolyte balance, eliminate some body wastes, and regulate the chemical composition of the blood
A
urinary/excretory
11
Q
which type of body habitus is likely to have a short and wide lung area
A
hypersthenic
12
Q
which type of body habitus is likely to have redundant bowel loops
A
hyposthenic, asthenic
13
Q
which type of body habitus is likely to have a high, transverse stomach
A
hypersthenic
14
Q
adult skeleton has _ bones
A
206
15
Q
what are the four classifications of bones
A
long, short, flat, irregular
16
Q
what is the term used to describe the recumbent body position, with head positioned at a lower level than the feet
A
trendelenburg
17
Q
vertebra prominens is another name for
A
c7
18
Q
the suprasternal/jugular notch is at what vertebral level
A
t2-3
19
Q
the xiphoid process is at what vertebral level
A
t10
20
Q
iliac crest is at what vertebral level
A
L4
21
Q
ASIS is at what vertebral level
A
s1-2
22
Q
what term describes movement of a part away from the body’s MSP
A
abduction
23
Q
what term describes bending motion of an articulation, decreasing the angle between associated bones
A
flexion
24
Q
what term describes the turning outward or lateral motion of an articulation, sometimes with external tension or stress applied
A
eversion
25
what term describes movement of a limb that produces circular motion; circumscribing a small area at its proximal end and a wide area at the distal end
circumduction
26
what is the most effective way to reduce voluntary motion
good communication
27
what is the most important way to reduce involuntary motion
use the shortest possible exposure time
28
small bones found in tendons are termed
sesamoid
29
the body/shaft of a long bone is mostly made of _ type tissue, while the extremities of long bones are typically made of _ tissue
compact/cortical; spongy/cancellous
30
the hollow central portion of a long bone is termed the _ and is filled with _
medullary cavity/canal; bone marrow
31
what are at least two examples of flat bones
sternum, ribs, scapula
32
what are at least two examples of irregular bones
pelvis, vertebra, facial bones
33
the membranous covering of the bone is termed
periosteum
34
the membranous covering of cartilage is termed
perichondrium
35
the type of cartilage found at the extremities of long bones and at their articulating surfaces is called
articular/hyaline cartilage
36
the term used to describe the secondary centers of ossification is _; the term for primary ossification centers is _
epiphysis; diaphysis
37
what is the name of the somewhat wider portion of a long bone adjacent to the epiphyseal plate
metaphysis
38
name and describe the three classifications of joints/articulations
synarthrodial, fibrous, immovable
amphiarthrodial, cartilaginous, and partially movable
diarthrodial, synovial, and freely movable
39
what is the most lateral carpal of the distal carpal row
trapezium/greater multangular
40
the radiocarpal joint is the articulation between the radius and which carpal
scaphoid
41
what articulation is formed by the ulnar notch and radial head
proximal radioulnar articulation
42
the lateral aspect of the distal humerus presents a raised smooth surface called the _, which articulates with the superior surface of the _
capitulum; radial head
43
tennis elbow is a painful condition that affects what bony area of the elbow
lateral epicondyle (and sometimes radial head)
44
in which projection of the elbow should the coronoid process be viewed in profile
medial/internal oblique
45
how and where should the CR enter for the AP projection of the shoulder
perpendicular and 1 inch inferior to coracoid process
46
the common fracture located at the base of the first metacarpal is called a/an _ fracture
Bennett fracture
47
the type of fracture common to the neck of the fourth or fifth metacarpal is the _ fracture
boxer
48
a fracture of the distal radius characterized by anterior displacement of the fragments is termed a _ fracture
Smith fracture (colles = posterior displacement)
49
the 'sail sign' or 'spinmaker sail sign' seen in a lateral elbow radiograph indicates a/an
joint effusion/radial head fracture
50
what is the most commonly fractured carpal
scaphoid
51
fracture of the distal radius, accompanied by posterior displacement and fracture of the ulnar styloid process, is typical of what type of fracture
colles fracture
52
the _ portion of the radius and ulna are superimposed when the hand is _
proximal; pronated
53
