Serological Testing Flashcards

(66 cards)

1
Q

a ___ dye molecule is attached by ___ bonds to an ___ at the ___ region. Cross reactivity means a tagged ___ can bind to more than one ___

A

fluorescent, covalent, antibody, Fc, antibody, antigen

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2
Q

In ouchterlony, a known ___ is loaded in a well in agarose between two or more unknown ___. The reaction can help the investigator determine the identity of the ___

A

antibody, antigens, antigens

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3
Q

match the patterns of antibody-antigen reactions seen with ouchterlony

A

pattern of identity A - antibody reacts with both antigens, cannot distinguish differences immunologically

pattern of identity B - antibody reacts more with one antigen than the other

pattern of non-identity C - no reaction between antibody and antigens

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4
Q

What is the ELISA test intended to measure

A

antibody to HIV only

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5
Q

What would happen if serum were omitted from the ELISA, but all other steps remained the same and were performed properly

A

anti-human Ig-conjugate wouldn’t bind and would be washed away and the O.D. values would be nearly the same as the assay control (both a and c)

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6
Q

What would happen if the anti-human Ig-conjugate were not washed free of the well before the substrate was added

A

all well would show uniform over development due to unbound and excess anti-human-Ig enzyme conjugate

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7
Q

In general, a second antibody or “conjugate”

A

binds primary antibody

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8
Q

Western Blot Testing: In strip 1, the combining sites of primary antibodies are bound to

A

HIV antigens

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9
Q

What does the Western Blot Activity test measure

A

antibody to HIV only

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10
Q

Which patient(s) is/are HIV positive by Western Blot

A

Patient C is positive

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11
Q

Which of the following has an epitope

A

an antigen

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12
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis is

A

a bacterium that reproduces inside its host cell

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13
Q

The infectious form of Chlamydia that is spread from person to person is the

A

elementary body that stains green in this activity

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14
Q

The goal of the direct fluorescent antibody test is to test for the presence of

A

antigen

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15
Q

In the serology test just performed, the fluorescence is found on the

A

antibody

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16
Q

How is chlamydia disease transmission prevented

A

abstinence or faithful, mutual monogamy

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17
Q

For home pregnancy tests

A

the antigen is human chorionic gonadotropin

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18
Q

Which of the following is true of the indirect ELISA

A

A positive patient sample contains antibodies specific to the antigen
of interest

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19
Q

What does the antigen bind to on the antibody

A

the variable region

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20
Q

Which of the following is true of the direct ELISA

A

The positive patient sample contains the specific antigen

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21
Q

Antibodies are made of

A

proteins

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22
Q

How would you describe the binding site of the secondary antibody

A

the constant region of primary antibody

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23
Q

A positive result for HIV in the indirect ELISA performed contains

A

antibodies against HIV

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24
Q

Which patient needs to be retested

A

IND

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25
When two antigens are identical their precipitin lines form
an arc
26
Antigen and antibody move toward each other because of
diffusion
27
If two antigens form a spur, they
have partial identity
28
The Ouchterlony test relies on the formation of a(n)
precipitate
29
There is a spur between wells 2 and 5 and between wells 3 and 4 because the
antigens have partial identity
30
What is the unknown antigen in well 5 (recall that well 2 contains bovine serum albumin and well 4 contains human serum albumin)
human serum albumin
31
Which of the following best describes this test
Antibodies are used to detect the presence of antigens
32
The antigen-antibody precipitate forms where the ratio of antigen and antibody is
optimum
33
Within a class of antibodies, the _______
constant region has the same sequence of amino acids
34
The fluid portion of the blood with the clotting factors removed is called _______
serum
35
Antibodies are produced by _______
plasma cells
36
In this technique the ___ is found in the patient sample and as a result is considered ___ test
antigen, a direct
37
The form of Chlamydia that divides inside the host cell is the _______
reticulate body
38
an ___ is entire foreign "particle", which has multiple ___. The ___ binds to the antigenic determinant or ___
antigen, epitopes, antibody, epitope
39
The direct fluorescent antibody test for Chlamydia uses fluorescently labeled _______
antibody to detect antigen in the patient sample
40
A positive result with the negative control would _______
be a "false positive" and invalidate the results (both a and c)
41
The washing steps are necessary to _______
reduce any nonspecific binding that may occur
42
Move each description to the appropriate category: antigens have identity
identical antigens, precipitin lines diffuse into each other to completely fuse and form an arc
43
Move each description to the appropriate category: antigens have non-identity
antigens that are unrelated, precipitin lines intersect to form two spurs that resemble an X
44
Move each description to the appropriate category: antigens have partial identity
antigens that are similar, a spur pointing toward the more similar antigen well forms in addition to the arc
45
Which of the following describes the identity seen between human serum albumin and bovine serum albumin
partial identity
46
In the Ouchterlony technique, a precipitin line forms where _______
the ratio of antigen and antibodies is optimal
47
When two antigens have NO epitopes in common, their precipitin lines form _______
an X
48
Direct ELISA tests directly for ___ whereas indirect ELISA tests for the ___ formed as a result of exposure to ___
antigens, presence of antibodies, antigens
49
In both the direct and indirect ELISA, the substance that changes from colorless to colored in a positive result is the _______
substrate
50
In this activity the ___ antibody binds to ___ of the ___ antibody, so that it can detect the presence of a ___ in the patient's sample
find answer
51
It is possible for a patient to test negative for HIV using the indirect ELISA test and positive at a later date
true
52
Why might a patient infected with HIV initially test negative with the indirect ELISA
The patient has not yet undergone seroconversion
53
Possible reasons for an indeterminate ELISA test include _______
the presence of only small amounts of HIV antibody in the patient sample, failure of the washing steps to remove nonspecific binding of antibody and antigen, and recent HIV infection of the patient (all of these)
54
In the indirect ELISA, _______
the enzyme tagged-secondary antibody binds to the constant region of the primary antibody
55
Match the HIV antigen (measured in the Western Blot) abbreviation with its description; gjp 160
-Glycoprotein 160, a viral envelope precursor
56
Match the HIV antigen (measured in the Western Blot) abbreviation with its description; gp 120
-Glycoprotein 120, a viral envelope protein that binds to CD4
57
Match the HIV antigen (measured in the Western Blot) abbreviation with its description; p 55
-A precursor to the viral core protein p24
58
Match the HIV antigen (measured in the Western Blot) abbreviation with its description; gp 41
-A final envelope glycoprotein
59
Match the HIV antigen (measured in the Western Blot) abbreviation with its description; p 31
-Reverse transcriptase
60
Match the HIV antigen (measured in the Western Blot) abbreviation with its description; p 24
-A viral core protein
61
Western blotting _______
find answer
62
In the Western Blot, after the proteins are separated by electrophoresis, the _______
nitrocellulose membrane is treated with antibodies
63
What is the source of the primary antibodies in this test
patient's serum
64
What does the secondary antibody bind to in this test
constant region of the primary antibody
65
Which of the following is true
The ELISA is easier to perform than the Western blot and the ELISA is less expensive than the Western blot (both c and d)
66
What result(s) would you expect if you had forgotten to add the developing buffer while doing the Western Blot
a "false negative" for the positive control and all of the patients samples would read negative (both b and c)