Which of the following can be considered a strength of a study?
✅ Use of an interdisciplinary approach to validate emerging themes
🔹 Concept: Triangulation in qualitative research
• Using multiple coders or an interdisciplinary team (psychiatrists, psychologists, social workers etc.) to discuss and refine themes = triangulation.
• Triangulation = validation → increases credibility and trustworthiness.
• Hence, a major strength in qualitative analysis.
🧠 Qualitative-Research: Strengths vs Weaknesses
STRENGTHS – what increases credibility / validity
&
WEAKNESSES – what reduces reliability / generalisability
✨ Triangulation = gold standard for qualitative rigour
✨ Qualitative aims for depth, not representativeness
✨Reflexivity = acknowledging subjectivity strengthens trustworthiness
✨ MRCPsych loves “thematic analysis verified by multiple coders
✨ Rich data” is a buzzword for qualitative strength
✨Shows methodological transparency
✨Demonstrates procedural rigour
✨In qualitative work, say “transferable,” not “generalizable.”
Which of the following can be considered a weakness of a study?
✅ Using a single interviewer for all interviews
🔹 Concept: Inter-rater variability / Reflexivity bias
• A single interviewer limits variation in data collection and may bias participant responses based on interviewer tone, style, or expectations.
• Using multiple interviewers with calibration can reduce researcher bias and improve reliability.
Biases in Qualitative Research
🧩 1️⃣ Selection Bias
• Definition: Participants are not representative of the population being studied.
• Example: Only interviewing patients who agreed to take part in a psychotherapy evaluation — those with negative experiences may decline.
• Why it matters: Limits transferability of findings.
• SPMM clue: “Carefully selected participants” or “voluntary participation” → selection bias.
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🧩 2️⃣ Recall Bias
• Definition: Participants may not accurately remember past experiences.
• Example: Asking discharged inpatients to recall how safe they felt during admission.
• Prevention: Collect contemporaneous accounts or triangulate data (e.g. use notes, staff interviews).
• SPMM clue: “Interviews conducted after discharge / after treatment” → recall bias.
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🧩 3️⃣ Moderator / Interviewer Bias
• Definition: The interviewer’s tone, phrasing, facial expression, gender, or preconceptions shape participants’ responses.
• Example: Interviewer nods approvingly when a participant says staff were kind → participant gives more positive answers.
• Prevention: Use multiple interviewers, standard topic guides, or reflexive journals.
• SPMM clue: “Single interviewer” → moderator bias.
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🧩 4️⃣ Social Desirability Bias
• Definition: Participants modify responses to appear favourable or avoid judgement.
• Example: Patients report medication adherence more positively than reality.
• Prevention: Assure confidentiality and neutrality.
• SPMM clue: “Sensitive topic” + “face-to-face interview” → social desirability bias.
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🧩 5️⃣ Confirmation Bias
• Definition: Researcher subconsciously looks for data supporting pre-existing beliefs.
• Example: A researcher who believes hospital care is coercive interprets neutral statements as negative.
• Prevention: Reflexivity, triangulation (multiple coders, peer review).
• SPMM clue: “Researcher with prior experience / strong views” → confirmation bias.
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🧩 6️⃣ Attrition Bias
• Definition: Some participants drop out before completion; their views may differ from those who remain.
• Example: In longitudinal interviews, distressed participants withdraw.
• Prevention: Ensure follow-up and analyse dropouts.
• SPMM clue: “Loss of participants over time” → attrition bias.
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🧩 7️⃣ Interpretive Bias
• Definition: Researcher’s personal lens affects interpretation of themes.
• Example: Coding themes based on what the researcher expected to find.
• Prevention: Independent coding by multiple researchers (inter-rater validation).
• SPMM clue: “Themes validated by interdisciplinary team” → mitigates interpretive bias.
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🧩 8️⃣ Publication Bias (less common in qual.)
• Definition: Positive or novel findings more likely to be published.
• Example: Studies finding dissatisfaction with services are more likely to be accepted for publication.
• Prevention: Pre-register studies or publish all findings.
🧠 Mitigation Strategies
- Triangulation
Using multiple researchers, data sources, or methods → ↑ validity
💡 SPMM Exam Tip
When you see:
• “Single interviewer” → Moderator bias
• “Retrospective interview” → Recall bias
• “Participants selected by convenience or staff recommendation” → Selection bias
• “Researcher previously worked in same setting” → Confirmation bias / reflexivity issue
🧩 Types of Qualitative Interview Procedures
🟢 1. Unstructured Interviews
• Definition: Completely open conversation; no fixed questions or time limit.