what position will best demonstrate medial/lateral fracture displacement
AP
54
what bones form the shoulder girdle
scapula, clavicle
55
the carpal canal/tunnel, tangential inferosuperior projection of the wrist requires a CR angulation of how many degrees and in what direction
25-30 degrees to the long axis of the hand
56
when the elbow cannot be extended for an AP projection of the elbow, what projections can be taken to demonstrate the required AP anatomy
one AP with forearm parallel to IR; another AP with humerus parallel to IR
57
if a lateral projection demonstrates the epicondyles not superimposed, how should that positioning be corrected
place the humerus and forearm on the same plane
58
the AP lateral oblique, external rotation, projection of the elbow should demonstrate what structure free of superimposition
radial head
59
the AP medial oblique projection of the elbow should demonstrate what structure free of superimposition
coronoid process
60
images made of the elbow in the lateral position with the hand in external rotation, lateral position, pronation, and internal rotation are all done to demonstrate what structure
radial head
61
what is the long curved process that extends laterally above the head of the humerus
acromion process
62
what is the only articulation between the upper extremity and thorax
sternoclavicular joint
63
a true AP projection of the shoulder is obtained in the _ rotation position; the _ should be seen in profile laterally
external; greater tubercle
64
the lateral projection of the humerus or elbow requires that the epicondyles be _ to the IR
perpendicular
65
what projections can be done to obtain a lateral image of the humerus in cases of trauma
transthoracic lateral
66
the inferosuperior axial projection of the shoulder requires that the arm be abducted 90 degrees from the body and should be in the _ rotation position
external
67
the posterior oblique position, grashey method, of the shoulder requires that the part be rotated so that the _ of the affected side is parallel to the IR
scapula
68
an internal rotation projection of the shoulder should demonstrate _ in profile medially
lesser tubercle
69
the AP projection of the elbow or humerus requires that the epicondyles be _ to the IR
parallel
70
where should the CR enter for an AP projection of the glenohumeral/shoulder joint
1 inch inferior to the coracoid process
71
the anterior oblique position, scapular y method, anterior dislocation is demonstrated when the humeral head is seen
beneath the coracoid process
72
how are acromioclavicular articulations usually examined in order to demonstrate small separations
bilateral with and without weight
73
in order to visualize a larger portion of the scapula in the AP projection, the arm should be
abducted
74
the vertebral and axillary borders should be superimposed in the _ projection of the scapula
lateral (Y projection)
75
which metatarsal has a large tuberosity, commonly subject to trauma
fifth metatarsal
76
which tarsal lies immediately anterior to the talus and immediately anterior to the calcaneus
navicular; cuboid
77
what bones form the ankle joint
tibia, fibula, and talus
78
Osgood-Schlatter disease affects what bony part
tibial tuberosity
79
why should the CR be directed 5-7 degrees cephalad in the lateral projection of the knee
to superimpose the femoral condyles
80
which projection of the toes should demonstrate no overlapping of soft tissue
AP projection
81
the dorsoplantar projection of the foot requires that the CR be directed how much, in what direction, and to what point
10 degrees posteriorly to the base of the third metatarsal
82
cuboidal articulations and the sinus tarsi are well visualized in which projection of the foot
AP medial oblique
83
the AP medial oblique projection of the foot requires what degree of obliquity
30
84
how should the foot be examined in order to demonstrate the longitudinal arches and ligament injuries
weight bearing
85
the dorsoplantar axial projection of the calcaneus requires that the CR be directed how many degrees and in what direction to the plantar surface
40 caudal
86
where should the CR be directed for the AP projection of the ankle
midway between malleoli
87
what is the relationship between the plantar surface and the IR in the plantodorsal axial projection of the calcaneus
perpendicular
88
the AP oblique medial oblique of the ankle requires what degree of obliquity
45
89
an AP projection of the knee should be centered to what point
