1
Q
What are included in macroscopic examination? a. Consistency b. Color c. Gross abnormalities d. All of the above
A
d
2
Q
What are included in microscopic examination? a. Direct wet preparations b. Concentration techniques c. Permanently stained smears d. All of the above
A
d
3
Q
Which is included under permanently stained smears? a. Wheatley’s trichrome stain b. Iron hematoxylin stain c. Modified acid fast stain d. All of the above
A
d
4
Q
Modified acid fast stain is for which organisms? a. Cryptosporidium b. Isospora c. Cyclospora d. All of the above
A
d
5
Q
Which white blood cells may be found in stool specimens? a. Polymorphonuclears (PMNs) b. Eosinophils c. Both a and b d. Basophils
A
c
6
Q
Which element is usually present in both bacterial and parasitic infections and can be mistaken for amebic trophozoites? a. Red blood cells b. Macrophages c. Epithelial cells d. Charcot Leyden crystals
A
b
7
Q
Which element may be found in stool specimens? a. Charcot Leyden crystals b. Epithelial cells c. Fungal spores d. All of the above
A
d
8
Q
Which may resemble some parasites and are elements of plant origin? a. Plant cells/fibers b. Pollen grains c. Vegetable spirals d. Starch granules
A
a
9
Q
Which are elements of plant origin which resemble some parasites include? a. Plant cells/fibers b. Pollen grains c. Vegetable spirals d. All of the above
A
d
10
Q
Plant and animal hairs may look like what? a. Helminth larvae b. Protozoan cysts c. Trematode eggs d. Coccidian oocysts
A
a
11
Q
What is used to measure objects observed microscopically accurately? a. Stage micrometer b. Ocular micrometer c. Caliper d. Hemocytometer
A
b
12
Q
What is an ocular micrometer? a. A stain for protozoa b. A disk inserted into the eyepiece of the microscope c. A solvent with high specific gravity d. A clearing solution
A
b
13
Q
Diagnostic stages of parasites detected microscopically are measured in what? a. Millimeters b. Centimeters c. Microns d. Inches
A
c
14
Q
What is necessary for an ocular micrometer? a. Fixation b. Calibration c. Incubation d. Centrifugation
A
b
15
Q
What is the most common technique? a. Coproculture b. Direct wet preparation c. Kato-katz method d. Stoll egg count
A
b
16
Q
What are the 2 reagents used in direct wet preparation? a. Saline mount and iodine mount b. Ether and HCl c. ZnSO4 and phenol d. NaCl and NaOH
A
a
17
Q
Saline mount equals what? a. 0.1N NaOH b. 40% HCl c. 0.85% NSS d. 33% ZnSO4
A
c
18
Q
Iodine mount is for what? a. Protozoan cysts (not trophozoites) b. Trophozoites only c. Helminth larvae only d. Schistosoma eggs only
A
a
19
Q
Direct wet preparation is also known as what? a. Flotation b. Sedimentation c. Direct wet mount d. Permanent stain
A
c
20
Q
In direct wet mount what is mixed on the slide? a. Fixed stool with trichrome b. Unfixed stool with saline or iodine c. Stool with ether d. Stool with ZnSO4
A
b
21
Q
Under the microscope direct wet mount detects what? a. Motile protozoan trophozoites b. Only protozoan cysts c. Only helminth eggs d. Only coccidian oocysts
A
a
22
Q
What saline solution is the reagent of choice? a. 0.5% saline solution b. 0.8% saline solution c. 0.85% saline solution d. 1.0% saline solution
A
b
23
Q
What slide size is suggested for direct wet mount? a. 2x2 inch b. 3x2 inch c. 4x3 inch d. 1x3 inch
A
b
24
Q
What cover slip is utilized in direct wet mount? a. 18x18 mm b. 20x20 mm c. 22x22 mm square d. 24x24 mm
A
c
25
What stains the nucleus in trophozoites to demonstrate nuclear morphology? a. Lugol’s iodine b. Nair's buffered methylene blue solution c. Carbol fuchsin d. Malachite green
b
26
Direct wet iodine preparation is made to enhance detail of what? a. Protozoan cysts b. Protozoan trophozoites c. Helminth larvae d. Microsporidia spores
