1
Q
functions of skeletal system
A
protect internal organs, stores and releases fat, produces RBC/s, stores and releases minerals, facilitates movement, supports the body
2
Q
what type of bone is the femur
A
long bone
3
Q
spongy bone is composed of
A
WBC’s, RBC’s, and stem cells
4
Q
what is the outer coat of bone
A
periosteum
5
Q
space in the middle of the bone, RBC production, store and release fat
A
medullary cavity
6
Q
Red marrow (RBC’s) is more present in ..
A
growing bones; infant to 10 year olds
7
Q
Yellow marrow (adipocytes) is more present in..
A
puberty to adulthood
8
Q
what is the central canal
A
the space in the middle of an osteon
9
Q
true or false; spongy bone is in the medullary cavity
A
true
10
Q
true or false; compact bone surrounds spongy bone
A
true
11
Q
functional unit of compact bone, circular and give strength as they go down through the bone, calcified
A
osteon
12
Q
space that osteocytes sit in
A
lacunae
13
Q
connections branching out from lacunae
A
canaliculi
14
Q
mature bone cell; arise from osteoblasts
A
osteocyte
15
Q
differentiate into osteocytes when they become completely encircled by the matrix, “build” bone
A
osteoblast
16
Q
“chew” on bone, degrade matrix, secretes enzymes which remodel ECM, releases calcium when the body needs it; breakdown matrix
A
osteoclast
17
Q
stem cell that can differentiate into all cell types
A
osteogenic precursor
18
Q
area in spongy bone that makes space for red marrow to produce RBC’s
A
trabeculae
19
Q
what is the mineral component of bone that is inorganic and gets built
A
hyroxyapatite
20
Q
the __ matrix of bones is made by cells
A
organic
21
Q
epiphyseal plate eventually becomes the __ __
A
epipheseal line
22
Q
bone widening
A
appositional
23
Q
bone lengthening; mostly starts with cartilage that is constantly replaced with osteoblasts
A
interstitial
24
Q
long part of the bone
A
diaphysis
25
neck of the bone
metaphysis
26
what is the development of long bones
endochondral ossificatoin
27
top part of the bone
epiphysis
28
what is the development of flat bones
intramembraneous ossification
29
what is the first step in fracture repair
repair periosteum
30
what is the second step in fracture repair
chondrocytes fill in cartilage
31
what is the third step in fracture repair
chondrocytes recruit osteoblasts
32
what is the fourth step in fracture repair
make matrix callus
33
what is the fifth step in fracture repair
Osteoclasts remodel so callus goes away
34
changing levels of absorption in digestive system cannot impact blood Ca2+ levels; true or false
false
35
osteoclasts chew; release Ca2+ in blood; true or false
true
36
osteoblasts build; trap Ca2+ in bone and remove from blood
true
37
blood Ca2+ levels impact __ by balancing calcium reabsorption or excretion
kidneys
38
low blood calcium levels will tigger a release of __
PTH
39
high blood calcuim levels will trigger a release of __
calcitronin
40
how does PTH release Ca2+ in bones
acts on osteoblasts, which have receptors for PTH, osteoblasts activate osteoclasts (paracrine), osteoclasts chew
41
how does PTH impact digestive tract
enhances Ca2+ absorption
42
How does PTH impact kidneys
increases calcitrol, causes reabsorption of blood Ca2+; more calcuim is kept and retured to blood, less excreted in urine
43
how does calcitonin trap Ca2+ in bones
inhibits osteoclasts, osteoblasts build
44
how does calcitonin decrease calcuim in food ate
decreases absorption in digestive tract
45
how does calcitonin decrease calcuim levels through use of the kidneys
decreaces calcitrol which inhibits reabsorption in kidneys, more Ca2+ is excreted in urine
46
cartilage that has many chondrocytes; external ear, epiglottis, auditory tube, larynx
elastic
47
cartilage that has grouped chondrocytes; between tips of ribs and bones of sternum, bone surfaces at synovial joints, supports larynx, trachea, bronchi, nasal septum
hyaline
48
cartilage that has minimal chondrocytes; pads within knee joint, between pubic bones of pelvis, intervertebral discs
fibrous
49
classification of bones of the cranuim
flat
50
classification of bones in suture joints, space between cranial bones, can vary based on person
sutural
51
classification of facial and vertebra bones
irregular
52
classification of humorous, femur, phalanges, etc.
long
53
classification of patella
sesamoid
54
classification of carpals and tarsals
short
55
head of bone; mainly spongy bone
epiphysis
56
neck of bone
metaphysis
57
joint with no movement
synarthrosis
58
joint with little movement
amphiarthrosis
59
joint with free movement
diarthrosis
60
synarthrosis joint with fibrous dense connective tissue; used between sutural bones
suture joints
61
synarthrosis joint with fibrous dense connective tissue; used between teeth
gomphosis
62
synarthrosis joint with cartilageous fibrocartilage; conntects ribs to sternum
synarthrosis
63
amphiorthrosis joint with fibrous dense conntective tissue; found connecting parallel bones with strong ligaments of tissue
syndesmosis
63
synarthrosis joint where bones have fused, such as in the skull
synostosis
64
amphiorthrosis joint with cartilageous fibrocartilage and is found between the two pubic bones
symphysis
65
diarthrosis joint which has 6 sub types; foung in limbs and spine
synovial
66
hyaline cartilage, capsule, and synovial membrane are all ..