.5” distal to the apex of the patella
90
if the distance between the ASIS and table top is less than 10 cm, what tube angle should be employed for the AP projection of the knee
5 degrees caudal
91
what are two evaluation criteria for correct positioning of the lateral knee
femoral condyles superimposed, patellofemoral joint space open
92
to evaluate knees for arthritis, it is recommended that they be imaged in the _ position
erect weight bearing
93
to visualize the proximal tibiofibular articulation, the AP knee should be obliques how many degrees in which direction
45 medially
94
the PA axial projection of the intercondyloid fossa requires that the CR be directed _ to the long axis of the tibia
perpendicular
95
the PA tangential projection (hughston method) of the patella and patellofemoral joint requires that the knee may be flexed about 50 degrees and the CR directed how many degrees and in what direction
45 cephalad
96
“punched out” radiolucent lesions are representative of the malignant condition called _ and the x-ray examination most frequently requested to diagnose this condition is _
multiple myeloma; skeletal/bone survey
97
x-ray imaging of bony articulations, and their soft tissue structures, using positive and/or negative contrast agents is termed
arthrography
98
fluoroscopic and radiographic examination of the spinal cord and its meninges using positive contrast agents is termed
myelography
99
what is the type of fracture that vertebral bodies are subject to, especially in cases of osteoporosis
compression fracture
100
what is the name of the final stage of healing/repair of a bone fracture
remodeling
101
what is the type of bony fracture where bone appears shattered or broken into several fragments
comminuted
102
what is the term used to describe movement of fractured ends of bones away from each other
displacement
103
a break in the bony cortex on one side of the shaft/body of a long bone, especially in children, is termed
green stick
104
a small chip of bone that breaks away when a joint is dislocated or when a tendon is pulled is termed
avulsion
105
what are the four general divisions of the respiratory system
pharynx, trachea, bronchi, and lungs
106
which hemidiaphragm is higher and why
higher on the right because of the liver below it
107
which portion of the respiratory system is also common to the digestive system
pharynx but more specifically the oropharynx
108
what is the medical term for the adam’s apple
laryngeal prominence
109
how many lobes does each lung have
right has 3 left has 2
110
what is the name of the condition in which air or gas is present in the pleural cavity
pneumothorax
111
what is the name of the uppermost portion of the lungs (above level of clavicles)
apex (apices)
112
the ridge located at the bifurcation of the trachea is termed the
carina
113
the space between the right and left lungs is termed the _ and is occupied by what structures
mediastinum; thymus gland, heart and great vessels, trachea, esophagus
114
when performing chest radiography, the diaphragm moves to its lowest position on which phase of respiration
second full inspiration
115
what structures might appear “blunted” on a chest radiograph of a patient with a pleural effusion
costophrenic angle
116
for what diagnosis might an expiration chest image be requested
pneumothorax
117
what is the relationship between the MSP and the IR in the lateral projection of the chest
parallel
118
what is the relationship between the MSP and the IR in a PA projection of the chest
perpendicular
119
when performing lateral decubitus chest to show fluid in the pleural cavity, the affected side should be
down
120
list the five articulations of the thorax
sternoclavicular, sternochondral, costochondral, costovertebral, and costotransverse
121
spaces between the ribs, occupied by two sets of muscles are termed _ spaces
intercostal
122
why is the RAO the recommended oblique in sternum radiography
to project the sternum superimposed on the heart shadow, for uniform density/brightness
123
anterior oblique of the sternoclavicular joints require _ degrees rotation; _ side down
15 degrees; affected
124
which two oblique positions could be used to demonstrate the right posterior ribs
RPO and LAO
125
what two muscles are located on either side of the lumbar vertebrae and can be fairly well visualized on a quality abdominal image
psoas muscles
126
what is the name of the sphincter muscle located at the junction of the terminal ileum and cecum