• Purpose: Explore a topic in depth when little prior knowledge exists.
• Example: “Tell me about your experience of living with schizophrenia.”
• Advantages: Very rich data; spontaneous discoveries.
• Disadvantages: Hard to replicate; data vary greatly between interviews; analysis is complex.
• SPMM clue: “No topic guide,” “free discussion,” “participant led.”
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🟡 2. Semi-Structured Interviews ✅ Most common in psychiatry
• Definition: Guided by a topic guide or list of key questions but flexible follow-up probes allowed.
• Purpose: Balance consistency (between interviews) with depth.
• Example: “How do you feel about your current medication?” → follow-ups depending on response.
• Advantages: Allows comparison and exploration; most compatible with thematic analysis, IPA, grounded theory.
• Disadvantages: Still subject to interviewer bias; requires skilled moderation.
• SPMM clue: Mentions “topic guide,” “time-limited interviews,” “thematic analysis.”
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🔵 3. Structured Interviews
• Definition: Pre-set, standardised questions in fixed order and wording.
• Purpose: Ensure uniformity across participants.
• Used in: Quantitative or mixed-method studies (e.g., SCID, MINI).
• Advantages: Reduces interviewer bias; easy to replicate.
• Disadvantages: Limited depth; may miss new insights.
• SPMM clue: “Closed questions,” “checklist,” “same questions to all.”
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🟣 4. Focus Groups
• Definition: Group interview (6–10 participants) guided by a facilitator.
• Purpose: Explore shared or differing views; observe social dynamics.
• Advantages: Interaction stimulates new ideas; efficient data collection.
• Disadvantages: Dominant voices can bias discussion; confidentiality harder to control.
• SPMM clue: “Group discussion moderated by researcher.”
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🟤 5. Key-Informant Interviews
• Definition: Conducted with people who have special knowledge or experience relevant to the topic.
• Example: Interviewing senior nurses about ward culture.
• Used for: Policy evaluation, service design, or community studies.
💡 Exam Tip
“Researchers used a topic guide and conducted 2-hour interviews that were audio-taped and transcribed. Which type of interview is this?”
✅ Answer: Semi-structured.
A screening test for dementia has a sensitivity of 90% and specificity of 70%.
If 100 people with dementia are tested, how many will be correctly identified?
✅ Answer: D (90)
Explanation: Sensitivity = TP / (TP + FN).
→ 90 % of people with dementia (the diseased group) will test positive.
High-yield: Sensitivity = true positive rate.
⚙️ Step-by-step reasoning
1️⃣ The question says “100 people with dementia.”
That means all 100 in the sample have the disease.
So the outcome we’re looking for is the number of true positives among the diseased group.
2️⃣ The property that tells you how often a test correctly identifies people who have the disease is sensitivity, not specificity.
\text{Sensitivity} = \frac{\text{True Positives}}{\text{True Positives + False Negatives}}
3️⃣ If sensitivity = 90 %, then the test correctly identifies 90 % of those who are actually diseased.
100 \times 0.90 = 90
✅ Answer = 90 patients correctly identified.
⸻
❌ Why it’s not specificity
• Specificity measures how well the test correctly identifies people without the disease (true negatives).
• Here, no one in the question is disease-free — the sample is entirely “people with dementia.”
• Therefore specificity is irrelevant to this calculation.
✨Sensitivity
True positive rate (probability that the test correctly identifies disease).
Sensitivity = TP / (TP + FN)
✨Specificity
True negative rate (probability that the test correctly identifies non-disease).
Specificity = TN / (TN + FP)
Which of the following parameters changes with disease prevalence?
A. Sensitivity
B. Specificity
C. Positive Predictive Value (PPV)
D. Negative Predictive Value (NPV)
E. Both C and D
✅ Answer: E (PPV and NPV)
Explanation:
• Sensitivity & specificity are intrinsic to the test → unchanged by prevalence.
• PPV ↑ as prevalence ↑ ; NPV ↓ as prevalence ↑.
SPMM tip: “Predictive values = Population-dependent.”
✨Positive predictive value (PPV)
Probability that a person with a positive test actually has the disease.
= TP / (TP + FP)
✨Negative predictive value (NPV)
Probability that a person with a negative test truly doesn’t have the disease.
= TN / (TN + FN)
✨Prevalence effect
PPV and NPV change with prevalence, but sensitivity/specificity do not.