a
27
What iodine formulas are used in direct wet iodine preparation? a. Lugol's or D'Antoni's formula b. Wright’s or Giemsa c. Phenol or ether d. ZnSO4 or NaCl
a
28
Iodine destroys what stage of protozoa? a. Cyst stage b. Trophozoite stage c. Egg stage d. Larval stage
b
29
Why does iodine destroy trophozoites? a. Iodine is toxic to trophozoites b. Iodine fixes eggs c. Iodine clears debris d. Iodine increases specific gravity
a
30
In iodine preparation cytoplasm stains what color? a. Deep brown b. Pale green c. Golden yellow d. Burgundy red
c
31
In iodine preparation nucleus is what? a. Deep brown b. Pale and refractile c. Golden yellow d. Bright red
b
32
In iodine preparation glycogen is what color? a. Deep brown b. Pale green c. Golden yellow d. Colorless
a
33
Kato thick smear uses how much stool? a. 2 g b. 10 g c. 50 to 60 mg d. 0.075 mL
c
34
50 to 60 mg of stool is approximately the size of what? a. Two mongo beans b. One walnut c. One pea d. One thumb
a
35
Kato thick smear is covered with what? a. Filter paper strip b. Cut cellophane paper soaked in glycerine and malachite green solution c. Gauze soaked in ether d. Cover slip dome meniscus
b
36
What is the clearing solution in Kato thick smear? a. Ether b. Phenol c. Glycerine d. NaOH
c
37
What is malachite green used for in Kato thick smear? a. Clearing solution b. Give a pale green background and minimize brightness c. Preserve bacterial multiplication d. Destroy trophozoites
b
38
What can be used if malachite green is not available? a. Green cellophane b. Lugol’s iodine c. ZnSO4 solution d. 0.1N NaOH
a
39
What is the clearing time for Kato thick smear? a. 1-5 minutes b. 10-20 minutes c. 30-60 minutes d. Overnight
b
40
Kato thick smear is useful for detecting eggs with what type of shells? a. Thin shells b. Thick shells c. Operculated shells d. No shells
b
41
Kato thick smear is useful in detecting eggs such as? a. Hookworms b. Ascaris and Trichuris c. Cryptosporidium d. Giardia
b
42
If Kato thick smear preparation is too long before examination what happens to hookworm eggs? a. Become badly shrunken b. Become too transparent or distorted c. Float to the surface d. Develop into larva
b
43
Kato thick smear is not for what? a. Protozoan cysts and trophozoites b. Helminth eggs c. Thick shelled eggs d. Trematode eggs
a
44
Concentration methods provide the ability to detect what? a. Small numbers of parasites b. Only bacteria c. Only fungi d. Only WBC
a
45
Concentration methods do what to parasites present? a. Destroy them b. Aggregates the parasites present into a small volume of sample c. Fix them permanently d. Culture them
b
46
Concentration methods can be performed on what specimens? a. Fresh stool specimens only b. Preserved stool specimens only c. Fresh or preserved stool specimens d. Blood specimens
c
47
What does not usually survive concentration methods? a. Cysts b. Eggs c. Trophozoites d. Oocysts
c
48
Concentration uses what to separate parasites from fecal debris? a. Differences in specific gravity and centrifugation b. Heat and pressure c. Antigen-antibody reaction d. pH titration
a
49
What are the types of concentration methods? a. Fixation and staining b. Sedimentation and flotation c. Culture and screening d. Wet mount and permanent stain
b
50
In sedimentation parasites are concentrated where? a. Surface b. Sediment of the tube c. Dome-shaped meniscus d. Cellophane paper
b
51
Flotation uses what type of solvent? a. Low specific gravity b. High specific gravity c. Acidic solvent d. Alkaline solvent
b
52
In flotation parasites float because they are what relative to solution? a. More dense b. Less dense c. Same density d. Insoluble
b
53