ileocecal valve
127
what part of what structure lies within the loop of the duodenum
head of the pancreas
128
what is the double walled serous membrane associated with the abdomen
the peritoneum
129
there are seven palpable landmarks that can be used for abdominal positioning. name three
xiphoid process, inferior costal margin, iliac crest, ASIS, greater trochanter, symphysis pubis, ischial tuberosity
130
what kV range is usually recommended for most abdominal imaging
70-80
131
abnormal accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity is termed _; abnormal accumulation of air is termed _
ascites; pneumoperitoneum
132
the condition characterized by telescoping of a portion of bowel into the adjacent portion is termed
intussusception
133
what is another name for Crohn’s disease
regional enteritis
134
the CR should be directed to midline at the level of _ for an AP projection of the abdomen
iliac crest
135
when performing lateral decubitus abdomen to show small amounts of air in the peritoneal cavity, the affected side should be
up
136
when evaluating the abdomen for small amounts of air or fluid, both _ should be visualized
hemidiaphragms
137
list the salivary glands and their associated duct(s)
parotid gland-stensen’s duct (parotid duct)
submandibular gland-whartons duct (submandibular duct)
sublingual ducts-ducts of rivinus (the largest is bartholin’s duct)
138
protrusion of a portion of the upper stomach through the esophageal hiatus of the diaphragm describes
hiatal hernia
139
the the four layers of GI tissue, from inner to outer
mucosa, submucosa, muscular, serosa
140
which layer of stomach tissue forms folds called rugae
mucosa
141
which portion of the small intestine has a “feathery” appearance when filled with barium
jejunum
142
the large right lobe of the liver is separated from the left by the _ ligament
falciform
143
one of the principal functions of the liver is to produce _, which leaves the liver via the right and left _ ducts
bile; hepatic
144
what two ducts unite to form the common bile duct
the cystic duct and common hepatic duct
145
the common bile duct and the pancreatic duct unite to form the short _ duct that opens into the _
hepatopancreatic ampulla of vater; descending duodenum
146
what is the name of the procedure used to examine the biliary and pancreatic ducts by fiber optic means
endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)
147
during ERCP, contrast material is injected into the
common bile duct
148
what is the medical term that describes condition of stones in the gall bladder
cholelithiasis
149
what is sialography
radiographic examination of salivary glands and their ducts
150
which type of membrane lines body cavities that open to the exterior
mucous
151
the greater curvature form the _ aspect aspect of the stomach. what is the name of the distal gastric sphincter
lateral; pyloric
152
twisting of the bowel upon itself, causing obstruction is called
volvulus
153
the length of the small bowel, as measure in the cadaver is approximately _ in length. the length of the large intestine is approximately _
23 ft; 6 ft
(in a living person, the small bowel measures approximately 10 ft; the large bowel approximately 5 ft)
154
what structure is located at the terminus of the small intestine
ileocecal valve
155
list the three parts of the stomach
fundus, body, pylorus
156
what is the first, most proximal portion of the large intestine
cecum
157
the muscular taeniae coli pulls the large intestine into “pouches” called
haustra
158
small saccular protrusions of intestinal mucosa through the intestinal wall are called
diverticula
159
an abnormal growth of tissue projecting from mucous membrane into a lumen is termed
polyp
160
what type of radiographic examination is required to demonstrate colonic polyploid lesions
double contrast barium enema (specifically air contrast)
161
what position demonstrates the esophagus projected between the heart and the vertebrae? what is usually the optimal obliquity
RAO; 35-40 degrees
162
a radiographic examination of the esophagus must be performed in the recumbent position in order to demonstrate what two types of pathology
hiatal hernia and esophageal varices
163
in the AP recumbent position of the stomach barium will be seen in the
fundus
164
what is the best position to demonstrate a barium filled pylorus and duodenum in the sthenic patient? _ to see double contrast of the pylorus and duodenum?