=
A test has sensitivity = 80 %. How many patients must be screened to detect 200 true positives?
A. 160 B. 200 C. 240 D. 250 E. 320
✅ Answer: D (250)
Explanation:
Sensitivity= TP / (TP + FN)
SPMM tip: “If question gives sensitivity + # true positives → divide.”
Which of the following statements is true about specificity?
A. It measures the proportion of true positives correctly identified.
B. It is influenced by disease prevalence.
C. It is high in a good screening test.
D. It measures the proportion of true negatives correctly identified.
E. It increases false-positive rate.
✅ Answer: D – proportion of true negatives correctly identified.
Mnemonic: SNOUT = Sensitive test rules OUT; SPIN = Specific test rules IN.
SPMM tip: Screening → high sensitivity; Confirmation → high specificity.
✨Specificity
True negative rate (probability that the test correctly identifies non-disease).
Specificity = TN / (TN + FP)
If the prevalence of dementia increases in a population, what happens to predictive values?
A. PPV ↑ NPV ↓
B. PPV ↓ NPV ↑
C. Both ↑
D. Both ↓
E. No change
Answer: A
Explanation: Higher prevalence = more true positives → higher PPV; fewer true negatives → lower NPV.
SPMM tip: “PPV parallels prevalence.”
Which term describes the probability that a patient with a negative test truly does not have the disease?
A. Specificity
B. NPV
C. PPV
D. Sensitivity
E. Accuracy
Answer: B (Negative Predictive Value)
SPMM tip: “NPV = True negative / All negatives.”
Which term describes the overall ability of a test to correctly classify individuals as diseased or non-diseased?
A. Accuracy
B. Sensitivity
C. Specificity
D. Predictive Value
E. Reliability
A (Accuracy)
Formula: (TP + TN) / (Total Population).
SPMM tip: Don’t confuse accuracy with reliability — reliability = repeatability.
✨Accuracy
- How often the test gives the correct result (both true positives and true negatives) out of all tested individuals
- (TP + TN) / (TP + TN + FP + FN)
- Freedom from systematic error (bias)
- Intrinsic to the test (not dependent on prevalence if sensitivity/specificity remain constant)
- 🎯 Hitting the bull’s-eye
- “How overall correct the test is.”
✨Reliability (Precision)
- How consistent or repeatable a test result is under the same conditions
- Freedom from random error (noise)
- 🎯 Arrows hitting the same spot, even if not the bull’s-eye
- “Consistency”
✨If the stem says “overall ability,” “overall proportion,” or “both true positives and true negatives,”
→ Answer = Accuracy.
✨If the stem says “probability that a positive test reflects true disease,”
→ Answer = Predictive Value.
A new Alzheimer’s screening tool has sensitivity 95 %, specificity 60 %. Which of the following will happen if it’s used in a low-prevalence population?
A. PPV will decrease
B. NPV will decrease
C. PPV will increase
D. Sensitivity will decrease
Answer: A (PPV ↓)
Explanation: When disease is rare, most positives are false → low PPV.
SPMM tip: “Low prevalence → many false positives and NPV ↑.”
A test gives 80 true positives, 10 false negatives, 90 true negatives, and 20 false positives.
What is its accuracy?
A. 70 %
B. 80 %
C. 85 %
D. 90 %
E. 95 %
Answer: C (85 %)
Accuracy means:
How often the test is correct overall
Formula:
Accuracy = (TP + TN) / Total
So we only count the correct results.
Correct results are:
• True positives
• True negatives
A new cognitive screening test for dementia produces highly consistent results when repeated by the same assessor, but tends to overestimate impairment compared to gold-standard neuropsychological testing.
Which statement best describes this test?
A. Reliable but not accurate
B. Accurate but not reliable
C. Both reliable and accurate
D. Neither reliable nor valid
E. Valid but not reliable
Reliable but not accurate
Reason:
Results are consistent (reliable) but systematically wrong (not accurate).
A new mood rating scale gives very similar scores when repeated by the same rater on different days, but the scores are consistently higher than patients’ clinician-rated Hamilton Depression scores.
What best describes this test?
A. Reliable but not valid
B. Valid but not reliable
C. Both reliable and valid
D. Neither reliable nor valid
E. Accurate and valid
Answer: A – Reliable but not valid
• Repeatedly consistent → reliable.
• Consistently wrong (systematic bias) → not valid/accurate.