In flotation how is the sample collected? a. Sediment examined directly b. Coverslip placed on top of tube on dome-shaped meniscus c. Gauze wrapped stool centrifuged d. Filter paper strip downward movement
b
54
Sedimentation methods are best for eggs of what? a. Giardia b. Schistosoma c. Cryptosporidium d. Cyclospora
b
55
Sedimentation methods are best for eggs of which group? a. Trematodes b. Microsporidia c. Coccidia d. Amoeba
a
56
Sedimentation methods are best for eggs of which group? a. Cestodes b. Bacteria c. Fungi d. Viruses
a
57
Sedimentation methods are best for eggs of which parasite? a. T. trichiura b. Hookworm c. Clonorchis d. Giardia
a
58
Sedimentation methods are best for eggs of which parasite? a. C. philippinensis b. Isospora c. Cryptosporidium d. Cyclospora
a
59
Formalin-ethyl acetate sedimentation is what type of technique? a. Flotation b. Sedimentation c. Coproculture d. Screening
b
60
Formalin-ethyl acetate sedimentation is most widely used as what? a. Sedimentation technique b. Egg counting procedure c. Permanent stain d. Stool screening method
a
61
In formalin-ethyl acetate sedimentation what is added to a saline-washed formalin-fixed sample? a. ZnSO4 b. Ethyl acetate c. Phenol d. NaOH
b
62
A disadvantage of formalin-ethyl acetate sedimentation is what? a. Yields cleaner preparation b. Requires more fecal debris than flotation c. Distorts protozoan cysts d. Not based on specific gravity
b
63
AECT is recommended for recovery of what? a. Cryptosporidium oocysts b. Trichuris
Capillaria
64
AECT is choice if stool material comes from what animals? a. Birds b. Cats and dogs c. Cattle d. Fish
b
65
Ether dissolves what? a. Proteins b. Fats and CHO c. Glycogen only d. Nuclei
b
66
What are the reagents in AECT? a. 0.85% NSS and iodine b. 40% HCI and ether c. Phenol and sugar solution d. 10% formalin and ZnSO4
b
67
A disadvantage of AECT is what? a. Better preserved morphology b. Loss of parasites to the plug of debris c. No centrifugation needed d. Best for coccidian oocysts
b
68
A disadvantage of AECT includes possible destruction of what? a. Helminth eggs b. Protozoan cysts c. Trophozoites in watery stool d. Schistosoma ova
b
69
In FECT formalin does what? a. Destroys eggs b. Preserves the eggs c. Dissolves fats d. Stains cytoplasm golden yellow
b
70
FECT is useful for recovery of what? a. Both helminth eggs and protozoan cysts b. Only trophozoites c. Only coccidian oocysts d. Only microsporidia spores
a
71
FECT makes use of what formalin concentration? a. 5% b. 8% c. 10% d. 12%
c
72
FECT can be done with what stools? a. Fresh only b. Formalin-preserved and PVA-preserved stools c. SAF only d. MIF only
b
73
More parasites can be recovered from what samples in FECT? a. PVA-preserved b. Formalin-preserved c. SAF-preserved d. MIF-preserved
b
74
Parasite morphology is better preserved in what than PVA for recovery of eggs and cysts? a. Formalin b. Ether c. Brine d. Phenol
a
75
Zinc sulfate centrifugal flotation main reagent is what? a. 0.1N NaOH b. 33% ZnSO4 solution c. Saturated NaCl solution d. 10% formalin
b
76
33% ZnSO4 solution has a specific gravity of what? a. 0.85 to 1.00 b. 1.18 to 1.20 c. 1.30 to 1.40 d. 1.05 to 1.10
b
77
ZnSO4 flotation is for what? a. Schistosomal and operculated eggs b. Protozoan cysts
nematode eggs except T. trichiura and C. philippinensis c. Thick shelled eggs only d. Protozoan trophozoites
78
ZnSO4 flotation is NOT for what? a. Protozoan cysts b. Nematode eggs except T. trichiura c. Schistosomal and operculated eggs d. Cysts of Giardia
c
79
High specific gravity exposure may cause what? a. Development of larvae b. Distortion and shrinkage of protozoan cysts and thin-walled nematode eggs c. Better nuclear detail d. More fecal debris retention