RAO; AP/LPO
165
what position will best demonstrate the retro gastric space
lateral
166
what body type has a high transverse stomach with indistinguishable curvatures
hypersthenic
167
what method of radiologic gastrointestinal examination is used to demonstrate mucosal and other intraluminal lesions
air and barium (double contrast)
168
progressive wavelike movement occurring involuntarily in hollow tubes, especially the alimentary canal, is called
peristalsis
169
the term deglutition refers to
the act of swallowing
170
what does the term aspiration refer to
the act of inhaling fluid or solid foreign body into the bronchi and lungs
171
dilation of the esophageal veins, often seen in acute liver disease, is termed _; the term used to describe difficulty in swallowing is
esophageal varices; dysphagia
172
modified barium swallow examinations are particularly useful for patients who have suffered what incident
stroke and anyone who may have difficulty swallowing
173
small bowel series using GI intubation is termed
enteroclysis
174
what two positions may be used to demonstrate the right colic/hepatic flexure without self superimposition
LPO RAO
175
during double contrast BE what part of the large intestine is likely to be filled with barium in the PA recumbent projection
transverse colon
176
during double contrast BE what projection may be used to demonstrate the posterior wall of the rectum
ventral decubitus, lateral rectum
177
how much and in what direction should the CR be directed for an AP axial projection of the sigmoid colon
30-40 degrees cephalad
178
during double contrast BE what part of the large intestine is likely to be filled with air in the AP recumbent projection
transverse colon
179
during radiographic examination of the large bowel, what projection is used to “open up” the sigmoid colon
AP or PA Axial
180
during double contrast BE what position will best demonstrate the lateral wall of ascending colon and medial wall of the descending colon
left lateral decubitus position
181
the _ kidney is narrower, longer, and in a higher/more superior position in the body than the opposite kidney
left
182
the term nephroptosis means
drooping or downward displaced kidney
183
one functional unit of the kidney is termed
nephrons
184
the term micturition refers to
the act of urinating/voiding
185
what position will demonstrate the left kidney parallel to the IR, as well as the right ureter free of superimposition
RPO
186
radiographic examination of the contrast filled bladder is termed
cystography
187
when examining the contrast filled bladder how much and what direction is the x-ray tube angled in order to project the symphysis pubis inferior to the urinary bladder
10-15 caudad
188
the term cystourethrography refers to radiologic examinations of what structures
urinary bladder and urethra
189
the typical vertebra has what number of processes? name them
seven; two superior articulating processes, one spinous process, two transverse processes
190
the articulation between two vertebral bodies is called the _; is occupied by the _ and is classified as a _ joint
intervertebral articulation/joint; intervertebral disc; amphiarthrodial
191
articulations formed between adjacent superior and inferior articular processes are termed _ and are classified as _ joints
zygopophyseal articulations; diarthroidal joints
192
adjacent vertebral notches form the
intervertebral foramina
193
the vertebral body connects with its vertebral arch by way of the _; the upper and lower portions of this structure are called the _
pedicles; vertebral notches
194
vertebral laminae unite posteriorly to form the
spinous process
195
thoracic vertebrae are unique in that they provide rib articulation at the vertebra’s _ and _
body; transverse processes
196
what is the medical term for slipped disc
herniated nucleus pulposus
197
name the two parts, outer and inner, of the intervertebral discs
annulus fibrosus (outer portion) and nucleus pulposus (inner)
198
what is the unique characteristic of cervical spinous processes; of cervical transverse processes
spinous processes are bifid; transverse processes each have a transverse foramen
199
a vertebral foramen is bounded anteriorly by the _ and posteriorly by the _
vertebral body; vertebral arch
200
the cervical zygapophyseal articulations are _ degrees to the MSP
90
201
what bony structure articulates with the posterior aspect of the anterior arch of C1
the odontoid process/dens
202
with what structures do the superior articular facets of the atlas / C1 articulate? what is the name of the articulation
occipital condyles; occipitoatlantal articulation
203
with what two thoracic vertebra structures do the ribs articulate
body and transverse processes
204
the thoracic intervertebral foramina are _ to the MSP
90 degrees
205
the thoracic zygapophyseal articulations are _ to the MSP and _ to the MCP