📘 Ref: Kaplan & Sadock, Research Methods; SPMM Topic 12.1
In a study of cognitive testing, two psychologists independently administer the same test and obtain highly correlated scores.
This indicates good …
A. Internal validity
B. Test–retest reliability
C. Inter-rater reliability
D. Construct validity
E. External validity
✅ Answer: C – Inter-rater reliability
Measures consistency between different raters.
📘 Ref: Streiner & Norman, Health Measurement Scales.
When a depression scale correlates strongly with another established depression inventory but not with an anxiety scale, this demonstrates …
A. Face validity
B. Construct validity
C. Discriminant validity
D. Content validity
E. Internal reliability
✅ Answer: C – Discriminant validity
Shows the tool distinguishes between related but different constructs.
This pattern demonstrates:
Construct validity
More specifically:
• Convergent validity → strong correlation with similar constructs
• Discriminant validity → weak correlation with different constructs
Both together support construct validity.
⸻
Correct answer
👉 Construct validity
⸻
Why examiners like this question
Because they test the two clues:
Strong correlation with similar measure → convergent validity
Weak correlation with different measure → discriminant validity
Together → construct validity
A screening test for dementia correctly classifies both diseased and non-diseased individuals 88 % of the time.
What property does this describe?
A. Sensitivity
B. Specificity
C. Accuracy
D. Reliability
E. Validity
C – Accuracy
Overall proportion of true positives + true negatives.
📘 Ref: Altman Practical Statistics for Medical Research.
A clinician rates depression severity using the same scale on two occasions a week apart. Scores are strongly correlated (r = 0.91).
What does this indicate?
A. Good internal consistency
B. High test–retest reliability
C. Excellent concurrent validity
D. High face validity
E. Good external validity
✅ Answer: B – High test–retest reliability
Shows stability of results over time.
📘 Ref: SPMM QBank Section 12; Kaplan Research Methods.
🧠 Types of Reliability
✨Test–Retest Reliability
Same test → same person → two time points → consistent scores
A patient scores 20/30 on MMSE today and 21/30 next week
“Stability over time”
✨Inter-Rater Reliability
Two or more observers give similar ratings
Two psychiatrists rating PANSS obtain similar scores
“Agreement between raters”
✨Intra-Rater Reliability
Same rater scores consistently across occasions
One psychologist re-scoring the same session
“Consistency by one rater”
✨Internal Consistency
Items within the scale measure the same construct
Cronbach’s α ≥ 0.7 → good consistency
“Homogeneity of items”
✨Split-Half Reliability
Correlation between halves of one test
Odd vs even items compared
“Half-half correlation”
🧠 Types of Validity
✨Face Validity
Appears to measure what it claims (superficial)
Beck Depression Inventory looks like it measures depression
“Looks right”
✨Content Validity
Covers all relevant aspects of the construct
Exam Qs sampling all syllabus topics
“Covers full domain”
✨Construct Validity
Correlates with related theoretical concepts (convergent + discriminant)
New anxiety scale correlates with existing anxiety scales (convergent) but not with unrelated scales (discriminant)
“Theoretical soundness”
✨Criterion Validity
Correlates with an external criterion or gold standard
Mini-Mental Score correlates with neuropsych assessment
“Compared with gold standard”
- Concurrent Validity
Type of criterion validity; criterion measured at same time
PHQ-9 vs clinician diagnosis today
“Same-time correlation”
- Predictive Validity
Type of criterion validity; criterion measured in future
IQ test predicting school performance
“Forecasts future”
✨Ecological Validity
Results generalise to real-world setting
Lab test reflecting actual ward performance
“Real-world applicability”
External Validity
Results generalise to other populations/settings
Trial findings apply to general clinical population
“Generalisation”
✨Internal Validity
Extent study minimises bias/confounding
RCT with randomisation/blinding
“Control of bias
Cronbach’s α = 0.90 for a new anxiety inventory.
What does this signify?
A. High test–retest reliability
B. Good internal consistency
C. High inter-rater agreement
D. Good construct validity
E. High ecological validity
Internal consistency
Cronbach’s α ≥ 0.7 = items measure the same underlying construct.
📘 Ref: Streiner & Norman, Health Measurement Scales.
A new cognitive test correlates highly with MMSE scores taken on the same day.
A. Construct validity
B. Predictive validity
C. Concurrent validity
D. Internal consistency
E. External validity
✅ Answer: C – Concurrent validity
Criterion validity subtype; compared with gold standard at same time.