b
80
Advantage of ZnSO4 flotation is what? a. Requires more fecal debris b. More fecal debris is removed and yields a cleaner preparation c. No solution needed d. Best for trematodes
b
81
Disadvantage of ZnSO4 flotation is what? a. Some helminth eggs are very dense and will not float b. Hookworm eggs become distorted due to clearing time c. Protozoa are not clear d. Requires albumin adhesive
a
82
Sheather’s sugar flotation is BEST for recovery of what? a. Helminth larvae b. Coccidian oocysts mainly Cryptosporidium
Cyclospora
83
Sheather’s sugar flotation uses what solution? a. Boiled sugar solution preserved with phenol b. Saturated NaCl solution c. 33% ZnSO4 solution d. 10% formalin
a
84
In Sheather’s sugar flotation phenol acts as what? a. Clearing solution b. Preservative preventing bacterial multiplication c. Staining component d. Solvent with high specific gravity
b
85
In Sheather’s sugar flotation visualization of oocysts is better performed using what? a. Oil immersion b. Phase microscope c. Fluorescence microscope d. Dark field only
b
86
Brine flotation uses what? a. Saturated table salt (NaCl) solution b. 33% ZnSO4 solution c. Boiled sugar solution d. 0.8% saline
a
87
In brine flotation stool is directly mixed with what? a. Ether b. Brine solution c. NaOH d. Phenol
b
88
Brine flotation centrifugation is what? a. Required b. Not needed c. Required only for cysts d. Required only for oocysts
b
89
Brine flotation disadvantage is what? a. Eggs do not float b. Helminth eggs become badly shrunken c. Too much fecal debris d. Destroys protozoan cysts only
b
90
Brine flotation is not useful for what eggs? a. Ascaris b. Trichuris c. Operculated eggs like Clonorchis and heterophyids d. Enterobius
c
91
Permanent stains are the final procedure in what examination? a. Urinalysis b. O&P examination c. Blood culture d. Gram stain
b
92
Permanent stains are designed to confirm presence of what? a. WBC and RBC b. Protozoan cysts and/or trophozoites c. Bacteria only d. Helminth larvae only
b
93
Permanent stains allow observation of detailed features of protozoa by staining what? a. Cell wall b. Intracellular organelles c. Flagella only d. Egg shell
b
94
Permanent stained slides are reviewed under what? a. 10× b. 40× c. 100× oil immersion d. 4×
c
95
How many fields are reviewed before slide considered negative? a. 50 b. 100 c. 200 d. 300
d
96
Two common stains for routine O and P testing include what? a. Trichrome and iron hematoxylin b. Modified acid-fast and ZnSO4 c. Gram and Wright d. Lugol’s and D’Antoni’s
a
97
Wheatley trichrome is what? a. Most widely used permanent stain b. Egg counting method c. Screening kit d. Flotation technique
a
98
Wheatley trichrome uses reagents with what characteristic? a. Short shelf life b. Relatively long shelf life c. Must be refrigerated d. Toxic mercury base
b
99
Wheatley trichrome procedure is what? a. Very difficult b. Easy to perform c. Requires phase microscope d. Requires live trophozoites
b
100
Wheatley trichrome provides what? a. Distinct color differences among the cytoplasmic and nuclear structures b. Clears fats and CHO c. Detects antigen-antibody complex d. Measures microns
a
101
Iron hematoxylin is what? a. Quick b. Time-consuming c. Not permanent d. Only for helminths
b
102
Iron hematoxylin provides what? a. Unsatisfactory results b. Excellent morphology of intestinal protozoa c. Destroys cysts d. Shrinks eggs
b
103
Nuclear detail in iron hematoxylin compared to trichrome is what? a. Less clear b. Same c. Clearer and sharper d. Not stained
c
104
Specialized stains do not detect what? a. RBC b. WBC c. Oocysts of the coccidian parasites or spores of microsporidia d. Macrophages
c
105