15-20 degrees; 70-75 degrees
206
which cervical vertebra has no body and no spinous process; which has an extra long spinous process
C1; C7
207
which positions will demonstrate cervical intervertebral foramina closest to the image receptor
RAO and LAO
208
which position will demonstrate cervical zygapophyseal joints to best advantage
lateral
209
which positions are recommended to demonstrate degree of cervical anterior/posterior movement
lateral flexion and extension
210
what type of vertebral fracture is commonly associated with osteoporosis
compression
211
abnormal or exaggerated lateral curvature of the spine is termed
scoliosis
212
abnormal or exaggerated convex curvature of the spine is termed
kyphosis
213
inflammation of one or more vertebra is termed
spondylosis
214
if the base of the skull and odontoid process are superimposed in the open mouth projection, how should positioning be adjusted
the chin should be depressed/more flexion is needed
215
if the teeth were obscuring the odontoid process in the open mouth projection, how should skull positioning be adjusted
more extension/ chin moved up
216
forward displacement of one vertebra upon the one beneath it is termed
spondylolisthesis
217
a patient arriving in emergency x-ray has a cervical collar in place; what two images should be taken initially
horizontal cross table lateral and AP
218
anterior oblique positions of the thoracic vertebra require that the MSP _ degrees to the IR and the MCP be _ degrees to the IR
20; 70
219
RAO and LAO positions of the thoracic spine are performed to demonstrate the zygapophyseal articulations that are _ to the IR
closer
220
how can the interspace between L5-S1 be better visualized
angle the x-ray tube 30-35 cephalad
221
which positions will demonstrate lumbar zygapophyseal articulations closest to the image receptor
RPO, LPO
222
which position will demonstrate lumbar intervertebral foramina
lateral
223
the portion of each lumbar laminate lying between the superior and inferior articular processes is called the
pars interarticularis
224
the correctly positioned oblique lumbar spine shows the “scotty dog” appearance. what bony part does each of the following “scottie dog” parts represent: leg, ear, eye, nose, neck
inferior articular process, superior articular process, pedicle, transverse processes, pars interarticularis
225
why should a scoliosis series be performed in the PA rather than AP projection
to reduce dose to radiosensitive organs
226
what positions are generally used to demonstrate/evaluate spinal fusion
lateral flexion extension
227
AP axial projection of the sacrum requires tube angulation in what direction and how many degrees
15 cephalad
228
AP axial projection of the coccyx requires tube angulation in what direction and how many degrees
10 caudal
229
the LPO and RPO positions of the sacroiliac joints require which side to be elevated and how many degrees
unaffected side should be elevated 25-30 degrees
230
where should the CR be directed for the LPO and RPO positions of the sacroiliac joints
1 inch medial to elevated ASIS
231
each innominate bone is made of three bones:
ilium, ischium, pubis
232
what portion of what bone extends from the ASIS to the PSIS
iliac crest
233
the posterior portion of the acetabulum is formed by the
ischium
234
the bones of the pelvis unite to form a socket for the femoral head called the
acetabulum
235
what are some characteristics of the male pelvis
narrow pelvic inlet, pubic angle less than 90 degrees
236
the superior and inferior rami of the ilium and ischium unite to form the
obturator foramen
237
whenever possible, what maneuver is performed to place the femoral neck parallel to the air for the AP projection of the hip
legs internally rotated 15-20 degrees
238
the RPO position for the acetabulum requires what degree of obliquity
45 degrees
239
to demonstrate rhe rami of the pubis and ischium in the AP axial outlet projection, the CR should be directed _ degrees, in what direction
30-45 degrees for females and 20-35 degrees for males; caudal
240
when the body is in the seated upright position, the body’s weight rests on what pelvic structures
ischial tuberosities
241
the centering point “2.5 inches distal and perpendicular to the midpoint of a line between the ASIS and pubic symphysis” identifies correct centering for _ projection of the _
AP; hip
242
what must be parallel to each other when performing an axiolateral projection of the hip
-femoral neck
-IR
-CR
femoral neck, IR
243
mediolateral frog-leg projection of the hip require the femur to be _ 40-45 degrees
abducted
244
when performing an axiolateral projection of the hip, the CR must be perpendicular to the _ and _
IR and femoral neck
245
the greater trochanters are in the same horizontal plane as what pelvic structure
pubic symphysis
registry review
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