synovial joint components
67
what does a synovial membrane do
produce synovial fluid for lubrication, nutrient distribution, and shock absorption
68
regular dense connective tissue that connect muscle to bone
tendons
69
muscles pull on bones through the use of __ and __ help
tendons, ligaments
70
regular dense connective tissue that connects bone to bone
ligament
71
fluid filled sac on knee that helps with shock absorption, and has synovial fluid
bursa
72
pads made of adipose tissue used for shock absorption
fat pads
73
patellar and cruciate are both types of ligaments or joints
ligaments
74
joint that allows for smooth sliding movement; acromioclavicular and sternoclavicular joints, intercarpal and intertarsal joints, vertebrocostal joints, sacro-iliac joints
plane joint
75
joint that allows for rotational movement around a single axis; Atlano-axial joint, proximal radio-ulnar joinits
pivot joint
76
joint that permits flexion, extention, adduction, and abduction, but not rotation, (forward and backward); radiocarpal joints, metacarpophalaneal joints
condylar joint
77
joint that is the most movable in the human body, can move in two axes; first carpometacarpal: pollex
saddle joint
78
joint that can move 360 degrees; found in shoulder and hips
ball and socket joint
79
joint that can move in one plane; 180 to 90 degrees; elbow joints, knee joints, ankle joints, interphalengeal joints
hinge joint
80
moving the leg forward at the hip (same with head)
flexion
81
moving the leg backward at the hip (same with head)
hyperextention
82
leg is in anatomical posistion (same with head)
extension
83
moving the arm upwards from the elbow
flexion
84
arm is in anatomical position
extension
85
pointing foot upward at ankle
dorsiflextion
86
pointing foot downward at ankle
plantar flexion
87
lifting arm medially at the shoulder (same with leg)
abduction
88
lowering arm laterally at the shoulder (same with leg)
adduction
89
spreading fingers medially
abduction
90
closing fingers laterally
adduction
91
moving head side to side
rotation
92
hand in anatomical position from elbow rotation
lateral external rotation
93
hand facing prone frome elbow rotation
medial internal rotation
94
hand is "face up" (external rotation)
supination
95
hand is "face down" (internal rotation)
pronation
96
touching pollex to pinky
opposition
97
hand in anatomical position, not touching pollex to pinky
reposition
98
putting the medial part of the foot in the air but not the lateral part
inversion
99
putting the lateral part of the foot in the air but not the medial part
eversion
100
olfactory foramina in cribriform plate are in __ bone
ethmoid
101
optic canals and foramen ovale are in __ bone
sphenoid
102
carotid canal, stylomastoid foramen, and internal acoustic meatus are in __ bone
temporal
103
jugular foramen, hypoglossal canal, and foramen magnum are in __ bone
occipital
104
foramen which house nerves that control facial expressions
supraorbital and infraorbital foramen
105
holes through single bones
foramen
106
spaces between bones
fissures
107
the cervical curve has __ vertebrae
7
108
the thoracic curve has __ vertebrae
12
109
the lumbar curve has __ vertebrae
5
110
the sacral curve contains the __ and __
sacrum, coccyx
111
the sacral is __ fused vertebrae
5
112
the coccygeal is __ fused vertebrae
4
113
the spinal chord runs through the
canal
114
the __ help form joints in vertebrae
articular processes
115
what allow spinal nerves to run through and communicate with spinal chord
intervertebral foramena
116
which vertebra holds up the brain
C1- atlas
117
which vertebra has features that allow it to be the axis for atlas to pivot on
C2- axis
118
features on C1 and C2 vertebra that allow cranial nerves to run to the brain and brain stem
transverse foramen
119
area on thoracic vertebra whre ribs interact - 2 types: transverse and superior
costal facets
120
attatches the axial skeleton to the pelvic girdle
sacrum
121
how many total ribs in the body
12
122
how many true ribs; directly connect to the sternum
7 (1-7)
123
how many false ribs; indirectly connect to sternum
3 (8-10)
124
how many floating ribs; not connected to sternum
2 (11-12)
125
membrane that runs between parallel bones; made of dense connective tissue, helps provide stability for pivot joint
interosseous membrane
126
notch on posterior end of ulna; fits into olecranon fossa for "hinge"
trochear notch
127
what is the point of bony projections
site for muscle attatchment
128
the acetablum is composed of __ cartilage
hyaline
129
site on tibia with ligament attatchment, attatches patella between femur and tibia
tibial tuberosity
130
what does ACL stand for
anterior cruciate ligament
131
what does PCL stand for
posterior cruciate ligament
132
what does LCL stand for
lateral collateral ligament
133
what does MCL stand for
medial collateral ligament
134
ischium, radius, and tibia all have which type of bone marking
tuberosity
135
humerus and femur both have which type of bone marking
tubercle
136
the femur has which kind of bone marking specific to it
trochanter
137
round articular surface
condyle
138
large rough projection
trochanter
139
round projection
tubercle
140
groove
sulcus
141
small rough projection
tuberosity
142
flat articular surface
facet
143
grooved articular surface
trochlea
144
facet and trochlea are both
condyles
145
trochanter, tubercle, sulcus, and tuberosity are all for connecting
tendons, ligaments
Anatomy
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