Modified acid-fast staining is important for detection of what? a. PMNs b. Macrophages c. Oocysts of Cryptosporidium
Isospora
106
Modified acid fast stain incorporates what step? a. Malachite green step b. Carbol fuchsin step c. Lugol’s iodine step d. Phenol step
b
107
Modified acid fast stain allows detection of what? a. Acid-fast parasites in addition to other protozoa normally recovered using iron hematoxylin stain b. Eggs with thick shells only c. Helminths in brine flotation d. Trophozoites in iodine
a
108
Coproculture positive stools are mixed with what? a. Ether b. Moistened soil or granulated charcoal c. ZnSO4 solution d. NaOH
b
109
In coproculture soil allows what? a. Growth of parasite b. Shrinkage of eggs c. Staining of nucleus d. Dissolving fats
a
110
Coproculture stimulates what? a. Hospital environment b. Environmental conditions in nature c. Acid-fast conditions d. Anaerobic conditions
b
111
Larvae are harvested using what? a. Stoll method b. Baermann technique/procedure c. Kato-katz technique d. Brine flotation
b
112
In coproculture incubation is how long? a. 1 hour b. 10-20 minutes c. Overnight or for 2 days d. 7 days
c
113
In coproculture after removing the clip what happens? a. Liquid drains into receiving vessel then centrifuged b. Coverslip adheres to dome meniscus c. Slide dried under oil immersion d. Stool sieved through wire mesh
a
114
In coproculture (+) egg develops into what? a. Cyst b. Trophozoite c. Larva d. Oocyst
c
115
Harada Mori/test tube culture method uses what? a. Test tubes and filter paper strips b. Wire mesh and cellophane paper c. Coverslip and dome meniscus d. Stool displacement flask
a
116
In Harada Mori positive stool is applied to what? a. Gauze b. Cellophane paper c. Filter paper d. Glass slide directly
c
117
In Harada Mori the test tube contains about how much water? a. 2 cc b. 5 cc c. 7 cc d. 10 cc
c
118
In Harada Mori according to manual how much is enough? a. 0.5 cc b. 1 cc c. 2 cc d. 7 cc
b
119
In Harada Mori filariform larvae move how? a. Upwards against capillary movement b. Downwards against the upward capillary movement of water c. Float to surface d. Stay in sediment
b
120
In Harada Mori Strongyloides larvae move how? a. Downwards b. Upwards and accumulate at upper end of filter paper strip c. Remain in water at bottom d. Adhere to coverslip
b
121
Egg counting procedures correlate what? a. Stool color with parasite type b. Severity of clinical disease with intensity of infection or worm burden c. Micron measurement with diagnosis d. Clearing time with sensitivity
b
122
Egg counting procedures assess efficacy of what? a. Antibiotics b. Antimalarials c. Anti-helminthics d. Antifungals
c
123
Kato-katz method uses what soaked paper? a. Filter paper soaked in ZnSO4 b. Cellophane paper soaked in glycerin-malachite green solution c. Gauze soaked in ether d. Cover slip soaked in iodine
b
124
Kato-thick differs from Kato-katz because it has no what? a. Cellophane paper b. Wire mesh c. Malachite green d. Glycerin
b
125
Kato-katz is for assessing what? a. Presence of macrophages b. Intensity of infection in schistosomiasis and common soil transmitted helminthiases c. Antigen-antibody complex d. Protozoan trophozoites only
b
126
Kato-katz sensitivity depends mainly on what? a. Cover slip size b. Consistency of the stool c. Amount of ZnSO4 d. Temperature
b
127
Kato-katz can only be done on what stools? a. Fresh formed stools b. Liquid stools c. Preserved stools d. Blood samples
a
128
For identification of Schistosoma ova in Kato-katz what solution can be layered? a. 0.8% saline solution b. 1% eosin solution c. Lugol’s iodine d. Carbol fuchsin
b
129
1% eosin solution can help visualization of what? a. Miracidium b. Nucleus c. Glycogen d. Egg shell thickness
a
130
Stoll egg count uses what stool diluent? a. 0.85% NSS b. 0.1N NaOH c. 0.1N HCl d. 33% ZnSO4
b
131
Stoll egg count uses a stool displacement flask calibrated at what? a. 10 mL and 20 mL b. 56 mL and 60 mL c. 33 mL and 40 mL d. 7 cc and 1 cc
b
132
In Stoll egg count NaOH does what? a. Stains the nucleus b. Saponifies fat and frees eggs from fecal debris c. Preserves eggs d. Prevents bacterial multiplication
b
133
Stoll pipettes are calibrated at what? a. 0.075 ml and 0.15mL b. 50 to 60 mg c. 22x22 mm d. 1.18 to 1.20
a
134
The constant used to multiply total egg count depends on what? a. Incubation time b. Clearing time c. Amount of stool examined d. Stool color
c
135
Perianal swab is used to recover eggs of what? a. Ascaris and Trichuris b. Enterobius vermicularis and Taenia spp. c. Cryptosporidium and Isospora d. Giardia and Cyclospora
b
136
Enterobius gravid female migrates out through the anus at what time? a. Daytime b. Night time c. Noon d. Morning
b
137
Enterobius deposits eggs where? a. Stool lumen b. Intestinal villi c. Perianal skin d. Bloodstream
c
138
Taenia spp. gravid segments can do what? a. Float to surface b. Crawl out of anus c. Move upwards on filter paper d. Become oocysts
b
139
Taenia ova are deposited on what? a. Perianal skin b. Urine c. Blood serum d. Cellophane paper
a
140
Stool screening methods are referred to as what? a. Concentration methods b. Rapid methods c. Permanent stains d. Culture methods
b
141
Stool screening methods advantage is what? a. Highly labor intensive b. Not labor intensive c. Requires ocular micrometer d. Requires 300 fields under oil
b
142
Stool screening kits contain what? a. ZnSO4 b. Monoclonal antibodies c. Ether d. 1% eosin
b
143
Giardia Ag is present in what? a. Ova b. Urine c. Serum only d. WBC
a
144
Anti-Giardia is what in the test kit? a. Antigen b. Antibody c. Clearing solution d. Fixative
b
145
Binding will result to what color? a. Pale green b. Golden yellow c. Burgundy red color d. Deep brown
c
146
A positive result shows what? a. 1 band only b. 2 bands: Positive Control and Test c. No bands d. 3 bands
b
147
Absence of a line on the control indicates what? a. Positive result b. Negative result c. Invalid result d. Weak positive
c
148
Current assays include what? a. Enzyme immunoassay (EIA) b. Direct fluorescent antibody (DFA) c. Membrane flow cartridge techniques d. All of the above
d
149
Stool screening methods are what? a. Not sensitive b. Highly sensitive and specific c. Only specific d. Only sensitive
b
150
Stool screening methods detect what? a. Antigens specific for monoclonal antibodies in test kits b. Only fecal debris c. Only WBC d. Only macrophages
a
151
Stool screening methods are not as technically demanding as what? a. Culture b. Kato thick smear c. O&P examination d. Micrometer calibration
c
152
Stool screening methods detect how many pathogens at a time? a. Many pathogens b. Only one or two pathogens at a time c. All parasites d. All helminths only
b
153
Common sample used is what? a. Blood/serum b. Urine c. CSF d. Saliva
a
154
For stool screening stool is allowed but preferred sample is what? a. Liquid stool only b. Fresh or preserved specimen c. Dried stool only d. Stool from toilet bowl water
b
2MTAP: PARASITOLOGY
flashcards
Decks in class (15)
# Cards
-
Specimen Collection and Processing154
-
Specimen Collection and Processing part 2141
-
Plasmodium and Babesia33
-
Plasmodium and Babesia (Morphology)25
-
Coccidians42
-
Protozoans and Free living Amoebas59
-
Class Mastigaphora and Ciliates42
-
Microscopic Features38
-
Pathology50
-
Other names55
-
Motion5
-
Vectors11
-
Dental Pattern5
-
Diagnostic and Infective Stage70
-
Diagnostic Tests31
